Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST 2 (28.01.2026)
REVISION TEST-IIIMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
PHYSICS
1. 0.052. -0.05 A3. 0.1A4. -0.1 A
1. 10 m/s22. 5 m/s23. 15 m/s24. Zero
1. 16 J2. 1.6 J3. 160 J4. 16 kJ
1. 3.1 eV2. 2.1 eV3. 1 eV4. 3 eV
1. (a) and (b) only2. (b) and (c) only3. (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
1. 25 m/s2. 40 m/s3. 31.25 m/s 4. 12.5 m/s
1. 19.2 W 2. 19.2 kW3. 19.2 J 4. 12.2 kW
1. 0.15 N-m2. 0.20 N-m3. 0.24 N-m4. 0.12 N-m
CHEMISTRY
1. 1.214 × 10-7 m2. 816 × 10-10 m3. 6500 × 10-17 m4. 0.5 × 10-13 mDeselect Answer
58. Consider the given two statements:Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy aluminum is lower than that magnesium.Reason (R): Ionic radius of aluminum cation ( Al3+) is smaller than that of magnesium cation ( Mg2+)1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)3. (A) is True but (R) is False4. Both (A) and (R) are FalseDeselect Answer
59. What is the correct increasing order of basicity for the following compounds in aqueous solution?1. (D) < (C) < (B) < (A)2. (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)3. (A)< (B) < (C) < (D)4. (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)Deselect Answer
60. The product formed in the following reaction will be:Deselect Answer
61. Which of the following combinations can be used to prepare a buffer solution?I. Sodium acetate and acetic acid in waterII. Sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in waterIII. Ammonia and ammonium chloride in waterIV. Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water.1. I, III, IV2. III, IV3. I, II, IV4. I, IIIDeselect Answer
64.
Which bond is most reactive towards the attack of H+ ?1. A2. B 3. C4. All x bonds have same reactivity
65. The three cells with their values are given below:The standard Gibbs free energy change values for three cells are, respectively:(F represents the charge on 1 mole of electrons.)Deselect Answer
66. Which compound among the following exhibits the fastest rate of dehydration?Deselect Answer
67. Match column I with column II:Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S2. A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q3. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q4. A-S, B-R, C-Q.D-P
68. The molecular geometry of Xe F5+ will be: 1. Square pyramidal2. Square planar3. Trigonal bipyramidal4. OctahedralDeselect Answer
82. Deselect Answer
83. Which of the following statements does not hold true?1. Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.2. In its higher oxidation states, manganese forms stable compounds with oxygen and fluorine.3. Mn³+ and Co³+ are oxidising agents in aqueous solution.4. Ti2+ and Cr2+ are reducing agents in aqueous solution.Deselect Answer
84. Which of the following cannot act both as a Bronsted acid and as a Bronsted base?Deselect Answer
Codes:
A B C D1. R S P Q2. R S Q P3. S R P Q4. S R Q P
Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST 1 (24.01.2026)
3. Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15. (take g =10 ms–2)
4. Select the correct option based on the statements below:Assertion (A): The escape velocities of planets A and B are the same. But A and B are of unequal mass.Reason (R): The product of their mass and radius must be the same, M1R1 = M2R2.
5. The effective resistance in the following circuit across terminal A and B is equal to:1. 5Ω 2. 10 Ω 3. 20 Ω 4. 40 Ω
1) 1.2cm2) 1.2mm3) 2.4cm4) 2.4mm
7. A student, while performing an experiment with a sonometer with bridges separated by a distance of 80 cm, missed some of the observations. However, he claimed that the three resonant frequencies for a given tuning fork were 84 Hz, 140 Hz and 224 Hz. The speed of transverse waves on the wire is:
8. A block of mass is slowly taken vertically upward over a large distance h in the earth’s gravitational field, starting from its surface. The gravitational field at its final destination is g/27, where g is the field at the earth’s surface. The work done in the process is:
9. In the circuit shown, each light bulb has a resistance of 20 Ω and the potential source is 6 V. How much energy is dissipated by light bulb-2 in 10 s?1. 18 J2. 120 J3. 200 J 4. 1200 J
10. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:
11. Two particles, A & B move along the -axis (as shown in the figure) with their initial velocities uA and uB their accelerations aA and aB (constant accelerations). Their relative separation is s measured from A towards B with the initial condition as depicted in the figure. Match the conditions mentioned in Column-I with the corresponding correct graph of in Column-II.
12. A uniform rod AB of mass M and length L, rotates about an axis passing through the end-point A, the axis of rotation being perpendicular to the rod AB. Let, the velocity of the centre-of-mass C be v. The kinetic energy of the rod is:
13. A bob of mass m attached to an inextensible string of length l is suspended from a vertical support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed rad/s about the vertical. About the point of suspension:
14. A parallel beam of light is incident onto a convex lens and after passing through the lens, it gets reflected from a plane mirror and passes through the lens again. The focal length of the lens is f. Where should the mirror be placed so that the final beam emerges parallel?
15. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is:
18. Newton’s Third Law states, “To every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction“. This means that a rope will pull on a mass with the same magnitude of force that the mass pulls back on the rope! Why is a mass able to move from rest when tension is applied to an attached rope?
19. The average translational kinetic energy of molecules in a sample of oxygen gas at 300K is 6.21×10−21 J. The corresponding value at 600K is: (assume ideal gas behaviour)1. 12.42×10−21 J2. 6.21×10−21 J3. 8.78×10−21 J 4. 7.89×10−21 J
21. A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at point P with the angle of incidence 300 as shown in the figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive index of the prism is:
22. An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B along two different paths:(i) the direct isothermal path AB(ii) the path ACB where AC is isochoric and is CB isobaric.These paths are shown on the standard P-V indicator diagram. The temperature at C is 300 K.The volume of the gas at B is V1, then,
23. A block of kg is released from the top of a smooth curve AB, and then it encounters a rough surface coming to rest at C. (take g =10 m/s2). Work done by fictional force is-
24. A dipole with a dipole moment is placed at a distance p r from a point charge Q (as shown in the figure). Which of the following statements is incorrect?
25. Three parallel conducting plates of area A (each) are placed with small separations d, 4d (as shown in the figure) and the two outer plates are connected by a conducting wire. The capacitance between plates I and II (in this configuration) is:
26. A mass is suspended from a vertical string in the cabin of a lift moving uniformly upwards. The tension in the string is:1. T = T02. T > T03. T < T0 4. T = 2T0
27. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field and electric field intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave in free space of permeability μ0 and permittivity ε0.
Deselect Answer
29. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively 1×1010 N/m2 and 52×1010 N/m2. A brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same force; the radii of brass and steel wires RB are RS and respectively. Then:
30. Given that the displacement of a particle is given by, x=A2 sin2 kt, where denotes t the time. The unit of k is:1. hertz 2. metre3. radian 4. second
31. A resistance R draws power P when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power drawn will be:
32. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 Ω all connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 Ω and a shunt of 20 Ω, then the reading in the ammeter will be:1. 0.5 A 2. 0.02 A3. 2 A4. 1 A
33. Given below are two statements:Assertion (A): The coil is bound over the metallic frame in the moving coil galvanometer.Reason (R): The metallic frame helps in making steady deflection without any oscillation.1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).3. (A) is True but (R) is False.4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
34. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 → n2 where n1 and n2 are principal quantum numbers of the two states. Assuming Bohr’s model to be valid, the time period of the electron in the initial state is 8 times that in the final state. The possible values of and are:
35. If the volume of an ideal gas is doubled, isothermally, the final pressure is 1 atm. If the process was adiabatic, the pressure would have been:1. 1 atm 2. 0.5 atm3. less than 1 atm 4. greater than 1 atm
36. A conducting sphere of the radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are:
37. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an AC voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is tan-1√3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again tan-1√3. The power factor of the circuit is:
38. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the light of 500 mm is used to produce, an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the screen is close to:
39. A plane EM wave of frequency 30 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time is E = 6 V/m along y-direction. Its magnetic field component B at this point would be:1. 2×10-8 T along z- direction2. 2×10-8 T along y-direction3. 3×10-8 T along x-direction4. 6×10-8 T along z-direction
40. A pulse is generated at the lower end of a hanging rope of uniform density and length L. The speed of the pulse, when it reaches the mid-point of the rope is:
41. An uncharged spherical conducting shell of outer radius R has two-point charges q1, q2 placed within it. The flux of the electric field due to all charges from the outer surface of the sphere is ϕ0 while the potential of the sphere is V0. The ratio ϕ0 / V0 is proportional to:1. √R2. R3. R24. 1/R2.
42. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:1. 5 λ 2. 5λ/23. 3λ 4. 4λ
43. A circuit to verify Ohm’s law uses ammeter and voltmeter in series or parallel connected correctly to the resistor. In the circuit:1. The ammeter is always connected in series and the voltmeter is in parallel.2. Both the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in series.3. Both the ammeter and voltmeter must be connected in parallel.4. The ammeter is always connected in parallel and the voltmeter is in series.
44. A ray of light is incident on the spherical interface separating two media: medium-1 (refractive index – μ1) and medium – 2 (refractive index – μ2). It travels parallel to the principal axis, undergoes two consecutive reflections and then emerges opposite to its initial direction. The centre-of-curvature C and the pole P are shown in the figure.
The angle of incidence of the ray at the surface is:1. 0 2. 903. 454. 135
45. An average induced EMF of 0.2 V appears in a coil when the current in it is changed from 5.0 A in one direction to 5.0 A in the opposite direction within 0.2s. The self‐inductance of the coil will be:1. 4.0×10−3 H 2. 4.0×10−4 H3. 2.0×10−3 H 4. 2.0×10−4 H
CHEMISTRY46. Assertion (A): Ce4+ is a good analytical reagent Reason (R): Ce4+ has the tendency to change to Ce3+.1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).3. (A) is True but (R) is False.4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
47. For a first-order reaction:the value of x will (based on information given): (Report your answer to the nearest integer)1. 14 2. 16 3. 184. 20
48. Reagents that can be used to convert alcohols to carboxylic acids are:(A) CrO3 – H2SO4 (B) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO(C) KMnO4 + KOH/H3O+ (D) Cu, 573 K(E) CrO3+ (CH3CO)2OChoose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:1. (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (B), (D) and (E) only3. (A), (B) and (C) only 4. (A), (B) and (E) only
49. Which of the following statements about Potash alum is incorrect?
50. Match the metals Column-I with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s) Column-II and mark the correct option:1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)2. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)3. (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)4. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
51. The IUPAC name of the given compound is:
52. The equilibrium expression below corresponds to which of the following reactions?
53. Which of the following equation represents a reaction that provides the enthalpy of the formation of CH3Cl?
54. Semicarbazide, among the following, is:
55. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:1. HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl2. HNO3 , NO, NH4Cl, N23. HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N24. NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3.
56. Number of atoms present in 0.224 dm3 PH3 at STP will be: (NA = Avogadro’s number)
57. The solubility of phenol in water is lower. This can be attributed to:
58. The compound that will undergo reaction with the fastest rate is:
59. Match the acids given in Column I with their correct IUPAC names given in Column II and mark the appropriate option:
60. Which acid of each pair shown here would you expect to be stronger?
61. Which among the following have single unpaired electron?
62. Arrange the following alcohols in order of increasing reactivity towards sodium metal:
63. Which of the following structures represents cytosine?
64. The molar conductivity of a solution of AgNO3 (considering the given data for this solution) at 298 K is:(a) Concentration: 0.5 mol/dm3 (b) Electrolytic conductivity: 5.76×10–3 S cm–1
65. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
66. Number of isomers of [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4) complex are:
67. Which of the following options is the correct IUPAC name for the given compound?1. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene2. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene3. 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene4. 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
68. The ratio of the number of electrons gained by acidified KMnO4 and acidified K2Cr2O7, respectively, in the given reaction is:1. 5:6 2. 6:53. 3:54. 5:3
69. The value of Kc of the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2×10-3. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = [B] =[C] = 3×10-4 M. Select the correct option:
70. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is:1. (CH3)2CH < (CH3)3 C < (C6H5)2 CH < (C6H5)32. (C6H5)3 C < (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 CH3. (C6H5)2CH < (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2CH4. (CH3)2CH < (CH3)3C < (C6H5)3C < (C6H5)2CH
71. Elements that generally exhibit multiple oxidation states and whose ions in an aqueous medium are usually colored are:
72. The molecules that will have non-zero dipole moment are:(a) 2,2-Dimethylpropane(b) Trans-2-pentene(c) Cis-3-hexene(d) 2,2,3,3-TetramethylbutaneChoose the correct option:
73. What type of reaction is demonstrated by the process involving a carboxylic acid, an alcohol, and an acid that results in the formation of esters?1. Reversible slow process2. Irreversible fast process3. Cyclic process4. Adiabatic process
74. The quantum numbers for the electron spin represent:1. Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise directions, respectively.2. Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise directions, respectively. and down, respectively.3. The magnetic moment of the electrons pointing up4. Two quantum mechanical spin states that have no classical analogues.
75. The bond order of B2 is one. The type of bond and magnetic behaviour of B2, respectively, are:
76. What is the solubility product of AuCl3, solubility of gold (III) chloride is 1×10−4gL−1?[Given: molar mass = 303.3 g/mol]
77. Given below are two statements:Assertion (A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular massReason (R): Ethers are polar in nature.
78. The pair of lanthanoid ions, consisting of elements which are diamagnetic, is:
79. Among the following, the intensive properties are: a. Molar conductivity b. Electromotive force c. Resistance d. Heat capacity
80. The strongest Bronsted base among the following ions is:
81. Assertion (A): A reaction of 2-Bromo-2-methyl propane with sodium methoxide gives 2-Methylpropene. Reason (R): Alkoxides are nucleophiles.Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
82. For a chemical reaction, 4A + 3B → 6C + 9D rate of formation of C is 6 × 10–2mol L–1s–1 and rate of disappearance of A is 4 × 10–2 mol L–1s–1. The rate of reaction and amount of B consumed in interval of 10 seconds, respectively will be:
83. Insulin is a type of protein. How many amino acids makeup insulin?
84. The d-electron configuration of [Ru(en)3]Cl2 and [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2, respectively are:
85. From the following select the one which is not an example of corrosion:
86. The number of C-atoms in the second member of an ester are:
87. In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and hyperconjugation operate?
88. Which of the following statements about primary amines is false?
89. Among the following ligands, which is expected to make complexes with maximum absorption of visible light
1) Halogens (X)2) CN–3) H2O 4) NH3
90. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl exhibits1) Optical isomerism2) Geometrical isomerism3) Both Optical and Geometrical isomerism4) None of the aboveDeselect Answer
BIOLOGY
91. Identify the incorrect statement:1. Respiratory substrates can be carbohydrates, proteins or fats. 2. Proteins can directly enter the Krebs cycle without deamination. 3. Fats undergo beta-oxidation to form Acetyl-CoA. 4. The breakdown of carbohydrates is the most common respiratory substrate.
92. China rose:1. belongs to Brassicaceae 2. has parietal placentation 3. has monoadelphous stamen 4. has valvate aestivation
93. Regarding anaphase I and anaphase II of meiosis, which statement is accurate?1. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I, while sister chromatids separate in anaphase I 2. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase I, while homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase II. 3. Both homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids separate in anaphase I. 4. No separation occurs in anaphase II.
94. All species have evolved to adopt the most effective reproductive strategy for themselves. For example, pelagic fish produce:1. a large number of small-sized offspring 2. a small number of small-sized offspring 3. a large number of large-sized offspring 4. a small number of large-sized offspring
95. Humus:1. a large number of small-sized offspring 2. a small number of small-sized offspring 3. a large number of large-sized offspring 4. a small number of large-sized offspring
96. Which of the following statements will be true regarding the effect of mutations in the components of the lac operon of E.coli [assume mutations will lead to loss of function in the affected gene]? I: A mutation in the i gene will lead to a stoppage of transcription of the operon. II: A mutation in the z gene will lead to an inability in E.coli to hydrolyze the disaccharide, lactose. III: A mutation in the y gene will lead to an inability in E.coli to pick up lactose from its surroundings.1. Only I and II are correct 2. Only I and III are correct 3. Only II and III are correct 4. I, II and III are correct
97. “Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually” – the statement is often described as:1. Gause ‘s competitive exclusion principle 2. Connell’s competitive release hypothesis 3. McArthur’s resource partitioning hypothesis 4. Humboldt’s species – area relationship
98. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
99. At the end of the S phase during the cell cycle in a typical eukaryotic animal cell [having 2N chromosome number and 2C DNA content at the G1 phase]:1. The chromosome number and DNA content remain 2N and 2C respectively 2. The chromosome number and DNA content are 4N and 2C respectively 3. The chromosome number and DNA content are 2N and 4C respectively 4. The chromosome number and DNA content are 4N and 4C respectively
100. During the formation of a monosporic embryo sac in angiosperms, the functional megaspore undergoes:1. two mitotic divisions 2. two meiotic divisions 3. three meiotic divisions 4. three mitotic division
101. The number of oxygen molecules used and carbon dioxide produced during the glycolysis pathway, respectively, are:1. 0 and 02. 1 and 13. 3 and 3 4. 6 and 6
102. Consider the given two statements regarding the electron transport systemin mitochondria: Statement I: NADH dehydrogenase is complex I Statement II: ATP synthase is complex IV.1. Only Statement I is correct. 2. Only Statement II is correct. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
103. Match List-I with List-II:Choose the correct answer from the option given below
104. The cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells is composed of which of the following structures?1. Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments 2. Centriloles, ribosomes and microtubules 3. Nucleus, mitochondria and lysosomes 4. Golgi apparatus ER and cytoplasm
105. Miller and his co-workers (1954) isolated and purified the cell division substance in crystallised from autoclaved herring fish sperm DNA . This Active compound was a1. Cytokinin 2. Gibberellin 3. Inhibin 4. Auxin
106. Which of the following statements best describes the broadly utilitarian argument for biodiversity conservation?1. Biodiversity provides essential ecosystem services, such as oxygen production, pollination, climate regulation, and waste decomposition, which are crucial for human survival 2. Biodiversity has aesthetic and cultural significance, making its conservation important for future generations 3. Biodiversity should be conserved only when it has direct economic benefits, such as medicinal plants and food crops. 4. Conserving biodiversity is necessary because each species has an intrinsic right to exist, independent of human use
107. Stomatal apparatus in the epidermal tissue system of plants consists of1. Only stomatal aperture and guard cells but not subsidiary cells.2. Only stomatal aperture but not guard cells and subsidiary cells. 3. Only guard cells and subsidiary cells but not stomatal aperture. 4. Stomatal aperture, guard cells and subsidiary cells but not other epidermal cells.
108. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to:1. mutualism 2. Anemsalism 3. commensalim 4. paraitism
109. Consider the given two statements: Statement I: Net primary productivity (NPP) is the amount of energy that primary producers create minus the energy they use to grow and survive Statement II: Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy that primary producers create.1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
110. Grass plants can regenerate their leaves even after the upper parts are grazed by herbivores or cut by a lawnmower. Which of the following best explains this ability?1. The presence of apical meristems at the tips of leaves ensures continuous primary growth. 2. Lateral meristems in stems promote secondary growth, allowing the plant to recover quickly. 3. Intercalary meristems located at the base of leaves or internodes enable growth even after the apical portion is removed. 4. Phellogen (cork cambium) replaces damaged tissues and initiates new leaf growth.
111. Consider the given two statements: Assertion (A): Endosperm development precedes embryo Endosperm development precedes embryo development in angiosperms Reason (R): Endosprem is triploid and zygote is diploid in anbgiosprems1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). 3. (A) is True; (R) is False 4. Both (A) and (R) are False
112. The length of DNA is: I. usually defined as number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred to as base pairs) present in it. II. is the characteristic of an organism1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
113. Consider the given two statements: Assertion (A): Inbreeding increases the chances of offspring being affected by recessive traits Reason (R): Inbreeding increases the proportion of homozygous individuals in a population.1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). 3. is True but (R) is False. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
114. For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle1. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required. 2. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required. 3. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required. 4. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required
115. The central dogma of molecular biology is:1. DNA → RNA → Protein 2. Protein → RNA → DNA 3. RNA → DNA → Protein 4. DNA → Protein → RNA
116. Which of the following statements is not correct?1. Pyramid of energy is always upright. 2. Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is upright. 3. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. 4. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
117. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?1. It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance. 2. It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community. 3. It might lead to the extinction of species. 4. Both the interacting species are negatively impacted.
118. The number of correct statements from the given statements is: I. Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. II. The majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus III. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3
119. In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway, A and B respectively represent1. Mesophyll cells and Bundle sheath cells 2. Bundle sheath cells and Mesophyll cells 3. Bundle sheath cells and Palisade cells 4. Mesophyll cells and Guard cells
120. What is the primary significance of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?1. It increases the chromosome number. 2. It ensures genetic stability by producing diploid gametes. 3. It conserves the chromosome number across generation. 4. It Reduce genetic variability in offspring.
121. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:1. Autogamy and geitonogamy 2. Geitonogamy and xenogamy 3. Cleistogamy and xenogamy 4. Autogamy and xenogamy
122. Humification in soil leads to the formation of humus. What is a unique characteristic of humus?1. It is highly resistant to microbial action and decomposes slowly. 2. It decomposes quickly and serves as an immediate source of nutrients. 3. It is composed mainly of sugars and nitrogen-rich compounds. 4. It only forms in low-temperature environments.
123. The sobriquet “Lungs of the planet Earth” is used for:1. Western Ghats in India 2. Alpine tundra 3. Amazon rainforest 4. Khasi and Jaintia Hills
124. Regarding Pteridophytes: I. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous II. Dryopteris, Pteris, and Adiantum belong to Pteropsi1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
125. Consider the given two statements – an Assertion [A] and a Reason [R] – and select the correct option as your answer: A: Monocots do not form secondary tissues R: The vascular bundles have no cambium present in them.1. Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not correctly explain Assertion 2. Assertion is true; Reason is false 3. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly explains Assertion 4. Assertion is false; Reason is true
126. Identify the pair that is characterised by the presence of a well-developed pith:1. Monocot stem and dicot root 2. Monocot and dicot stems 3. Dicot stem and dicot root 4. Dicot stem and monocot root
127. The microsporangia in a typical angiosperm anther develop into which structures?1. Floral primordium 2. Ovules 3. Sepals 4. Pollen sacs
128. Consider the given two statements Assertion (A): Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. Reason (R): Meiosis leads to the formation of gametes or spores and the gamete and the spores are haploid.1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) 2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A) 3. is True, (R) is False 4. is False, (R) is False
129. When the centromere is located close to the end of a chromosome, the chromosome is known as:1. Sub-metacentric2. Acrocentric 3. Metacentric 4. Telocentric
130. Consider the given two statements: I. Water splitting complex is associated with PSII in photosynthetic plants. II. Chlorophyll a reaction center in PSII is called as P6801. Only I 2. Only II 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Neither I nor II
131. The ladybird beetle and dragonflies are useful in biological pest control because they help in controlling:1. Aphids and mosquitoes, respectively 2. Caterpillars and fruit flies, respectively 3. Nematodes and aphids, respectively 4. Termites and locusts, respectively
132. What is the key concept behind plant tissue culture?1. Growing plants from seeds in a nutrient rich solution 2. Growing whole plants from explants in a sterile nutrient medium. 3. Reproducing plants by using their fruits and seeds in controlled conditions. 4. Crossbreeding two different plant species to create hybrids.
133. Identify the Incorrect Statement:1. Plant growth is an irreversible increase in size, accompanied by metabolic processes. 2. The process of differentiation involves only morphological changes. 3. Apical meristems are responsible for primary growth in plants. 4. Development in plants is under the control of both intrinsic and extrinsic factors
134. Age pyramids are graphical representations that show the population distribution of:1. Different species within an ecosystem. 2. Males and females in a population. 3. Various age groups within a population. 4. The population density of different habitats.
135. Which of the following represents an ectoparasite?1. Tapeworm in human intestine 2. Tick on a dog 3. Liver fluke in a fish 4. Malarial parasite in blood cells
136. What is the term used to describe the vertical distribution of different species occupying various levels in an ecosystem?1. Zonation 2. Species composition 3. Biotic interaction 4. Stratification
137. Which of the following enzymes initiates the glycolytic pathway by converting glucose to glucose-6- phosphate, and requires ATP for this reaction?1. Invertase 2. Hexokinase 3. Pyruvic dehydrogenase 4. Alcohol dehydrogenase
138. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in:1. African grasslands 2. Amazonian rain forest in South America 3. Western Ghats in India 4. Nile delta in Egypt
139. The untranslated regions: I. are present at only the 5’ end of the mature mRNA in eukaryotes II. are not required during translation and hence are spliced out of the mature mRNA1. Only I is correct2. Only II is correct3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
140. On average, only about what percent of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level?1. 1%2. 10% 3. 40%4. 90%
141. Consider the two statements: Statement I: An undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm and the mesoderm in diploblastic organisms. Statement II: A third germinal layer, endoderm, in between the ectoderm and mesoderm, is present in triploblastic animals.1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
142. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:1. Vitamin-B 2. Vitamin-C 3. Omega 3 4. Vitamin-A
143. In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:1. At the time of fertilization and by the father 2. At the time of fertilization and by the mother 3. At the time of implantation and by the father 4. At the time of implantation and by the mother
144. Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): HIV infection leads to a progressive decrease in the number of helper T- lymphocytes in the body. Reason (R): HIV replicates inside helper T- lymphocytes, producing progeny viruses that destroy these cells.1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3. is True but (R) is False. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
145. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:Codes:
146. Capacitation occurs in:1. Epididymis 2. Vas deference 3. Female reproductive tract 4. Rete testis
147. Consider the given two statements I. Infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI) technique. II. In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra- uterine insemination) of the female.1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect
148. In which class do animals possess an elongated body without jaws, paired fins, or scales, and are parasitic on fishes?1. Cephalochordata 2. Urochordata 3. Cyclostomata 4. Cartilaginous Fishes
149. Corpus callosum connects1. The two lateral ventricles 2. The third and the fourth ventricles 3. The two cerebral hemispheres 4. The cerebellum with the rest of the brain
150. Hormones which interact with intracellular receptors: I. include steroid hormones and iodothyronines. II. mostly regulate gene expression or chromosome function by the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome.1. Both I and II are correct 2. Both I and II are incorrect 3. I is correct, II is incorrect 4. I is incorrect, II is correct
151. Where is the antigen binding site present in an antibody molecule?1. between the two light chains 2. between the two heavy chains 3. between the light and the heavy chains 4. at the very end of the antibody molecules [at their C terminus]
152. A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now extinct, having a cranial capacity of about 900 cc was:1. Homo erectus2. Neanderthal man 3. Homo sapiens 4. Australopithecus
153. A nucleic acid that contains nucleotides from two different heterologous sources (species) is called as:1. B DNA2. rDNA3. mRNA 4. tRNA
154. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?1. Oxygen2. Hydrogen3. Water vapour 4. Methane
155. The vocal sacs in male frogs serve to1. Amplify sound to attract females during the breeding season. 2. Store oxygen for cutaneous respiration. 3. Secrete digestive enzymes for prey capture. 4. Control the flow of water into the lungs during respiration.
156. Which of the following statements about recombinant DNA technology and insulin production is correct?1. Insulin from animal sources is identical to human insulin and does not cause allergic reactions. 2. Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone in humans, requiring processing to become active. 3. Recombinant insulin production involves a single DNA sequence encoding both A and B chains of insulin. 4. Bacteria used for recombinant insulin production produce mature insulin directly without further processing.
157. If the % weight of elements in Earth’s crust and human body are compared, all the following will have a higher % composition in human body except:1. Carbon 2. Oxygen 3. Nitrogen 4. Calcium
158. Which of the following characteristic features always hold true for the corresponding group of animals?1. a 2. b3. c 4. dDeselect Answer
159. Which of the following statements accurately describes the male reproductive system of a frog?1. The testes produce eggs and are attached to kidneys. 2. The male frog has a pair of testes which are connected to the ventral side of the kidneys by a structure called mesorchium. 3. The testes produce spermatozoa, and the reproductive process is facilitated by a pair of seminal vesicles. 4. The vasa efferentia transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.Deselect Answer
160. Identify the correct statement1. α amino acids are substituted methanes 2. Only triglycerides are lipids that are both macromolecules as well as polymers 3. Cellulose forms secondary helical structures and can hold iodine molecules in the helical portion 4. Every virus will have both DNA and RNA as its genetic materialDeselect Answer
161. In terms of partial pressures, what is the primary driving force for the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli into the blood?1. The concentration gradient of O2 between the blood and alveoli 2. The thickness of the diffusion membrane 3. The concentration of CO2 in the blood 4. The presence of high levels of nitrogen in the alveoliDeselect Answer
162. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them?1. Pteropus and Ornithorhynchus– Viviparity 2. Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart 3. Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation 4. Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (poikilothermal)Deselect Answer
163. Match the number of bones to the parts in adult humans:1. A-i, B-ii, C-iii 2. A-ii, B-iii, C-i 3. A-iii, B-i, C-ii 4. A-ii, B-i, C-iiiDeselect Answer
164. Which of the following is not a selectable marker of cloning vectors?1. Ampicillin 2. Metformin 3. Chloramphenicol 4. TetracyclineDeselect Answer
165. The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are called somaclones because:1. They can be produced in a very short span of time 2. They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two cells 3. The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce genetically identical plantlets 4. They are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grownDeselect Answer
166. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects the plant through its;1. Chromosomal DNA 2. Complementary DNA 3. F plasmid 4. Ti plasmidDeselect Answer
167. The excretory system of a frog consists of all of the following, except:1. a pair of kidneys 2. a pair of urethra 3. a single median cloaca 4. urinary bladderDeselect Answer
(a) (b) (c) (d)1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Welcome to your NEET COMBINE TEST (17.01.2026)
Combined TestImportant Instruction
1. 1) Zero 2) 0.244 Nm 3) 24.4 Nm 4) 2.444 Nm
3. If the K.E. of a body is increased by 300%, its momentum will increase by
1) 100 %2) 15 %3) √300% 4) 17.5 %
1) (1, 0)2) (3, 0)3) (4.5, 0)4) (2.25, 0)
1) 4:32) 9:83) 8:94) 3:4
1) 11:122) 39: 413) 41:394) 12:11
1) 100 m/s 2) 150 m/s3) –150 m/s 4) –15 m/s
1) 20 J2) 30 J 3) 40 J4) 10 J
1) 5/2 πR2 I2) 3/2 πR2 I3) 1/2 πR2 I4) πR2 I
1) 42°2) 45°3) 50°4) 52°
1) 20 cm 2) 30 cm3) 10 cm4) 15 cm
1) 0.08°2) 0.16°3) 0.20°4) 0.313
1) dU=nCvdT 2) dU=nCpdT3) dU=3/2 RdT 4) dU=nRdT
1) double2) half3) triple4) remains the same
1) A2) B3) C4) D
19. In the connections shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalent capacity between A and B will be:
1) 10.8 μF2) 69 μF3) 15 μF4) 10 μF
1) 4 Ω2) 6Ω3) 2Ω4) 5Ω
1) 3.2× 10-19 J 2) 8.5×10-19 J3) 2.1×10-19 J4) 5.3×10-19 J
1) 13.6 eV2) 4.53 eV3) 3.4 eV 4) 1.51 eV
23.
1) 2.42) 1.23) 4.8 4) 3.6
1) two2) three3) four4) one
1) 0°2) 45°3) 90°4) 180°
1) 𝑅2/𝑀 2) 𝑀/𝑅23) 𝑀𝑅24) 𝑀/𝑅
1) 1:12) 3:2 3) 1:3 4) 2:1
1) 50/99 Ω in series 2) 50/99 Ω in parallel3) 0.01 Ω in series4) 0.01 Ω in parallel
1) 0.062) 0.163) 0.64) 1.6
1) 0,12) 0, -13) -1, 04) -1,1
1) Increase2) Decrease3) Remain constant4) None
1) 22) 1 3) 04) 5
1) 10 N/m22) 13.023 N/m23) 12.023 N/m2 4) 12 N/m2
1) Only A and B 2) Only C and D3) Only C4) Only A, B and D
1) 12) 0 3) Cannot be determined 4) 2
1) 33.20 kg2) 33.21 kg 3) 33 4) 33.2
1) 5062) 400 3) 4034) 503
1) Only B and C 2) Only A and C3) Only B 4) All statements
1) – 625 J 2) 625 J3) – 62.5 J4) 62.5 J
The two solutions A and B are1) Acetic acid and phenol2) Phenol and acetic acid3) Formic acid and phenol4) Phenol and oxalic acid
1) 4NA 2) 7NA3) 6NA4) 8NA
1) 13.7 g2) 11.5 g3) 25.7 g4) 26.5 g
1) – 0.8 Δo + 3P 2) – 0.36 Δo + 3P3) – 0.36 Δt + 4P 4) – 0.8 Δt + 4P
1) 1.732) 3.873) 4.894) 2.82
1) –1410 kJ/mol 2) –1510 kJ/mol 3) –1610 kJ/mol 4) –1310 kJ/mo
1) FCH2COOH2) ClCH2COOH3) BrCH2COOH4) NO2CH2COOH
1) BaCl22) AlCl33) LiCl4) BeCl2
1) 100.52oC2) 100.052oC3) 101.04oC4) 100.104oC
1) ΔHmix2) ΔVmix3) ΔGmix 4) ΔSmix
1) Gaseous NH3 2) NaCN3) Gaseous N2 4) (NH4)2SO4
1) NF3 and NH3 2) H2O and HF3) Cl2 and N2 4) HF and HCl
1) 25 X 10-34 m2) 3. 01 X 10-34 m3) 5.27 x 10-30 m 4) 5.27 x 10-20 m
1) +5, +62) +6, +53) +6, +6 4) +5, +5
1) 322) 163) 504) 18
1) MO2, MCl42) MO, MCl23) M2O3, MCl34) M2O, MCl
1) 60 °C2) 63 °C3) 65 °C4) 70 °C
1) NaBH4 2) LiALH43) Na/Ethanol4) All of the above
1) 450 K2) 225 K3) 300 K4) 150 K
1) Fe2+2) Fe3+3) [Fe (CN)6]4-4) [Fe (CN)6]3-
1) CaO2) P4O63) Tl2O34) Bi2O3
1) 5, 1, 0, +1/2 2) 6, 0, 0, +1/23) 6, 1, 0, +1/2 4) 5, 0, 1, +1/2
1) COOH group2) NH3+ group3) COO– group4) NH2 group
1) 0 2) 13) 24) 3
1) acetyl chloride2) acetylene3) acetaldehyde4) ethylene
The compound Z is.1) CH3CHO 2) CH3CH2CH=CH23) CH3COCH34) CH3CH2CHODeselect Answer
89. The IUPAC name of1) 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride2) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane3) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride4) 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chlorideDeselect Answer
90. Which product is not fromed in the following reaction? Deselect Answer
BOTANY
91. ATP synthase F₀ portion performs which function?1) Synthesises ATP 2) Pumps protons into matrix 3) Forms proton channel 4) Oxidises NADH
92. Read following statement about effects of ethylene and choose the correct option. (i) More female flowers in cucumber. (ii) D-amylase production in seeds. (iii) Acceleration of fruit ripening in tomatoes. (iv) Delay sprouting in potato tube1) (i) and (ii) 2) (i) and (iii) 3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
93. Which of the following are the characters of dinoflagellates? (i) These organisms are mostly marine and photosynthetic. (ii) Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates. (iii) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red in colour. (iv) Most of them have two flagella. (v) Their toxin can kill other organisms.1) (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) (ii) 3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) 4) (ii) and (iv)
94. Match List-I with List-II1) (a)-iv; (b)-ii; (c)-i; (d)-iii 2) (a)-iv; (b)-i; (c)-ii; (d)-iii 3) (a)-i; (b)-ii; (c)-iv; (d)-iii 4) (a)-iii; (b)-I; (c)-iv; (d)-ii
95. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given. Column I1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) 2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) 3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) 4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
96. Given below are two statements: Statement-I: Mitochondria and chloroplasts both have double membrane bound organelles.Statement – II: Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.1) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect 3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. 4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
97. Which type of substance would face difficulty to pass through the cell membrane?1) substance soluble in lipids 2) Substance with hydrophobic moiety 3) Substance with hydrophilic moiety 4) All substance irrespective of hydrophobic and hydrophilic moiety.
98. Which drug prevents spindle formation by inhibiting tubulin polymerisation?1) Penicillin 2) Colchicine 3) Streptomycin 4) Cyanide
99. If RQ 0.7, the substrate is most likely—1) Fat2) Carbohydrate 3) Amino acid 4) Organic acid
100. Which step of glycolysis is the committed (rate limiting) step?1) Hexokinase reaction 2) Phosphofructokinase reaction 3) Aldolase reaction 4) Enolase reaction
101. The first substrate-level phosphorylation in respiration occurs during—1) Glycolysis (1,3-BPG → 3-PG) 2) Krebs cycle (Succinyl-CoA → Succinate) 3) ETS4) Link reaction
102. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is:1) Cytochrome-c 2) NAD⁺ 3) O₂ 4) FAD
103. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?1) Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions) 2) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I) 3) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I) 4) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I)
104. Statement I: The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a lipid bi-layer called aleurone layer. Statement II: The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and coleorhizae respectively. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
105. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?1) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall 2) Cytokinin – Cell wall elongation 3) IAA – Cell wall elongation 4) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure.
106. Which of the following are protozoans?1) diatoms, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates 2) sporozoa, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates 3) amoebas, actinomycetes, ciliates, and flagellates 4) flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria, and apicomplexans
107. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to1) indole acetic acid 2) cytokinins 3) gibberellins 4) ethylene
108. Ubiquinone (Co) functions as a carrier of:1) Electrons only 2) Protons only 3) Both electrons and protons 4) Neither electrons nor protons
109. The first CO₂ molecule of aerobic respiration is released during:1) Glycolysis 2) Link reaction 3) ETS 4) Conversion of malate to OAA
110. Which structure in the chloroplast acts as the primary proton reservoir that drives photophosphorylation?1) Thylakoid lumen 2) Stroma 3) Intermembrane space 4) Lamella
111. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source of electrons to replace those lost from PS I is —1) PS II 2) Water 3) NADPH 4) Cytochrome b6-f
112. If light of only 680 nm is provided to a leaf, which event is most affected?1) Photolysis2) NADP⁺ reduction 3) ATP formation 4) RuBP regeneration
113. Which of the following does NOT release protons into the thylakoid lumen?1) Splitting of water 2) PQ → Cyt b6-f transfer 3) Cyt b6-f → PC transfer 4) NADP⁺ reduction
114. Photorespiration decreases the synthesis of carbohydrates mainly because —1) ATP and NADPH are consumed but CO₂ is not fixed 2) RuBP is not regenerated 3) Photolysis stops 4) NADPH production increases
115. In C₄ plants, CO₂ is first fixed in mesophyll cells to form oxaloacetate by PEPcase. Why does this not lead to photorespiration?1) PEPcase has high affinity for CO₂ and is not inhibited by O₂ 2) CO₂ is first fixed in bundle sheath cells 3) RuBisCO is absent in mesophyll cells 4) ATP is not consumed
116. In mitochondria, the proton gradient is mainly formed across:1) Outer membrane 2) Inner membrane / intermembrane space 3) Matrix 4) Cristae lumen
117. Assertion: F.W. Went isolated auxin from the tips of coleoptiles of wheat seedlings. Reason: Ethylene promotes the senescence.1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
118. Assertion(A): Archaebacteria can survive in extreme harsh habitats. Reason(R): Archaebacterial cell wall has peptidoglycan that helps them survive in harsh habitats.1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 3) (A) is True but (R) is False 4) (A) is False but (R) is True
119. Match the following columns. 1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) 2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) 3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) 4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
120. Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different groups of algae and choose the correct option. i. In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and d. ii. In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b.iii. In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin.1) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are wrong. 2) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is wrong. 3) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is wrong. 4) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong.
121. Which of the following is correct with reference to floral character of the family solanaceae?1) Racemose, zygomorphic, unisexual, floral characters2) Racemose, zygomorphic, bisexual, polypetalous 3) Axillary, bisexual, actinomorphic, epipetalous 4) Axillary, actinomorphic, bisexual, epipetalous
122. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D).Select the part correctly matched with its function.1) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting 2) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae 3) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes 4) Part (A): Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes
123. Which of the following is not a polymer?1) Starch2) Glycogen 3) Sucrose4) Cellulose
124. Which type of bond stabilizes the α helix in proteins?1) Disulfide bond 2) Hydrogen bond 3) Peptide bond 4) Ionic bond
125. Which of the following is not true for nucleic acids?1) DNA contains thymine 2) RNA contains uracil 3) DNA is double-stranded in all organisms 4) RNA is single-stranded
126. Which of the following sugars has an aldehyde group?1) Glucose 2) Fructose 3) Sucrose 4) Lactose
127. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by:1) Lowering activation energy 2) Making ΔG negative 3) Acting as a reactant 4) Altering equilibrium concentration
128. Energy pyramids are always upright because:1) Biomass decreases at each level 2) Producers have maximum numbers 3) Consumers live longer 4) Energy is lost at each trophic level
129. In which organ is pith absent?1) Dicot root 2) Monocot root3) Dicot stem 4) Monocot stem
130. Casparian strips occur in:1) Cortex 2) Endodermis 3) Pericycle 4) Epidermis
131. An open vascular bundle must contain:1) Protoxylem and metaxylem 2) Sclerenchyma cap 3) Intrafascicular cambium 4) Phloem parenchyma
132. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?1) Ulothrix 2) Ectocarpus 3) Gracilaria 4) Volvox
133. Identify the figures A, B and C given below.1) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus 2) A – Euglena, B – Planaria, C – Agaricus 3) A – Planaria, B – Paramecium, C – Agaricus 4) A – Euglena, B – Paramecium, C – Aspergillus
134. Pyrenoids in green algal cells are related to1) starch formation 2) protein storage 3) general metabolism 4) enzyme secretion
135. If 10 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80 died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.1) 1.0 2) 2.0 3) 0.1 4) 0.13
ZOOLOGY
136. Identify the correct match:1) Neanderthals → 100,000–40,000 years ago → Buried the dead 2) Homo habilis → 1.8 mya → Brain capacity ~900 cc 3) Homo erectus → 2 mya → Brain capacity ~650 cc 4) Ramapithecus → 500,000 years ago → Brain capacity 800 cc
137. Match the following1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III 4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
1) 23, 23 2) 46, 233) 23, 464) 46, 46
1) Moth2) Butterflies3) Cockroach 4) Chickens
Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST VI (06.12.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1) 0.25 Å2) 0.5 Å3) 1.5 Å4) 2 Å
1) Mass2) Velocity3) Momentum 4) Charge
1) 500 Å2) 5000 Å3) 2000 Å 4) 1000 Å
1) 5893 Å 2) 10683 Å3) 2791 Å4) 528 Å
1) 2.1 kJ2) 333 J3) 500 J4) 4.0 kJ
1) ΔQ2) ΔW3) ΔQ + ΔW 4) ΔQ-ΔW
1) Pγ V=constant2) Tγ V=constant3) TVγ-1=constant4) TVγ=constant
1) 1/2 PV2) 3/2 RT3) 3/2 PV4) 5/2 kT
1) 18.5 km/s2) 31.7 km/s3) 26.8 km/s 4) 42.8 km/s
1) R2) 2R3) R/3 4) 7R
1) angular momentum2) energy3) linear momentum 4) mass
1) 52) 103) 204) 2
1) g/R2) R/g 3) gR4) g/R2
1) U/2r2) U/3r 3) U/4r4) Ur
1) R 2) 2R3) 3R4) 4R
1) 15%2) 20.3% 3) 66.7%4) 33.33%
1) Zero2) 23) 44) 6
1) 4s2) 3s3) 2s4) 1s
1) 5×10−3 N m 2) 5×10−4 N m3) 5×10−5 N m 4) 1×10−5 N m
1) 0.009 kg\m22) 0.018 kg\m23) 0.036 kg\m24) 0.00018 kg\m2
1) 200J2) 300J3) 400J4) 500J
1) Moving with variable acceleration2) Angular momentum is conserved3) Moving with variable velocity4) Linear momentum is conserved
1) Position of the centre of mass2) Velocity of centre of mass3) Momentum of centre of mass4) None of the above
1) 55.4 2) 55.38 3) 55 4) 56
1) [M1 L0 T-2 A2 ] 2) [M-1L0 T2A-2]3) [M-1L0 T2 A2] 4) [M1L0 T2 A2]
1) 0.5212) 0.026 3) 0.0324) 0.05
1) [M-1 L2 T4 A2]2) [M1 L-2 T4 A2 ]3) [M-1L-2 T4 A2] 4) [M-1 L2 T-4 A2 ]
1) 0°2) 90°3) 120°4) 180°
1) 60: 12) 1: 603) 30: 14) 1: 30
1) A and B only 2) B and C only3) A and C only 4) A, B and C
1) Only B2) Only B and C3) Only A and C 4) Only C
1) H2S2) H2Se3) H2Te4) H2O
1) B3N3H6 2) B3N33) SiC 4) Fe(CO)5
1) 1&22) 1&33) 2&34) 3 Only
1) C-12) C-23) C-34) C-1 & C-2
1) +0.52 V 2) -0.52V3) 1.34V4) -1.34V
1) Glucose oxime 2) Sorbitol3) Glucaric Acid 4) Gluconic Acid
1) Cu2) Cu2+3) Zn 4) Zn2+
1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B23) Vitamin C4) Vitamin B6
1) 0.01 S Cm-1 2) 0.24 S Cm-13) 1.67 S Cm-1 4) 1.35 S Cm-1
1) 0.34 V2) -0.34 V3) 0 V 4) -76V
1) 0.2342) 0.3253) 0.56 4) 0.45
1) Carbon2) C=O3) Oxygen4) Both C and O
1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ 4) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
1) Halogens (X) 2) CN–3) H2O4) NH3
1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+2) [Mn(H20)6] 2+3) Ni(CO)4 4) None of the above
1) 02) 1.7323) 3.87 4) 4.90
1) [CoCl3 (NH3)3]2) [CoCl2 (NH3)4]Cl3) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl24) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
1) POCI3 and H3PO3 2) POCI3 and H3PO43) H3PO4 and POCI3 4) H3PO3 and POCI3
1) MnO22) Aluminium isopropoxide3) Acetone4) Ozone
1) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol2) Benzoic acid3) o-Nitrophenol4) Benzenesulphonic acid
1) Aromatic acid 2) Schiff base3) Ketone 4) Carboxylic acid
91. Homeostasis is best defined as:1) A process where an organism changes rapidly in response to every environmental fluctuation. 2) The ability of an organism to maintain internal stability despite external changes. 3) A failure of regulatory control leading to physiological imbalance. 4) The principle behind preparing medicinal extracts in homeopathy.
92. A species that normally occupies only a limited geographical range due to pressure from a stronger competitor suddenly expands its habitat size when that competitor is removed experimentally. This ecological phenomenon is known as:1) Competitive Exclusion 2) Competitive Release 3) Competitive Supremacy 4) Competitive Inclusion
93. To ensure pollination by bees, the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses which strategy?1) Sexual deceit2) Pseudo-copulation 3) Reward in the form of nectar 4) Providing a site for laying eggs
94. A rocky tide-pool community originally contained 15 species of invertebrates. After researchers eliminated one particular species, the community collapsed to only 8 species, even though no other species were directly removed.The eliminated species was most likely functioning as a:1) Minor parasite with negligible host impact 2) Mutualistic partner offering shared resources 3) Keystone predator regulating community structure 4) Non-selective herbivore grazing on algae
95. Species that exhibit extremely high intrinsic rates of natural increase (r) typically show which characteristic?1) Prolonged generation time resulting in slow population turnover 2) Very short generation time allowing rapid multiplication 3) Absence of mating rituals leading to faster reproduction 4) Lack of any upper limit on population size in nature
96. Despite long evolutionary histories, no predator achieves perfect hunting efficiency. The most fundamental reason for this is:1) Predators lack advanced cognitive abilities compared to prey. 2) Large body size in predators restricts rapid pursuit of prey. 3) Faster reproductive cycles of prey prevent predator specialization. 4) Prey continuously evolve diverse structural and behavioural defences.
97. The logistic equation dN/dt = rN(1−N/K) predicts zero population growth when:1) Population size only approaches K but does not reach it. 2) The ratio N/K becomes negligible. 3) Mortality exceeds natality due to crowding. 4) Population size becomes equal to the carrying capacity (N = K).
98. Two species of Paramecium are cultured together on identical food resources. Over time, one species dies out while the other thrives. This scenario best illustrates:1) Competitive suppression of species with differing diets 2) Competitive exclusion due to overlapping niches 3) Size advantage determining species survival 4) Numerical dominance as the key factor in survival
99. During a short rainy season, an insect population multiplies rapidly and then vanishes completely by season’s end. Which population growth model does this exemplify?1) Logistic (sigmoid) growth with carrying capacity 2) Decline due to plant senescence 3) Exponential (J-shaped) growth with subsequent crash 4) Predator-mediated population control
100. A group of ecologists marks 80 fishes and releases them into a pond. On recapture, 100 fishes are caught, including 40 marked ones. Using the Lincoln-Petersen method, the estimated fish population in the pond is closest to:1) 502) 1003) 200 4) 4000
101. Which of the following statements about salinity tolerance in aquatic organisms is incorrect?1) Euryhaline species tolerate a wide range of salinities. 2) Stenohaline species are limited to narrow salinity ranges. 3) Salt concentration in inland waters is usually <5 ppt. 4) Marine animals can survive long in freshwater due to osmotic balance.
102. In interspecific interactions: Which interaction is correctly represented as benefiting one species and harming the other?1) Amensalism → (–/0)2) Commensalism → (+/0) 3) Competition → (–/–) 4) Predation → (+/–)
103. Match List-I with List-II:Choose the correct answer from the options given below:1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
104. The evolution of the animal immune system was most likely driven by:1) Herbivores pushing animals toward extinction 2) The selective pressures of parasitic and disease-causing organisms 3) Competition between animals and their habitats 4) Symbiosis between animals and their predators
105. The innate potential of a species to grow in number (intrinsic growth rate) does not follow which of the following?1) Each species has this ability 2) When resources are unlimited, this potential is realized 3) This represents an idealized situation 4) Resource availability is not essential for unimpeded growth
106. Consider the following regarding the reasons for the fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and not in Plantae: I. They are prokaryotes. II. The cell wall of cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan. III. They can fix atomspheric nitrogen The correct explanations would be:1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
107. Which of the following illustrate the limitations of the two-kingdom classification (Plantae and Animalia) by Linnaeus?I. Euglena has features of both plants (chlorophyll, photosynthesis) and animals (motility, heterotrophy). II.Chlamydomonas is autotrophic but possesses flagella. III. Slime molds resemble animals in one phase of their life cycle and plants in the other phase.1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only4) I, II and III
108. Consider the following statements regarding characters of Archaebacteria that they share with eukaryotes: I. The cell wall does not contain peptidoglycan. II. DNA associated with histones. III. Translation initiated with formylated methionine. IV. RNA polymerase similar to eukaryotic RNA polymerase II V. ATPase similarity VI. Similar DNA replication and repair How many of the above characters Archaebacteria share with eukaryotes?1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
109. Consider the following statements regarding Mycoplasma: I. They are a genus of bacteria that have a unique cell wall of their own. II.In their genetic code UGA codes for tryptophan. III. None of them is pathogenic to humans. IV. They have a large genome. V. They can be killed by penicillins. VI. They can survive without oxygen The number of correct statements is:1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
110. Consider the following characters: I. Heterotroph organisms II. A dikaryon stage III. Cell wall made of chitin IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis Which of the above relate to fungi?1) I, II and III 2) I, III and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
111. No predator can become proficient at acquiring prey because:1) Predators are not as intelligent as prey. 2) Predators are too large to be fast enough. 3) Prey populations evolve more rapidly than predator populations.4) Prey populations evolve anti predatory traits.
112. Which of the following is not an edible mushroom?1) Agaricus bispora 2) Pleurotus ostreatus 3) Lentinula edodes 4) Amantia phalloides
113. Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched with all the characters given below:1) Phycomycetes – Mycelium aseptate and coenocytic / Asexual reproduction by motile zoospores or by nonmotile aplanospores/spores-endogenously produced in the sporangium 2) Ascomycetes – Mycelium unbranched and septate / Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia produced endogenously on conidiophores 3) Basidiomycetes – Mycelium-branched and septate / Asexual spores are generally not found 4) Deuteromycetes – Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known
114. Bulliform cells help in:1) Rolling the leaves inward in monocots 2) Protecting the plant from salt stress 3) Increasing photosynthesis in monocots 4) Creating large cavities for sugar storage
115. Xylem and phloem are termed complex tissues because:1) They consist of several different kinds of cells 2) They carry water and food, respectively 3) They are found together in vascular bundles 4) They also give mechanical strength
116. Casparian strips in roots are made of—1) Lignin 2) Suberin 3) Cutin 4) Pectin
117. The periderm of an old stem replaces—1) Pith 2) Cortex 3) Epidermis 4) Secondary phloem
118. Companion cells are found in—1) Gymnosperms only 2) Angiosperms only 3) Pteridophytes 4) All vascular plants
119. In monocot roots, the number of xylem arms is usually—1) 2–32) 43) polyarchy 4) Always 2
120. The hypodermis in monocot stem is usually—1) Parenchymatous 2) Collenchymatous 3) Sclerenchymatous 4) Meristematic
121. Interfascicular cambium in dicot stems arises from—1) Sclerenchyma 2) Parenchyma of medullary rays 3) Xylem vessels 4) Endodermis
122. The tissue that provides elasticity to young stems is—1) Sclerenchyma 2) Collenchyma 3) Parenchyma 4) Chlorenchyma
123. If a root develops endarch xylem instead of exarch, what major problem will arise?1) It cannot elongate properly 2) Water conduction reverses direction 3) Phloem development stops 4) Cortex becomes lignified
124. If a dicot stem produces MORE secondary phloem than xylem, which cambial change happened?1) Cambium became more active on outer side 2) Cambium stopped dividing 3) Cambium shifted to pericycle 4) Cambium produced only tracheids
125. If medullary rays become fully lignified, the first function lost would be—1) Lateral movement of water and food 2) Vascular bundle protection 3) Storage of starch 4) Transport through phloem
126. A forest receives heavy rainfall but has very cold climate. What will happen first?1) Humus accumulates 2) Decomposition speeds up 3) Ammonification increases 4) Mineralisation becomes complete
127. If detritivores in a forest become absent but decomposers remain, what will happen first?1) Humus will form faster 2) Litter will accumulate 3) Mineral release becomes faster4) NPP decreases due to low GPP
128. If a grassland suddenly starts transferring 40% energy instead of 10%, which ecological outcome will occur?1) Shorter food chain 2) More trophic levels 3) Productivity becomes zero 4) Detritus food chain collapses
129. Two ponds have same NPP, but pond A has very high standing crop. This means—1) Herbivore population is low 2) Productivity is very high 3) Trophic efficiency is high 4) Decomposition is rapid
130. If a desert suddenly shows productivity equal to an aquatic ecosystem, which factor must have changed first?1) More decomposers evolved 2) Rainfall increased significantly 3) Food chain length decreased 4) Standing state became low
131. In a forest, if the DFC becomes stronger than the GFC, what changes first?1) More energy flows to apex predators 2) Herbivore population increases 3) Energy flow becomes dominated by decomposers 4) NPP becomes zero
132. The major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem is—1) Grazing food chain 2) Detritus food chain 3) Both equally 4) Neither
133. In an ecosystem, which of the following determines the length of the food chain?1) Primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity 3) Trophic efficiency 4) Standing crop
134. Pyramid of numbers is generally inverted in—1) Grassland ecosystem 2) Pond ecosystem 3) Tree ecosystem 4) Ocean ecosystem
135. In a grazing food chain, the first trophic level is always:1) Green plants 2) Herbivores 3) Dead organic matter 4) Zooplankton
136. The A-bands of skeletal muscle do not change their width during muscle contraction because1) Thick filaments are not involved in the sliding filament theory 2) A-bands are the thick filaments themselves which do not shorten 3) A-bands extend beyond the sarcomere 4) A-bands are the thin filaments themselves which do shorten
137. Which of the following includes non muscular movement? (a) Protoplasmic streaming (b) Pseudopodial movement (c) Flagellar movement (d) Ciliary movement1) (a) only 2) (b), (c) and (d) 3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 4) None of them
138. Observe the following figure of rib-cage and identify the labelled parts1) A – Vertebral column, B – True ribs, C – Sternum 2) A – Sternum, B – False ribs, C – Vertebral column 3) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Vertebral column 4) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Sacrum
139. Assertion (A): Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction. Reason (R): Calcium binds to troponin, causing a conformational change that exposes the myosin binding sites on actin.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true.
140. Select the correct statement from the given options1) Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO₂ but not to H⁺ ions 2) Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre by reducing the duration of inspiration 3) Residual volume (RV) can be expelled out by forcible expiration 4) The alveolar sac consists of many alveoli which open into a common alveolar duct
141. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide is carried in blood in the form of1) Carbamino-haemoglobin 2) Dissolved in plasma 3) Carboxy-haemoglobin 4) Bicarbonate
142. Vasa recta in cortical nephrons1) Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole 2) Does not involved in counter current mechanism 3) Carries deoxygenated blood which is rich in urea 4) Is absent or highly reduced
143. Observe the given figure and select the correct labelling with their correct description/function1) a – Afferent arteriole: Carries deoxygenated blood to the glomerulus 2) e – ascending vasa recta: Carries blood which flows counter to ascending loop of Henle 3) d – Distal convoluted tubule: Carries dilute filtrate 4) f – Loop of Henle: Located in the cortical region of kidney
144. Match the following 1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
146. Statement I: Muscular movement is the fastest mode of locomotion in animals. Statement II: Hydra can use both its tentacles and pseudopodia for capturing prey.1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
147. Assertion: Arthritis refers to inflammation of joints. Reason: Gout is caused by excessive formation of uric acid in the joints.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true.
148. The given figure shows the sarcomere of myofibril. Identify the labelled parts1) A – I-band, B – Z-line, C – H-zone, D – A-band 2) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – H-Zone, D – I-band 3) A – H-zone, B – M-line, C – I-band, D – A-band 4) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – M-band, D – I-band
149. Which of the following statements is false?1) ADH helps in water elimination making urine hypotonic 2) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule 3) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule 4) Henle’s loop plays a crucial role in concentrating urine
150. The action of aldosterone in kidney regulation is inhibited by1) Angiotensin 2) Vasopressin 3) Atrial Natriuretic Factor 4) Adrenal cortex
151. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Clarias (Magur)?1) Absence of air bladder 2) Presence of operculum 3) Presence of tympanum 4) Pneumatic bones
152. The bone that does NOT occur in pairs in humans is1) Parietal 2) Nasal 3) Sternum 4) Maxilla
153. During muscle contraction:1) Actin and myosin filaments overlap more 2) Actin and myosin filaments separate from each other 3) Length of all bands increases 4) Sarcomere length increases
154. The respiratory rhythm centre is located in:1) Cerebrum 2) Medulla oblongata 3) Cerebellum 4) Hypothalamus
155. Assertion (A): Smoking increases the carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity. Reason (R): CO has much more affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen and forms carboxyhaemoglobin.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
156. Which one of the following animals is not a protostome?1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 3) Annelida 4) Echinodermata
157. Red muscle fibres have abundance of:1) Myoglobin and mitochondria 2) Actin and myosin 3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum 4) Glycogen
158. Study the statements: (i) Coacervates can grow and divide. (ii) Coacervates have a lipid bilayer. (iii) Coacervates can selectively absorb molecules. (iv) Coacervates arise from aggregation of colloidal molecules. Which combination is correct for coacervates?1) i,ii, iv2) ii, iii3) i, ii, iii 4) i, iii, iv
159. According to Oparin–Haldane theory, first life forms were:1) Autotrophic anaerobes 2) Heterotrophic anaerobes 3) Autotrophic aerobes 4) Heterotrophic aerobes
160. Miller and Urey’s experiment did not produce:1) Glycine 2) Alanine 3) Ascorbic acid 4) Aspartic acid
161. Assertion (A): Miller and Urey used CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in their experiment. Reason (R): Early Earth’s atmosphere was strongly oxidising.1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) A is true, R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
162. Match the following:1) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A 2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B 3) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B 4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
163. Which of the following is the best example of divergent evolution?1) Wing of bat and wing of bird 2) Flippers of whale and fins of fish 3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita 4) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals
164. Fossils of Archaeopteryx indicate:1) Reptiles evolved from birds 2) Transitional form between reptiles and birds 3) Evolution of mammals from reptiles 4) Homologous organs in mammals
165. Assertion (A): Homologous organs indicate common ancestry among organisms. Reason (R): Homologous organs perform similar functions in all organisms possessing them.1) A and R true; R is correct explanation 2) A and R true; R not the explanation 3) A true; R false 4) A false; R true
166. A research lab studies embryos of vertebrates. They observe that early embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals show pharyngeal gill slits and tails. This similarity provides evidence for:1) Convergent evolution 2) Common ancestry 3) Analogous development 4) Independent origin
167. Assertion (A): Archaeopteryx is considered a “connecting link” fossil. Reason (R): It possessed both reptilian and avian characters.1) True, True – R explains A 2) True, True – R does NOT explain 3) True, False 4) False, True
168. Assertion: Adrenocorticotropic Releasing Hormones (ARH) excite the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Reason: ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones.1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. 3) Assertion is true but reason is false. 4) Both assertion and reason are false.
169. Choose the incorrect statement.1) The secretion of the posterior lobe of pituitary is known as pituitrin. 2) High blood level of ADH is characterised by dilute blood and high plasma sodium. 3) Somatostatin is secreted from hypothalamus. 4) Thyrocalcitonin is secreted when calcium level in blood is high.
170. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to insulin.1) It stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen. 2) Insulin inhibits cellular glucose uptake and utilisation. 3) Deficiency of insulin can cause formation of harm harmfu compounds known as ketone bodies. 4) Insulin is a peptide hormone.
171. X controls the secretion of a type of glucocorticoid ‘Y’ secreted from layer ‘Z’ of the adrenal cortex. Identify X, Y and Z.1) X: ACTH; Y: Cortisol; Z: Zona fasciculata 2) X: TSH; Y: Epinephrine; Z: Zona reticularis 3) X: GnRH; Y: Testosterone; Z: Zona reticularis 4) X: ACTH; Y: Aldosterone; Z: Zona glomerułosa
172. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.1) Insulin is secreted by α-cells while glucagon is secreted by ẞ-cells. 2) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeo-genesis while insulin stimulates the glycogenesis. 3) The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by both insulin and glucagon jointly. 4) Prolonged hypoglycemia leads to diabetes mellitus which is associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compound known as ketone bodies.1) A and D2) B and D 3) C and D4) A, B, C and D
173. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option. (A) Glucagon is a protein hormone and maintains normal blood glucose. (B) Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis and reduces blood sugar level. (C) Glucagon promotes cellular glucose consumption. (D) Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.1) A and B are correct. 2) B, C and D are correct. 3) A and D are correct. 4) B and D are correct.
174. Match the following columns and select the correct option
175. During prolonged fasting, which combination of hormones is MOST crucial for maintaining blood glucose?1) Insulin, Glucagon ↑, GH ↑ 2) Insulin ↑, Glucagon↓, Cortisol ↑ 3) Insulin, Somatostatin ↑ 4) Glucagon, GH ↑
176. Which hormone from the anterior pituitary is controlled mainly by inhibition rather than stimulation?1) GH 2) TSH 3) ACTH 4) Prolactin
177. Which statement about Miller-Urey experiment is INCORRECT?1) It simulated conditions of primitive Earth 2) It proved that life originated from inorganic molecules 3) Amino acids were formed 4) The atmosphere used was strongly reducing
178. Select the incorrect statement.1) Cells of zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex secrete glucocorticoids which affect glucose homeostasis. 2) Cushing’s syndrome is caused by excess of cortisol which may be due to a tumour of adrenal cortex. 3) Adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system function as an integrated system. 4) Adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoid only
179. Adrenal cortex is divided into three zones. The inner region called (i) secretes (ii), the middle layer (iii) secretes (iv) and the outer zone known as (v) secretes (vi).1) (i) zona fasciculata, (ii)glucocorticoids,(v) zona reticularis 2) (ii) gonadocorticoids, (iii) zona fasciculata, (v) zona glomerulosa, (vi) mineralocorticoids 3) (i) zona fasciculata, (iv) cortisone,(v) zona glomerulosa,(vi)mineralocorticoid 4) (i) zona reticularis, (ii)glucocorticoids,(vi) zona fasciculata
180. A woman after childbirth shows inability to eject milk but normal milk production. Which hormone is deficient?1) Prolactin 2) Oxytocin 3) Estrogen4) TSH
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (29.11.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
1) Lipid2) Glycolipid3) Glycoprotein4) Protein
1) Metacentric2) Submetacentric3) Acrocentric 4) Telocentric
1) A2) B3) C 4) D
1) Microtubles 2) Microfilaments3) Intermidiate filaments 4) lamins
1) Endocytosis 2) Exocytosis3) Phagocytosis4) Pinocytosis
1) Insulin2) Adrenaline3) Thyroxine4) Glucagon
1) Morphine2) Ganja3) Codeine4) None of these
1) Tubectomy2) Vasectomy3) Implants 4) IUD
1) Endosperm2) Cotyledon13) Seed coat4) Suspensor
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (22.11.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
1) [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ 2) [Co(en)₃]³⁺3) [Pt(en)₂Cl₂] 4) [Cr(H₂O)₂(en)₂]³⁺
2. Which complex has the highest number of unpaired electrons?
1) [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ 2) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻3) [CoF₆]³⁻4) [Cr(NH₃)₆]²⁺
3. The spin-only magnetic moment of [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is:
1) 2.83 BM2) 4.90 BM3) 5.92 BM4) 1.73 BM
4. Which complex will NOT show optical isomerism?
1) [Co(en)₃] ³⁺2) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]3) [Cr(en)₂Cl₂] ⁺ 4) [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺d) 5g
5. Square planar geometry is shown by?
1) [NiCl₄] ²⁻2) [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻3) [CuCl₄] ²⁻ 4) [Zn (NH₃)₄]²⁺
6. The correct name of [Fe(CO)₄(NO)]⁺ is:1) Tetracarbonylnitrosyliron (I) ion2) Tetracarbonylnitrosyliron (II) ion3) Tetracarbonylnitrosyliron (0) ion4) Tetracarbonylnitritoiron (I) ionDeselect Answer
7. The correct name of K[Cr(SCN)₄(H₂O)₂] is:1) Potassiumdiaquatetrathiocyanato chromate(IV)2) Potassium diaquatetrathiocyanatechromium (III)3) Potassium diaquatetraisothiocyanato-S-chromate(III)4) Potassium diaquatetrathiocyanato-S-chromate(III)Deselect Answer
8. Which complex is paramagnetic but inner-orbital (d²sp³)?
1) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻2) [CoF₆]³⁻3) [Cr(CN)₆]⁴⁻4) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
9. The electronic configuration t₂g⁴ eg² corresponds to:
1) High-spin d⁵2) High-spin d⁶3) Low-spin d⁶4) High-spin d⁷
10. Formula of Sodium hexacyanomanganate(III):
1) Na₃[Mn(CN)₆] 2) Na₂[Mn(CN)₆]3) Na₄[Mn(CN)₆] 4) Na₅[Mn(CN)₆]
11. The incorrect statement about Crystal Field Splitting in tetrahedral complexes is?1) non-axial orbitals are repelled more by ligands2) energy of t2 > e3) t2 orbitals lie at – 0.4 Δt4) CFS is measured in terms of Δt Deselect Answer
12. The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
1) +102) -23) +6 4) +12
13. Which of the following will be formed when lead storage battery is charged?1) Sulphuric acid is formed2) Sulphuric acid is consumed3) Hydrochloric acid is formed4) Lead is formedDeselect Answer
14. How many hours does it take to reduce 3 mol of Fe3+ to Fe2+ with 2.0 A current?
1) 36 hrs2) 40hrs3) 42hrs4) 45 hrs
15. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
1) Cu2+/Cu2) Ag+/Ag3) Ni2+/Ni 4) Fe3+/Fe2+
16. How many moles of electrons are required to Reduce 1 mol of MnO42- to Mn2+
1) 42) 53) 64) 7
17. How many moles of electron are Required to Produce 10g of Mg from MgO
1) 0.82 2) 1.23) 1.14) 0.86
1) 1.07 V2) 1.06 V3) 1.26 V4) 1.54 V
1) -66.50 KJ2) -60.32 KJ3) -69.48 KJ4) -67.42 KJ
1) NaCl 2) KCl3) HCl 4) KNO3
1) 3.312 x 1052) 3.12 x 10-63) 1.34 x 10-5 4) 3.33 x 10 6
1) 1.65 x 102 C2) 1.93 x 105 C3) 96500 C4) 1.2 X 104 C
1) 1.06 x 1022) 1.2 x 1033) 5.2 x 10-2 4) 0.1 x 103
1) NO22) NO2–3) NO2+ 4) NO3–
1) BN 2) B3) B4C4) B2H6
1) SiO–2) SiO44-3) SiO32- 4) SiO42-
1) PH32) ClF33) NCl34) BCl3
1) Graphite2) Graphene3) Fullerene4) Dry Ice
The product Y isDeselect Answer
38. Among the following the most stable compound is1) cis-1,2-cyclohexanediol2) trans-1,2-cyclohexanediol3) cis-1,3-cyclohexenediol4) trans-1,3-cyclohexanediolDeselect Answer
39. Which of the following alcohols will not give iodoform test?
1) Acetophenone 2) Propan-1-ol3) Butan-2-ol 4) Ethanol
40. Increasing order of acid strength among p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol and p-nitrophenol is1) p-nitrophenol, p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol2) p-methylphenol, p-methoxyphenol, p-nitrophenol3) p-nitrophenol, p-methylphenol, p-methoxyphenol4) p-methoxyphenol, p-methylphenol, p-nitrophenol.Deselect Answer
1) Secondary alcohol by SN12) Tertiary alcohol by SN13) Secondary alcohol by SN24) Tertiary alcohol by SN2
1) (CH3)2CH-O-CH2CH32) CH3(CH2)4-O-CH33) CH3CH2CH(CH3)-O- CH2CH34) CH3-(CH2)3-O- CH2CH3Deselect Answer
44. The major product formed in the following reaction is:Deselect Answer
45. A tertiary alcohol is obtained1) by the reaction of an aldehyde and a Grignard reagent2) by the reaction of a ketone and a Grignard reagent3) when an aldehyde is reduced with LiAlH44) when a ketone is reduced with LiAlH4.Deselect Answer
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (15.11.2025)
1) 0 μC2) 4 μC3) 16 μC4) 8 μC
1) 32) 43) 54) 6
1) 22) 33) 45) 8
1) 200%2) 100%3) 88% 4) 41%
1) acceleration2) time3) frequency4) momentum
1) 30° 2) 0° 3) 60°4) 180°
1) x=y2) x=2y3) 2x=y4) 2x=5y
1) 6 : 12) 12 : 13) 1 : 64) 1 : 12
1) 50π2 2) 44π2 3) 44π 4) 50π
1) 50 m2) 120 m3) 150 m 4) 100 m
1) 8 V 2) 16V3) 10 V4) None
1) remains same 2) doubled3) halved 4) zero
1) 2.5×10-3 C2) 2.5×10-4 C3) 5×10-5 C4) 7.5×10-2 C
1) 4√2 2) 5/ √23) 4 4) 10
1) (1/n)2) (1/2n) 3) (1/4n)4) (1/8n)
1) r. m. s. values. 2) peak values.3) mean values.4) mean square values.
1) DC circuits. 2) AC circuits.3) DC as well as AC circuits.4) neither AC nor DC circuits
1) 3250Å2) 6.5× mm3) 1.3 μm4) 2.6× mm
1) n(λ+1)2) (2n+1)λ/23) nλ4) (n+1)λ/2
1) 1.5 mm2) 0.75 mm3) 1.25 mm4) 0.625 mm
1) parabola2) straight line3) circle 4) hyperbola
1) 5×10−4m2) 2.5×10−3m3) 2×10−4m4) 10×10−4m
1) Becomes 1/202) Becomes 1/903) it remains same4) becomes 1/10
1) 60°2) 45°3) 30°4) 0°
1) 16/92) 4/33) 7/14) 49/1
Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST IV (08.11.2025)
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
PHYSICS1. A wheel is rolling on a plane surface. The speed of a particle on the highest point of the rim is 8m/s. The speed of the particle on the rim of the wheel at the same level as the center of wheel in m/s, will be
1) 4√22) 4 3) 84) 8√2
1) 2r2) √2 r 3) 3r4) √3 r
1) 1500 N2) 1000 N3) 1200 N4) 0
1) 43.52π2) 53.25π3) 43.25π4) 53.52π
1) OR gate2) NOR gate 3) AND gate4) NAND gate
1) π/2 2) 2π3) 3π/2 4) π
1) Aω 2) ω/k3) dω/dk4) x/t
1) 25cm2) 12.5cm3) 100cm4) 200cm
1) 5062) 5103) 5164) 158
1) a = 0.7x2) a = -200x23) a = -10x 4) a = 100x3
1) Zero2) A3) 2A4) 4A
1) 5N2) 4N3) 0.15N4) 0.3N
1) 6.25×1018 2) 6.25×10193) 6.25×10154) 6.25×1021
1) Resistivity 2) Conductivity3) Inductance 4) Conductance
1) 2 Ω 2) 18 Ω3) 3 Ω4) 3.6 Ω
1) R 2) 2 R3) 1/2 R 4) 2/3 R
1) 0.02 V2) 0.2 V 3) 2×10-3 V 4) 2 V
1) 1·389 H2) 138·88 H3) 0·138 H 4) 13·89 H
1) 2×10−5 H2) 3×10−5 H3) 4×10−5 H 4) 6×10−5 H
1) 25 V2) zero 3) 20 V4) 15 V
1) 5π V 2) 2π V3) 4π V 4) π V
1) 2 mA2) 1 mA3) 0.5 mA 4) 3 mA
1) 152) 25 3) 35 4) 45
48.
1) CH3CHO2) CH3CH2CH=CH23) CH3COCH3 4) CH3CH2CHO
49. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
1) toluene 2) benzoic acid 3) benzene4) nitrobenzene
50. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
1) 2-Phenyl-1-butene2) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propane3) 1-Phenyl-2-butene4) 3-Phenyl-1-butane
51. Which following electrophilic substitution reactions faster than benzene?
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Aniline3) Chlorobenzene 4) Nitrobenzene
52. The correct order of boiling points of 2, 2-dimethylpropane, 2-methylbutane and n-pentane is1) n-pentane > 2, 2-dimethylpropane 2-methylbutane >2) n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2, 2-dimethylpropane3) 2,2-dimethylpropane > n-pentane > 2-methylbutane4) 2-methylbutane 2,2-dimethylpropane > n-pentane >Deselect Answer
53. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
1) Phenol2) aniline3) Ethene 4) Benzene
54. Which one of the following alkenes will react fastest with H₂ under catalytic hydrogenation conditions?Deselect Answer
1) KMnO42) NaBH43) H2/Pt4) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
1) 332) 363) 354) 37
1) 3 and +3 2) 3 and 03) 6 and +3 4) 4 and +2
1) C2O42-2) SCN–3) CN4)
1) K3 [Fe(C2O4)3] 2) K[Fe(C2O4)3]3) K2 [Fe(C2O4)3] 4) K4[Fe(C2O4)3]
1) 6 and 22) 6 and 33) 2 and 64) 3 and 6
1) ido2) ate3) ium4) usually keep their common name
1) 302) 323) 344) 36
1) Tl2) Ga3) In4) Al
1) Ga2) Al3) B 4) In
1) Silica 2) Silicates3) Silicones 4) Zeolites
1) actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation2) actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation3) zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation4) zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
1) Six2) Seven3) Eight 4) Five
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (1.11.2025)
2. In industrial production of citric acid, the most commonly used microorganism is—1) Penicillium roqueforti 2) Aspergillus niger3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Clostridium butylicum
3. Which of the following statements about Penicillium notatum is incorrect?1) It produces penicillin, the first antibiotic discovered. 2) It inhibits growth of Staphylococcus. 3) It is used in cheese production. 4) It is a fungus.
4. Assertion (A): Swiss cheese has large holes because of CO₂ production. Reason (R): The CO₂ is produced by Propionibacterium shermanii during fermentation.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
5. Assertion (A): Toddy is produced by fermentation of palm sap. Reason (R): Aspergillus niger ferments the sap of coconut trees to produce toddy.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
6. Assertion (A): Monascus purpureus is used in statin production. Reason (R): Statins inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): Aerobic bacteria play a major role in the oxidation of organic matter in secondary treatment. Reason (R): Aeration provides oxygen that helps these bacteria grow and form flocs.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
8. Assertion (A): The effluent from secondary treatment is safe for human consumption. Reason (R): It is completely free of organic matter and pathogens.1) Both A and R are false 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
9. Biogas produced in sewage treatment plants mainly contains—1) O₂, CO₂, CH₄ 2) CO₂, NH₃, H₂S3) CH₄, H₂O, O₂ 4) CH₄, CO₂, H₂
10. The correct sequence of stages in sewage treatment is—1) Screening → Primary treatment → Secondary treatment → Discharge 2) Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Sludge digestion → Discharge 3) Screening → Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Discharge 4) Screening → Primary → Sludge digestion → Filtration → Secondary
11. Which of the following statements about alcoholic fermentation is correct?1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae converts ethanol to glucose anaerobically 2) Glucose is converted to ethanol and CO₂ by yeast 3) Lactic acid bacteria are primarily used 4) Alcohol is produced in aerobic conditions only
12. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants is advantageous because:1) It produces genetically identical offspring for stability 2) It ensures genetic variation, aiding evolution and adaptation 3) It does not require pollination 4) It bypasses meiosis
13. Which part of the flower produces female gametes?1) Ovule2) Anther 3) Filament 4) Petal
14. Which of the following is a sexual reproductive structure in flowering plants?1) Leaf 2) Flower 3) Stem cutting 4) Root tuber
15. Which of the following statements is true about pollen grains?1) They are haploid structures forming from microspores 2) They are diploid and give rise to female gametophyte 3) They are formed in the ovule 4) They undergo meiosis to produce gametes
16. The 2-celled pollen grain consists of:1) Egg cell and synergid 2) Generative cell and tube cell 3) Zygote and endosperm 4) Microspore mother cell and megaspore mother cell
17. Which of the following statements about the embryo sac is correct?1) It is 8-nucleate at maturity in most flowering plants 2) It is diploid at maturity 3) It develops from microspores 4) It produces male gametes
18. Which of the following is a haploid structure?1) Zygote 2) Embryo sac nuclei 3) Endosperm 4) Ovule integuments
19. Which of the following is a male gamete?1) Vegetative nucleus 2) Generative nucleus 3) Synergid nucleus 4) Antipodal nucleus
20. In a mature embryo sac, the male gametes fuse with:1) Two synergids 2) Egg cell and central cell 3) Antipodal cells 4) Polar nuclei and synergids
21. In pollen grains, the vegetative nucleus:1) Forms male gametes 2) Guides the pollen tube 3) Fuses with egg cell 4) Forms antipodals
22. Which of the following pairs are male gametes in angiosperms?1) Generative nucleus and tube nucleus 2) Two nuclei formed from generative nucleus 3) Tube nucleus and vegetative cell 4) Egg cell and central cell
23. In a 3-celled pollen grain, the nuclei are:1) 1 tube nucleus + 2 sperm nuclei 2) 3 sperm nuclei 3) 2 tube nuclei + 1 sperm nucleus 4) 3 tube nuclei
24. Which of the following are correct regarding linked genes? I. Are located near each other on same chromosome II. Violate the law of independent assortment III. Segregate together during meiosis1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
25. A plant having 24cm long internodes is crossed with a plant having 12cm long internodes, the hybrids have 18cm long internodes. What will be the reason for the result?1) Multiple alleles 2) Complete dominance 3) Incomplete dominance 4) Dominant- recessive alleles
26. Select the incorrect pair.1) Linkage – Drosophila 2) Pleiotropy – ABO blood group 3) Incomplete dominance ‐ Antirrhinum 4) Polygenic inheritance- Human skin colour
27. For a child having blood group B, if father has blood group A. What may be the blood group of the mother?1) O or B2) O3) AB or B 4) A
28. If the gene frequency between genes A and C is 2%, B and C is 13%, B and D is 4%, A and B is 15%, C and D is 17%, A and D is 19%. The arrangement of the genes will be1) ADBC 2) DBAC3) ABCD 4) ACBD
29. In Mirabilis jalapa, RR, Rr, rr determine red, pink and white colors respectively. When F1 hybrid of RR and rr was crossed with dominant parent. What is the ratio produced?1) All red 2) All pink 3) 2 red: 2 pink 4) 2 pink: 2 white
30. Assertion (A): In multiple alleles, more than two alleles are present in a population for a character. Reason (R): All these alleles are present in a single individual1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
31. Select the correct statement.1) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombination 2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombination 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombination as the tightly linked ones 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show fewer recombination
32. Grain colour of wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. A cross was made between AABBCC and aabbcc. In F2 generation what percent of progeny would resemble parents?1) Half2) Three fourth3) One third 4) Less than 5%
33. In Drosophila, gene for white eye colour is also responsible for depigmentation of body parts. The gene is said to be1) Oncogene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Epistatic gene
34. Match the following:Options1) 1- iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii 2) 1- ii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i 3) 1- iv, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii 4) 1- ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-v
35. In Morgan experiment on linkage, what is the difference in parental type percent for cross A and cross B?1) 33.22) 35.93) 28.7 3) 25.5
36. Pleiotropism refers to1) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single gene 2) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a multiplegene 3) Phenomenon of single effect of a multiplealleles 4) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single allele
37. In Morgan experiment on drosophila, the strength of linkage between y and w is1) Higher than w and m 2) Lower than w and m 3) Same as w and m 4) None of above
38. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies. Reason: In a cross which follows Mendelian law, both parent plants can be homozygous.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but and R is true
39. Identify the wrong statement regarding gene I.1) Gene I has three alleles 2) A person will have only two of three alleles 3) Allele i is recessive 4) IA and IB show incomplete dominance
40. What map unit (deciMorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?1) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over 2) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 10% cross over 3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over 4) Both A and B
41. The genotypes of a husband and a wife are IAIB and IBi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?1) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 2) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes 3) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 4) 3 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
42. Select the incorrect pair.1) A.Sturtevant – chromosome map 2) TH. Morgan – linkage 3) Walter sutton – chromosome 4) Carl correns – incomplete dominance
43. Statement 1: In co-dominance, for F2 generation both phenotypic and genotypic ratio is same. Statement 2: Co- dominance is generally observed in cattle coat where the animal shows only parental phenotype.1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct 2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect 4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
44. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by1) Morgan2) Boveri3) Correns 4) Mendel
45. In man, gene A is known to produce a number of phenotypic traits, the gene is known as1) Polygene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Multiple gene
46. The vector for chikungunya is1) Female culex mosquito 2) Female anopheles mosquito 3) Female aedes albopictus mosquito 4) Female pipiens mosquito
47. Match the following diseases with their pathogens1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V, E-III 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV 3) A-IV, C-II, C-III, D-I, E-V 4) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-III
48. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one1) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cells 2) Acidic pH of stomach is an example of physical barrier 3) Acquired immunity\ has an immunological memory 4) Failing to identify self-antigen leads to autoimmune disorder
49. Oral polio vaccine elicits what response in the body?1. Activation of memory cells 2. Passive immunity 3. Anamnestic 4. Amnestic
50. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to mosquito?1) Trophozoite 2) Gametocyte 3) Merozoite 4) Sporozoite
51. The life cycle of Entamoeba is completed in1) One host2) Two host3) Three host 4) Four host
52. The type of immunity acquired by an individual after receiving a vaccine is1) Innate immunity 2) Passive immunity 3) Active immunity 4) Natural immunity
53. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies in humoral immunity?1) T-helper cells2) Cytotoxic T-cells 3) B-cells 4) Natural killer cells
54. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the immune system?1) Innate immunity is specific and develops memory cells after exposure to pathogens. 2) Acquired immunity is non-specific and present at birth. 3) B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. 4) T-lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity.
55. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of1) Antigen-antibody interaction 2) Memory of the immune system 3) Phagocytosis by macrophages 4) Inflammation response
56. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?1) AIDS 2) Rheumatoid arthritis 3) Malaria 4) Tuberculosis
57. Identify infectious diseases from the list given below (i) Cancer(ii) Influenza (iii) Allergy(iv) Small pox1) (i) and (ii)2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (iii) and (iv)4) (ii) and (iv)
58. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork 2) Bite of mosquito vectors3) Drinking water containing egg of4) Droplet infection
59. Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology?1) Hepatitis B 2) Oral polio vaccine 3) Salk vaccine 4) DPT vaccine
60. The organ which got damaged in a malarial patient is1) Lungs 2) Heart 3) Liver 4) Kidney
61. The genera of fungi which is responsible for skin infection is/are1) Microsporum 2) Trichophyton 3) Epidermophyton 4) All of these
62. The formation of gametocytes of Plasmodium takes place inside1) Human RBC 2) Liver 3) Gut of mosquito 4) Salivary glands of mosquito
63. Identify the correct statement from below regarding the life cycle of Plasmodium1) Sporozoites reproduce sexually in liver cells 2) Formation of zygote occurs in the gut of female Anopheles mosquito 3) Female mosquito takes up merozoite along with blood meal 4) Micro and macro merozoites are released during rupturing of RBC
64. Which of the following cells are not a part of cellular barrier of innate immunity?1) Neutrophils 2) NK cells 3) Macrophages 4) Helper T-cells
65. The ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms is called1) Allergy 2) DNA technology 3) Immunity 4) Antibody
66. Saliva in the mouth belongs to which type of barrier?1) Cytokine barrier 2) Physiological barrier 3) Physical barrier 4) Cellular barrier
67. Which of the following are polymorphonuclear leucocytes?1) Neutrophils2) Lymphocytes3) Monocytes 4) NK cells
68. Observe the given figure and identify A, B and C1) A-Epitope, B-Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 2) A-Paratope, B- Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 3) A-FC region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain 4) A-Variable region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain
69. Assertion: Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages. Reason: Auxins promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.1) 1.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, but R is false 4) A is false, but R is true
70. One hormone hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation, while the third hormone increases the tolerance of plants to various stresses. They are respectively1) Gibberellin, Auxin, Ethylene 2) Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin 3) Gibberellin, Auxin, ABA 4) Auxin, Gibberellin, ABA.
71. Match the interaction of PGRs1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii) 2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii) 3) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii) 4) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
72. In tissue culture experiment, leaf mesophyll cells are put in culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as1) Development 2) Senescence 3) Differentiation 4) Dedifferentiation
73. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements 3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
74. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is included under intrinsic factors?1) Growth regulators 2) Water 3) Oxygen 4) All of these
75. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Plasticity is influenced by both growth phases and environmental conditions. Statement II: Larkspur heterophylly is an example of environmental plasticity. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. 2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
76. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio 2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio 3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio 4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
77. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin 2) cytokinin 3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
78. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
79. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in1) Annual plants 2) Floral parts 3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation 4) Leaf abscission
80. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?1) IAA and gibberellin 2) Auxin and cytokinin 3) Auxin and abscisic acid 4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
81. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin2) cytokinin3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
82. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?1) Cyanobacteria 2) Diatoms 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Euglenoids
83. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomes because1) they both need food molecules 2) they require both RNA and DNA 3) both require the environment of a cell to replicate 4) they both require oxygen for respiration
84. Black rust of wheat is caused by1) Puccinia 2) Aspergillus 3) Mucor 4) Rhizopus
85. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of1) Phytophthora 2) Uncinula 3) Ustilago 4) Claviceps
86. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey 2) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water3) using flagella for locomotion 4) having two types of nuclei
87. Which of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?1) Bacteria 2) Euglena 3) Mycoplasma 4) Paramecium
88. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates4) Slime moulds
89. TO. Diener discovered a1) free infectious RNA 2) free infectious DNA 3) infectious protein 4) bacteriophage
90. Choose the wrong statement.1) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics 2) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics 3) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms 4) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (25.10.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.CHEMISTRY1. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to the state of the principal quantum number 5. Then the number of spectral lines observed will be:
1) 62) 103) 15 4) 20
2. What is the ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in Brackett series of Hydrogen spectra?
1) 12/3 2) 25/93) 16/25 4) 4/3
3. Calculate the radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit (in nm) for Hydrogen atom.
1) 1322.5 2) 13.2253) 1.32254) 0.1322
4. What is the value of orbital angular momentum for an electron in 5s orbital?
1) 12) 03) 24) 4
5. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of Hydrogen?
1) +3.4 eV2) -13.6 eV3) -3.4 eV4) +13.6 eV
6. How many spherical nodes are present in 5s orbital in a Hydrogen atom
1) 32) 43) 1 4) 0
7. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Ca atom is:
1) 02) 13) 24) 3
8. Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron if the uncertainty in its velocity is 5.7 X 105 m/s.
1) 2 × 10 12 m2) 1 × 10-10m3) 3 × 10 3 m4) 1 × 10 -2 m
9. How many electrons in Magnesium have m = 0?
1) 122) 103) 8 4) 6
10. The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-5 m is
1) 7.27 × 106 m/s2) 0.761 ×104 m/s3) 0.725 × 102 m/s4) 7.6 3 × 104 m/s
11. The uncertainty in measuring velocity of a proton is 4 X 103 m/s. The minimum uncertainty involved in measuring the position of proton will be?1) 3.7 × 104 m2) 4.3 × 10-12 m3) 7.9 × 10 -12 m4) 3.7 × 108 m
12. What is the normality of a solution containing 49 g of H₂SO₄ in 100 m L of solution?
1) 1N 2) 0.01 N3) 10 N 4) 100 N
1) 30.25 g2) 37.74 g3) 50.32 g4) 52.50 g
1) 60 M2) 65 M3) 45 M 4) 50 M
1) 50 g2) 1g3) 10g 4) 5g
1) HF2) H2F23) H3F3 4) H4F4
1) 0.502) 0.353) 0.30 4) 0.20
1) Law of Conservation of Mass2) Law of Definite Proportions3) Law of Multiple Proportions4) Law of Reciprocal Proportions
1) 2.8 L 2) 5.6 L3) 1.4 L 4) 4.2 L
1) 0.6022 x 1023 2) 3.011 x 10233) 3.6 x 10234) 6.022 x 1023
1) 1.32 g 2) 1.47 g3) 1.25 g 4) 3.66 g
1) 2.24 x 104 2) 2.24 x 1033) 3.136 x 1044) 3.136 x 103
1) 0.075 2) 0.0173) 0.5 4) 0.025
1) Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3 2) Na3[Fe (CN)6]3) Fe (CN)3 4) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
1) Cobalt salt2) Lead slat3) Zinc Salt 4) Silver Salt
1) 42) 33) 54) 7
1) H2S2) NO23) NH34) SO2
1) HCO3–2) NO3–3) S24) All of these
1) Chloride2) Carbonate3) Nitrate4) Both (1) and (3)
1) 0 2) 23) 3 4) 4
1) CH3CH2NH22) CH3CH3OH3) CH3CH2NHCH3 4) CH3CH2CN
1) Tartaric acid2) α-amino acids3) Maleic acid4) Lactic acid
1) NO2 donates electron meta position2) NO2 withdraws electron from ortho and para positions3) NO2 make ring electron rich at ortho and para.4) NO2 withdraws electron from meta position.
1) n-butane2) 1-butene3) cis-2-butene 4) trans-2-butene.
1) Cl–< Br– < I– 2) I–< Cl– < Br–3) Br– < Cl– < I^– 4) I–< Br– < Cl–
1) (I), (II)2) (II), (I)3) (I), (III)4) (III), (I)
1) C6 H5 CH2 Br2) C6 H5 CH(C6H5)Br3) C6 H5 CH(CH3)Br4) C6 H5 C(CH3)(C6 H5)Br
45. Which of the following has highest nucleophilicity?
1) SH–2) H₂O3) OH–4) F–