Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. A force vector lies in the xy-plane and makes an angle of with the positive y-axis, as shown in the figure. If the y-component of the force is given as 2√3 N what is the corresponding component of the force?

2. A submarine having a fixed volume is floating submerged underwater. Air, at high pressure, is pumped into the submarine using pipes. Due to this, the submarine will:

3. The dimension of which group of quantities is the same?
h: Planck’s constant, K : kinetic energy,ω: angular speed/frequency, F: force, L: inductance, i : current, q : charge, t : time, x: distance

1. h,Ftx,Liq
2. K , hω, ωLi
3. Fx,Li²,Kω
4.  Fx/t, Kx, ht

4. The moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder with mass M and R radius about its axis of rotation is given as MR² .The radius of gyration of the cylinder about this axis, is:

1. R/√2
2. √2 R
3. R
4. R/2

5. An electromagnetic wave of frequency MHz passes from a vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative permittivity Then:

1. wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
2. wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
3. wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
4. wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged

6. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

1. half
2. four times
3. one-fourth
4. double

7. What would be the equivalent capacitance between A and B ?


1. 5 μF
2. 4/5 μF
3. 5/4 μF
4. 2 μF

8. An object of mass g just floats in a liquid of density g/ml. When the object is placed in a liquid of density g/ml, it sinks to the bottom of the container. What is the force that the object exerts on the bottom of the container? (take g = 10 m/s² = 10 N/kg)

1. 0.1 N
2. 0.4 N
3. 10 N
4. 40 N

9. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that:
(A) Its velocity is constant.
(B) Its acceleration is constant.
(C) Its kinetic energy is constant.
(D) It moves in a circular path.
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (A) and (C) only

10. Two heaters and have power rating of and, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

1. 2 :9
2. 1: 2
3. 2 :3
4. 1 :1

11. A metallic rod of mass per unit length of 0.5 kgm^-1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction of T is acting on it in the vertical direction. What is the current flowing through the rod to keep it stationary?

1. 7.14A
2. 5.98 A
3. 14.76A
4. 11.32 A

12. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear reactor because of its:

1. high thermal expansion coefficient
2. high specific heat capacity
3. low density
4. low boiling point

13. The law of gravitation states that the gravitational force between two bodies of mass is m₁ and m₂ given by:

G (gravitational constant) = 7×10^-11 N-m² kg^-2
r (distance between the two bodies) in the case of the Earth and Moon = 4 × 10⁸ m
m₁(Earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg
m₂(Moon) = 7 × 10²² kg
What is the gravitational force between the Earth and the Moon?

1. 1.8375 × 10¹⁹ N 
2. 1.8375 × 10²⁰ N
3. 1.8375 × 10²⁵ N 
4. 1.8375 × 10²⁶ N

14. If an AND-gate and an OR-gate are OR-ed together, the resulting gate is:

1. AND
2. OR
3. XOR
4. none of the above

15. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When light consisting of wavelengths corresponding to the Balmer series is incident on a gas containing ions in the first three excited states – it can be absorbed by the ions.
Reason (R): All the energy levels of the ions are the same as those of the atoms.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

16. A particle with charge enters a uniform magnetic field of strength (directed into the plane of the paper) and is deflected by a distance after traveling a distance as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the linear momentum of the particle is:

17. Arrange the following in the order of their resistance.
A. (0 to 1 A) ranged ammeter.
B. (0 to 100 mA) ranged milli-ammeter.
C. (0 to 500 μA) ranged micro-ammeter.
D. (0 to 100 V) ranged voltmeter.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A > B > C > D
2. D > C > B > A
3. D > A > B > C
4. C > B > A > D

18. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is , is then the force on the remaining segment BCDA is:

19. An inductor of inductance 2 mH is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. Let the inductive reactance in the circuit is X₁. If a 220 V DC source replaces the AC source in the circuit, then the inductive reactance in the circuit is X₂. X₁ and X₂ , respectively, are:

1. 6.28 Ω, zero
2. 6.28 Ω, infinity
3. 0.628 Ω, zero
4. 0.628 Ω, infinity

20. If the same amount of heat is supplied to two spheres of the same material having the same radius (one is hollow and the other is solid), then:

1. the expansion in hollow is greater than the expansion in solid
2. the expansion in hollow is the same as that in solid
3. the expansion in hollow is lesser than in solid
4. the temperature of both must be the same

21. The rope and pulley are ideal and there is no friction anywhere except between the10 kg-block and the horizontal plane, where μ (coefficient of friction) = 0.2. Take g = 10 m/s², if required.

If m = 1 kg, what will be the acceleration of the system?

22. On any planet, the presence of atmosphere implies: (where = root mean square velocity of molecules and = escape velocity)

1. v_rms < v_e
2. v_rms  > v_e
3. v_rms = v_e
4. v_rms  = 0

23. Two point charges q_A,q_B are placed at the opposite ends A & B of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle ABC(∠C=90°). The lengths of the sides are denoted by using the standard notation:
l(AB) = c,l(BC) = a & l (AC) = b.O is the mid-point of the hypotenuse AB.

If the electric field at C is parallel to AB, then (considering the four statements given below):


1. p & r are true
2. p & s are true
3. q & r are true
4. q & s are true

24. A solid sphere of mass  and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and the same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (sphere/cylinder) will be:

1. 2 : 3
2. 1 : 5
3. 1 : 4
4. 3 : 1

25. As the quantum number n increases, the kinetic energy (E_k) of an electron in the n^th Bohr orbit (in an atom) varies as: (A is a positive constant)

26. In the context of linear simple harmonic motion (SHM), consider the following statements:
(A) Acceleration is maximum at the mean position.
(B) Velocity is maximum at the extreme position.
(C) Acceleration is maximum at the extreme position.
(D) Velocity is maximum at the mean position.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (B), (C) and (D) only
2. (A) and (D) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (C) and (D) only

27. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with the horizontal and with a speed of 30 ms^-1. What is the angle with the horizontal after 1.5 seconds? (take g = 10 ms^-2 )

1. 0°
2. 30°
3. 60°
4. 90°

28. A ball is projected vertically upwards and then falls back to its original position. Once projected, the ball experiences only a single force, downwards, due to a constant gravitational field strength of 10 N/kg. Here are three statements about the ball:
(1) When the ball is moving upwards, it loses kinetic energy and gains potential energy.
(2)The magnitude of the ball’s acceleration increases as it falls.
(3) No vertical forces act on the ball when it is at its maximum height.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

1. none of them
2. (1) and (2) only
3. (3) only
4. (1) only

29. The wheel of a motor accelerates uniformly from rest. In the first second, it rotates through an angle of radians. What will be the angle through which it rotates in the next second?

1. radians
2. radians
3. radians
4. radians

30. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M moving at speed v collides elastically with another block of the same mass M which is initially at rest. After the collision, the first block moves at an angle θ to its initial direction and has a speed v/3. The second block’s speed after the collision will be:

31. Two long co-axial conducting cylinders, separated by a small radial distance, have a mutual capacitance of C₀  Three-fourths of the (angular) space between the conductors is filled by a dielectric of relative permittivity K (the remaining is air). The new capacitance is:

32. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 30 m/s in a direction 30° above the horizontal. The time taken by the ball to return to the same level will be: (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 1.5s
2. 3s
3. 6s
4. 12

33. A spherical air bubble is embedded in glass, and a ray of light (incident ray I) approaches the bubbles as shown in the figure. Which best represents the refracted ray which passes through the bubble?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

34. The compressibility factor, Z = pV/nRTis defined for gases, R being the universal gas constant & the remaining quantities p, V,T,n being defined using standard notation. A graph of Z versus pressure is shown for gases A & B at moderate temperatures T₁ & T₂ .

The value of for an ideal gas would be:

1. 1
2. 3/2
3. 2/3
4. 5/4

35. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h₁,h₂ and h₃ in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next seconds respectively. The relation between h₁,h₂ and h₃ is:

36. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): In a swinging simple pendulum, the power delivered by gravity is maximum when the pendulum is at the lowest point.
Reason (R): The speed of the pendulum bob is highest when it reaches the lowest point and the power is given by

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

37. A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is


1. P₀ V₀ 2.
2 P₀ V₀
3. P₀ V₀/2
4. zero

38. A metal wire of mass m slides without friction on two horizontal rails distance apart. The track is in a vertical uniform magnetic field of induction B . A battery of constant emf ε is connected to the rails. The terminal speed of the slider is:

1. εB/l
2. ε/Bl
3. 3ε/2Bl
4. 2ε/3Bl

39. Two loops, and are placed coaxially along a vertical line. Loop is allowed to move freely towards loop If the constant current flowing in loop is as shown in the figure, what is the direction of the induced current in loop as viewed from the bottom of the loop?

1. clockwise
2. anticlockwise
3. no current will be induced
4. can’t be determined

40. An inductor coil having some resistance is connected to an AC source. Which of the following quantities have zero average value over a cycle?
(A) Current
(B) Induced EMF in the inductor
(C) Joule heat
(D)Magnetic energy stored in the inductor
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (A) and (B) only

41. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of the resulting system:

1. decreases by a factor of
2. remains the same
3. increases by a factor of
4. increases by a factor of

42. With what minimum acceleration can a fireman slide down a rope whose breaking strength is 2^th /5 of his weight?

1. 1 g
2. 0.4 g
3. 0.6 g
4. 0.8 g

43. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Sound waves cannot propagate through a vacuum but light waves can.
Reason (R): Sound waves cannot be polarised but light waves can be.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

44. The length of an elastic string is x when the tension is 8 N, and y m when the tension is 10 N. The length of the string in metres when the tension is 18 N will be:

1. 4x-5y
2. 5y-4x
3. 9x-4y
4. 4y-9x

45. The time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass slab of thickness 5 mm and refractive index 1.5 is:

CHEMISTRY

46. Among cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6- trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV) the correct order of decreasing acidic character will be:

1. III>II>IV>I
2. II>III>I>IV
3. II>III>IV>I
4. III>IV>II>I

47. Arrange the given oxides in decreasing order of their basic character:

1. Na₂O > MgO > Al₂O₃ > CuO
2. MgO > Al₂O₃ > CuO > Na₂O
3. Al₂O₃ > MgO > CuO > Na₂O
4. CuO > Na₂O> MgO  > Al₂O₃

48. The structure of Al₂ Cl₆ contains:

1. Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds
2. Four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-3e bonds
3. Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-4e bonds
4. Two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-4e bonds

49. The incorrect statement regarding ammonia is:

1. Ammonia is a colorless gas with a pungent odor.
2. Ammonia is used for the manufacture of nitric acid.
3. As a weak base, it precipitates the hydroxides of many metals from their salt solutions.
4. Ammonia molecule is trigonal planar with the nitrogen atom at the apex.

50. Molar conductivities (⋀^∘_m ) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl, and CH₃COONa are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.0 S cm² mol^-1
For (⋀^∘_m ) for CH₃COOH will be:

1. 180.5 S cm² mol^-1
2. 290.8 S cm² mol^-1
3. 390.5 S cm² mol^-1
4. 425.5 S cm² mol^-1

51. Which of the following statements is not correct for amines?

1. Most alkyl amines are more basic than ammonia solutions.
2. pK_b value of ethylamine is lower than that for benzylamine.
3. CH₃NH₂ on reaction with nitrous acid releases NO₂
4. Hinsberg’s reagent reacts with secondary amines to form sulphonamides.

52. A golf ball has a mass of 40g, and a speed of 45 m/s. If the speed can be measured within the accuracy of 2%, the uncertainty in the position is:

1. 14.6×10^–23 m
2. 14.6×10^–33 m
3. 1.46×10^–23 m
4. 1.46×10^–33 m

53. If dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed will be:

1. +6
2. +4
3. +5
4. +2

54. The reagent used in dehalogenation process is:

1. KOH alc.
2. Zn dust+ alc.
3. Na
4. KOH(aq)

55. Consider the following statements about sucrose:
a: It is a dextrorotary compound.
b: It is composed of Glucose and Fructose units
c: It reduces Tollens’ reagent.
The correct statements are:

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (c) only
4. (a), (b), and (c)

56. The pair of ions that is isoelectronic with ion is:

1. Mg²⁺, O^2-
2. Na⁺, N^2-
3. C^4-, Cl^–
4. F^–,  Mg⁺

57. Consider the following bromides: the correct order of SN1 reactivity is:


1. A>B>C
2. B>C>A
3. B>A>C
4. C>B>A

58. Which of the following statements about the reaction given below is correct?
4 Fe(s) + 3O_2(g)→2 Fe₂ O_3(g)

1. Total mass of iron and oxygen in reactants = total mass of iron and oxygen in product therefore it follows the law of conservation of mass
2. Total mass of reactants = total mass of product, therefore, the law of multiple proportions is followed
3. The amount of Fe₂O₃ can be increased by taking any one of the reactants (iron or oxygen) in excess.
4. The amount of Fe₂ O₃ produced will decrease if the amount of any one of the reactants (iron or oxygen) is taken in excess.

59. Which of the following alcohols will react fastest with HCl/ZnCl₂?

60. If the solubility of an aqueous solution of Mg(OH)₂ is X mol/L, what is the corresponding value of its K_sp ?

1. 4X³
2. 108X⁵
3. 27X⁴
4. 9X

61. The incorrect statement among the following for an ideal solution is:

1. ∆ H_Mix=0
2. ∆ U_Mix=0
3. ∆P=∆ P_obs.-P_{(Calculated by Raoult’ slaw)}=0
4. ∆ G_Mix=0

62. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂ (en)₂ ]⁺ is:

1. Geometrical isomerism
2. Coordination isomerism
3. Ionization isomerism
4. Linkage isomerism

63. The correct identification of a and b is:


1. (a) Methanol/H⁺ (b) Ethanoic anhydride
2. (a) Ethanol/H⁺ (b) Ethanoic anhydride
3. (a) Ethanoic anhydride (b) Methanol/H⁺
4. (a) Ethanoic anhydride (b) Ethanol/H⁺

64. Choose the incorrect statement regarding S_N2 reactions:

1. As the concentration of nucleophiles increases, the reaction rate increases.
2. Both the attack of the nucleophile and the departure of the leaving group occur simultaneously.
3. Inversion of configuration occurs on asymmetric centers because the nucleophile attacks from the backside of the leaving group.
4. The S_N2 mechanism is predominant in tertiary alkyl halides.

65. Standard electrode potentials are:
Fe⁺²/ Fe, E°=-0.44
Fe⁺³/ Fe⁺², E°=0.77
Choose the correct observation when , and are kept together:

1. increases
2. decreases
3. remains unchanged
4. decreases

66. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)

1. 28 g
2. 3.5 g
3. 7 g
4. 14 g

67. Select the correct option based on the statements below:
Assertion (A): Chlorine is an electron-withdrawing group, yet it exhibits ortho- and para-directing behaviour in electrophilic aromatic substitution.
Reason (R): Inductive effect of chlorine destabilises the intermediate carbocation formed during the electrophilic substitution, however due to the more pronounced resonance effect, the halogen stabilises the carbocation at ortho and para positions.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

68. The method that can be used to find out the strength of the reductant/oxidant in a solution is:

1. Measurement of electrode potential using standard electrodes
2. Fuel cells
3. Resistance calculation
4. Measurement of conductance

69. Two compartments, A and B, are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A contains 0.01 M Na₂SO₄ solution, and compartment B contains 0.02 M BaCl₂ solution. In which compartment will the precipitate of BaSO₄ be formed?

1. Compartment A
2. Compartment B
3. No precipitate is formed in any compartment
4. Precipitate forms in both compartments A and B

70. Match the isolated gaseous ions given in column I with the number of unpaired electrons given in column II and assign the correct code:

       A         B          C         D

1.   R          P          Q         S
2.  Q          S          P          R
3.  Q          S          R          P
4.  S          Q          R          P

71. The following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B:

The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively are:

1. 1, 0
2. 0, 1
3. 1, 2
4. 2, 1

72. The molarity of the solution obtained by adding 5 grams of NaOH to 200 ml of water is:

1. 1.043 M
2. 1.725 M
3. 0.825 M
4. 0.625 M

73. Assertion (A): In the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum, the transitions occur from an initial energy level ( = 2 ) to successive higher energy levels = 3, 4, 5,… .
    Reason (R): In the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum, the transitions with the highest wavelength correspond to energy level values of n equal to 4 and 6.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

74. Identify (X), (Y), and (Z) in the given reaction:

75. Identify the statement that is incorrect regarding chirality:

1. A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
2. S_N reaction yields a 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers
3. The product obtained by S_N 2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows the inversion of configuration
4. Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other

76. If one coulomb of electric charge is passed through a solution of silver nitrate (AgNO₃) during electrolysis, what is the mass of silver (in milligrams) deposited at the electrode? (Given: Molar mass of Ag = 108 g/mol)

1. 1.12 mg
2. 3.26 mg
3. 2.54 mg
4. 4.02 mg

77. Which is the correct expression for in the following reaction?

78. The correct order of ionic radii is:

1. H^–> H⁺>H
2. Na⁺> F^–>O^2-
3. F^–>O^2-> Na⁺
4. N^3->Mg²⁺>Al³⁺

79. Match Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate option :


1. A(Q); B(R); C(P); D(S)
2. A(P); B(R); C(Q); D(S)
3. A(Q); B(P); C(R); D(S)
4. A(Q); B(P); C(S); D(Q)

80. Assertion (A): Reduction of nitrobenzene using Fe and HCl is preferred over Sn and H
       Reason (R): With Fe, only a small amount of HCl is required to initiate the reaction, as FeCl₂ formed gets hydrolyzed to  release hydrochloric acid.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

81. The reaction of toluene with Cl₂ in presence of FeCl₃ gives ‘X’ and reaction in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are

1. X = Benzal chloride, Y = o-chlorotoluene
2. X = m-chlorotoluene, Y= p-chlorotoluene
3. X = o-and p-chlorotoluene, Y = trichloromethyl benzene
4. X = Benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene

82. The most stable carbocation is:

83. An organic compound C₅ H₁₀O forms phenyl hydrazone that gives a positive iodoform test and undergoes Wolff Kishner reaction to give isopentane.
The IUPAC name of the organic compound is:

1. Pentanol
2. Pentan-2-one
3. Pentan-3-one
4. 3-Methylbutan-2-one

84. The shape of molecule is bent while that of is linear. The correct explanation for this fact is that dipole moment of:

1. carbon dioxide is 3.84 D and that of water is zero.
2. water is zero and that of carbon dioxide is 1.84D
3. carbon dioxide is zero and that of water is 1.84 D.
4. carbon dioxide is 3.84 D and that of water is 1.84 D.

85. For the reaction:
X₂ O₄ (l)→2XO₂ (g) with the given values ∆U=2.1 kcal and ∆S=20 cal K^-1 at 300K, what is the value of ?

1. +2.7 kcal
2. –2.7 kcal
3. +9.3 kcal
4. –9.3 kcal

86. A cell is represented as:
Pt|H₂(g,0.1bar)H⁺ (aq),pH = X|| Cl^–(aq,1M)|Hg₂ Cl₂|Hg|Pt,
This cell has an e.m.f of 0.5755 V at 25°C. The Standard Oxidation Potential (SOP) of the calomel electrode is -0.28 V. What is the of the solution?

1. 11
2. 4.5
3. 5.5
4. 8.5

87. What is the activation energy for reverse reaction on the basis of given data?
N₂ O₄ (g)→ 2NO₂  (g) ΔH = +54kJ
E_a(forward) = +57.2 kJ

1. -54 kJ
2. +3.2 kJ
3. 60.2 kJ
4. 111.2 kJ

88. The number of bridging carbonyl groups in [Co₂ (CO)₈] and [Mn₂(CO)₁₀], respectively are:

1. 2 and 0
2. 2 and 2
3. 2 and 4
4. 0 and 2

89. Which of the following elements is an unreactive metal?

1. Chlorine
2. Gold
3. Sodium
4. Radon

90. A molecule among the following that has the maximum dipole moment is:

1. CO₂
2. CH₄
3. NH₃
4. NF₃

91. Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic feature observed during:

1. Synaptonemal complex in the zygotene stage
2. Chiasmata in the diplotene stage
3. Synaptonemal complex in the pachytene stage
4. Chiasmata in the zygotene stage

92. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

93. In Priestley’s experiment with a mint plant and a candle, if the bell jar setup is kept in the dark, what result would likely be observed regarding the candle’s burning, and what does it imply?

1. The candle would extinguish, implying photosynthesis requires light.
2. The candle would continue burning, showing photosynthesis doesn’t require light.
3. The candle would continue burning, showing plants release oxygen regardless of light.
4. The candle would extinguish, suggesting plants release oxygen even in the dark.

94. Mesosomes in bacteria are infoldings of the plasma membrane that function in:

1. Protein synthesis and lipid storage
2. Absorption of nutrients and production of antibiotics
3. Providing structural support to bacterial cell walls
4. Respiration, DNA replication, and cell division

95. Consider the following statements:
I: Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the efferent arteriole
II: Afferent arteriole forms the peritubular capillary network
III: Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in juxtamedullary nephrons

1. Only III is correct
2. I is correct but II and III are incorrect
3. I, II and III are incorrect
4. I and II are correct

96. The nodal musculature of the heart has the capability to generate impulse:

1. on stimulation by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
2. on stimulation by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
3. on stimulation by the somatic neural division of the peripheral nervous system
4. without any external stimulus

97. The number of correct statements from the given statements are:
I: Almost all enzymes are proteins.
II: Some nucleic acids can behave like enzymes.
III: No enzyme in living organisms can function above 40 °C.
IV: Enzymes are the reason that chemicals react with each other.
V: Enzymes are not sensitive to pH in their environment.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

98. Which part of the human brain has a number of centers that control body temperature, urge for eating, and drinking?

1. Thalamus
2. Hypothalamus
3. Cerebellum
4. Cerebrum

99. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of the introduction of the Nile Perch into Lake Victoria in East Africa?

1. An increase in the population of native fish species due to a new food source.
2. A decrease in the diversity of phytoplankton due to competition for resources.
3. A significant decline in the populations of native cichlid fish species due to predation.
4. An improvement in water quality due to the filtering activity of the Nile Perch.

100. An example of colonial alga is:

1. Volvox
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. Chlorella

101. Identify the correct statements:
Statement I: Frog eye does not have closable eye lids.
Statement II: A nictitating membrane provides protection to the eye, especially when the frog is swimming.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

102. There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.), evolved around:

1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Proteins
4. Lipids

103. Consider the given statements:
I: Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are modified to store food in them.
II: Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds, are slender and spirally coiled and help to climb plants such as gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and grapevines.
III: Thorns are found in many plants such as Citrus, Bougainvillea, and help the plants store water.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

104. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.
Statement II: Meiosis results in reduction of chromosome number by half.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II does not explain Statement I.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II explains Statement I.
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

105. Identify the correctly matched pairs:


1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and IV

106. The stalk of the inflorescence is called

1. Pedicel
2. Petiole
3. Peduncle
4. Phyllode

107. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The primary drive for breathing at rest is the concentration of oxygen in the blood rather than the concentration of carbon-dioxide.
Statement II: Carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion concentration have no effect on central chemoreceptors in the brain.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

108. In Darwinian terms, what does ‘fitness’ refer to?

1. The physical strength and size of an organism.
2. An organism’s ability to survive and reproduce in its environment.
3. The number of mutations an organism accumulates.
4. An organism’s speed and agility.

109. ‘Saheli,’ an oral contraceptive for females, is distinct from other pills due to which of the following characteristics?

1. It is a daily pill with high steroid content.
2. It is a non-steroidal preparation and a ‘once a week’ pill.
3. It is an injectable contraceptive.
4. It requires insertion by a medical professional.

110. Which of the following drugs acts through its receptors located in the brain and the gastrointestinal tract and can be used as a strong analgesic in severe pain conditions?

1. Morphine
2. Cannabinoid
3. Cocaine
4. Atropine

111. How many statements regarding detritus food chain are correct?
I: It begins with dead organic matter.
II: It is the major conduit for energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.
III: It is not connected with the grazing food chain at any level.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

112. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): We have to break the cell open to release DNA along with other macromolecules such as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and also lipids.
Reason (R): Cells can be broken by the application of brief heat shock at 42°C.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

113. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

1. Epinephrine
2. Thrombokinase
3. Thrombin
4. Renin

114. Examine the following statements about synovial joints:
1. Synovial joints contain a fluid-filled cavity between the articulating bones, allowing movement.
2. Examples of synovial joints include the sutures in the skull.
Choose the correct answer:

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

115. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:


Codes:
    A B C D
1. S R Q P
2. S R P Q
3. P Q S R
4. Q P R S

116. How do lactic acid bacteria (LAB) contribute to the fermentation process in curd production, and why istheir presence beneficial in the human stomach?

1. LAB break down lactose into glucose, which enhances the energy content of curd and prevents stomach ulcers.
2. LAB generate carbon dioxide during fermentation, giving curd its texture and providing enzymes that aid in human digestion.
3. LAB act as probiotics that neutralize stomach acid, protecting the stomach lining from the corrosive effects of bile.
4. LAB produce lactic acid, which coagulates milk proteins, improving the nutritional quality of curd by increasing vitamin B12 content and suppressing harmful pathogens in the human stomach.

117. Droplets can be the mode of transmission of pathogens causing all the following diseases except:

1. Ascariasis
2. Pneumonia
3. Common cold
4. Covid-19

118. How does immunotherapy help in the treatment of cancer?

1. Immunotherapy works by directly destroying cancer cells using radiotherapy.
2. Immunotherapy focuses on the use of chemical agents to inhibit tumour growth and metastasis.
3. Immunotherapy works by surgically removing tumours and enhancing the patient’s recovery through medication.
4. Immunotherapy involves using biological response modifiers like αinterferon to activate the immune system to target and destroy cancer cells.

119. What would be the immediate consequence if the enzyme RuBisCO’s oxygenation activity increased significantly in C3 plants due to elevated oxygen concentrations?

1. Increased ATP and NADPH production
2. Increased glucose synthesis
3. Decreased net carbon fixation due to enhanced photorespiration
4. No effect on the rate of photosynthesis

120. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is:

1. embryo at 4 blastomere stage
2. embryo at 2 blastomere stage
3. Morula
4. Zygote

121. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Pollen exine is preserved in fossil records.
Reason(R): Pollen exine is composed of highly resistant sporopollenin.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

122. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can perceive several images of an object, i.e., mosaic vision
Reason (R): Mosaic vision gives less sensitivity but more resolution
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

123. Which statement correctly describes the chemical nature of hormones?

1. All hormones are peptides.
2. All hormones are steroids.
3. Hormones can be steroids, peptides, or derivatives of amino acids.
4. Hormones are primarily carbohydrates.

124. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In geometric growth, following mitotic cell division, only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other differentiates and matures.
Statement II: In arithmetic growth, both the progeny cells following mitotic cell division retain the ability to divide and continue to do so.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

125. Working independently, who reached conclusions similar to those reached by Darwin on evolution of life forms?

1. T R Malthus
2. Hugo de Vries
3. Alfred Russell Wallace
4. Jean Baptist Lamarck

126. Mycelium branched and septate, asexual spores conidia produced exogenously and sexual spores produced endogenously are the features of fungi belonging to:

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

127. The given diagram describes:

1. a hypogynous flower with superior ovary
2. an epigynous flower with inferior ovary
3. a perigynous flower with half-inferior ovary
4. a hypogynous flower with inferior ovary

128. Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:

1. Copper releasing IUD
2. Cervical barrier
3. Vault barrier
4. Non-Medicated IUD

129. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The process occurring in the glomerulus is called ultrafiltration.
Reason (R): Blood is filtered so finely through the glomerular capillaries and the filtration membrane that almost all the plasma constituents, except proteins, pass into the lumen of the Bowman’s capsule.
Choose the correct option:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

130. How many of the given statements regarding gradual evolution of life forms as explained by Darwin are correct?
I: Any population has built in variation in characteristics.
II: Those characteristics which enable some to surviven better in natural conditions (climate, food, physical factors, etc.) would outbreed others that are lessendowed to survive under such natural conditions.
III: The fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.
IV: Those who are better fit in an environment, leave more progeny than others.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

131. Identify the correct combination of A, B and C involved in lactic acid fermentation
C₆ H₁₂  O₆ → 𝐴 + 𝐵 → Lactic + C

132. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Dendrites transmit impulses towards the cell body of the neuron.
Statement II: The axons transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse or to a neuro-muscular junction.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

133. Consider the given statements:
I: Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
II: Aldosterone regulates the secretion of angiotensinogen by liver.
III: Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

134. Which of the following best describes the role of hormone receptors in target tissues?

1. They store hormones for later use.
2. They transport hormones throughout the body.
3. They bind to specific hormones to form hormone-receptor complexes.
4. They break down hormones into simpler molecules.

135. The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis containing:

1. fibrous cartilage
2. hyaline cartilage
3. dense regular connective tissue
4. dense irregular connective tissue

136. In an operon:
I: a polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and regulatory genes
II: the regulation is always negative and inducible

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

137. Graft rejection in organ transplantations is primarily due to:

1. Infections introduced during surgery.
2. The recipient’s cell mediated immune system recognizing the graft as foreign.
3. The recipient’s humoral immune system recognizing the graft as foreign.
4. Incompatibility in blood type only.

138. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes only?

1. Single-stranded DNA with a protein coat
2. Double-stranded circular naked DNA
3. Double-stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
4. Double-stranded circular DNA with histone proteins

139. The Order [taxon] of Musca domestica is:

1. Hymenoptera
2. Diptera
3. Coleoptera
4. Orthoptera

140. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has:

1. Inert crystalline
2. Abnormally folded protein
3. Free RNA without protein coat
4. Free DNA without protein coat

141. Which of the following will bring about inhalation?

1. Contraction of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscles
2. Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscles
3. Contraction of diaphragm and contraction of internal intercostal muscles
4. Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of internal intercostal muscles.

142. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until?

1. Puberty
2. Fertilization
3. Uterine implantation
4. Birth

143. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to vital capacity?
(a) It includes ERV, TV and IRV
(b) Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration
(d) It Includes ERV, RV and IRV
(e) The Maximum volumn of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (b), (d) and (e)
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (a), (c) and (e)
4. (a) and (e)

144. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-

1. Thalassemia
2. Down’s syndrome
3. Turner’s syndrome
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome

145. Which statement about typhoid is NOT correct?

1. Mary Mallon, also known as Typhoid Mary, was the first identified asymptomatic carrier.
2. The Widal test is used for the diagnosis of typhoid.
3. Typhoid is caused by a virus.
4. Typhoid fever is transmitted through contaminated food and water.

146. A population with finite resources shows a logistic growth curve where the correct sequence of events will be:

1. Stationary phase → Acceleration phase → Lag phase → Asymptote
2. Acceleration phase → Deceleration → Asymptote
3. Acceleration phase → Leg phase → Stationary phase
4. Lag phase → Acceleration phase → Deceleration → Asymptote

147. If a new habitat is just being colonised, which of the following may contribute most to the population growth rates?

1. Mortality
2. Emigration
3. Natality
4. Immigration

148. The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical level in classification of plants?

1. Class
2. Order
3. Division
4. Family

149. Thyroid gland, in humans, produces:
I: Iodothyronines
II: Peptide hormone

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

150. Which of the following explains why the scrotum is located outside the body cavity in males?

1. To protect the testes from external trauma.
2. To ensure an optimal temperature for androgen production.
3. To maintain the lower temperature needed for efficient spermatogenesis.
4. To enhance sperm motility in the epididymis.

151. Any nucleotide sequence within a eukaryotic gene that is not expressed or operative in the final RNA product is called as the:

1. Cistron
2. Intron
3. Exon
4. Recon

152. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:


Codes:
    A B C
1. R P Q
2. R Q P
3. P R Q
4. Q R P

153. Red algae are characterized by:

1. Having chlorophyll a and b
2. Storing food as starch
3. Their red color due to the pigment phycoerythrin
4. Floating freely in fresh water habitats

154. What change in the environment led to the phenomenon of industrial melanism in peppered moths (Biston betularia)?

1. The widespread use of pesticides in agricultural fields.
2. The deposition of soot on trees during the Industrial Revolution.
3. The migration of moths to urban areas.
4. The introduction of new predators in polluted regions.

155. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): The B-DNA form of the double helix has a pitch of 36Å and each turn consists of TWELVE base pairs.
Reason(R): At each step of ascent, the strand turns 34°.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

156. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Indian Government has set up GEAC, which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.
Statement II: Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by native people
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False

157. Both autogamy and geitonogamy would be prevented in a:

1. Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers
2. Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers
3. Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers
4. Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

158. What prevents the development of new follicles during the post-ovulatory luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?

1. A very low level of progesterone and oestrogen secretion by the corpus luteum
2. Secretion of high levels of FSH by the corpus luteum
3. LH surge just before ovulation
4. Low levels of both FSH and LH levels

159. Identify the option where the features are correctly matched to the types with respect to mustard:

160. Identify the correct statements:
I: The pars distalis region of pituitary, commonly called anterior pituitary, produces GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH, LH\ and FSH.
II: Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone called melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH).
III: In humans, the pars intermedia is almost merged with pars nervosa.

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

161. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Blood type O individuals are known as universal donors because they lack A and B antigens on their red blood cells.
Statement II: Blood type O individuals can receive blood from any other blood type.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

162. In the cerebral cortex, the region known as “white matter” appears white due to:

1. The presence of a dense concentration of neuron cell bodies
2. The high concentration of myelinated nerve fibres in the inner layer
3. A lack of blood vessels and neuron connections
4. The high density of glial cells supporting grey matter

163. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The bacterium, Streptococcus, is the source of an enzyme used in patients of myocardial infarction leading to a heart attack.
Statement II: The enzyme is streptokinase, which enhances the action of anti-coagulant heparin.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

164. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the genetic material and its organization in prokaryotic cells?

1. The genetic material in prokaryotic cells is typically a single circular DNA molecule.
2. Prokaryotic cells may contain small, additional DNA molecules called plasmids, which confer unique traits such as antibiotic resistance.
3. The nucleoid region in prokaryotic cells is surrounded by a double membrane similar to the nuclear envelope in eukaryotic cells.
4. Prokaryotic DNA is associated with proteins, but not organized into chromatin structures as in eukaryotic cells.

165. The Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth equation is correctly written as [N – population size; r – the intrinsic growth rate, K – carrying capacity of the local environment]:

1. dN/dt = rN[1- N/K]
2. dN/dt = rN[1- K/N]
3. dN/dt = rN + [1- N/K]
4. dN/dt = rN + [1- K/N]

166. The critical difference between sickle cell anemia and thalassemia is:

1. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a single gene/point, while thalassemia is due to the deletion of one or more genes
2. Sickle cell anemia affects the white blood cells, whereas thalassemia affects the red blood cells
3. Thalassemia results in increased haemoglobin synthesis, whereas sickle cell anemia does not
4. Sickle cell anemia can be cured, while thalassemia cannot

167. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Plants exhibit high phenotypic plasticity
Reason (R): They can modify their growth and development in response to] environmental conditions.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

168. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to facilitate:

1. Binding of DNA to the cell wall
2. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
3. Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
4. Expression of antibiotic resistance gene

169. The term ‘stele’ [in the context of the anatomy of the dicot root] includes all the following structures except:

1. pericycle
2. vascular bundles
3. pith
4. endodermis

170. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement:

1. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
2. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
3. Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
4. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

171. The DNA content of a cell at G1 phase is 2C. What will be the DNA content after S phase?

1. 2C
2. 4C
3. 6C
4. 8C

172. In humans, the process of respiration involves the following steps:
A. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
B. Diffusion of gases between blood and tissues
C. Transport of gases by blood
D. Utilisation of by the cells for catabolic reactions
E. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:

1. A →E→B→C→D
2. C →E→A→B→D
3. B →D→C→E→A
4. E →A→C→B→D

173. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:


Codes:
   A B C D
1. Q P S R
2. P Q R S
3. P Q S R
4. Q P R S

174. What is incorrect regarding the ovary in humans?

1. The surface is covered with simple cuboidalepithelium, called the germinal epithelium.
2. Follicles in various phases of development are seen in the ovarian cortex
3. It is connected to the uterus and pelvic floor by tendons
4. It is a primary sex organ

175. In fungi, the dikaryotic phase, which involves two haploid nuclei per cell, is characteristic of which of the following groups?

1. Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes
2. Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes
3. Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes
4. Zygomycetes and Phycomycetes

176. Identify the correct statement:

1. In prokaryotes, DNA is positively charged
2. In eukaryotes, histones are a set of negatively charged proteins
3. In eukaryotes, histones are rich in lysine and arginine residues
4. DNA is a hydrophobic molecule

177. Which classes of algae are characterized by the presence of chlorophyll a?
I: Chlorophyceae
II: Phaeophyceae
III: Rhodophyceae

1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. I, II and III

178. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Lipids are not considered macromolecules.
Reason (R): Lipids are not polymers.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

179. The only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:

1. Cleistogamy
2. Chasmogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy

180. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Bt cotton plants are resisitant to insect pest like the bollworm.
Reason (R):The Bt toxin produced in these plants is harmless to mammals and to bacillus itself.
Choose the correct option.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

1. If W1 is the work done in compressing an ideal gas from a given initial state through a certain volume isothermally and W2 is the work done in compressing the same gas from the same initial state through the same volume adiabatically, then:

3. An electric dipole is in unstable equilibrium in the uniform electric field. The angle between its dipole moment and the electric field is

4. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to these charges through the surface S is

5. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is

1. 13.60 volt
2. 8.24 volt
3. 10.36 volt
4. 14.24 volt

6. What is the respective number of a and ß-particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?


1. 6 and 8
2. 6 and 6
3. 8 and 8
4. 8 and 6

7. A body of mass 500 g thrown upward with a velocity 20 m/s and reaches back to the surface of a planet after 20 sec. Then the weight of the body on that planet is

1. 2 N
2. 4 N
3. 5 N
4. 1 N

8. A body attains a height equal to the radius of the Earth when projected from Earth’ surface. The velocity of the body with which it was projected is :

9. A block of mass m moving with speed v compresses a spring through distance x before its speed is halved. What is the value of spring constant?

10. If E be the electric field inside a parallel plate capacitor due to +Q and -Q charges on the two plates, then electrostatic force on plate having charge -Q due to the plate having charge +Q will be

11. Four particles each having charge q are placed at the vertices of a square of side a. The value of the electric potential at the midpoint of one of the sides will be

12. The current I as shown in the figure is


1. 10 A
2. 20/3 A
3. 2/3 A
4. 5/3  A

13. Two wires of the same dimensions but resistivities ρ₁ and ρ₂ are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is

14. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a voltage of 900 V?

1. 0.31 Å
2. 0.41 Å
3. 0.5 Å
4.0.16 Å

15. What happens whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series?

1. it may emit another photon in the Balmer series.
2. it must emit another photon in the Lyman series.
3. it may emit another photon in the Paschen series.
4. it need not emit any more photon.

16. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx² where a and b are constant. The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is

17. If the intensity of magnetic field at a point on the axis of current coil is half of that at the centre of the coil, then the distance of that point from the centre of the coil will be

1. R/2
2. R
3. 3R/2
4. 0.766R

18. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that

1. angle between v and B is necessarily 90°
2. angle between v and B can have any value other than 90°
3. angle between v and B can have any value other than zero and 180°
4. angle between v and B is either zero or 180°

19. Two inductor coils of self-inductance 3H and 6H respectively are connected with a resistance 10W and a battery 10 V as shown in figure. The ratio of total energy stored at steady state in the inductors to that of heat developed in resistance in 10 seconds at the steady state is (neglect mutual inductance between L₁ and L₂)


1. 1:10
2. 1:100
3. 1:1000
4. 1

20. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 90%
4. 10%

21. In a circuit, L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. the current leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is

22. The time period of a simple harmonic oscillator is  . Measured value of mass of the object is 10 g with an accuracy of  and time for 50 oscillations of the spring is found to be 60s using a watch of 2 s resolution. Percentage error in determination of spring constant (k) is

1. 3.35
2. 6.76
3. 5.56
4. 4.28

23. If the velocity v of a particle and time t is given by the relation v=1-t², then the displacement of the particle at time t=3s will be (given that the particle is initially on the y axis)

1. 6 m
2. -6 m
3. 9 m
4. -9 m

24. A uniform cubical block of density ρ_b=600 kgm^-3floats in a liquid of density ρ_l=900 kgm^-3. If the height of block is H=8 cm, then height of the block above the surface of the liquid is approximately

1. 5.3 cm
2. 1.7 cm
3. 2.7 cm
4. 3.2 cm

25. A block is sliding down on an inclined plane of slope θ and at an instant t=0, this block is given an upward momentum so that it starts moving up on the inclined surface with velocity u. The distance travelled by the block before its velocity become zero, is 

26. Two wires Aand B made of different materials of lengths 6.0 cm and 5.4 cm, respectively and area of cross sections 3 × 10^-5m²  and 4.5×10^-5 m²  , respectively are stretched by the same magnitude under a given load. The ratio of the Young’s modulus of A to that of B is x :3. The value of   is

1. 2
2. 4                  
3. 5
4. 3

27. If ϵ₀, E and t represent the free space permittivity, electric field and time respectively, then the quantity represented by ϵ₀ E/t will be

1. Electric field intensity
2. Current density
3. Magnetic flux density
4. Electrostatic potential

28. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v₁ for a distance x, and with uniform velocity v₂ for the next 3/2 x distance. If his average velocity is 50/7 m/s  and v₁=5 m/s, then v₂ equals

1. 12 m/s
2. 10 m/s
3. 8 m/s
4. 16 m/s

29. A particle is projected at an angle of 30° from a horizontal at a speed of 60 m/s . The height traversed by the particle in the first second is h₀and height traversed in the last second, before it reaches the maximum height is h₁. The ratio h₁:h₀ is

1. 2 : 3
2. 3 : 2
3. 5 : 1
4. 1 : 5

30. An 8 V Zener diode along with a series resistance Ris connected across a 20 V supply (as shown in the figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA, then the minimum value of R (in Ω) will be


1. 480
2. 520
3. 360
4. 520

31. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 150 V. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is calculated using

Using h=6.63×10^-34Js, m=9.11×10^-31 kg, and e=1.60× 10^-19 C, the wavelength of the electron is obtained as 1.0016 × 10^-11 m
The correct wavelength with regards to significant figures is

1. 1.002×10^-11 m
2. 1.0×10^-11  m
3. 1.0016×10^-11 m
4. 1.00×10^-11 m

32. The potential barrier developed across a p-n junction is 0.6 V. If the depletion width is 1200 nm, then the electric field set up across the junction will be

1. 2 × 10⁵  NC^-1
2. 1.5 × 10⁶  NC^-1
3. 3 × 10⁴  NC^-1
4. 5 × 10⁵  NC^-1

33. A thin prism of refractive index 1.55 and refracting angle 4^∘ is combined with another thin prism of refractive index 1.65 so that the net deviation for the mean wavelength is zero. If the refracting edges are opposite, the refracting angle of the second prism is:

1. 2.8°
2. 3.4°
3. 4.6°
4. 5.2°

34. A simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2.0 cm is carried out by a 40 g particle. Determine the system’s total mechanical energy if the time interval is 0.20 s.

1. 7.9 x 10^-1 J
2. 7.9 x 10^-2 J
3. 7.9 x 10^-3 J
4. 7.9 x 10^-4 J

35. A guitar string of length (L) vibrates at its fundamental frequency. At what point along its length should the string be pressed so that the new fundamental frequency has a ratio (f) with the original frequency?

1. L/f
2. 2L/f
3. Lf
4. 2f

36. A solid cylinder of mass 4𝑘𝑔and radius 50𝑐𝑚 rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 60°. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed 8𝑚/𝑠. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be (𝑔=10𝑚/𝑠²) 

1. 2.4 m
2. 4.6 m
3. 7.2 m
4. 9.6 m

37. A block of mass 5 kg is moving on an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Friction coefficient between the block and inclined plane surface is √3/2. The force to be applied on the block in newton so that the block will move down without acceleration is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 7.5
2. 10
3. 12.5 
4. 10.5

38. A small metallic sphere of diameter 2 mm and density 10.5 g cm^-3is dropped in glycerin having viscosity  and density 1.5 g cm^-3 The terminal velocity attained by the sphere in cm/s is (take g = 10 ms^-2, π=22/7)

1. 3.2
2. 1.5
3. 2
4. 5

39. If rotational kinetic energy is 50% of total kinetic energy, then the body will be

1. Ring
2. Hollow
3. Cylinder
4. Solid Sphere

40. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the 10 kg of mass is

1. 10/3
2. 5
3. 10
4. 20/3

41. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of λ/2 is (where λ is the wavelength)

1. π/2
2. 2π
3. 3π/2
4. Π

42. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that the end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from it. Find the length of the image.

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

43. At what angle of incidence will the light reflect from glass(μ=1.5) be completely polarised

1. 72.8°
2. 51.6°
3. 40.3°
4. 56.3°

44. An electromagnetic photon has an energy of 2 MeV. Identify the region of the electromagnetic spectrum to which it belongs.

1. Ultraviolet Radiation
2. X-rays
3. Gamma Rays
4. Infrared Radiation

45. A monochromatic light of wavelength λ falls on a single slit of width . The diffraction pattern is observed on a screen at distance D. The width of the central maximum is W. If the slit width is doubled, the new width of the central maximum will be

1. W
2. W/2
3. 2W
4. W/4

CHEMISTRY

46. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm of Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is 32 mm of Hg. The mole fraction of A in solution obeying Raoult’s law is

1. 0.6
2. 0.5
3. 0.2
4. 0.8

47. MX₂ dissociates into M²⁺ and X⁻ ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation (α) of 0.5. The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is

1. 1
2. 2.2
3. 3.3
4. 4.4

48. Most volatile hydride of element of group 16 is

1. H₂O
2. H₂S
3. H₂Te
4. H₂Se

49. Complete hydrolysis of XeF₆ gives:

1. XeOF₄
2. XeO₃
3. XeO₂F₂
4. XeOF₂

50. Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): In the titration between strong acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an indicator.
Reason (R): For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is false but statement II is true.
2. Statement I is true but statement II is false.
3. Both statement I and statement II are true.
4. Both statement I and statement II are false.

51. In chromite ore, the oxidation state of iron and chromium are respectively

1. +3, +2
2. +3, +6
3. +2, +3
4. +2, +4

52. The time needed for the completion of 2/3rdof a 1st order reaction,  when rate constant is 771×10−2 min−1 is

1. 23.03 min
2. 2.303 min
3. 6.93 min
4. 69.3 min

53. The shape and Hybridisation of ion are

1. Trigonal Planar, sp³
2. Trigonal Bipyramidal, sp³d
3. Trigonal Bipyramidal, dsp³
4. Linear, sp³ d

54. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Pyorrhea

1. Vitamin B1
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

55. How many unpaired electrons and sum of spin are present in Gadolinium (Z= 64)

1. 7, 2
2. 7, 4
3. 8, 4
4. 8, 8

56. The standard electrode potential for Daniell cell is1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction.
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)

1. 21 k J mol-1
2. -212.27 k J mol-1
3. 32 k J mol-1
4. -168.32 k J mol-1

57. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

1. [Xe] 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²
2. [Xe] 4f⁶ 5d² 6s²
3. [Xe] 4f⁸ 6d²
4. [Xe] 4f⁹ 5s¹

58. How many times a 0.1M strong monobasic acid solution should be diluted so that pH of the resulting solution is tripled?

1. 50
2. 10
3. 100
4. 1000

59. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4 respectively. The pH of their salt (AB) solution is

1. 72
2. 6.9
3. 7.0
4. 1.0

60. In the diborane (B2H6) molecule, the number of bridging hydrogen atoms and terminal hydrogen atoms are, respectively

1. 4 and 2
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 3
4. 1 and 5

61. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. A-(r), B-(p), C-(q,s), D-(p,q,s)
2. A-(p), B-(r), C-(q,s), D-(p)
3. A-(r), B-(q), C-(p,s), D-(p,q,s)
4. A-(r), B-(p,s), C-(q), D-(p,q,s)

62. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

1. Li2O < Na2O < K2O (Basicity)
2. Al2O3< SiO2 < P2O5 (Acidity)
3. B2O3< Al2O3 < Ga2O3 < In2O3 (Acidity)
4. P2O5 > SO3 > Cl2O7(Basicity)

63. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg (s) + 2Ag+ (0.0001 M) → Mg2+ (0.130M) +2Ag(s)
Calculate its E(cell) if E⁰(cell) = 3.17 V

1. 2.959 V
2. 4.26 V
3. 12.2 V
4. 16.4 V

64. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following  half  cells  are  given  as
Zn2+(aq) + 2e− ⇢ Zn(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.762 V
Cr3+(aq) + 3e− ⇢ Cr(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.740 V
2H+(aq) + 2e− ⇢ H2(g) ; E⁰ = 0.000 V
Fe3+(aq) + e−  ⇢  Fe2+(aq) ; E⁰ = – 0.770 V
The strongest reducing agent is?

1. Zn(s)
2. Cr(s)
3. H2(s)
4. Fe

65. α-D- Fructose and β-D- Fructose structure differ only at

1. C-1
2. C-2
3. C-3
4. C-1 & C-2

66. B in the following sequence is

67. The major product of the following reaction is

68. Duringthechange of O2 to O2-, the incoming electron goes to the orbital :

1. σ*2pz
2. π*2px
3. π*2py
4. π2px

69. The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-5 m is

1. 7.27 X 106 m/s
2. 0.761 X 104 m/s
3. 0.725 X 102 m/s
4. 7.6 3X 104m/s

70. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

1. Alpha  particle  scaterring  from Gold
2. Beta particle scaterring from Gold
3. Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
4. A and B

71. Which of the following set has the highest dipole moment

1. NF₃ and NH₃
2. H₂O and HF
3. Cl₂ and N₂
4. HF and HCl

72. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 606 X 10 -3 s -1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2g is

1. 200s
2. 500s
3. 550s
4. 320s

73. For a zero order reac8on plot of curve (a-x) versus 8me is linear with

1. +ve slope and zero intercept
2. -ve slope and zero intercept
3. +ve slope and non- zero intercept
4. -ve slope and non-zero intercept

74. Which complex will give 3 moles of AgCl on treatment with excess AgNO₃?

1. [CoCl₃ (NH₃)₃]
2. [CoCl₂ (NH₃)₄]Cl
3. [CoCl (NH₃)₅]Cl₂
4. [Co (NH₃)₆Cl₃]

75. The correct hybridization and geometry of [PtF₄]^2-

1. sp³, tetrahedral
2. dsp², square planar
3. sp³d², octahedral
4. d²sp³, octahedral

76. A hydrate of iron(III) thiocyanate [Fe(SCN)₃.xH₂O], was found to contain 19% H₂ The value of x is

1. 2
2. 3
4. 4
4. 6