Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

2. The electric field due to line charge distribution varies as

3. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

1. May be all positive
2. May be all negative
3. Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases
4. Always zero

4.    Assertion: At resonance, current is maximum.
       Reason: Impedance is minimum.

1. Both (A) and (R) true, (R) explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) true, (R) does not explan (A)
3. A is true, R is false
4. Both are false

5.  The wavelength of light diminishes m times (μ=1.33 for water) in a medium. From inside water a diver looks at an object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as:

1. Green
2. 2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. 4. Red

6.   The electric potential due to an electric dipole varies as

7.  Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be:

1. 5I
2. 3I
3. 6I
4.  4I

8.   A square loop carrying a current 𝑖 is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current 𝐼 is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will:

1. Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
2. Move away from the wire to towards right
3. Move towards the wire
4. Remain stationary

9.  The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 + b cos 𝜔𝑡
 

10. 

11.   The number of spectral lines when an electron jumps from fourth excited state to ground state is

1. 6
2. 10
3. 15
4. 3

12. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto glass (n = 1.5) at polarising angle:

1. Reflected light is polarized 100 percent
2. Reflected &refracted beams are partially polarized
3. Reflected & refracted beams are completely polarized
4. Refracted light is polarized 100 percent

13.  What percentage of the potential energy is gained by the body in rising through a height equal to the radius of the Earth. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of a body infinite distance away from Earth is zero.

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 50%
4. 20%

14. 

15. 

16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁= 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen, 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

1. 6mm
2. 4mm
3. 3mm
4. 2mm

17. At what height above the surface of Earth of radius R will the acceleration due to gravity be reduced by 0.1%?

1. R/100
2. R/200
3. R/1000
4. R/2000

18. 

19. 

20. 

21. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 7 R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 3R from the surface of earth is:

1. 6 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6√2 hours         
4. 8√2 hours

22. 

23. 

24. 

25. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?

1. Electric field and potential
2. Electric field and charge density
3. Electric potential and charge density.
4. Electric field, potential and charge density.

26.

27.  For a gas, the r.m.s speed at 800 K is:

1. Four times the value at 200 K
2. Half the value at 200 K
3. Twice the value at 200 K
4. Same as at 200 K

28. 

29. 

32.

33. 

34. 
A river of width 200 𝑚 is flowing from west
to east with a speed of 18 𝑘𝑚/ℎ. A boat,
moving with speed of 36 𝑘𝑚/ℎ in still
water, is made to travel one-round trip (bank
to bank of the river). Minimum time taken
by the boat for this journey and also the
displacement along the river bank are
respectively

1. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0 𝑚
2. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 𝑚
3. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 100 𝑚
4. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 �

35. 

36. 
Two balls with same mass and initial
velocity, are projected at different angles in
such a way that maximum height reached by
first ball is 4 times higher than that of the
second ball. 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are the total flying
times of first and second ball, respectively,
then the ratio of 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is
1. 1∶ 1
2. 1∶ 2
3. 2∶ 1
4. 4∶ 1

37. 






1. 16
2. 64
3. 120
4. 160

38. In an experiment, a set of reading are
obtained as follows: 1.24 𝑚𝑚, 1.25 𝑚𝑚,
1.23 𝑚𝑚, 1.21 𝑚𝑚. The expected least
count of the instrument used in recording
these readings is

1. 0.02 mm
2. 0.01 mm
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.05 mm

39. 

40. 

41. In the given figure the blocks 𝐶 and 𝐵 weigh
8 𝑘𝑔 and 6 𝑘𝑔 respectively. The co-efficient
of sliding friction between any two surfaces
is 0.5. The force required to slide the
block 𝐶 with constant speed is

42. 

43. A bus moving along a straight highway with
speed of 72 𝑘𝑚/ℎ is brought to halt
within 4𝑠 after applying the brakes. The
distance travelled by the bus during this time
(Assume the retardation is uniform) is

1. 40 𝑚
2. 25 𝑚
3. 30 𝑚
4. 15 𝑚

44. 

45. Which of the following are false for
electromagnetic wave?
1. Transverse
2. Longitudinal
3. Produced by accelerating charge
4. Mechanical Waves

CHEMISTRY

46. 

47. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

1. Mercury
2. Potassium
3. Iodine
4. Oxygen

48.

46. Total number of alkali insoluble solid sulphonamides obtained by reaction of given amines with Hinsberg’s reagent is____.

Aniline, N-Methylaniline, Methanamine, N,N-Dimethylmethanamine, N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine, N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline, N,N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine, Isopropyl amine

1. 8
2. 5
3. 2
4. 4

49. An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol. When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H₂O₂, a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The blue colour is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen atoms bonded to chromium through only single bonds in a molecule of X?

1. 0.5
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1.5

50. For the following cell reaction

51. 

52. 

53.  How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?

1. 9.0 L
2. 0.1 L
3. 0.9 L
4. 2.0 L

54. 

1. (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
2. (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
3. (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
4. (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)

55.  Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?

1.  Benzene and Toluene
2.  n-Hexane and n-Heptane
3.  Ethanol and Acetone
4. Bromoethane and Chloroethane

56.  In the following sequence of reactions,the product D is:

57. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapour pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is __. (Given data: Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol⁻¹ and 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹ respectively)

1. 0.1
2.1.12
3. 2.5 
4. 1.01

58. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are giv Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

1. The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group
2. In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
3. Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.
4. In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the

59. 

60. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapour pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar?

1. 1
2. 0.20
3. 2
4. 1.20

61. 

62. 

63. Under ambient conditions, the total number
of gases released as products in the final step
of the reaction scheme shown below is

64. 

65. 

66. 

67. 

68. 

69. 

70. 

71. 

72. 

73. 

74.

75. 

77. 

78. 

79. 

80. 

81.The descending order of basicity of following amines is:

82. 

83. 

84. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, 8
moles of permanganate anion quantitatively
oxidise thiosulphate anions to produce X
moles of a sulphur containing product. The
magnitude of X is

1. 7
2. 6
3. 8
4. 4

85. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.

Statement II: The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields amine as final product.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

86. 

87. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L^-1 s^-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.01M to 0.075M.

1. 8.49s
2. 8.33s
3. 7.96s
4. 7.53s

88. 

89. 2 grams of metal carbonate is neutralized
completely by 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl. The
equivalent wt. of metal carbonate is

1. 50
3. 150
2. 100
4. 20

90. 

91. According to early man, the common feature of inanimate and animate objects was

1. The sense of awe
2. Their growing ability
3. Constant movement
4. All of the above

92. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?

1. Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)
2. Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I)
3. Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)
4. Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I)

93.  Through which of the following experiments the second proof of DNA being the genetic material was provided?

1. X-ray crystallographic studies
2. Phage infection to bacteria
3. Bacterial translocation
4. Bacterial transformation

94. Statement I: The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a lipid bi-layer called aleurone layer.

Statement II: The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and coleorhizae respectively. 

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

96. Enzymes that catalyse the substrate level phosphorylation reaction in glycolysis belong to

1. 1. oxidoreductases
   2. transferases
   3. hydrolases
   4. ligases

97. Observe the following statements and choose how many of them are true
i. Annelids are metamerically segmented with true coelom
ii. Arthropods are characterized by the presence of jointed appendages
iii. Molluscs have calcareous exoskeleton
iv. Some vertebrates do not possess jaws (Gnathostomata) while most of them possess jaws (Agnatha)
v. Classes Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes bear fins for locomotion

1. 2                2. 3
2. 4              4. 5

98. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:
A. Crossing over
B. Synapsis
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata
D. Disappearance of nucleolus

1. B, C, D, A         2. B, A, D, C
2. B, A, C, D         3.A, B, C, D

99. If a compound that allows protons to freely diffuse across a membrane is added to cells that are actively metabolising glucose via cellular respiration which of the following processes would get affected?

1. 1. Electron Transport chain
   2. Chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP
   3. ATP synthesis
   4. All of these

100. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.

Choose the set of incorrect statement(s)

from the following options.

1. i and ii                 2. ii, iii and iv
2. i, ii and iii           4. i only

101. Anaerobic respiration produces very little energy as compared to aerobic respiration because

1. 1. there is incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate
   2. NADH produced during glycolysis is often used up
   3. electron transport chain is absent
   4. all of these

102. Protonema is:

1. Haploid and is found in mosses
2. Diploid and is found in liverworts
3. Diploid and is found in mosses
4. Haploid and is found in pteridophytes

103. Assertion (A): The countercurrent mechanism in the kidney helps in concentrating urine.

       Reason (R): It operates in the loop of Henle and vasa recta, creating an osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true

104. A population is observed:
I. At time t₁: N < K/2
II. At time t₂: N = K/2
III. At time t₃: N > K

Which of the following is correct?

(a) Growth rate at t₂ > t₁
(b) Growth rate at t₃ is negative
(c) Environmental resistance is maximum at t₃
(d) Population at t₁ is in deceleration phase

1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. All are correct

105. Pick out the wrong statement.

1. 1. The first product of Krebs’ cycle is Acetyl CoA
   2. a-ketoglutarate is formed by the decarboxylation of oxalosuccinate
   3. a-ketoglutarate is both dehydrogenated and decarboxylated by a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.
   4. Succinate dehydrogenase is a membrane-bound enzyme that catalyses the dehydrogenation of succinate

106. In a leaf abscission study:
I. Auxin level decreases gradually
II. Ethylene production increases
At which ratio is leaf fall most likely to occur?

1. High auxin : low ethylene
2. Equal auxin : ethylene
3. Low auxin : high ethylene
4. High auxin : high ethylene

107. Which set of conditions favours activation of the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism?

1. High GFR, high blood volume, high Na⁺ in DCT
2. Fall in glomerular blood flow, fall in GFR, low blood pressure
3. High atrial stretch, release of ANF
4. High ADH levels independent of osmolarity

108. Select the option that correctly identifies the family of mustard plant and its main characters

1. Brassicaceae: tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, capsule or schizocarp fruit
2. Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, many stamens, pentacarpellary gynoecium, capsule type fruit.
3. Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, berry type fruit.
4. Brassicaceae:  trimerous flowers, three

109. Pick out the wrong statement.

1. 1. Three German scientists Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof and J.Parnas discovered Glycolysis
   2. In preparatory phase of glycolysis glucose is broken down to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
   3. In the Krebs cycle, during the formation of phosphoenol pyruvate, the phosphate group gains energy and assists in generating ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.
   4. Malate dehydrogenase catalyses the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate

110. A unicellular organism shows: Cell wall, photosynthetic pigments in thylakoids (not chloroplasts), no membrane-bound organelles and reproduction by binary fission. Which group does it belong to?

1. Protista             2. Cyanobacteria
2. Fungi                4. Euglenoids

111. Read the following statements carefully:
I. In alveoli, is approximately 104 mm Hg and  is 40 mm Hg, while in deoxygenated blood reaching the alveoli,  is 40 mm Hg and  is 45 mm Hg.
II. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of to the tissues under normal conditions.
III. The solubility of is about 20-25 times higher than that of O₂, which is the major reason why a major part of CO₂ is transported in the form of bicarbonate.
IV. The binding of CO₂ to haemoglobin is related to the Haldane effect, while the release of O₂ from oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by the Bohr effect
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. I and II only                       2. II and III only
2. I, II and III only                4. I, II, III and IV

112. A cell shows increased breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.
Which organelle is primarily responsible, and why?

1. Lysosome, due to acidic enzymes.
2. Peroxisome, due to oxidases and catalase.
3. Mitochondria, due to ATP production.
4. Golgi apparatus, due to protein modification

113. “A” is essential in the tricarboxylic acid cycle and is also a component of complex II in the electron transport chain. Its activity is inhibited by a three-carbon dicarboxylic acid compound (Y), which acts as a competitive inhibitor of “B”.
Identify A and B

1. A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Malonate
2. A: Succinyl-CoA synthase; B: Malonate
3. A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Erythromycin
4. A: a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; B: Pyruvate

114. An athlete has TV = 500 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, and RV = 1200 ml. His inspiratory capacity (IC) is 3500 ml. What is his expiratory capacity and functional residual capacity (FRC) respectively?

1. 1600 ml and 2300 ml
2. 1700 ml and 2300 ml
3. 1600 ml and 2400 ml
4. 1700 ml and 2400 ml

115. A diploid cell (2n = 10) undergoes meiosis. If 20 such cells enter meiosis, how many total chromosomes will be present in all the gametes formed?

          1. 200             2. 100
          3. 400            4. 50

116. The energy stored in respiratory substrates after cellular oxidation is not directly released into the cell for other functions. Instead, this energy is gradually released in the form of ATP molecules through a series of controlled, stepwise reactions. Which of the following enables this controlled, stepwise release of energy?


           1. Enzymes            2. Minerals
          3.Vitamins            4. Hormones

117.Which option correctly describes the equations for curves (a) and (b), in the given graph of species-area relationship?

118. Assertion (A): The respiratory rhythm centre in the medulla oblongata is primarily responsible for the basic rhythm of respiration, but it can be moderated by the pneumotaxic centre in the pons.

      Reason (R): Chemosensitive areas in the medulla are highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺ ions, while peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies) respond mainly to changes in O₂ concentration (and to some extent CO₂ and H⁺).

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

119. A plant exhibits two morphologically distinct phases: one is photosynthetic and independent, while the other is reduced, nutritionally dependent, and produces spores via meiosis. The dominant phase produces gametes by mitosis. Identify the correct classification.

1. 1. Diplontic with reduced gametophyte
   2. Haplo-diplontic with dominant gametophyte.
   3. Haplo-diplontic with dominant sporophyte.
   4. Haplontic with parasitic sporophyte

120. What is the first phase of translation


1. aminoacylation of tRNA
2. Recognition of anticodon
3. binding of mRNA to ribosome
4. recognition of DNA molecule

121. The property of muscle that allows it to be stretched and return to original length is

1. Excitability             2. Contractility
3. Elasticity                4. Extensibility

122. Match List-I with List-II

1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

123. Many Ribosomes can be associated in a single mRNA in order to create large copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. What are these strings of ribosomes called

1. Polyhedral Bodies
2. Histones
3. Polysomes
4. Plastidome

124. The structured observed by Henking in the sperms of insects was later given the name

1. X-body                   2. X-chromosome
2. X-structure           4. Y-body

125. What does the given symbol represent in a pedigree chart

1. Consanguineous mating
2. Mating
3. Carrier for x-linked disorder
4. Genetic disorder free parents

126. Match List-I with List-II

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

127. Pick out the wrong statement

1. Histones are rich in Lysine and Arginine
2. Histones contain 8 molecules
3. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic

128. Consider the following statements about gametogenesis in humans:
A. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life.
B. Oogenesis begins in fetal life, with primary oocytes arrested in prophase-I until puberty.
C. Both processes involve equal cytoplasmic division, producing four functional gametes.
D. Sertoli cells provide nourishment to developing spermatids, while in oogenesis, follicular cells (granulosa) perform a similar role.

Which combination contains the incorrect statement(s)?

1. A and C               2. A and D
2. 3. B and C          4. C only

129. Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane in plant cells is impermeable to NADH.
        Reason (R): Shuttle mechanisms like the malate-aspartate shuttle are used to transport electrons from cytoplasmic NADH into the mitochondria.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true

130. Select the correct statement
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome

1. B and D only        2. A and E only
2. B and C only        4. A and C only

133. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

1. It produces oxygen as the end product.
2. It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
3. It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
4. It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration

135. Given below are two statements.

Statement I In C₂ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased.
Statement II In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration, while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false, but Statement Il is true

138. Which of these bonds is least likely to stabilize the three-dimensional folding of proteins?

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Hydrophobic interactions
3. Electrostatic interactions
4. Ester bonds

139. Plants that sustain high photosynthetic rates even in hot conditions, show reduced losses from photorespiration, better efficiency in using water and more effective use of nitrogen. Which photosynthetic pathway or physiological type best describes this plant?

141. Which of the following is a non-proteinaceous enzyme?

1. Lysozyme
2. Ribozyme
3. Deoxyribonuclease
4. Carboxypeptidase

143. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their incidence is very high among persons in the age group

1. 12 – 18 years             2. 18 – 29 years
2. 20 – 30 years          4. 15 – 24 years

144. Match the following

145. In the Krebs cycle of plant respiration, the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate involves:

 

1. Substrate-level phosphorylation
2. Oxidative decarboxylation
3. Photophosphorylation
4. Reduction of FAD⁺

146. A person suffering from AIDS is given a vaccine for a bacterial disease. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

 

1. The vaccine will provide active immunity as the person’s B-cells are still functional.
2. The vaccine may not be effective because of severe depletion of helper T-cells, which are required for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
3. The person will develop full immunity because macrophages can still process antigens.
4. Only IgM will be produced, providing short-term protection.

147. At a temperature above 35°c

 

1. Rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis
2. There is no fixed pattern
3. Rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration
4. Both declines simultaneously

148. Assertion (A): Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before organ transplantation.

Reason (R): The patient has to take immunosuppressants lifelong after transplantation to prevent graft rejection.

 

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

149. In a population under Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, if selection removes homozygous recessive individuals, what happens initially?

 

1. p increases, q decreases
2. p decreases, q increases
3. Both remain constant
4. Only genotype frequency changes, not allele frequency

150. Immunological memory exists in

 

1. Active immunity
2. Passive immunity
3. Innate immunity
4. Both active and passive immunity

151. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

 

1. Hypothalamus links nervous and endocrine systems
2. Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by infundibulum
3. Anterior pituitary secretes tropic hormones
4. Posterior pituitary synthesizes ADH

152. Salmonella typhi affects _______ to cause typhoid

 

1. Heart
2. Lungs
3. Intestine
4. Liver

153. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location:-

1. Smooth muscle, show branching, found in the walls of heart
2. Striated muscle, tapering at both ends, attached with the bones of the ribs
3. Skeletal muscle, shows striations, attached with bones of limbs
4. Cardiac muscle, unbranched, found in walls of heart

154. In a dihybrid cross, parental combinations are 80% and recombinants are 20%. What is the distance between genes?

 

1. 10 cm
2. 20 cm
3. 40 cm
4. 80 cm

155. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

 

1) They do not need to reproduce.
2) They are somatic cells.
3) They do not metabolise.
4) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.

 

1. Only 1
2. 1,3 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. Only 4

156. A hormone that:

• is derived from amino acids
• acts via nuclear receptors
• shows long half-life

1. Thyroxine
2. Adrenaline
3. Insulin
4. Glucagon

157. According to Charles Darwin, which is the unit of selection?

 

1. Gene
2. Population
3. Individual
4. Species

158. A small population migrates to an island. The allele frequencies differ from original population. Over generations, rare alleles become common due to chance.

This involves:

 

1. Gene flow + natural selection
2. Founder effect + genetic drift
3. Mutation + recombination
4. Stabilizing selection

159. The mitotic spindle fibres are primarily composed of which of the following, and their assembly is directly inhibited by colchicine?

 

1. Actin filaments
2. Intermediate filaments
3. Tubulin dimer
4. Myosin fibres

160. 

4. Corolla arranged in twisted aestivation

161. Assertion (A): PCR can amplify DNA exponentially.

Reason (R): DNA polymerase works in both directions.

 

1. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

163. Which statement is correct regarding Morgan’s experiment?

 

1. Only parental combinations are formed
2. Recombinants are always more than parental
3. Parental combinations are more frequent than recombinants
4. No variation occurs

164. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans:

a) Platelets 
b) Neutrophils
c) Erythrocytes
d) Eosinophils
e) Monocytes

 

1. a, c, b, d, e
2. . c, a, b, e, d
3. c, b, a, e, d
4. d, e, b, a,c

165. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after

 

1. Anaphase
2. Telophase
3. Metaphase
4. Prophase

166. Which one of the following statements is correct?

 

1. The atrio ventricular node AVN generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
2. The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
3. Blood moves freely from the atria to the ventricle during joint diastole
4. Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves

167. Assertion (A): Morgan preferred Drosophila melanogaster for experiments

Reason (R): It has a short life cycle and many visible traits

 

1. Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true

168. Which organism is genetically engineered to produce α-1-antitrypsin for treating emphysema?

 

1. Transgenic cow
2. Transgenic sheep
3. Transgenic mice
4. Transgenic bacteria

169. Which Indian law prevents the unauthorized exploitation of bio-resources?

 

1. Indian Patents Bill
2. Environment Protection Act
3. Biodiversity Act
4. Forest Conservation Act

171. An organism with two different alleles is

1. Homozygous for the trait
2. Homozygous for the allele
3. Heterozygous for the trait
4. Heterologous for the allele

172. 


1. A−2,B−1,C−4,D−3
2. A−3,B−1,C−2,D−4
3. A−2,B−4,C−1,D−3
4. A−3,B−4,C−1,D−2

173. Identify INCORRECT statement:

1. Cretinism occurs in children
2. Myxedema occurs in adults
3. Graves’ disease involves hypothyroidism
4. Goitre involves thyroid enlargement

174. At the end of glycolysis, X is the net energy gain from one molecule of glucose via Y, but there is also energy stored in the form of Z. Identify X, Y and Z

175. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cell of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells –

1. Malpighian layer of skin
2. osteocytes
3. Liver cell
4. Neurons

176. Transformation experiment of Griffith explains

1. nature of viruses that infect bacteria
2. ingredients of culture medium
3. chemical substance released by S-type of bacteria
4. chemical substance released by R-type of bacteria.

177. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of Hibiscus sinensisis

1. Monoadelphous
2. Polyandrous
3. Diadelphous
4. Polyadelphous.

178. 

180.  Microbodies, which help to convert stored lipids into carbohydrates so they can be used for plant growth, are known as:

1. Peroxisomes
2. Sphaerosomes
3. Glyoxysomes
4. Lysosomes

2. The electric field due to line charge distribution varies as

3. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

1. May be all positive
2. May be all negative
3. Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases
4. Always zero

4.    Assertion: At resonance, current is maximum.
       Reason: Impedance is minimum.

1. Both (A) and (R) true, (R) explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) true, (R) does not explan (A)
3. A is true, R is false
4. Both are false

5.  The wavelength of light diminishes m times (μ=1.33 for water) in a medium. From inside water a diver looks at an object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as:

1. Green
2. 2. Blue
3. Yellow
4. 4. Red

6.   The electric potential due to an electric dipole varies as

7.  Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be:

1. 5I
2. 3I
3. 6I
4.  4I

8.   A square loop carrying a current 𝑖 is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current 𝐼 is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will:

1. Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
2. Move away from the wire to towards right
3. Move towards the wire
4. Remain stationary

9.  The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 + b cos 𝜔𝑡
 

10. 

11.   The number of spectral lines when an electron jumps from fourth excited state to ground state is

1. 6
2. 10
3. 15
4. 3

12. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto glass (n = 1.5) at polarising angle:

1. Reflected light is polarized 100 percent
2. Reflected &refracted beams are partially polarized
3. Reflected & refracted beams are completely polarized
4. Refracted light is polarized 100 percent

13.  What percentage of the potential energy is gained by the body in rising through a height equal to the radius of the Earth. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of a body infinite distance away from Earth is zero.

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 50%
4. 20%

14. 

15. 

16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁= 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen, 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

1. 6mm
2. 4mm
3. 3mm
4. 2mm

17. At what height above the surface of Earth of radius R will the acceleration due to gravity be reduced by 0.1%?

1. R/100
2. R/200
3. R/1000
4. R/2000

18. 

19. 

20. 

21. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 7 R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 3R from the surface of earth is:

1. 6 hours
2. 8 hours
3. 6√2 hours         
4. 8√2 hours

22. 

23. 

24. 

25. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?

1. Electric field and potential
2. Electric field and charge density
3. Electric potential and charge density.
4. Electric field, potential and charge density.

26.

27.  For a gas, the r.m.s speed at 800 K is:

1. Four times the value at 200 K
2. Half the value at 200 K
3. Twice the value at 200 K
4. Same as at 200 K

28. 

29. 

32.

33. 

34. 
A river of width 200 𝑚 is flowing from west
to east with a speed of 18 𝑘𝑚/ℎ. A boat,
moving with speed of 36 𝑘𝑚/ℎ in still
water, is made to travel one-round trip (bank
to bank of the river). Minimum time taken
by the boat for this journey and also the
displacement along the river bank are
respectively

1. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0 𝑚
2. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 𝑚
3. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 100 𝑚
4. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 �

35. 

36. 
Two balls with same mass and initial
velocity, are projected at different angles in
such a way that maximum height reached by
first ball is 4 times higher than that of the
second ball. 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are the total flying
times of first and second ball, respectively,
then the ratio of 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is
1. 1∶ 1
2. 1∶ 2
3. 2∶ 1
4. 4∶ 1

37. 






1. 16
2. 64
3. 120
4. 160

38. In an experiment, a set of reading are
obtained as follows: 1.24 𝑚𝑚, 1.25 𝑚𝑚,
1.23 𝑚𝑚, 1.21 𝑚𝑚. The expected least
count of the instrument used in recording
these readings is

1. 0.02 mm
2. 0.01 mm
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.05 mm

39. 

40. 

41. In the given figure the blocks 𝐶 and 𝐵 weigh
8 𝑘𝑔 and 6 𝑘𝑔 respectively. The co-efficient
of sliding friction between any two surfaces
is 0.5. The force required to slide the
block 𝐶 with constant speed is

42. 

43. A bus moving along a straight highway with
speed of 72 𝑘𝑚/ℎ is brought to halt
within 4𝑠 after applying the brakes. The
distance travelled by the bus during this time
(Assume the retardation is uniform) is

1. 40 𝑚
2. 25 𝑚
3. 30 𝑚
4. 15 𝑚

44. 

45. Which of the following are false for
electromagnetic wave?
1. Transverse
2. Longitudinal
3. Produced by accelerating charge
4. Mechanical Waves

CHEMISTRY

46. 

47. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

1. Mercury
2. Potassium
3. Iodine
4. Oxygen

48.

46. Total number of alkali insoluble solid sulphonamides obtained by reaction of given amines with Hinsberg’s reagent is____.

Aniline, N-Methylaniline, Methanamine, N,N-Dimethylmethanamine, N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine, N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline, N,N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine, Isopropyl amine

1. 8
2. 5
3. 2
4. 4

49. An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol. When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H₂O₂, a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The blue colour is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen atoms bonded to chromium through only single bonds in a molecule of X?

1. 0.5
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1.5

50. For the following cell reaction

51. 

52. 

53.  How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?

1. 9.0 L
2. 0.1 L
3. 0.9 L
4. 2.0 L

54. 

1. (A) < (B) < (C) < (D)
2. (B) < (A) < (C) < (D)
3. (B) < (A) < (D) < (C)
4. (A) < (B) < (D) < (C)

55.  Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?

1.  Benzene and Toluene
2.  n-Hexane and n-Heptane
3.  Ethanol and Acetone
4. Bromoethane and Chloroethane

56.  In the following sequence of reactions,the product D is:

57. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapour pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is __. (Given data: Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol⁻¹ and 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹ respectively)

1. 0.1
2.1.12
3. 2.5 
4. 1.01

58. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are giv Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

1. The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group
2. In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
3. Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.
4. In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the

59. 

60. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapour pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar?

1. 1
2. 0.20
3. 2
4. 1.20

61. 

62. 

63. Under ambient conditions, the total number
of gases released as products in the final step
of the reaction scheme shown below is

64. 

65. 

66. 

67. 

68. 

69. 

70. 

71. 

72. 

73. 

74.

75. 

77. 

78. 

79. 

80. 

81.The descending order of basicity of following amines is:

82. 

83. 

84. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, 8
moles of permanganate anion quantitatively
oxidise thiosulphate anions to produce X
moles of a sulphur containing product. The
magnitude of X is

1. 7
2. 6
3. 8
4. 4

85. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.

Statement II: The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields amine as final product.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

86. 

87. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L^-1 s^-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.01M to 0.075M.

1. 8.49s
2. 8.33s
3. 7.96s
4. 7.53s