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NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (CHANMARI AND SDA) (19.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (CHANMARI AND SDA) (19.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

BIOLOGY

1. Consider the following statements:
I. The uterine endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle
II. Estrogen secreted during the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle helps in the development of follicles
III. hCG secreted by trophoblast cells helps in maintaining corpus luteum
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and IIIDeselect Answer

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None

2.

2. Which of the following statements best explains why Whittaker’s five-kingdom classification was considered an improvement over earlier classification systems?

1. It classified organisms exclusively according to their evolutionary history and completely eliminated the importance of morphology.

2. It separated organisms into kingdoms solely according to whether they were useful or harmful to humans.

3. It considered fundamental differences in cellular organisation, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction and evolutionary relationships, thereby separating major groups such as Monera and Fungi.

4. It divided all organisms into five kingdoms of equal size and equal evolutionary complexity.
Deselect Answer

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3.

3. During photophosphorylation, the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane is mainly generated due to:

1. Splitting of water on the stromal side
2. Movement of protons into the stroma by ATP synthase
3. Proton accumulation in the thylakoid lumen
4. Reduction of NADP⁺ in the thylakoid lumen
Deselect Answer

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4.

4. Observe the following statements and select the statement that correctly describe first polar body

1. They are formed after first mitotic division
2. They contain half the number of chromosomes, ie 23
3. They have either one X or one Y chromosomes
4. They give rise to one ovum
Deselect Answer

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5.

5. Consider the following statements about the Calvin cycle:
A. CO₂ is fixed by RuBisCO.
B. The first stable product of the C3 cycle is a 3-carbon compound.
C. ATP and NADPH are consumed during the reduction phase.
D. RuBP is regenerated during the regeneration phase.
Which is correct?

1. A and B only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Deselect Answer

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6.

6. The following graph shows the levels of pituitary hormones during menstrual cycle. What do X and Y represent?

1. X – FSH, Y – LH
2. X – Estrogen, Y – Progesterone
3. X – Progesterone, Y – Estrogen
4. X – LH, Y – FSH
Deselect Answer

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7.

7. Engelmann’s experiment provided evidence that:

1. All wavelengths of visible light are equally effective in photosynthesis.
2. Chlorophyll absorbs only red light.
3. Photosynthetic activity is highest in blue and red regions of the spectrum.
4. Green light is the most effective for photosynthesis.
Deselect Answer

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8.

8. From the options given below, select the group of cells which are haploid

1. Spermatogonia, oogonia, ovum
2. Primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatids
3. Primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, spermatozoa
4. Secondary spermatocyte, secondary oocyte, second polar body
Deselect Answer

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9.

9. Which observation in Engelmann’s experiment helped establish the relationship between wavelength of light and photosynthetic activity?

1. Algal cells became green under red light.
2. Aerobic bacteria accumulated in regions receiving blue and red light.
3. CO₂ concentration increased around the algal filament.
4. Glucose accumulated specifically in blue-light regions.
Deselect Answer

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10.

10. Which cells of blastocyst contain stem cells

1. Inner cell mass
2. Outer cell mass
3. Trophoblast
4. Both 2 and 3
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11.

11. ________ is secreted by secondary oocyte

1. Corona radiata
2. Corpus luteum
3. Zona pellucida
4. FSH
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12.

12. Which statement correctly distinguishes the observations of Priestley and Ingenhousz?

1. Priestley showed that plants release oxygen, while Ingenhousz showed that this occurs only in darkness.
2. Priestley showed that plants can restore air, while Ingenhousz demonstrated that this occurs only in the presence of sunlight and by green parts of plants.
3. Priestley demonstrated starch formation, while Ingenhousz demonstrated oxygen evolution.
4. Both demonstrated that only green parts of plants carry out photosynthesis.
Deselect Answer

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13.

13. The function of male accessory ducts and glands are maintained by

1. Hypothalamus
2. Anterior-pituitary gland
3. Androgens
4. LH and FSH
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14.

14. Which sequence correctly represents the major contribution of the early experiments?

1. Priestley → starch formation; Ingenhousz → CO₂ fixation; Sachs → oxygen evolution
2. Priestley → restoration of air; Ingenhousz → requirement of light and green parts; Sachs → starch formation
3. Priestley → action spectrum; Ingenhousz → starch formation; Sachs → restoration of air
4. Priestley → chlorophyll discovery; Ingenhousz → oxygen evolution; Sachs → action spectrum

Deselect Answer

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15.

15. A microorganism lacks a cell wall and can survive in places where many other bacteria cannot. It is considered one of the smallest living cellular organisms. Which organism best fits this description?

1. Nostoc
2. Mycoplasma
3. Methanobacterium
4. Saccharomyces
Deselect Answer

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None

16.

16. The functional unit of testis of male is

1. Sperms
2. Seminiferous tubule
3. Testicular lobule
4. Sertoli cells
Deselect Answer

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17.

17. Choose the incorrect statement from the following

1. Ovum and sperm had to be transported simultaneously to the ampulla for fertilization to occur.
2. Zona pellucida ensures the entry of only one sperm to fertilize the ovum.
3. The second meiotic division of oocyte is unequal and results in the formation of second polar body.
4. The meiotic division of zygotes starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct.
Deselect Answer

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18.

18. The electrons lost by the reaction centre of PSII are ultimately replaced by electrons obtained from:

1. NADPH
2. ATP
3. Photolysis of water
4. RuBP
Deselect Answer

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19.

19. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the absorption spectrum from the action spectrum of photosynthesis?

1. Absorption spectrum shows the rate of photosynthesis at different wavelengths, whereas action spectrum shows the amount of light absorbed by pigments.
2. Absorption spectrum shows the wavelengths of light absorbed by a photosynthetic pigment, whereas action spectrum shows the effectiveness of different wavelengths in carrying out photosynthesis.
3. Both absorption and action spectra show the amount of oxygen released at different wavelengths.
4. Absorption spectrum represents the effectiveness of different wavelengths in photosynthesis, whereas action spectrum represents light absorption by individual pigments.
Deselect Answer

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20.

20. In non-cyclic electron transport, the correct overall direction of electron flow is:

1. Water → PSII → PSI → NADP⁺
2. NADP⁺ → PSI → PSII → water
3. Water → PSI → PSII → NADP⁺
4. PSII → water → PSI → NADP⁺
Deselect Answer

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21.

21. A freshwater organism is observed to possess chloroplasts and a flexible body without a conventional cell wall. In bright light, it performs photosynthesis, whereas under conditions where photosynthesis is not possible, it can obtain nutrition heterotrophically. Based solely on these characteristics, a student concludes that the organism must belong to Plantae.
Which statement most effectively challenges the student’s conclusion?

1. Photosynthesis is restricted exclusively to cyanobacteria.
2. The presence of chloroplasts automatically places an organism in Fungi.
3. Euglenoids possess chloroplasts but are\ placed in Protista because of their eukaryotic organisation and distinctive\ pellicle.
4. All organisms showing heterotrophic nutrition necessarily belong to Monera.
Deselect Answer

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22.

22. During photophosphorylation, ATP synthesis occurs when:

1. Protons move from stroma into the thylakoid lumen through ATP synthase.
2. Protons move from the thylakoid lumen into the stroma through ATP synthase.
3. Electrons move directly through ATP synthase.
4. NADPH passes through ATP synthase.
Deselect Answer

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23.

23. According to the law of limiting factors, if several factors affect a process and one of them is present in an amount that limits the process, then:

1. Increasing all factors will always increase the rate.
2. Increasing the limiting factor will\ increase the rate until another factor becomes limiting.
3. The rate remains unchanged regardless of the limiting factor.
4. Only light can act as a limiting factor.
Deselect Answer

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24.

24. Consider the following statements:
A. PSII is associated with P680.
B. PSI is associated with P700.
C. Photolysis of water is associated with PSII.
D. PSI directly participates in the reduction of NADP⁺.
Which are correct?

1. A and B only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Deselect Answer

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None

25.

25. A plant requires additional ATP but does not require additional NADPH. Which process would be particularly useful?

1. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
2. Cyclic photophosphorylation
3. Photolysis of water
4. Reduction of NADP⁺
Deselect Answer

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None

26.

26. Which of the following correctly explains why cyclic photophosphorylation does not produce NADPH?

1. PSI cannot absorb light.
2. Electrons return to the same photosystem instead of being transferred to NADP⁺.
3. PSII supplies electrons directly to NADP⁺.
4. Water is not available during cyclic photophosphorylation.
Deselect Answer

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27.

27. Read the following statements carefully:
Statement I: Archaebacteria are different from other bacteria in the composition of their cell wall and cell membrane.
Statement II: Methanogens are commonly found in the rumen of cattle, where they contribute to the production of methane.
Statement III: All archaebacteria obtain their energy by performing oxygenic photosynthesis similar to cyanobacteria.
Which of the following correctly describes these statements?

1. Statement I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect, while Statements II and III are correct
3. Statements I and III are correct, while Statement II is incorrect
4. All three statements are correct
Deselect Answer

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28.

28. If 3 molecules of CO₂ are fixed through the Calvin cycle, how many ATP and NADPH molecules are required?

1. 9 ATP + 6 NADPH
2. 6 ATP + 9 NADPH
3. 18 ATP + 12 NADPH
4. 9 ATP + 9 NADPH
Deselect Answer

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29.

29. Which sequence correctly represents increasing complexity of cellular organisation?

1. Virus → Bacterium → Amoeba → Fungus
2. Bacterium → Virus → Amoeba → Fungus
3. Virus → Amoeba → Bacterium → Fungus
4. Fungus → Amoeba → Bacterium → Virus
Deselect Answer

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30.

30. Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst
Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium
Considering the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A is false but R is true
2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
4. A is true but R is false
Deselect Answer

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31.

31. Which of the following statements about cyanobacteria is NOT correct?

1. They are prokaryotic.
2. They may possess specialised cells called heterocysts.
3. Some can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
4. They possess membrane-bound chloroplasts containing chlorophyll-a.
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32.

32. Which of the following statements regarding morula in human is correct

1. It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than an uncleaved zygote
2. It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
3. It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
4. It has more cytoplasm and DNA than an uncleaved zygote
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33.

33. During a phenomenon known as a “red tide,” large numbers of certain organisms multiply near the surface of seawater. Which organism is classically associated with this phenomenon?

1. Nostoc
2. Gonyaulax
3. Rhizopus
4. Methanobacterium
Deselect Answer

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34.

34. Assertion (A): The descent of testes occurs by the end of seventh of fetal development
Reason (R): The cooler temperature outside the abdominal cavity is necessary for spermatogenesis

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

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35.

35. Identify the figures A, B and C given below.

1. A–Euglena, B–Paramecium, C–Agaricus
2. A–Euglena, B–Planaria, C–Agaricus
3. A–Planaria, B–Paramecium, C–Agaricus
4. A–Euglena, B–Paramecium, C– Aspergillus
Deselect Answer

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36.

36. Consider the following statements about organisms included in Kingdom Fungi:
1. Their cell walls are generally made of chitin.
2. Their mode of nutrition is heterotrophic.
3. Their hyphae may be septate or aseptate depending upon the group.
4. All fungi reproduce exclusively by sexual reproduction.
5. Some fungi reproduce by spores.
Which of the following represents the correct combination?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Deselect Answer

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37.

37. Assertion (A): Euglenoids are placed under Protista rather than Plantae.
Reason (R): Euglenoids lack a cell wall and possess a flexible protein-rich layer called a pellicle.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Deselect Answer

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38.

38. The following organisms are arranged into two groups by a student:
Group I: Rhizopus, Mucor, Albugo
Group II: Penicillium, Aspergillus, Neurospora
The student then concludes that all organisms in Group I possess aseptate mycelium and all organisms in Group II possess septate mycelium.
Which evaluation is most appropriate based on the classification?

1. Both groups consist entirely of organisms with aseptate mycelium
2. Group I phycomycetes, mainly while represents Group II represents ascomycetes
3. Group I represents ascomycetes, while Group II represents basidiomycetes
4. All organisms in both groups belong to Deuteromycete
Deselect Answer

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39.

39. A fungal organism has a multinucleate, aseptate, branched mycelium and reproduces asexually by sporangiospores.
Which group is it most likely associated with in the classification?

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Phycomycetes
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40.

40. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. Rhizopus — Bread mould
2. Penicillium — Ascomycetes
3. Agaricus — Basidiomycetes
4. Puccinia — Deuteromycetes
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41.

41. Statement A: Soon after the placenta is delivered, the infant is also expelled out of the uterus
Statement B: Doctors inject oxytocin to induce delivery of baby when it is not secreted in adequate amount from maternal pituitary

1. Both statements A and B are correct
2. Both statements A and B are incorrect
3. Only statement A is correct
4. Only statement B is correct
Deselect Answer

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42.

42. Cleavage in mammals

1. Holoblastic equal
2. Holoblastic unequal
3. Superficial
4. Discoidal
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43.

43. A student studying five-kingdom classification makes the following observations about four organisms:
(a) Organism P is unicellular, eukaryotic and possesses a flexible pellicle.
(b) Organism Q is prokaryotic and can perform photosynthesis.
(c) Organism R is eukaryotic, filamentous and possesses a chitinous cell wall.
(d) Organism S is acellular and can multiply only inside a living host.
Which of the following combinations correctly identifies P, Q, R and S respectively?

1. Cyanobacterium, Euglena, fungus, virus
2. Euglena, cyanobacterium, fungus, virus
3. Euglena, fungus, cyanobacterium, virus
4. Virus, cyanobacterium, fungus, Euglena
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44.

44. Arrange the following parts in human mammary gland, transversing the route of milk ejection
A. Mammary duct
B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus
D. Ampulla
E. Mammary tubule
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. D – C – E – A – B
2. C – E – B – A – D
3. C – E – A – D – B
4. A – C – E – D – B
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45.

45. The two-kingdom classification proposed by Linnaeus divided all living organisms into Plantae and Animalia. However, several organisms could not be satisfactorily placed in either kingdom. Which combination of characteristics most directly explains the inadequacy of this system?

1. It failed to distinguish organisms based on habitat, geographical distribution and economic importance.
2. It did not adequately distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms, unicellular and multicellular forms, and autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
3. It classified all organisms according to their mode of reproduction but ignored It classified all organisms according to their mode of reproduction but ignored their evolutionary relationships.
4. It placed all organisms possessing chlorophyll under Animalia and all non chlorophyllous organisms under Plantae.
Deselect Answer

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September 18, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (SDA KHATLA) (19.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (SDA KHATLA) (19.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

BIOLOGY

1. Consider the following statements about pBR322:
1. It contains an origin of replication.
2. It contains genes for resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline.
3. It is a naturally occurring plasmid.
4. Its selectable markers help identify transformants.
Which are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and
4 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

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None

2.

2. Which combination correctly represents the source → hormone → major target?

1. Anterior pituitary → ACTH → adrenal cortex
2. Posterior pituitary → TSH → thyroid
3. Anterior pituitary → ADH → kidney
4. Hypothalamus → ACTH → adrenal cortex
Deselect Answer

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3.

3. Consider the following statements about PCR:
1. Primers provide a free 3′-OH group for DNA synthesis.
2. DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
3. Both primers determine the boundaries of the amplified region.
4. Restriction endonuclease is essential for every PCR reaction.
Which are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

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None

4.

4. A person has abnormally low levels of T₃ and T₄ in blood. If the thyroid gland itself is functioning normally, which combination would most likely be observed?

1. ↓ TRH, ↓ TSH
2. ↑ TRH, ↑ TSH
3. ↑ TRH, ↓ TSH
4. ↓ TRH, ↑ TSH
Deselect Answer

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5.

5. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Insertion of foreign DNA into an antibiotic-resistance gene can inactivate that gene.
Statement II: This property can be used to distinguish recombinant plasmids from non-recombinant plasmids.

1. Both statements are correct, and II correctly explains I
2. Both statements are correct, but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both are incorrect
Deselect Answer

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6.

6. Assertion (A): ADH is considered a posterior pituitary hormone.
Reason (R): ADH is synthesized by cells of the posterior pituitary.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

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7.

7. A cloning vector should have a unique restriction site mainly because:

1. It allows replication of the vector
2. It permits insertion of foreign DNA at a specific location
3. It provides antibiotic resistance
4. It increases the size of the host genome
Deselect Answer

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8.

8. Consider the following statements:
1. GH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
2. ADH is synthesized in the hypothalamus.
3. ADH is released from the posterior pituitary.
4. Oxytocin is synthesized by the posterior pituitary.
Which are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only
Deselect Answer

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None

9.

9. Consider the following steps:
1. Isolation of DNA
2. Separation of DNA fragments
3. Restriction digestion
4. Ligation of desired DNA fragment into vector
5. Introduction into host
Which sequence is correct?

1. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5
2. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5
3. 1 → 3 → 2 → 4 → 5
4. 3 → 1 → 2 → 5 → 4
Deselect Answer

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10.

10. Assertion (A): The same restriction enzyme is generally used to cut the vector and foreign DNA during recombinant DNA formation.
Reason (R): This produces compatible ends that can base-pair with each other.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Deselect Answer

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11.

11. Which sequence correctly represents the hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid axis?

1. Hypothalamus → TSH → TRH → Thyroid
2. Hypothalamus → TRH → Anterior pituitary → TSH → Thyroid
3. Hypothalamus → T3 → Pituitary → TSH
4. Hypothalamus → TSH → Thyroid → TRH
Deselect Answer

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12.

12. Assertion (A): Electroporation can be used for gene transfer into both plant and animal cells.
Reason (R): Divalent cation increases the permeability of the cell membrane.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. Both A and R are false
Deselect Answer

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13.

13. A woman has normal milk production but impaired milk ejection. Which hormone is most likely deficient?

1. Luteotropin
2. Oxytocin
3. FSH
4. GH
Deselect Answer

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None

14.

14. Which technique is particularly useful for introducing DNA into an individual animal cell?

1. Microinjection
2. Biolistics
3. Ti plasmid
4. Calcium phosphate precipitation
Deselect Answer

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15.

15. In the biolistic method, foreign DNA is coated onto:

1. Liposomes
2. Viral capsids
3. Calcium ions
4. Gold or tungsten particles
Deselect Answer

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16.

16. In males, LH stimulates:

1. Sertoli cells to produce sperm directly
2. Leydig cells to produce androgens
3. Thyroid cells to produce thyroxine
4. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
Deselect Answer

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17.

17. Which of the following represents the correct order in production of a recombinant protein using bacterial cells?

1. Purification → transformation → selection → expression
2. Expression → transformation → purification → selection
3. Transformation → selection → expression → purification
4. Selection → purification → transformation → expression
Deselect Answer

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18.

18. A very important distinction regarding posterior pituitary hormones is that:

1. They are synthesized in the posterior pituitary but stored in the hypothalamus
2. They are synthesized and released exclusively by the posterior pituitary
3. They are synthesized in the anterior pituitary and stored in the hypothalamus
4. They are synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary
Deselect Answer

1

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None

19.

19. Assertion (A): Selectable markers are important in recombinant DNA technology.
Reason (R): They help identify or select cells that have received the vector or recombinant DNA.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

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None

20.

20. Which combination contains only hormones of Adenohypophysis?

1. GH, PRL, TSH, ACTH
2. ADH, oxytocin, GH, TSH
3. Oxytocin, PRL, ACTH, FSH
4. ADH, GH, LH, TSH
Deselect Answer

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21.

21. A bacterial culture contains three types of cells:
Type I: non-transformed cells
Type II: cells containing non-recombinant pBR322
Type III: cells containing recombinant pBR322 in which tetR has been disrupted
After plating separately on:
P = ampicillin
Q = tetracycline
R = ampicillin + tetracycline
Which result is expected?

1. Type I grows on P, Q and R
2. Type II grows on P and Q but not R
3. Type III grows on P but not Q or R
4. Type II and III both grow on R
Deselect Answer

1

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22.

22. Excess secretion of growth hormone after maturation causes:

1. Gigantism
2. Dwarfism
3. Acromegaly
4. Myxoedema
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

23.

23. A DNA sample contains fragments of 200 bp, 500 bp, 1000 bp and 2000 bp. After electrophoresis, which fragment is expected to migrate farthest from the wells?

1. 2000 bp
2. 1000 bp
3. 500 bp
4. 200 bp
Deselect Answer

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None

24.

24. The descending limb of Henle is highly permeable to water but relatively less permeable to electrolytes. As tubular fluid moves deeper into the medulla:

1. Water enters the tubule and tubular fluid becomes dilute
2. Water leaves the tubule and tubular fluid becomes concentrated
3. NaCl enters and tubular fluid becomes dilute
4. Both water and NaCl leave equally
Deselect Answer

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None

25.

25. Consider the following statements:
1. Electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their movement through a gel under an electric field.
2. DNA fragments of the same size generally migrate similarly under identical conditions.
3. The smallest DNA fragment always remains closest to the well.
4. A DNA ladder can be used to estimate the size of separated fragments.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. Consider the following statements about the collecting duct:
1. It participates in determining the final concentration of urine.
2. Its water permeability is influenced by ADH.
3. It is completely impermeable to water under all conditions.
4. It contributes to the concentration of urine.
Correct statements are:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Regarding the DNA staining step:
1. DNA bands may be visualised after staining.
2. Ethidium bromide is a commonly discussed DNA stain.
3. DNA bands can be visualised using suitable UV illumination after staining with a fluorescent dye.
4. Staining is responsible for separating DNA fragments according to size.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The pituitary gland is anatomically connected to the hypothalamus by:

1. Corpus callosum
2. Infundibulum
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Spinal cord
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. Which of the following represents a DNA palindrome?

1. 5′-GGAACC-3′
3′-CCTTGG-5′
2. 5′-ATGCGA-3′
3′-TACGCT-5′
3. 5′-GAATTC-3′
3′-CTTAAG-5′
4. 5′-AACCGG-3′
3′-TTGGCC-5′
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. Consider the following statements:
1. The PCT is highly efficient in reabsorbing water and electrolytes.
2. Nearly all glucose and amino acids are normally reabsorbed in the PCT.
3. The ascending limb of Henle is highly permeable to water.
4. The descending limb is permeable to water.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. A person drinks a very large amount of water. Which response is most appropriate?

1. Increased ADH secretion
2. Increased water reabsorption
3. Increased aldosterone secretion
4. Decreased ADH secretion
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. Which statement is incorrect regarding restriction endonucleases?

1. They are obtained from bacteria.
2. They provide protection against invading foreign DNA.
3. They recognize specific nucleotide sequences.
4. They randomly degrade the entire DNA molecule.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) generally:

1. Increases blood pressure
2. Promotes sodium retention
3. Opposes the action of RAAS
4. Stimulates renin secretion
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. The number of copies of a plasmid inside a bacterial cell is primarily influenced by its:

1. Selectable marker
2. Origin of replication
3. Restriction site
4. Foreign DNA
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. ADH increases water reabsorption mainly by increasing water permeability of:

1. Distal tubule and collecting duct
2. PCT only
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Glomerulus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. Taq polymerase is preferred in PCR because it:

1. Can synthesize RNA
2. Cuts DNA at palindromic sequences
3. Joins DNA fragments
4. Remains active after repeated exposure to high temperatures
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. Match:

Codes:

1. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
2. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
4. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. Which structure is primarily responsible for creating the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla?

1. PCT only
2. Bowman’s capsule
3. Loop of Henle
4. Ureter
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. DNA fragment has the sequence:
5′–GAATTC–3′
3′–CTTAAG–5′
If it is treated with EcoRI, the product will have:

1. Blunt ends
2. 3′ sticky ends
3. 5′ sticky ends
4. No cleavage because EcoRI recognises RNA
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. Why is the osmolarity of the renal medulla higher than that of the cortex?

1. Due to only active transport of glucose
2. Due to the counter-current mechanism and accumulation of solutes
3. Due to filtration of proteins
4. Due to complete absence of blood vessels in the medulla
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. In blue-white screening using lacZ, a recombinant plasmid generally produces:

1. Blue colonies because β-galactosidase is active
2. White colonies because insertion disrupts lacZ
3. Blue colonies because the antibiotic resistance gene is disrupted
4. White colonies because the plasmid cannot replicate
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. Which of the following correctly describes the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

1. Impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes
2. Highly permeable to water
3. Actively transports NaCl out of the tubule
4. Completely impermeable to water
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. The PCT contributes to maintenance of acid-base balance mainly by:

1. Secreting H⁺ and NH₃ and reabsorbing HCO₃⁻
2. Secreting HCO₃⁻ and reabsorbing H⁺
3. Secreting only NH₃
4. Reabsorbing only H⁺
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. If the initial PCR reaction contains one double-stranded DNA molecule, theoretically how many double-stranded DNA molecules are present after 5 cycles, assuming 100% efficiency?

1. 10
2. 16
3. 32
4. 64
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. Which of the following animals is correctly matched with its principal nitrogenous excretory product?

1. Humans — Ammonia
2. Birds — Urea
3. Reptiles — Uric acid
4. Aquatic bony fishes — Uric acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

September 18, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (SDA AND CHANMARI) (12.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (SDA AND CHANMARI) (12.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

CHEMISTRY

1. On increasing the pressure, the direction in which the gas phase reaction proceeds to re-establish equilibrium is predicted by applying Le-Chatelier’s principle. Consider the reaction:
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g)
Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the equilibrium is established is increased without changing the temperature?

1. K will remain the same.
2. K will decrease.
3. K will increase.
4. K will increase initially and then decrease, when pressure is very high.Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. How many molecules of Phenylhydrazine are consumed per mole of D-Glucose during complete Osazone formation?

1. 1 mole
2. 2 moles
3. 3 moles
4. 4 molesDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. For the equilibrium A ⇌ B, the variation of the rate of the forward (a) and reverse (b) reaction with time is given by: Answer – (ii)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Which is not a conjugate acid/base pair?

1. H₂CO₃ and CO₃²⁻
2. HSO₄⁻ and SO₄²⁻
3. H₂PO₄⁻ and HPO₄²⁻
4. H₃O⁺ and H₂O
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. Glucose and Fructose react with an excess of Phenylhydrazine to yield the exact same Osazone derivative because:

1. C-1 and C-2 are involved in osazone formation, while C-3, C-4, C-5, C-6 have identical configurations
2. Both Glucose and Fructose have identical molecular weights
3. Phenylhydrazine converts Fructose into Glucose completely prior to reaction
4. Osazone formation eliminates all chiral centers in the molecule
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. For the reaction A + 3B ⇌ 2C + D, initial mole of A is twice that of B. If at equilibrium moles of B and C are equal, then percent of B reacted is:

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 60%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. Assertion (A): α-D-Glucose and β-D-Glucose show the phenomenon of mutarotation in aqueous solution.
Reason (R): In aqueous solution, both anomers open up into the open-chain form, establishing a dynamic equilibrium between α, open-chain, and β forms.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. If K₁ and K₂ are the respective equilibrium constants for the two reactions,
XeF₆(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ XeOF₄(g) + 2HF(g)
XeO₄(g) + XeF₆(g) ⇌ XeOF₄(g) + XeO₃F₂(g)
The equilibrium constant of the reaction,
XeO₄(g) + 2HF(g) ⇌ XeO₃F₂(g) + H₂O(g)
will be:

1. K₁/(K₂)²
2. K₁·K₂
3. K₁/K₂
4. K₂/K₁
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. Fructose is an example of a/an:

1. Aldohexose
2. Ketohexose
3. Aldopentose
4. Ketopentose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. For the reaction,
CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l), ΔᵣH = −170.8 kJ mol⁻¹
Which of the following statement is not true?

1. At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO₂(g) and H₂O(l) are not equal.
2. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kₚ = [CO₂]/[CH₄][O₂].
3. Addition of CH₄(g) or O₂(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right.
4. The reaction is exothermic.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed further into simpler polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones is called a:

1. Monosaccharide
2. Disaccharide
3. Oligosaccharide
4. Polysaccharide
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. Ionisation constant of CH₃COOH is 1.7 × 10⁻⁵ and concentration of H⁺ ions is 3.4 × 10⁻⁴. Then, find out initial concentration of CH₃COOH molecules.

1. 3.4 × 10⁻⁴
2. 3.4 × 10⁻³
3. 6.8 × 10⁻⁴
4. 6.8 × 10⁻³
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. Assertion (A): Fructose has ketonic group yet it reduces Tollen’s reagent.
Reason (R): Formation of enediol intermediate by fructose in alkaline medium converts it partially into glucose and mannose.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of N₂ = 3.0 × 10⁻³ M, O₂ = 4.2 × 10⁻³ M and NO = 2.8 × 10⁻³ M.
2NO(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + O₂(g)
If 0.1 mol L⁻¹ of NO(g) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation (α) of NO(g) at equilibrium?

1. 0.00889
2. 0.0889
3. 0.8889
4. 0.717
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. Natural D-Glucose is dextrorotatory, represented by:

1. D-(-)-Glucose
2. D-(+)-Glucose
3. L-(+)-Glucose
4. L-(-)-Glucose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. The value of Kc of the reaction 2A ⇌ B + C is 2 × 10⁻³. At a given time, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10⁻⁴ M. Select the correct option:

1. Qc < Kc
2. Qc > Kc
3. Qc = Kc
4. Qc ≠ Kc
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Glucose on reaction with Hydroxylamine (NH2OH) forms an oxime, which confirms the presence of:

1. Five -OH groups
2. A carbonyl group
3. Primary alcoholic group
4. Straight chain of 6 carbon atoms
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. Which of the following cannot act both as a Bronsted acid and as a Bronsted base?

1. HCO₃⁻
2. NH₃
3. HCl
4. HSO₄⁻
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. Match the Carbohydrate in Column-I with its description in Column-II:

1. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
2. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
3. P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
4. P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. For the given reaction, the degree of dissociation of B was found to be 20% at 300 K and 24% at 500 K.
A(s) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + 2D(s) + E(s)
The rate of backward reaction:

1. Increases with increase in pressure and temperature.
2. Increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature.
3. Depends on temperature only and decreases with increase in temperature.
4. Increases with increase in concentration of B and increase in the temperature.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. Fructose contains which functional group in its open-chain form?

1. Aldehyde group at C-1
2. Keto group at C-2
3. Keto group at C-1
4. Aldehyde group at C-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. Which of the following reactions satisfies the condition Kₚ > Kc?

1. H₂(g) + I₂(g) → 2HI(g)
2. N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
3. 2SO₃(g) → 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g)
4. PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) → PCl₅(g)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. Which of the following options has the lowest degree of ionisation?

1. 0001 M CH₃COOH
2. 001 M CH₃COOH
3. 01 M CH₃COOH
4. 1 M CH₃COOH
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI forms:

1. Gluconic acid
2. n-Hexane
3. Saccharic acid
4. Hexanoic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. An acid/base dissociation equilibrium is dynamic involving a transfer of proton in forward and reverse directions. Now, with passage of time in which direction equilibrium is favoured?

1. in the direction of stronger base and stronger acid
2. in the direction of formation of stronger base and weaker acid
3. in the direction of formation of weaker base and weaker acid
4. in the direction of formation of weaker base and stronger acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. Arrange the hybridization states of carbon in decreasing order of electronegativity:

1. sp > sp² > sp³ 2. sp³ > sp² > sp
3. sp² > sp > sp³
4. sp > sp³ > sp²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Given:
HF + H₂O ⇌ H₃O⁺ + F⁻ (K_a)
F⁻ + H₂O ⇌ HF + OH⁻ (K_b)
Which of the following relation is correct?

1. K_b = K_w
2. K_b = 1/Kₐ
3. Kₐ × K_b = K_w 4. Kₐ/K_b = K_w
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. Which of the following process is endothermic in nature?
1. O(g) + e- -> O^–(g)
2. O^‑(g) + e- -> O^2-(g)
3. Cl(g) + e- -> Cl^–(g)
4. F(g) + e- -> F^–(g)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. Which one of the following information can be obtained on the basis of Le Chatelier principle?

1. Dissociation constant of a weak acid
2. Entropy change in a reaction
3. Equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
4. Shift in equilibrium position on changing value of a constraint
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. Why is the electron gain enthalpy of noble gases positive?

1. High effective nuclear charge
2. Stable fully filled electronic configurations
3. Large atomic radii
4. High shielding effect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. According to Le-Chatelier’s principle, adding heat to a solid ⇌ liquid equilibrium will cause the:

1. temperature to increase
2. temperature to decrease
3. amount of liquid to decrease
4. amount of solid to decrease
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

31. Assertion (A): Non-metallic character increases across a period from left to right.
Reason (R): Effective nuclear charge increases across a period, making electron gain easier and electron removal harder.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

32. If Kc is in the range of ………… appreciable concentrations of both reactants and products are present.

1. 10⁻⁴ to 10⁴
2. 10⁻³ to 10³
3. 10³ to 10⁶
4. 10⁻⁵ to 10³
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. Which halogen has the highest electronegativity?

1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. I
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) is given by Q = [NH₃]²/([N₂][H₂]³). The reaction will proceed from right to left if:

1. Q = 0
2. Q = Kc
3. Q < Kc
4. Q > Kc
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. Why does Lithium chloride show significant covalent character, unlike NaCl which is predominantly ionic?

1. Small size of Li+ cation exerts high polarizing power on Cl-
2. Lithium has higher electron gain enthalpy
3. NaCl has higher lattice energy
4. Sodium is more non-metallic than Lithium
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. On doubling P and V with constant temperature the equilibrium constant will:

1. remain constant
2. become double
3. become one-fourth
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. Reaction of Glucose with bromine water (Br₂/H₂O) yields:

1. Saccharic acid
2. Gluconic acid
3. Sorbitol
4. n-Hexane
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. The equilibrium constants for the reactions at 100 K are:
CoO(s) + H₂(g) ⇌ Co(s) + H₂O(g); K₁ = 65
CoO(s) + CO(g) ⇌ Co(s) + CO₂(g); K₂ = 500
The equilibrium constant for the reaction CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g) at 100 K is:

1. 0.13
2. 7.69
3. 0.0179
4.69.3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. Why does Oxygen have less negative electron gain enthalpy than Sulphur?

1. Compact 2p subshell leading to electron repulsion
2. High ionization enthalpy of Oxygen
3. Absence of d-orbitals in Oxygen
4. Lower electronegativity of Oxygen
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. The values of Kc for the following reactions are given as: A ⇌ B, Kc = 1; B ⇌ C, Kc = 3; and C ⇌ D, Kc = 5. Evaluate the value of Kc for A ⇌

1. 15
2. 5
3. 3
4. 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. Across a period from left to right, non-metallic character generally:

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains constant
4. First decreases then increases
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. For the reaction N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), Kₚ is found to be equal to Kc. This is attained at:

1. 0°C
2. 273 K
3. 1 K
4. 12.19 K
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. Which of the following elements exhibits the highest metallic character in Period 3?

1. Sodium
2. Magnesium
3. Aluminum
4. Silicon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. Lithium shows diagonal relationship with which element of the third period?

1. Beryllium
2. Magnesium
3. Aluminum
4. Silicon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

September 11, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (SDA KHATLA) (12.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (SDA KHATLA) (12.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

CHEMISTRY
1. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Ca atom is:

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. The correct nomenclature for the following compound is

1. 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–6–enal
2. 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–7–enal
3. 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–6–enoic acid
4. 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–7–enoic acidDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), ΔU = −91.8 kJ at 298 K. Calculate ΔH.

1. −96.76 Kj
2. −86.8 kJ
3. −91.8 kJ
4. −100 kJDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. How many spherical nodes are present in 5s orbital in a Hydrogen atom

1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. 0Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. The energy of the first orbit of Be⁺ and Li²⁺in J per atom are

1. -19.62 x 10^-18, 34.88 x 10^-18
2. 88 x 10^-18, 19.62 x 10^-17
3. -19.62 x 10^-18, – 34.88 x 10^-18
4. 88 x 10^-18, -19.62 x 10^-18Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. CORRECT order of stability for the following is

1. CH₂ = CH⁻> CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₃ – CH₂⁻
2. CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻> CH₃ – CH₂⁻
3. CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₃ – CH₂⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻
4. CH₃ – CH₂⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻> CH ≡ C⁻Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa, increasing its volume from 2 × 10⁻³ m³ to 6 × 10⁻³ m³. If the process is adiabatic, the work done by the gas is:

1. +400 J
2. −400 J
3. +600 J
4. −600 JDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. Choose the correct order regarding Lattice enthalpy

1. LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
2. LiF < NaF < KF < RbF
3. CaCl₂> CaF₂ > MgF₂
4. BeO > MgO >ZnO >MgSDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. Arrange the following alkenes in decreasing order of stability.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. III > II > I > IV
2. I > III > IV > II
3. III > I > II > IV
4. I > III > II > IVDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. Under isothermal conditions, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.20 L to 0.50 L against a constant external pressure of 1.5 bar. The work done by the gas is (Given 1 L bar = 100 J):

1. 45 J
2. 30 J
3. −45 J
4. 450 JDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. Which of the following has minimum ionic character?

1. NaCl
2. KCl
3. CsCl
4. RbCl
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. For the following reactions:

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) addition reaction.
2. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
3. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
4. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers n=4, m_s = +1/2 is

1. 32
2. 16
3. 50
4. 18
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. Which of the following variables is an intensive thermodynamic property?

1. Enthalpy
2. Volume
3. Temperature
4. Mass
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. Assertion: The 19^th electron in Potassium atom enters into 4s-orbital and not in the 3d-orbital
Reason: ( ) rule is followed for determining the orbital of lowest energy state.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. The major product of the following reaction is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Which of the following equations represents the correct relationship between enthalpy change and internal energy change for an ideal gas?

1. ΔH = ΔU − Δn_gRT
2. ΔH = ΔU + Δn_gRT
3. ΔH + ΔU = −Δn_gRT
4. ΔH + ΔU = Δn_gRT
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. The correct set of three quantum numbers for the valence electron of Cs atom is

1. 5, 1, 0, +1/2
2. 6, 0, 0, +1/2
3. 6, 1, 0, +1/2
4. 5, 0, 1, +1/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The monochlorinated products (excluding stereo isomers) obtained from the reaction

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to photoelectric effect

1. When light with a specific frequency hits a metal surface, it can eject electrons from the metal.
2. Threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light needed to eject the electrons.
3. The KE of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
4. The number of electrons ejected per second from the metal surface depends upon its frequency
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. An ideal gas expands isothermally from 2 × 10⁻³ m³ to 8 × 10⁻³ m³ at 300 K against a constant external pressure of 2 × 10⁵ N m⁻². The work done on the gas is:

1. − 1200 J
2. +1200 J
3. − 600 J
4. + 600 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. Which of the following is not chiral?

1. 2-butanol
2. 2,3-dibromopentane
3. 3-bromopentane
4. 4. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. Which of the following has maximum bond angle?

1. CO₂
2. H₂O
3. NH₃4. PF₅
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against a constant external pressure of 1.5 atm from an initial volume of 3.0 L to a final volume of 5.0 L. The change in internal energy ΔU of the gas is approximately: (1 L atm = 101.3 J)

1. −304 J
2. +304 J
3. −202.6 J
4 +202.6 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations?

1. II > I > III
2. II > III > I
3. III > I > II
4. I > II > III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l=2, n=3 is

1. 8
2. 10
3. 18
4. 32
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Four moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously into a vacuum. The work done will be:

1. Zero
2. Infinite
3. 4 J
4. 16 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals
n=3, l=2, m_l =0

1. 1
2. 2
3. 0
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. Which of the following set is non permissible?

1. n=4, l= 3, m=0
2. n=4, l= 2, m= 1
3. n= 4, l= 4, m=1
4. n=4, l=0, m= 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. How many species among the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(i) But-2-ene
(ii) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(iii) 1,2-dichloroethene
(iv) 1-phenyl propene
(v) 3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(vi) 2-methyl propene

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. In case of d_x2–_y2orbital

1. Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
2. Probability of finding the electron along y -axis is zero
3. Probability of finding the electron along x- axis is zero
4. Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y- axis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. Find out the statements which are not true.
A. Resonating structures with more number of covalent bonds and lesser charge separation are more stable.
B. In electromeric effect, an unsaturated system shows +E effect with nucleophile and -E effect with electrophile.
C. Inductive effect is responsible for high melting point, boiling point and dipole moment of polar compounds.
D. The greater the number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms, higher is the heat of hydrogenation.
E. Stability of carbanion increases with the increase in s – character of the carbon carrying the negative charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B & D only
2. A, C & D only
3. B, D & E only
4. A, D & E only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are
3ROH + PCI₃ 3RCI + A
ROH + PCI₅ RCI + HCI + B

1. POCI₃ and H₃PO₃
2. POCI₃ and H₃PO₄
3. H₃PO₄ and POCI₃
4. H₃PO₃and POCI₃
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. Which of the following pairs of d- orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

1. d_xy, d_yz2. d_yz, _x² _y²
3. d_z², d_x²–_y² 4. d_z², d_zx
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

36. Find the major product P
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

37. Which of the following is the correct option for the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions?

1. q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
2. q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
3. q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
4. q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

38. A gas undergoes free expansion from 4 L to 12 L in an insulated container. Which combination is correct for an ideal gas?

1. q = 0, w = 0, ΔU = 0
2. q = 0, w < 0, ΔU < 0
3. q > 0, w = 0, ΔU > 0
4. q = 0, w > 0, ΔU > 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

39. In thermodynamic processes, which statement is NOT true?

1. In an isochoric process, pressure remains constant
2. In an isothermal process, temperature remains constant
3. In an reversible adiabatic process, PV^y = constant
4. In an adiabatic process, the system is insulated from the surroundings
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

41. Which product was obtained when Br₂ is added to trans-but-2-ene?

1. Racemic mixture of 2,3-Dibromobutane
2. Meso form of 2,3-Dibromobutane
3. Dextro form of 2,3-Dibromobutane
4. Laevo form of 2,3-Dibromobutane

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

41. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 2 L to 20 L. The ΔU for this process is:

1. 183.7 cal
2. Zero
3. 1381.1 cal
4. 18 L atm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

42. The standard enthalpies of formation are: Δ_fH°(CO₂) = −393.5 kJ mol⁻¹, Δ_fH°(H₂O(l)) = −285.8 kJ mol⁻¹, and Δ_fH°(CH₄) = −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹. The enthalpy change for CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) is:

1. −890.3 kJ/mol
2. −965.1 kJ/mol
3. −74.8 kJ/mol
4. +890.3 kJ/mol
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

43. The standard enthalpy of formation of an element in its most stable state of aggregation is taken as:

1. Zero
2. 100 kJ/mol
3. Negative
4. Cannot be determined
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

44. Find the major product
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

45. Identify correct statements from the following:
A. Propanal and propanone are functional isomers.
B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers.
C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism.
D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers.
E. Pentane and 2, 2-dimethyl propane are chain isomers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, B and E only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

35. The molar heat capacity Cp of water is 75 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. When 1.5 kJ of heat is supplied to 45 g of water, which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is:

1. 6.0 K
2. 8.0 K
3. 10.0 K
4. 12.0 K
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

September 10, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (CHANMARI AND SDA) (05.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (CHANMARI AND SDA) (05.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

Physics
1. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is

1. zero
2. infinite
3. same as on the surface of earth
4. None of theseDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. An auto travelling along a straight road increases its speed from 0 ms^-1to 50.0 ms^-1 in a distance of 180 m. If the acceleration is constant, how much time elapses while the auto moves this distance?

1. 6.0 s
2. 4.5 s
3. 3.6 s
4. 7.03 sDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is

1. 5R
2. 15R
3. 3R
4. 4R
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Mean density of the Earth is (the letters have their usual meanings):

1. πGR/14g
2. πGR/3g
3. 3g/4πGR
4. 4g/3πGR
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. Suppose that the acceleration of free fall at the surface of a distant planet were found to be equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the diameter of the planet were twice the diameter of earth, then the ratio of mean density of the planet to that of the earth would be

1. 4:1
2. 2:1
3. 1:1
4. 1:2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. A car moving along a straight road with speed of 144 km/h is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m. How long does it take for the car to stop?

1. 5 s
2. 10 s
3. 15 s
4. 20 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. A body is taken from the surface of the earth to the moon. What will be the change in the weight of the body?

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remains same
4. First decrease and then increase
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. Which of the following equations does not represent the kinematic equations of motion?

1. v=u+ at
2. S=ut+1/2 at²
3. S=vt+1/2 at²
4. v²-u²=2aS
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g′, then

1. g′ = g/9
2. g′ = 27g
3. g′= 9g
4. g′ = 3g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A player throws a ball vertically upwards with velocity u. At highest point,

1. both the velocity and acceleration of the ball are zero.
2. the velocity of the ball is but its acceleration is zero.
3. the velocity of the ball is zero but its acceleration is
4. the velocity of the ball is u but its acceleration is
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity decreases by 36% of its value on the surface of the Earth is (assume radius of the Earth is R):

1. R/4
2. R/2
3. R/6
4. 4R
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. The zero velocity of a body at any instant does not necessarily impy zero acceleration at that instant.
2. The kinematic equation of motions are true only for motion in which the magnitude and the direction of acceleration are constants during the couse of motion.
3. The sign of acceleration tells us whether the particle’s speed is increasing or decreasing.
4. All of these.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. The depth at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes 1/n times the value at the earth’s surface is (R= radius of earth)

1. d= R(n/(n-1))
2. d= R((n-1)/2n)
3. d= R((n-1)/n)
4. d= R^2 ((n-1)/n)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. Free fall of an object in vacuum is a case of motion with

1. uniform velocity
2. uniform acceleration
3. variable acceleration
4. uniform speed
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. If the earth suddenly shrinks (without changing mass) to half of its present radius, then acceleration due to gravity will be

1. g / 2
2. 4g
3. g /4
4. 2g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration for t It travels a distance x₁in first half of time and x₂ in next half of time, then

1. x₂=3x₁ 2. x₂=x₁
3. x₂=4x₁ 4. x₂=2x₁
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Which of the following is/are not a relevant statement(s) to Kepler’s laws of planetary motion?
I. Kepler’s second law is based on law of conservation of angular momentum.
II. Every planet revolves around the sun in circular orbits with sun at the centre of the orbit.
III. Planets situated at larger distances from the sun take longer time to complete one revolution

1. I only
2. II only
3. II and III
4. I, II and III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. What does this graph indicate about the motion of an object?

1. Object is moving in positive direction with positive acceleration
2. Object is moving in negative direction with negative acceleration
3. An object is moving in positive direction till time t1, and then turns back with the same negative acceleration
4. Object is moving in positive direction with negative acceleration
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The period of revolution of planet A round the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the sun is how many times greater than that of B from the sun?

1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. If the signs of the velocity and acceleration of a particle are the same, the speed of the particle ______________.

1. Remains same
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Cannot conclude anything
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. A planet takes 460 days to complete one revolution around the Sun. If the distance between the Sun and the planet becomes half of its current value, then the number of days to complete one revolution would be nearly

1. 90
2. 576
3. 160
4. 330
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. What does this graph indicate about the motion of an object ?

1. Object is moving in negative direction with positive acceleration
2. Object is moving in negative direction with negative acceleration
3. Object is moving in positive direction with negative acceleration
4. Object is moving in positive direction with positive acceleration
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. The rotation period of an Earth satellite close to the surface of the Earth is 83 minutes. The time period of another Earth satellite in an orbit at a distance of three Earth radii from its surface will be:

1. 83 minutes
2. 83×√8 minutes
3. 664 minutes
4. 249 minutes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. A particle moving in a straight line has a velocity-time relation given by v=3t²-2t+5, where vis in m/s and t is in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t=2 s is:

1. 10 m/s²
2. 12 m/s²
3. 8 m/s²
4. 14 m/s²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. A satellite in a circular orbit of radius R has a period of 4 hours. A satellite of orbit radius 4R around the same planet will have period:

1. 8 h
2. 16 h
3. 32 h
4. 64 h
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. On acceleration-time graph the area under the curve equals the:

1. Meaningless
2. Change in velocity
3. Displacement
4. Change in acceleration
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. The time period of a simple pendulum is T₁ on the surface of earth. If taken to a height 2R above the surface of earth, the time period becomes T₂. What will be the value of T₁/T₂? (R is the radius of earth).

1. 3:1
2. 1:3
3. 1:2
4. 1: 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The displacement of a particle along x-axis is given by x=4+6t+5t². Its acceleration at t=2s

1. 2 m s^-22. 10 m s^-2
3. 1000 m s^-24. 100 m s^-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. A body of mass 2m moving with velocity v collides head-on elastically with a stationary body of mass m. The velocity of the first body after collision is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. Two particles P and Qstart moving simultaneously from the same point on a straight line. Particle P moves with constant velocity 10m/s while particle Q starts from rest with constant acceleration 2m/s². The time after which Qovertakes P is:

1. 5 s
2. 10 s
3. 15 s
4. 20 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. A body of mass moving with velocity vcollides head-on elastically with a body of mass 2m initially at rest. The ratio of the kinetic energies of the second body after collision to the first body after collision is:

1. 2:1
2. 4:1
3. 8:1
4. 1:2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. A spherical ball of mass 4 kg, moving with 10 m/s, makes a head-on elastic collision with another sphere of mass 12 kg at rest. The speed of the 12 kg body is:

1. 4 m/s
2. 5 m/s
3. 6 m/s
4. 3 m/s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. A current increases uniformly from zero to one ampere in 0.01 second, in a coil of inductance 10 mH The induced emf will be

1. 3 V
2. 4 V
3. 1 V
4. 2 VDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. A ball of mass m₁moving with a certain speed collides elastically with another ball of mass m₂ kept at rest. If the first ball starts moving in reversed direction after the impact, then

1. m₁=m₂2. m₁ > m₂
3. m₁< m₂
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. A 50 turns coil with an average diameter of 0.04 m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 5000 T. If the magnetic field is changed to 2000 T in 5 s, find the magnitude of the induced emf.

1. 48V
2. 48 V
3. 12V
4. 18 V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. A current of I ampere is flowing through a circular ring of radius r. The loop inscribes a square of side a, i.e., a<<r. The mutual inductance between the system is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. A conducting rod of length 1 m is falling vertically from a height of 45 m . The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is 4 gauss. The approximate e.m.f induced across the rod just before it reaches the ground is:

1. 0.84 mV
2. 1.2 mV
3. 1.68 mV
4. 16.8 mV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. The magnetic flux linked with a circuit of resistance 100 ohm increases from 10 to 60 Weber’s. The amount of induced charge that flows in the circuit is (in coulomb):

1. 0.5
2. 5
3. 50
4. 100
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. A conducting rod of length 3 m is placed along the y-axis and moves along the x-axis with a speed of 5 m/s . It is present in a uniform magnetic field

The induced emf across the rod is:

1. -60 V
2. 40 V
3. -40 V
4. 60 V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. The position of a particle varies with time (t) as x=3t²-2t³.The acceleration of the particle will be zero at time

1. 1
2. 3/2
3. 0
4. 1/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. A coil of wire has 100 turns and a self-inductance of 1 H. The self-inductance of a second similar coil having 300 turns will be:

1. 1/3 H
2. 9 H
3. 3 H
4. 1/9 H
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. A coil of inductance carries a current I=0.25si n(400t) The maximum induced e.m.f in the coil is:

1. 2 V
2. 40 V
3. 10 V
4. 4 V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. Two inductors have inductances 2L and 16L. If the same current flows through both, the ratio of energy stored in them is:

1. 1 : √2
2. 1 : 8
3. 2 : 1
4. 4 : 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. The magnetic flux linked with a coil varies with time as ϕ=2t²-6t+5, the induced current becomes 6 V at

1. 6 sec
2. 5 sec
3. 2 sec
4. 3 sec
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

September 3, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (SDA KHATLA BRANCH) (05.09.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (SDA KHATLA BRANCH) (05.09.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

Physics

1. A uniform disc of mass Mand radius R is rotating about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to plane. A small disc of mass M/2 and radius R/2 is removed, such that smaller disc is tangent internally to the original disc and its centre lies at a distance R/2 from the original centre. Find the moment of inertia of the remaining part about the original central axis?

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

2.

2. A rectangular wooden block of length 5 m, width 1.5 m and height 0.5 m is placed gently on the surface of water. What will be the excess force required to take it away from the surface? Surface tension of water is 0.05 Nm^-1

1. 0.325 N
2. 0.65 N
3. 0.275 N
4. 0.55 NDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. A person is sitting on rotating chair and spinning with angular velocity ω. Initially, the person’s arms are stretched outward. He then pulls his arms close to his body. Assuming no external torque acts on the system, which statement is correct?

1. Moment of Inertia increases and Angular velocity decreases
2. Moment of Inertia decreases and Angular velocity increases
3. Both Moment of Inertia and Angular velocity are decreases
4. Both Moment of Inertia and Angular velocity are Increases
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Water flows steadily through a pipe. At section A, the cross-sectional area is 6 cm², the pressure is 2.5×10⁵ Pa, and the speed of water is 2 ms^-1. Section B has a cross-sectional area of 2 cm² and is 3 m above section A. The pressure at section B is:

1. 1.84×10⁵ Pa
2. 2.04×10⁵ P
3. 1.55×10⁵ Pa
4. 1.64×10⁵ Pa
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. If the distance of a particle from the axis is doubled, then its moment of inertia becomes

1. Half
2. 2 times
3. times
4. 4 times
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. A hollow sphere of total volume 1 m³ floats in water such that 3/4 th of its volume is submerged beneath the surface. If the density of water is 1000 kg m^-3 the mass of the hollow sphere is

1. 575 kg
2. 750 kg
3. 425 kg
4. 800 kg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. If all the mass of a body is concentrated closer to the axis of rotation, its moment of inertia

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains same
4. Becomes infinite
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. The variation of excess pressure of a soap bubble with its radius is best represented by

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. A uniform rod of mass 4M and length L is bent uniformly into a complete circular ring. The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. If the mass of water rising in a capillary tube of radius 7 mm is 20 g, then height of the capillary rise will be approximately (density of water 1000 kg m^-3)

1. 8 cm
2. 13 cm
3. 18 cm
4. 20 cm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. Two bodies have the same mass M and the same moment of inertia I about a given axis. Their radii of gyration are:

1. Always different
2. Always equal
3. Inversely proportional
4. Cannot be determined
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. If an air bubble of diameter 2 mm rises steadily through a liquid of density 2000 kg m^-3at a rate of 0.5 cms^-1, then the coefficient of viscosity of liquid (η) is ______ Poiseuille. (take g=10 ms^-2, neglect density of air)

1. 0.88
2. 8.88
3. 88.8
4. 0.088
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. Two uniform circular discs have the same mass. Their radii are R₁=2R and R₂=αRThe ratio of their moments of inertia about their respective axes passing through the centres and perpendicular to their planes is I₁:I₂=1:20. The value of is

1. 2√5
2. 4√5
3. 5√2
4. 5√4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. A large cylindrical tank of radius 5 m and volume 750π m³, is completely filled with water. If a hole is made 10 m below the top of the tank, then time taken by water to reach the ground from the hole will be (g=10 ms^-2)

1. 2 s
2. 4 s
3. 6 s
4. 8 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. Assertion: The moment of inertia of a body is always independent of its angular velocity.
Reason: Moment of inertia depends on mass distribution and the chosen axis, not on angular velocity.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface tension 0.04 Nm^-1 from an initial diameter of to final diameter of will be (use π=3.14)

1. 0.352 mJ
2. 0.704 mJ
3. 2.8 mJ
4. 1.4 mJ
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Two particles of masses m and 2m are at distances r and 2r, respectively, from an axis. Their total moment of inertia is

1. 3mr² 2. 5mr²
3. 7mr² 4. 9mr²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. A perfume spray nozzle has a main tube of diameter 1 cm. Fluid flows through this tube at a speed of 16 cms^-1 before being forced through 80 fine spray holes, each with a diameter Calculate the speed at which the perfume exits the spray holes.

1. 5 ms^-1 2. 10 ms^-1
3. 8 ms^-1
4. 16 ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The moment of inertia does not depend on

1. Mass of the body
2. Distribution of mass about the axis
3. Position of the axis of rotation
4. Angular velocity of the body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. If the angle of contact is obtuse, which of the following is/are wrong?
A. Liquid will wet the walls of the tube
B. Water gets depressed down relative to the surface inside the tube
C. Meniscus will be concave

1. A only
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. C only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. A body has moment of inertia about an axis. If its angular velocity is doubled, its moment of inertia becomes

1. I
2. 2I
3. 4I
4. I/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. A liquid drop of mercury has a surface tension of 0.6 Nm^-1. If the excess pressure of the drop is 10 Pa, then the surface area of the drop (in cm²) will be

1. 576π
2. 169π
3. 144π
4. 484π
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. The photon radiated from hydrogen corresponding to the second line of Lyman series is absorbed by a hydrogen-like atom X in the second excited state. As a result, the hydrogen-like atom X makes a transition to n^th Then:

1. X = He⁺ , n=4
2. X = Li⁺⁺,n= 6
3. X = He⁺, n=9
4. X = Li⁺⁺,n= 9
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. For a nuclear fission process, suitable nuclei are

1. Any nuclei
2. Heavy nuclei
3. Lighter nuclei
4. Nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. A square lamina of mass and side a has a moment of inertia about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane equal to . What is its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its corners and perpendicular to its plane?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. A hollow sphere of outer radius 10 cm and inner radius 8 cm is fully submerged in water. The buoyant force experienced by the sphere is
(density of water 1000 kg m^-3 ,g=10 ms^-2)

1. 3/4 π N
2. 8/3 π N
3. 2/3 π N
4. 4/3 π N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. A uniform rod of mass M and length L is rotating about an axis perpendicular to the rod. The axis is initially passing through its centre. If the axis is shifted by L/4, the percentage increase in moment of inertia is

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. Three identical point masses m are placed at three vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. The moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of the triangle and perpendicular to its plane is

1. 1/2 ma² 2. 2/3 ma²
3. 3/2 ma² 4. ma²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. The absolute pressure is defined as

1. Difference between atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure
2. Pressure at a depth
3. Sum of atmospheric and gauge pressure
4. Pressure above the surface i.e., atmospheric pressure

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. A uniform circular disc has moment of inertia I about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. If its moment of inertia about any diameter is I_d, then according to the perpendicular axis theorem

1. I_d=I
2. I_d=2I
3. I_d=I/2
4. I_d=I/4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. If the specific weight of a liquid inside a cubical container of side 10 cm is 125 Nm^-3), then mass of that liquid will be g=10 ms^-2
1. 200 g
2. 125 g
3. 100 g
4. 150 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. From the following equations, pick out the possible nuclear reactions:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. The radius of the orbit corresponding to the 4^th excited state in Li⁺⁺ ion is: (where a₀ is the radius of the first orbit in the hydrogen atom)

1. 25/3 a₀ 2. 16/3 a₀
3. 25 a₀ 4. 12 a₀
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. The frequencies of the series-limit of the Lyman & Balmer series of lines are ( ν_L and ν_B) respectively. Then, the frequency (ν_L-ν_B ) belongs to:

1. Lyman series
2. Balmer series
3. Paschen series
4. none of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in hydrogen-like atoms results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from:

1. 3 → 2
2. 4 → 2
3. 4 → 3
4. 2 → 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. According to Bernoulli’s theorem, the pressure vs velocity of an incompressible horizontal fluid flow along a pipe is best represented by

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. The nuclear radius is given by R = R₀ A^1/3 where R₀ is constant and A is the atomic mass number. Then:

1. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸is twice that of Sn¹¹⁹.
2. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is thrice that of Sn¹¹⁹
3. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is the same as that of Sn¹¹⁹
4. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is half that of Sn¹¹⁹
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. The mass of a ₃Li⁷ nuclei is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The Binding energy per nucleon of ₃Li⁷ nucleus is nearly

1. 46 MeV
2. 5.6 MeV
3. 3.9 MeV
4. 2.3 MeV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. If 1mg of U²³⁵ is completely annihilated, the energy liberated is

1. 9×10¹⁰ J
2. 9×10¹⁹ J
3. 9×10¹⁸ J
4. 9×10¹⁷ J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3^rd orbit to the 2^nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. When it jumps from the 4^th orbit to the 3^rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be:

1. 16/25 λ
2. 9/16 λ
3. 20/7 λ
4. 20/13 λ
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. What is the frequency and wavelength of a photon emitted during a transition from n = 5 state to the n = 2 state in the hydrogen atom?

1 .6.91×10¹⁴ Hz, 434 nm
2.1.0×10¹⁴ Hz, 625 nm
3. 6.91×10¹⁴ Hz, 625 nm
4 .0.69 ×10¹⁴ Hz, 434 nm

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. The ratio of nuclear densities and nuclear volumes of and are, respectively:

1. 13:1 and 14:1
2. 14:1 and 1:1
3. 1:1 and 14:1
4. 1:1 and 13:1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. Hydrogen atom in an excited state with (n=3) transitions directly to the ground state (n=1) emitting a single photon. Assuming the atom was initially at rest, what is the recoil velocity of hydrogen atom? (mass of H-atom =1.67×10^-27 kg)

1. 1.09 ms^-1 2. 3.86 ms^-1
3. 6.626 ms^-1
4. 10.2 ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum energy change?

1. From n=2 to n=1
2. From n=3 to n=1
3. From n =4 to n=2
4. From n=7 to n=2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron 1.1 MeV and the binding energy per nucleon of helium is 7 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one then the energy released is

1. 23.6 MeV
2. 26.9 MeV
3. 19.2 MeV
4. 13.9 MeV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

September 3, 2026
NEET COMBINE TEST (29.08.2026)

Welcome to your NEET COMBINE TEST (29.08.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

PHYSICS

1. A plane of total wing area 500 m² has a mass of 2×10⁴ kg. Taking the density of air as 1 kg m^-3 and g=10m\/s², which of the following pairs of upper and lower surface air velocities (in m/s) respectively will provide the minimum required lift to get the plane off the ground?

1. 65, 50
2. 60, 50
3. 50, 40
4. 55, 60Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. Ultraviolet radiations of 2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV ). The stopping potential energy in joules of the fastest electron emitted is approximately

1. 3.2×10^-21
2. 3.2×10^-19
3. 3.2×10^-17 4. 3.2×10^-15
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. A horizontal pipe of cross section 80 cm² that tapers to 40 cm² is situated on top of a table of height 80 m. Water flows from the larger end to the lower end with a speed of 5 m/s. If the smaller end of the pipe rests on the edge of the table, the range of water coming from the smaller cross section will be

1. 20 m
2. 40 m
3. 32 m
4. 50 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Two metals A and B, when exposed to light of wavelength 400 nm shows the photoelectric effect. However, when light of wavelength 620 nm is used photoemission from A just stops but B still shows photoemission. When the latter wavelength is doubled, then photoemission from B just stops. Take hC = 1240 eV- nm. The fastest photoelectrons emitted, in all the experiments, have an energy of:

1. 3.1 eV
2. 2.1 eV
3. 1 eV
4. 3 eV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. In an experiment of terminal velocities of different balls of different radius but same density in a liquid, the variation of terminal velocity with the radius of the balls is best represented by

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5 (h/π) .The energy in the same orbit is nearly:

1. -1.51 eV
2. -13.6 eV
3. -3.4 eV
4. -0.85 ev
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. A horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross-section has water flowing through it. At a point where the cross-sectional area is A, the water speed is v and the pressure is P. At another point where the cross-sectional area is A/3, the pressure is P/2. What is the speed of water v at the first point? (Density of water = ρ)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. The number of spectral lines that are visible when an electron jumps from fifth excited state to ground state is

1. 4
2. 10
3. 15
4. 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. A large open cylindrical tank of height H is completely filled with water. A small hole is made at a depth h below the top surface. The horizontal range R of the water jet emerging from the hole on the ground is maximum when h is equal to:

1. H/4
2. H/3
3. H/2
4. H
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A flat plate of area 100 cm² is placed on a layer of oil If the coefficient of viscosity of the oil is 1.5 N s m^-2, the horizontal force required to move the plate with a steady speed of 5cm/s is:

1. 0.0375 N
2. 0.375
3. 3.75 N
4. 37.5 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is -3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately:
(Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10^-19) J, e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C and 1/(4πε₀ ) = 9 × 10⁹ N m² /C² )

1. 2.1 × 10^-9 m
2. 2.1 × 10^-8 m
3. 2.1 × 10^-10 m
4. 2.1 × 10^-11 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. A small sphere of density ρ falls from rest in a viscous liquid of density σ (ρ>σ). The variation of its velocity with time t is best represented by which of the following curves?

1. Linear growth starting from origin (v ∝ t)
2. Parabolic curve opening upwards
3. Exponential approach towards a constant maximum velocity v_T
4. Oscillatory curve approaching zero velocity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. An electron and a photon have the same wavelength and their momenta are P_e and P_v We can conclude that:

1. p_e >p_v 2. p_e<p_v
3. p_e =p_v
4. No inference can be made
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

14.

14. Water stands up to a height h in a closed tank. The air above the water surface is compressed to a pressure P, which is higher than atmospheric pressure P₀. A small orifice is opened at the bottom of the tank. The speed of efflux of water through the orifice is given by:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. Light, having a wavelength equal to the first line of the Balmer series, is incident onto a metal of work-function 2eV. The kinetic energy of the ejected electron is:

1. 1.4 eV
2. 0.5 eV
3. 0.11 eV
4. No electrons are ejected
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by =a+bt², where a=8.5 m and b=2.5 ms^-2 and t is measured in seconds. The average velocity of the object between t=2 s and t=4 s is

1. 5 m s^-12. 10 m s^-1
3. 15 m s^-14. 20 m s^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. A spherical metal ball of radius r₁ moves with a terminal velocity v₁ in a liquid. Another sphere of the same material but of radius r₂=3r₁ falls in the same liquid. The ratio of viscous force acting on the second sphere to that on the first sphere at their respective terminal velocities is

1. 3:1
2. 9:1
3. 27:1
4. 81:1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200 V. After this, their de-Broglie wavelengths are λ_α and λ_p The ratio λ_p/λ_αis:

1. 3.8
2. 8
3. 7.8
4. 2.8
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. A particle of mass 2 kg moves along the -axis under a force F(x)=x+αx². It starts from rest at x=0 and reaches x=5m with a speed of 10 m/s. Find the value of .

1. 21/15 N/m
2. 21/10 N/m
3. 25/51 N/m
4. 15/21 N/m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. A uniform rod of length L and mass M lies along the x-axis with its centre at the origin. A small particle of mass m is attached at the right end of the rod. The combined system is then placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. The particle is suddenly removed and moves with velocity v towards the right. What is the velocity of the centre of mass of the rod immediately after the particle is removed?

1. mv/M towards the left
2. mv/M towards the right
3. mv/(M+m) towards the left
4. Zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. A force F=1+10y² acts on a particle in the y-direction, where F is in newton and y is in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y=0 to y=1m is

1. 10/3 J
2. 3/10 J
3. 10 J
4. 3 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Displacement is independent of the choice of origin of the axis.
2. Displacement may or may not be equal to the distance travelled.
3. When a particle returns to its starting point, its displacement is not zero.
4. Displacement does not tell the nature of the actual motion of a particle between the points.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. A system consists of two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg placed at positions x=0 m and x=5 m respectively. The 3 kg particle is now moved to x=10 m, while the 2 kg particle remains fixed. What is the displacement of the centre of mass of the system?

1. 2 m
2. 3 m
3. 4 m
4. 5 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

1. 7 J
2. 9 J
3. 12 J
4. 15 JDeselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

25.

25. A system consists of two particles of masses ‘m’ and ‘2m’. The first particle is at (2,3) m and the second is at (5,6) m. The position of vector of the centre of mass is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. A ball of mass 10 kg is fired vertically upwards with a speed of 50 m/s, it reaches the maximum height of 25 m. Find The resistive force exerted by air resistance?

1. 42.5 N (upward)
2. 425 N (downward)
3. 40.0 N (upward)
4. 400 N (downward)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Two particle of masses 2m and 3m are placed at x=0 and x=10m, respectively. A third particle of mass 5m is placed at x=x₀. If the centre of mass is at , then x₀ is

1. 2cm
2. 4cm
3. 6cm
4. 8cm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. A particle of mass 10 kg is raised from the bottom a circle of radius 1 m along the inner surface upto a height equal to radius of the circle. The maximum gain in energy of the particle is

1. 10 J
2. 49 J
3. 100 J
4. zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. A particle moves along the-axis such that its coordinate x varies with time as x=2t²-3t, where is in meters and is in seconds. The instantaneous velocity of the particle at t=2 s is:

1. 5 m/s
2. 8 m/s
3. 3 m/s
4. 2 m/s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. The centre of mass of the particles moves with the constant velocity

1. Net external force is zero
2. Internal force is zero
3. All particles have equal masses
4. All particles have equal velocities
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force given by The power developed by the force at the time t is given by:

1. (3t³+6t⁵) W
2. (9t⁵+6t³) W
3. (6t⁴+9t⁵) W
4. (9t³+6t⁵) W
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

32.

32. The area under velocity-time graph for a particle in a given interval of time represents

1. Velocity
2. Acceleration
3. work done
4. displacement
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. A 2kg particle is moving with velocity 6 m/s collides with 4kg particle moving in opposite direction with velocity 3 m/s. Find the velocity of centre of mass

1. 1 m/s
2. 2 m/s
3. 3 m/s
4. zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. A particle of mass 500 gm is moving in a straight line with velocity v=bx^5/2. The work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 1 m is: (Take b=0.5m^-3/2 s^-1).

1. 62.5 mJ
2. 72.4 mJ
3. 81.15 mJ
4. 16.25 mJ
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

35.

35. A uniform rod of length 20m has a mass of 10kg. Its centre of mass is located at

1. 10m from one end
2. 5m from either end
3. At one end
4. 5.5m from one end
Deselect Answer

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None

36.

36. If ρ is the density of water. The power required to empty the cylindrical container of radius 1 m, contains water upto height 10 m, varies with density as

Deselect Answer

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3

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None

37.

37. A body at rest is moved along a horizontal straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the body in time ‘t‘ is proportional to:

1. t^3/4
2. t^1/2
3. t^3/24. t^1/3
Deselect Answer

1

2

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None

38.

38. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon

1. Masses of particles
2. Position of particles
3. Force acting on particles
4. Relative distance between particles
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. A uniform sphere has radius R. A sphere of diameter R is cut from its edge. Then the distance of centre of mass of remaining portion from the centre of mass of the original sphere is.

1. R/4
2. R/7
3. R/14
4. R/16
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is

1. 1.67 Å
2. 3.33 Å
3. 1.06 Å
4. 6.66 Å
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. The displacement –time graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point

1. C
2. D
3. E
4. F
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. The displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of a constant force is related to time t by the equation t=√x+3, where xis in meters and t is in seconds. What is the displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero?

1. 3 m
2. 6 m
3. 0 m
4. 9 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. In the following velocity-time graph, the distance travelled by the body in metres is

1. 200
2. 250
3. 300
4. 400
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. The position-time (x-t) graph of a moving particle is initially a straight line inclined at an angle of 60° with the time axis. After 2 seconds, the graph changes to a straight line inclined at 30° with the time axis. The ratio of the initial velocity to the final velocity of the particle is:

1. 3:1
2. 1:3
3. √3: 1
4. 1:√3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. For a particle moving in a straight line, which of the following kinematic graphs is physically NOT possible?

1. A position-time graph with a negative slope
2. A velocity-time graph with a negative slope
3. A position-time graph that is a vertical straight line
4. An acceleration-time graph with a negative value
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

46.

CHEMISTRY
46. The correct stability order for the following species is:

1. (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)
2. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
3. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
4. (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47.

47. A p-block element belonging to 4^th period, group 13 has an atomic number

1. 30
2. 31
3. 32
4. 33
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

48.

48. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is

1. P > Q > R > S
2. Q > R > S > P
3. S > Q > R > P
4. S > R > Q > P
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49.

49. The atomic number of an element having IUPAC symbol uno is

1. 128
2. 108
3. 198
4. 138
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50.

50. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51.

51. Oxygen family are also called

1. Coinage metals
2. Pnictogens
3. Chalcogensq
4. Aerogens
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52.

52. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

1. 2-Phenyl-1-butene
2. 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propane
3. 1-Phenyl-2-butene
4. 3-Phenyl-1-butane
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53.

53. Which electronic configuration corresponds to highest first I.E

1. [He]2s¹
2. [Ne]3s¹
3. [Ar]4s¹
4. [Kr]5s¹
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

54. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has

1. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
2. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
3. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
4. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55.

55. Which of the following is correct

1. r_covalent < r_{van der waals}< r_crystal
2. r_covalent < r_crystal < r_{van der waals}
3. r_crystal > r_covalent > r_{van der waals}
4. r_{van der waals}> r_covalent > r_crystal
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56.

56. The order of stability of the following carbocations is

1. III>I>II
2. III>II>I
3. II>III>I
4. I> II > III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57.

57. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

1. Mg<Ca<Cl<P
2. Cl<P<Mg<Ca
3. Ca<Mg<P<Cl
4. P<Cl<Ca<Mg

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58.

58. Which of the following compound is chiral:

1. Penta-2, 3-diene
2. 2,3-Dibromopentane
3. 3-cyclopentenol
4. All of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

59. Palladium has an electronic configuration of 4d¹⁰. The period and group it belongs to will be

1. Period 4, group 10
2. Period 5, group 10
3. Period 6, group 10
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60.

60. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
2. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
3. 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61.

61. Which statement is incorrect about ionization enthalpy (I.E)

1. The more stable the electronic configuration, greater is the I.E
2. E increase with increase in size of an atom
3. E increase with increase in nuclear charge
4. E decrease with increase in screening effect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

62. The compound which shows metamerism is:

1. C₅H₁₂ 2. C₃H₈O
3. C₃H₆O
4. C₄H₁₀O
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

63. Among the following, the most stable carbanion is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

64. Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic? Al³⁺, Cl^–, O^2-, O^–, Mg²⁺
1. Al³⁺ O^– and Cl^–
2. Al³⁺ O^2- and Mg²⁺
3. O^– O^2- and Mg²⁺
4. Cl^– O^– and O^2-
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

65. The state of hybridization of C₂, C₃, C₅, and C₆, of the hydrocarbon,
CH₃ CH₂-CH₂-CH=CH-CH_2-C≡CH is in the following sequence :-

1. sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
2. sp, sp³, sp² and sp³
3. sp³, sp², sp² and sp
4. sp, sp², sp² and sp³
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

66. Arrange the following elements in their increasing order of first ionization enthalpy (I.E) : Li,Be,B,C,N. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Li < Be < B < C < N
2. Li < B < Be < C < N
3. Li < Be < C < B < N
4. Li < Be < N < B < C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67.

67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion(A): Inductive effect operates in compound having bond.
Reason(R): Inductive effect is permanent effect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

68. The molarity of the solution obtained by adding 5 grams of NaOH to 200 ml of water is:

1. 1.043 M
2. 1.725 M
3. 0.825 M
4. 0.625 M
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69.

69. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of Hydrogen?

1. +3.4 eV
2. -13.6 eV
3. -3.4 eV
4. +13.6 eV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

70. Two compartments, A and B, are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
Compartment A contains 0.01 M Na₂SO₄ solution, and compartment B contains 0.02 M BaCl₂ solution. In which compartment will the precipitate of BaSO₄ be formed?

1. Compartment A
2. Compartment B
3. No precipitate is formed in any compartment
4. Precipitate forms in both compartments A and B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

71. Choose the incorrect statement about Anode ray

1. The charge to mass ratio for anode ray is considerably smaller than electrons
2. It depends upon the nature of the gas taken in the tube
3. The anode rays travel in straight lines and do not cast shadow of the object placed in their path.
4. The deflection of anode rays is in the opposite direction to that of the cathode rays.Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

72.

72. At 25°C, liquids A and B behave ideally across all compositions. Two mixtures are prepared such that the mole fraction of A is 0.25 in one case and 0.50 in the other. The corresponding total vapour pressures of these mixtures are found to be 0.3 bar and 0.4 bar, respectively.
Based on this information, determine the vapour pressure of pure liquid B (in bar).

1. 0.1
2. 0.2
3. 0.3
4. 0.4Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73.

73. The uncertainty in measuring velocity of a proton is 4 x 10³ m/s. The minimum uncertainty involved in measuring the position of proton will be?

1. 3.7 X 10⁴ m
2. 4.3 x 10^-12 m
3. 7.9 X 10 ^-12 m
4. 3.7 X 10⁸ m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

74. The following two statements are given.
Given: Atomic masses are C = 12, H = 1, O =16, Cl = 35.5 g mol⁻¹.
Statement I: In a 30% (w/w) solution of methanol in CCl₄ at temperature T, the mole fraction of CCl₄ is 0.33.
Statement II: A mixture of methanol and CCl₄ exhibits positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Based on the above statements, choose the correct option:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4, Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

75.

75. The value if Planck’s constant is 6.64 X 10 ^-34J/s. The speed of light is 3 x 10 ⁸ms^-1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 5 x 10¹⁵ s ^-1
1. 50 nm
2. 60 nm
3. 70 nm
4. 10 nm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76.

76. For the equilibrium PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)
One mole of PCl₅ is taken in a 2 L vessel at equilibrium. If 40% of PCl₅ dissociates, the value of Kc is:

1. 0.067
2. 0.133
3. 0.267
4. 0.533
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77.

77. Select the correct statements from the following
A. The electromagnetic radiation does not require any medium for propagation
B. Rutherford cannot explain the stability of atom
C. Mass number, A = No.of protons + of Electrons
D. Isobars have the same number of neutrons but different mass number
E. The deflection of anode rays is in the opposite direction to that of the cathode ray

1. A, B and C
2. A, B, C and E
3. A, B, and E
4. C, D and E
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78.

78. One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is:

1. 0.25
2. 0.15
3. 0.50
4. 0.33
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79.

79. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the highest energetic photon?

1. n=5 to n=3
2. n=5 to n=4
3. n=6 to n=1
4. n=6 to n=5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80.

80. The van’t Hoff factor, i, for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively.

1. less than one and less than one
2. greater than one and less than one
3. greater than one and greater than one
4. less than one and greater than one
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81.

81. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He⁺ is

1. 26.45
2. 0.529
3. 52.9
4. 92.7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82.

82. The plot of osmotic pressure (π) vs concentration (mol L⁻¹) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol⁻¹. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use R = 0.083 L bar mol⁻¹ K⁻¹).

1. 37 °C
2. 310 °C
3. 25.73 °C
4. 12.05 °C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83.

83. The de-Broglie wavelength of a cricket ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 meters per second is approximately (h = 6.63 X 10^-34 J/s)

1. 1 X 10 ^-31 meters
2. 1 X 10 ^-30 meters
3. 1 X 10 ^-28 meters
4. 1 X 10 ^-33 meters
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84.

84. Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

1. 0.01 M Urea
2. 0.01 M KNO₃
3. 0.01 M Na₂SO₄
4. 0.015 M C₆H₁₂O₆
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85.

85. Which one is incorrect about Photoelectric effect

1. The electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light strikes the surface.
2. The Kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
3. The number of electrons ejected per second from the metal surface do not depends upon the intensity or brightness of incident radiation but depend upon its frequency.
4. Few metals such as Cs, Rb and K in which the electrons are loosely held by the nucleus show this effect when visible light falls upon them.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

86. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87.

87. Calculate the energy associated with the first orbit of He⁺.

1. -8.72 x 10^-18 J
2. – 2.76 x 10^-18 J
3. 7.85 x 10^-16 J
4. 2.64 x 10^-16 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88.

88. A solution of acetone in ethanol

1. shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
2. shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
3. behaves like a near ideal solution
4. obeys Raoult’s law
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89.

89. What is the value of orbital angular momentum for an electron in 5s orbital?

1. 1
2. 0
3. 2
4. 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90.

90. Who proposed the law of octaves

1. Johann Dobereiner
2. De Chancourtois
3. John Newlands
4. Lother Meyer
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

91.

BIOLOGY

91. In spermatogenesis, a primary spermatocyte produces four similar sperms while in oogenesis a primary oocyte form

1. One ovum
2. Three ovum and one polar body
3. Two ovum and two polar body
4. One ovum and 2-3 polar body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

92.

92. The cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by:

1. Corpus callosum
2. Central canal
3. Cerebral aqueduct
4. A deep cleft
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93.

93. Assertion: Oogonia starts division and enters into prophase I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocyte.
Reason: Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells.

1. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
4. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

94.

94. A patient exhibits the following symptoms:
– disturbed regulation of body temperature
– abnormal hunger and thirst
– altered water balance
However, coordination of movement and equilibrium remain normal.
Which region is most likely affected?

1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Medulla
4. Occipital lobe
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95.

95. Seminal plasma of human is rich in

1. Fructose and certain enzymes, poor in Ca2+
2. Fructose, Ca2+ and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, Ca2+ but no enzymes
4. Glucose, certain enzymes but no Ca2+
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96.

96. A lesion selectively affects the hypothalamus while leaving the cerebral cortex and brainstem intact. Which combination of functions is most likely to be disturbed?

1. Vision and hearing
2. Body temperature, hunger and water balance
3. Voluntary movement and speech only
4. Posture and skeletal muscle coordination only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97.

97. Consider the following statements about the human brain:
1. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum.
2. The cerebellum is responsible for the maintenance of posture and equilibrium.
3. The hypothalamus is involved in regulation of body temperature and hunger.
4. The medulla forms the major sensory relay centre of the brain.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98.

98. Ovum is liberated from ovary during ovulation in which state

1. Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase
2. Primary oocyte arrested at metaphase
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at prophase
4. Primary oocyte arrested at prophase
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99.

99. Which of the following structures is correctly arranged from superior to inferior?

1. Cerebrum → cerebellum → medulla → spinal cord
2. Cerebrum → midbrain → pons → medulla → spinal cord
3. Cerebellum → cerebrum → pons → spinal cord
4. Cerebrum → medulla → midbrain → spinal cord
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

100.

100. Observe the given diagram and select the option that correctly identifies the labelled part along with its characteristic.

1. 1 – Ampulla – Site of blastocyst implantation
2. 2 – Ovary – Site of oogenesis
3. 3 – Cervix – Secrete hCG
4. 4 – Uterus – Site of fertilization
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101.

101. If K⁺ channels fail to open properly following depolarisation, which process would be most directly impaired?

1. Generation of resting potential
2. Depolarisation
3. Repolarisation
4. Reception of stimulus by dendrites
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102.

102. Cluster of cells in mammary lobes is known as

1. Mammary duct
2. Ampulla
3. Tubules
4. Alveoli
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103.

103. Consider the following statements:
1. Na⁺ influx is associated with depolarisation.
2. K⁺ efflux is associated with repolarisation.
3. The resting membrane is polarised.
4. The Na⁺/K⁺ pump helps maintain ionic gradients.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

104.

104. Which sequence correctly represents the major changes during generation of a nerve impulse?

1. Repolarisation → depolarisation → resting state
2. Depolarisation → repolarisation → restoration of resting state
3. Resting state → repolarisation → depolarisation
4. Hyperpolarisation → depolarisation → resting state
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105.

105. The difference between primary follicle and secondary follicle in the human ovary is

1. The primary follicle contains the primary oocyte whereas the secondary follicle contains the secondary oocyte
2. The primary follicle contains an oocyte and the 1st polar body whereas the secondary follicle contains an oocyte and the 2nd polar body
3. The oocyte in the primary follicle is diploid whereas the oocyte in the secondary follicle is haploid
4. In primary follicle, the oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of cells whereas in secondary follicle the oocyte is surrounded by multiple layers of granulosa cells
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

106. During depolarisation of a neuronal membrane:

1. Na⁺ channels open and Na⁺ enters the neuron
2. K⁺ channels open and K⁺ enters the neuron
3. Na⁺ leaves the neuron
4. Cl⁻ leaves the neuron
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107.

107. The infundibulum of fallopian tube leads to

1. Isthmus
2. Ampulla
3. Fimbriae
4. Uterus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

108. During the resting state of a neuron, the membrane is:

1. Depolarised
3. Repolarised
2. Polarised
4. Hyperpolarised
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

109. In human, the unpaired male reproductive structure is

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate
3. Testis
4. Vas deferens
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

110. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Type of Characteristic
neuron

1. Unipolar One axon and one dendrite
2. Bipolar One axon and several dendrites
3. Multipolar One axon and several dendrites
4. Bipolar No axon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111.

111. If a primary oocyte has 46 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in each cell at the end of first meiotic division and in mature oocyte respectively?

1. 23, 23
2. 46, 23
3. 23, 46
4. 46, 46
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112.

112. Nissl’s granules are mainly associated with:

1. Protein synthesis
2. ATP production
3. Myelin formation
4. Neurotransmitter degradation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

113.

113. The three phases in spermatogenesis is followed by

1. Spermatids formation
2. Spermiation
3. Spermatocytogenesis
4. Spermiogenesis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

114. Consider the following statements about a neuron:
1. Dendrites generally conduct impulses towards the cell body.
2. Axons generally conduct impulses away from the cell body.
3. Myelination increases the speed of impulse conduction.
4. Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115.

115. After which cell division is 2nd polar body formed?

1. Meiosis II
2. Meiosis I
3. Mitosis
4. Both 1 and 2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

116.

116. The correct sequence for transmission of an impulse within a neuron is:

A. Axon → dendrite → cell body → axon terminal
B. Dendrite → cell body → axon → axon terminal
C. Cell body → dendrite → axon → axon terminal
D. Dendrite → axon terminal → cell body → axon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117.

117. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoa?

1. 100
2. 150
3. 200
4. 400
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

118.

118. In gymnosperms, the outermost protective layer of the seed, known as the seed coat, originates from which of the following structures?

1. megaspore
2. microspore
3. megasporangium
4. microsporangium.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119.

119. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding epididymis in males?

1. It is a site where sperms undergo physiological maturation
2. They are positioned on the ventral side of testis
3. They link the rete testis and vas deferens
4. They are lined with pseudostratified epithelium which secretes nutrients
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

120.

120. Select the correct statement with respect to given type of life cycle.

1. Meiosis occurs at the time of gametes formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many gymnosperm and angiosperm.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

121.

121. What is the function of bulbourethral gland secretion?

1. Nourishing sperms
2. Activating sperms
3. Serves as lubricant during sexual intercourse
4. Enhancing mobility of sperms
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

122.

122. Recognise the given life cycle and find the suitable matching for A, B, C and D

1. A-sporophyll, B-thallus, C-embryo, D gametophyte
2. A-sporophyll, B-thallus, C-Zygote, D sporophyte
3. A-spotangium, B-prothallus, C-Zygote, D sporophyte
4. A-gametangia, B-thallus, C-zygote, D gametophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

123.

123. Which of the following scientists first demonstrated that a substance from dead bacteria could transform living bacteria?

1. Griffith
2. Hershey
3. Watson
4. Meselson
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

124.

124. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is incorrect?

1. DNA polymerase requires a primer.
2. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
3. The leading strand is synthesised continuously.
4. DNA polymerase initiates DNA synthesis de novo
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

125.

125. Peat, which has long been used as fuel, is mainly formed from:

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Funaria
4. Sphagnum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126.

126. Consider the following statements about nucleosomes:
A. Histone proteins are positively charged.
B. DNA is negatively charged.
C. Histones facilitate DNA packaging.
D. The histone octamer contains H1, H2A, H2B and H3.
Which are correct?

1. A, B and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

127.

127. Read the following statements regarding the economic importance of algae:
I. Chlorella and Spirulina are rich in proteins and are used as food supplements.
II. Agar obtained from red algae is used in the preparation of culture media.
III. Algae such as Laminaria and Sargassum are sources of algin.
IV. All algae used as food are freshwater forms.
Choose the correct option:

1. I and II only
2. I, II and III only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128.

128. In the Hershey–Chase experiment, if ³⁵S is detected predominantly in the bacterial supernatant, the best conclusion is:

1. Protein entered the bacteria.
2. Sulphur entered the bacteria.
3. Protein remained outside the bacterial cells.
4. DNA remained outside the bacterial cells.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129.

129. A botanist observes the following features in an unknown plant:
A. Dominant plant body is diploid and independent.
B. Gametophytes are highly reduced.
C. Two types of spores are produced.
The plant most likely belongs to:

1. Bryophyta
2. Homosporous pteridophyta
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Gymnospermae
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130.

130. A DNA molecule has 1000 base pairs, and 30% of its bases are adenine. The total number of hydrogen bonds is:

1.2000
2. 2200
3. 2400
4. 2600
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

131.

131. A plant possesses the following characteristics:
A. True roots, stem and leaves are present.
B. Vascular tissues are well developed.
C. Sporophyte is the dominant plant body.
D. Fertilisation requires water.
The plant most appropriately belongs to:

1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnospermae
4. Angiospermae
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132.

132. Assertion: DNA replication is semiconservative.
Reason: During replication, each newly formed DNA molecule contains one old\ strand and one newly synthesised strand.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

133.

133. Which of the following are gametophytic structures?
(a) Protonema of moss
(b) Prothallus of fern
(c) foliage of moss
(d) Main plant body of Fucus
Choose the correct answer.

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

134.

134. If DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only to the 3′ end, why is the lagging strand discontinuous?

1. DNA polymerase works only on RNA.
2. The two DNA strands are antiparallel.
3. The lagging strand contains uracil.
4. Helicase cannot unwind the lagging strand.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135.

135. Select the correct sequence of ploidy changes in the typical life cycle of a haplo diplontic organism:

1. (n) gametophyte → meiosis → (2n) sporophyte → fertilisation → (n) zygote
2. (n) gametophyte → fertilisation → (2n) zygote → mitosis → (2n) sporophyte → meiosis → (n) spores
3. (2n) gametophyte → fertilisation → (n) zygote → meiosis → (2n) spores
4. (n) sporophyte → meiosis → (2n) spores → fertilisation → (n) gametophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

136.

136. If DNA ligase is completely inactive during replication, what would be the immediateconsequence?

1. DNA strands cannot unwind.
2. RNA primers cannot form.
3. Okazaki fragments cannot be joined.
4. DNA polymerase cannot add nucleotides.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

137.

137. In gymnosperms, the female gametophyte:

1. Is independent and photosynthetic like the prothallus of most pteridophytes
2. Produces archegonia containing female gametes
3. Is formed from microspores
4. Develops after fertilisation to form endosperm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

138.

138. A replication fork is moving from left to right. Which statement is correct?

1. Both new strands are synthesised continuously in the direction of fork movement.
2. The leading strand is synthesised continuously, whereas the lagging strand\ is synthesised discontinuously.
3. The lagging strand is synthesised continuously because DNA polymerase works 5′ → 3′.
4. Both strands discontinuously are synthesised because DNA polymerase cannot work continuously.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139.

139. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dominant phase or reproductive strategy of the respective plant group?

1. Bryophytes gametophyte possess a dominant and a nutritionally dependent sporophyte.
2. Pteridophytes possess a dependent sporophyte and a dependent gametophyte.
3. Most algae reproduce both sexually and asexually.
4. Pteridophytes produce zygote after fertilisation.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

140.

140. A eukaryotic chromosome contains DNA that is approximately 200 bp per nucleosome. If a region contains 2,000 bp of DNA, approximately how many nucleosomes would be associated with it?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
4. 200
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141.

141. Which pair of pteridophytes is heterosporous?

1. Lycopodium and Pteris
2. Selaginella and Salvinia
3. Equisetum and Adiantum
4. Pteris and Dryopteris
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142.

142. Coding strand: 5′–ATG CCG TTA–3′ What will be the mRNA sequence?

1. 3′–UAC GGC AAU–5′
2. 5′–AUG CCG UUA–3′
3. 5′–UAC GGC AAU–3′
4. 3′–AUG CCG UUA–5′
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

143.

143. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes\ have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are homosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.

1. i and iii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

144.

144. RNA polymerase moves along the template DNA strand in:

1. 5′ → 3′ direction and synthesises RNA 3′ → 5′
2. 3′ → 5′ direction and synthesises RNA 5′ → 3′
3. 5′ → 3′ direction and synthesises RNA 5′ → 3′
4. 3′ → 5′ direction and synthesises RNA 3′ → 5′
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

145.

145. Heterospory is considered an important step towards the evolution of seed habit because it involves:

1. Production of only one type of spore
2. Production of male and female gametes by the same spore
3. Production of microspores and megaspores giving rise to separate gametophytes
4. Development of flowers enclosing the ovules
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146.

146. In the absence of lactose, which sequence is correct?

1. i gene inactive → repressor absent → transcription occurs
2. i gene produces repressor → repressor binds operator → transcription is prevented
3. i gene produces repressor → repressor binds promoter → transcription is prevented
4. Lactose binds operator → structural genes are switched off
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147.

147. Ploidy level of antherozoid mother cell, rhizoid and archegonia in a typical Pteridophyte is:

1. Haploid (n)
2. Diploid (2n)
3. Triploid (3n)
4. Tetraploid (4n)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

148.

148. Suppose a mutation changes an mRNA codon from:
UUU → UUC
Both codons specify phenylalanine.
What type of property of the genetic code is demonstrated?

1. Universal
2. Degenerate
3. Unambiguous
4. Non-overlapping
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149.

149. Which one correctly distinguishes liverworts from mosses?

1. Liverworts possess vascular tissues, whereas mosses do not.
2. Protonema is characteristic of liverworts only.
3. In mosses, the gametophyte has a protonema and leafy stage.
4. Sporophyte is dominant in mosses but gametophyte is dominant in liverworts.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

150.

150. The genetic material should be able to:

1. Replicate, be stable, and express itself
2. Only replicate and mutate
3. Only express itself
4. Undergo translation and transcription
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

151.

151. Which of the following features would be expected in a typical bryophyte but not in a pteridophyte?

1. Dominant independent sporophyte
2. Vascular tissues
3. Free-living gametophyte
4. Sporophyte completely or partially dependent upon gametophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

152.

152. The distance between two consecutive base pairs in DNA is:

1. 0.34 nm
2. 3.4 nm
3. 34 nm
4. 0.034 nm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

153.

153. Assertion (A): The sporophytic generation is almost absent in organisms with a haplontic life cycle.
Reason (R): The zygote immediately undergo meiosis to produce multicellular sporophyte.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154.

154. The diameter of the DNA double helix is:

1. 0.34 nm
2. 2 nm
3. 3.4 nm
4. 20 nm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

155.

155. Regarding the classification of algae, consider the following statements:
I. Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae differ primarily in the type of pigments present and stored food.
II. All members of Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a and b.
III. Floridean starch is the reserve food material of Rhodophyceae.
IV. Members of Chlorophyceae generally possess a cell wall with an inner cellulose layer and an outer pectose layer.
Choose the correct option:

1. I, II and III only
2. I, III and IV only
3. II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156.

156. The nucleosome is the repeating unit of:

1. Euchromatin
2. Chromatin
3. RNA
4. Ribosome
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157.

157. In a frog, the blood from the ventricle is distributed through:

1. Only pulmonary arteries
2. Only systemic arteries
3. Conus arteriosus and arterial arches
4. Sinus venosus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

158.

158. The segment of DNA that codes for RNA is called:

1. Cistron
2. Operon
3. Replicon
4. Codon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159.

159. Which sequence correctly describes the passage of an egg in a female frog?

1. Ovary → oviduct → body cavity → cloaca
2. Ovary → cloaca → oviduct → water
3. Ovary → kidney → oviduct → cloaca
4. Ovary → body cavity → oviduct → cloaca
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

160.

160. The genetic code was finally deciphered by:

1. Watson and Crick
2. Nirenberg and Matthaei
3. Griffith
4. Meselson and Stahl
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

161.

161. Fertilization in frog is:

1. External and aquatic
2. Internal and aquatic
3. Internal and terrestrial
4. External and terrestrial
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162.

162. What is a codon

1. A triplet of nucleotides on tRNA
2. A triplet of nucleotides on mRNA
3. A triplet of amino acids
4. A triplet of nucleotides on DNA only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

163.

163. The genetic code is:

1. Overlapping and ambiguous
2. Degenerate and unambiguous
3. Non-degenerate and ambiguous
4. Random and overlapping
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

164.

164. Select the correct sequence representing an increase in complexity of plant body organisation among the following algae:

1. Volvox → Ulothrix → Chlamydomonas → Fucus
2. Fucus → Ulothrix → Volvox → Chlamydomonas
3. Ulothrix → Chlamydomonas → Volvox → Fucus
4. Chlamydomonas → Volvox → Ulothrix → Fucus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

165.

165. Which of the following correctly distinguishes buccopharyngeal correctly from pulmonary respiration?

1. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs through skin, pulmonary occurs through lungs
2. Buccopharyngeal respiration involves the buccopharyngeal lining, pulmonary respiration involves the lungs
3. Both occur exclusively through lungs
4. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs only underwater
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

166.

166. In frogs, the kidneys are located:

1. In the thoracic cavity
2. Inside the urinary bladder
3. On the dorsal side of the abdominal cavity
4. In the pelvic cavity only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167.

167. Choose the correct combination:
1. Frog possesses three respiratory modes in adult life.
2. Cutaneous respiration requires a moist skin surface.
3. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs through the vascularised lining of the buccopharyngeal cavity.
4. Pulmonary respiration is performed by rhythmic movements of the buccal cavity.

1. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168.

168. Frog blood differs from human blood because frog RBCs are:

1. Enucleated and biconcave
2. Nucleated and oval
3. Nucleated and spherical
4. Enucleated and oval
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169.

169. The correct sequence of chambers through which blood passes in the frog heart is:

1. Right atrium → ventricle → left atrium
2. Sinus venosus → ventricle → atria → conus arteriosus
3. Right atrium → left atrium → ventricle → conus arteriosus
4. Sinus venosus → right atrium → ventricle → conus arteriosus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

170.

170. The renal portal system in frog is important because:

1. Blood from the hindlimbs passes through renal capillaries before returning to the heart.
2. Blood from lungs passes through renal capillaries.
3. Blood from intestine passes through kidneys before reaching liver.
4. It directly connects the liver and kidneys.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

171.

171. Which statement is incorrect about frog eggs?

1. They are mesolecithal.
2. They are telolecithal.
3. Yolk is more abundant toward the vegetal pole.
4. Yolk is uniformly distributed throughout the egg.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

172.

172. Which of the following correctly represents the pathway of sperm in male frog?

1. Testis → kidney → vasa efferentia → cloaca
2. Testis → vasa efferentia → kidney → Bidder’s canal → ureter → cloaca
3. Testis → Bidder’s canal → vasa efferentia → cloaca
4. Testis → ureter →Vasa efferentia →Bidder’s canal→ kidney → cloaca
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

173.

173. Which combination represents changes occurring during metamorphosis?
1. Gills → lungs
2. Tail → disappears
3. Limbs → develop
4. Omnivorous diet → carnivorous diet

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

174.

174. Which combination is correct?
1. Kidney — Excretion
2. Vasa efferentia — Sperm transport
3. Oviduct — Transport of ova
4. Urinary bladder — Storage of sperm

1. Only 1 and 2
2. Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Only 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

175.

175. Which statement incorrectly compares male and female frog?

1. Kidneys occur in both sexes.
2. Ureters occur in both sexes.
3. Vasa efferentia occur in both sexes.
4. Oviducts occur in both sexes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176.

176. A student says: “Since the male frog’s ureter carries sperm, it is a reproductive duct and has no urinary function.” The statement is:

1. Completely correct
2. Correct only in the breeding season
3. Incorrect because the ureter functions as a urinogenital duct
4. Incorrect because sperm never passes through the ureter
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177.

177. Match Column I with Column II.

Choose the correct option:

1. a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-iv
4. a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178.

178. Which of the following organisms shows a diplontic life cycle?

1. Spirogyra
2. Volvox
3. Fucus
4. Ulothrix
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

179.

179. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

180.

180. Which of the following is NOT a function primarily associated with the hypothalamus?

1. Regulation of body temperature
2. Regulation of hunger
3. Regulation of thirst
4. Coordination of skeletal muscle activity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 28, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (22.08.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (22.08.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

CHEMISTRY
1. The spectrum of helium is expected to be similar to that of

1. H
2. Na
3. Li⁺4. He⁺Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. The isomerism exhibited by n- propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol is

1. Metamerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Functional isomerism
4. None of the aboveDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. Which of the following is metalloid?

1. Phosphorus
2. Antimony
3. Nitrogen
4. BismuthDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. The IUPAC name of an element is Ununpentium. What is its atomic number?

1. 113
2. 115
3. 109
4. 111Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. A beam of Helium Atoms moves with a velocity of 2.0 X 10³ m/s. Find the wavelength of the particle constituting the beam.

1. 48.9pm
2. 49.9 pm
3. 46.9pm
4. 45.9 pmDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. Which of the following compound is optically active?

1. 1- butanol
2. 2-butanol
3. 3-butanol
4. 4-heptanol
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. What is the value of angular momentum for an electron in the 5^th orbit according to Bohr’s theory?

1. 3h/2π
2. 5h/2π
3. h/2π
4. 5h/3π
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. The places that were left empty by Mendeleev in periodic table were for

1. aluminium and silicon
2. gallium and germanium
3. arsenic and antimony
4. molybdenum and tungsten
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. What type of hybrid orbitals will form in the following compound: H₂C-CH=CH-CH₂-CH₃?

1. sp and sp³
2. sp and sp²
3. sp² and sp³ 4. only sp³
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A spectrum which consists of bright coloured lines separated by dark spaces is known as

1. Visible spectrum
2. Emission spectrum
3. Absorption spectrum
4. Electromagnetic spectrum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. Which of the following compound is meso isomer?

1. 2-chloro butane
2. 2,3 – dichloro butane
3. 2,3 dichloropentane
4. 2- Hydroxypropanoic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. Find out the number of waves made by a Bohr electron electron in one complete revolution in its 3^rd

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. The number of sigma bonds, pi bonds and lone pair of electrons in Furan, respectively are

1. 10, 2, 1
2. 9, 2, 2
3. 9,2,0
4. 5,2,0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. The successive ionization enthalpy of an element in kJmol^-1 is
I.E₁ – 899.5    I. E₂– 1757.1
I.E₃– 14,848.7
The element is

1. Lithium
2. Beryllium
3. Boron
4. Carbon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. The number of structural isomers of C₆H₁₄ is

1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. Calculate the radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit (in nm) for Hydrogen atom.

1. 1322.5
2. 13.225
3. 1.3225
4. 0.1322
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Assertion (A): The atomic radius of Gallium is smaller than that of Aluminium.
Reason (R): The valence electrons in Gallium experience a weaker effective nuclear charge due to the excellent shielding effect of the inner 3d-electrons.
Choose the correct option from the choices given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. Number of stereo centers/ chiral centre present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are respectively:

1. 5 & 4
2. 4 & 4
3. 5 & 5
4. 4 & 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The incorrect option for cathode ray is

1. Cathode ray travel in a straight line
2. It cannot produce mechanical effect
3. Do not depend upon the nature of gas
4. Charge/Mass ratio is 1.76 X 10¹¹ C/kg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents?

1. NH₂>-OR >-F
2. NR₂<-OR < -F
3. NH₂<-OR <-F
4. NR₃>-OR>-F
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. Predict the period, group and block to which an element with Z = 33 belongs.

1. 3^rd period, group 5, d-block
2. 4^th period, group 5, d-block
3. 4^th period, group 15, p-block
4. 3^rd period, group 15, p-block
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. The correct IUPACT name of the following compound is

1. 4-Methyl-5-Chloro-nitrobenzene
2. 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
3. 1-Chloro-2-methyl-5-nitrobenzene
4. 1-Methyl-2-chloro-4-nitrobenzene

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to the state of the principal quantum number 5. Then the number of spectral lines observed will be:

1. 6
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. Which of the element belongs to pnictogen?

1. Aluminium
2. Silicon
3. Phosphorus
4. Sulphur
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron if the uncertainty in its velocity is 5.7 X 10⁵ m/s.

1. 2 X 10 ¹² m
2. 1 X 10^-10m
3. 3 X 10 ³ m
4. 1 X 10 ^-2 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. Which of the following group 13 elements has the lowest first ionization enthalpy?

1. Boron
2. Aluminium
3. Gallium
4. Indium
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where the Balmer series lines appear is

1. Infrared
2. Visible
3. Microwaves
4. Ultra Violet
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is:

1. K⁺> Ca²⁺>Cl^–>S^2-
2. Ca²⁺> K⁺ >S^2- > Cl^–
3. Cl^–> S^2-> Ca²⁺> K⁺
4. S^2-> Cl^– > K⁺> Ca²⁺
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

1. Alpha particle scaterring from Gold
2. Beta particle scaterring from Gold
3. Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
4. A and B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. The correct decreasing order of first ionization enthalpies of five elements in the second period is

1. Be > B > C > N > F
2. N > F > C > B > Be
3. F > N > C > Be > B
4. N > F > B > C > Be
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. The de-Broglie wavelength of a cricket ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 meters per second is approximately (h = 6.63 X 10^-34 Js)

1. 1.1 X 10 ^-31 meters
2. 1.1 X 10 ^-30 meters
3. 1.1 X 10 ^-28 meters
4. 1.1 X 10 ^-33 meters
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. Lothar Meyer attempt was based on plotting atomic mass vs

1. atomic size
2. atomic volume
3. density
4. all of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

1. 500 mL of solvent
2. 500 g of solvent
3. 100 mL of solvent
4. 1000 g of solvent
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: 3.1500 g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol⁻¹.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. A is false but R is true.
3. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. A is true but R is false.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in 250 mL of water (P₁), 10 g of urea (CH₄N₂O) in 250 mL of water (P₂) and 10 g of sucrose
(C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) in 250 mL of water (P₃). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is

1. P₃ > P₁ > P₂
2. P₂ > P₁ > P₃
3. P₁ > P₂ > P₃
4. P₂ > P₃ > P₁
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. The vapour pressure of pure CHCl₃ and CH₂Cl₂ are 200 and 41.5 atm respectively. The weight of CHCl₃ and CH₂Cl₂ are 11.9g and 17g respectively in a solution. The vapour pressure of solution (in atm) will be

1. 80.5
2. 79.5
3. 94.3
4. 105.5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3: 2 is [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume ideal gas

1. 350 mm of Hg
2. 160 mm of Hg
3. 168 mm of Hg
4. 336 mm of Hg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. Assertion: Vapour pressure of solvent A increases when a more volatile solvent B is added.
Reason: B is more volatile therefore vapour pressure of B is greater than that of A.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is

1. ethanol + acetone
2. benzene + toluene
3. acetone + chloroform
4. chloroethane + bromoethane
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is

1. heptane + octane
2. water + nitric acid
3. ethanol + water
4. acetone + carbon disulphide
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. In water saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is

1. 1.18 atm
2. 1.76 atm
3. 1.176 atm
4. 0.98 atm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. For an ideal solution, the correct option is

1. Δ_mix G = 0 at constant T and P
2. Δ_mix S = 0 at constant T and P
3. Δ_mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P
4. Δ_mix H = 0 at constant T and P
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour?

1. Intermolecular attractive forces between and are stronger than those between .
2. Δ_mix H = 0 at constant T and P.
3. Δ_mix V ≠ 0 at constant T and P.
4. Intermolecular attractive forces between A–A and B–B are equal to those between A–B.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. Which of the following exhibit tautomerism?

1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula C₄H₈O is:

1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 21, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS 5 (15.08.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS 5 (15.08.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

Physics

1. The particle of mass 5kg is attached to the circular disc of radius 2 cm and negligible mass. Find the moment of inertia about axis passing through the centre perpendicular to the plane.

1. 2 x 10^-2kgm²2. 2 x 10^-3kgm²
3. 2 x 10^-4kgm²4. 2 x 10^-5kgm²Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. A solid body of volume V floats with 1/4th of its total volume exposed above the surface of liquid A. When the same body is placed in liquid B, it floats with 2/5 th of its total volume submerged inside the liquid. The ratio of the density of liquid A to the density of liquid B is

1. 5 :12
2. 15 :8
3. 8 :15
4. 12 :5Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. The moment of inertia of uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R about an axis normal to the disc touching at its surface will be.

1. MR²2. 1/2 MR²
3. 3/2 MR²4. 5/4 MR²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross-section. At a point A where the diameter of the pipe is 4 cm, the velocity of flow is 2m\/s. At another point B downstream, the pipe branches into two smaller circular pipes C and D. The diameter of pipe C is 2 cm, and the speed of water through it is 3m/s . If diameter of pipe D is 1 cm, the speed of water through it will be

1. 20 m/s
2. 10 m/s
3. 16 m/s
4. 12 m/s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. The moment of inertia of circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. A U-tube of uniform cross-section with a tube diameter of 4 mm contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other. Calculate the mass of the methylated spirit present in the tube.

1. 5.24 g
2. 3.21 g
3. 1.26 g
4. 6.0 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around their respective axes is

1. 1/√2
2. √2/1
3. 1/2
4. 2/1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8.0 cm² one end of which has 40 fine holes each of diameter 1.0 mm. If the liquid flow inside the tube is 1.2 m/min, what is the approximate speed of ejection of the liquid through the holes?

1. 50 m/min
2. 30 m/min
3. 40 m/min
4. 20 m/min
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis of rotation depends upon

1. The distribution of mass
2. Distance of particle of body from the axis of rotation
3. Shape of the body
4. All of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A rigid body is rotating about its axis. To stop the rotation, we have applied:

1. Pressure
2. Force
3. Momentum
4. Torque
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. The equation of continuity is based on the principle of conservation of

1. Energy
2. Momentum
3. Mass
4. None
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. A wheel of moment of inertia 2.5 kgm² has an initial angular velocity of 40 rads^-1. A constant torque of 10Nm acts on wheel. The time during which the wheel is accelerated to 60 rads^-1 is

1. 4.5 s
2. 6 s
3. 5 s
4. 2.5 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. A cubical block of length 100 cm is partially immersed in a liquid of density 400 kg m^-3. If the apparent weight loss of the block is 1400 N, then the percentage of volume of the block outside the liquid surface will be g=10 ms^-2
1. 50
2. 70
3. 65
4. 35
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. A grindstone has a moment of inertia of 6 kgm². A constant torque is applied and the grindstone is found to have a speed of 150 rpm, 10 seconds after starting from rest. The torque is

1. 3 π Nm
2. 3 Nm
3. ^π⁄ 3 Nm
4. 4 π Nm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. The minimum value absolute pressure needed by a submarine to withstand the depth of the Mariana Trench (11 km deep) is (density of water is 1000 kg m^-3, g=10 ms^-2, 1 atm =10⁵ Pa )

1. 1011 atm
2. 1101 atm
3. 1000 atm
4. 1001 atm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. Moment of inertia (M.I.) of four bodies, having same mass and radius, are reported as, I₁= MI of thin circular ring about its diameter, I₂= MI of disc about axis perpendicular to disc passing through centre, I₃= MI of solid cylinder about axis and I₄= MI of solid sphere about diameter. Then

1. I₁=I₂=I₃<I₄2. I₁+ I₂=I₃ + 5/2I₄
3. I₁+I₃<I₂+I₄4. I₁=I₂=I₃>I₄
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. Consider the following statements:
1. The charge on an alpha particle is 3.2×10^-19 C
2. The charge on neutron is zero.
3. Like charges attracts and unlike charges repels each other.
4. Electrostatic force F is attractive is F<0.
Choose the correct option:

1. A and B only
2. A, B and C only
3. A, B, C and D
4. A, B and D only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. What height of mercury will be required to equalize 2 atm of pressure? Given 1 atm =10⁵ Pa and density of mercury be 13600 kg m^-3.

1. 15 m
2. 1.5 m
3. 150 m
4. 15 cm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The electrostatic potential due to an alpha particle at a distance 6 Å is:

1. 14.4Volt
2. 9 Volt
3. 18 Volt
4. 28.8 Volt
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. A cylindrical tank, 10 m deep and 2 m in diameter, contains water to a depth of 1 m. Determine the power required to pump out all the water in 1 second.

1. 85π kW
2. 64π kW
3. 95π kW
4. 20π kW
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. What is the electrostatic force between one proton and one electron placed at a distance 16 mm apart? What is the nature of the force?

1. 9×10^-25 N; Repulsive
2. 9×10^-25 N; Attractive
3. 1.44×10^-24 N; Repulsive
4. 1.44×10^-24 N; Attractive
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. A particle of mass 2 kg moves along the x-axis under a force F(x)=6x²+αx.
It starts from rest at x=0 and reaches x=5mwith a speed of 10m/s. Determine the value of α.

1. -1.33 N/m
2. -12 N/m
3. 4 N/m
4. 0.75 N/m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. The Coulomb force of repulsion between two alpha particles separated by a distance 4 fermi is:

1. 57.6 N
2. 23.04 N
3. 921.6 N
4. 14.4 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. A body of mass 5 kg moves in a straight line with displacement x(t)=(3t²+ 4t -2) m where all constants are expressed in S.I units. Find the work done by the net force during t=0 s to t=1 s .

1. 290 J
2. 280 J
3. 210 J
4. 220 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. The total electrostatic potential energy of the system of one proton and one electron separated by a distance 0.5 Å is: [1 eV=1.6×10^-19) J]

1. -4.614 eV
2. -28.8 eV
3. -1.44 eV
4. -13.6 eV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. A body of mass 1 g is projected vertically upward with an initial speed of 1 m/s. It rises to a maximum height of 0.01 cm. Assuming the resistive force due to air is constant throughout the motion, determine its magnitude.

1. 6.5 N
2. 5 N
3. 5.5 n
4. 9.78 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Calculate the electrostatic force of attraction between an electron and a proton in H-atom. The radius of electron orbit is 0.53 Å. What is the nature of the force?

1. 8.2×10^-8 N; Repulsive
2. 8.2×10^-10 N; Repulsive
3. 8.2×10^-8 N; Attractive
4. 8.2×10^-10 N: Attractive
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. A particle of mass 𝑚 starts moving from the origin along the x –axis, and its velocity varies with position (𝑥) as 𝑣 = 𝑘√x, the power developed during the first 𝑡 seconds is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. The variation of electrostatic potential (V) with distance (r) for a point charge is best represented by

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. Choose the incorrect option from the following:

1. Coulomb force is a central force
2. Coulomb force obeys inverse square law
3. Coulomb force depends upon the medium
4. Coulomb force is non-conservative force
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. A body of mass 10 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v=βx³where, β=5m 1) s^-1). The average resistive net force during the displacement from x=0 to x=1 m is

1. 12.5 N
2. 25 N
3. 5 N
4. 125 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. The electrostatic potential energy between one alpha particle and one proton separated by a distance 10 cm apart is:

1. 4.6×10^-27 J
2. 23×10^-27 J
3. 4.6×10^-28 J
4. 23×10^-26 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. A body constrained to move in the x- direction, is subjected to a force given by The work done by this force in moving the body from the origin to (1, 0, 0) is

1. 2 J
2. 20 J
3. 5 J
4. 10 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. The potential energy between two atoms is given by Ux = ax²-b where a>0 and b>0, and 𝑥 is the distance between the atoms. The atom is in stable equilibrium, when

1. x=b/a
2. x=0
3. x=a/b
4. x=a-b
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. A uniform chain of length l and mass M lies on a smooth table. Onesixth of its length hangs over the edge. The work required to pull the chain completely onto the table is

1. Mgl/36
2. Mgl/72
3. Mgl/18
4. Mgl/8
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. Statement A: If the value of relative density of a liquid is less than 1, the liquid floats
Statement B: Laminar flow can occur only in 3 directions
Statement C: According to Pascal’s law, force is amplified when pressure is applied from the larger piston to the smaller piston
Which of these statements is/are true?

1. A and B
2. C only
3. A only
4. A and C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Path length is a scalar quantity whereas displacement is a vector quantity.
2. The magnitude of displacement is always equal to the path length traversed by an object over a given time interval.
3. The displacement depends only on the end points whereas path length depends on the actual path followed.
4. The path length is always positive whereas displacement can be positive, negative and zero.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. The numerical ratio of distance to displacement is

1. Always equal to one
2. Always less than one
3. Always greater than one
4. Equal or more than one
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. If a man goes 10 m toward north and 20 m toward east, then his displacement is approximately equal to

1. 22.5 m
2. 32 m
3. 29 m
4. 30 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. A car is moving along a straight line OP as shown in the figure. It moves from O to P in 18 sand returns from P to Q in 6 s. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the motion of the car?

1. The average speed of the car in going from O to P and come back to Q is 20 ms^-1
2. The average velocity of the car in going from O to P and come back to O is 0 ms^-1
3. The average speed of the car in going from O to P is 20 ms^-1
4. The average velocity of the car in going from O to P and come back to Q is 20 ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 40m completes half a revolution in 40s. Its average velocity is

1. Zero
2. 4π ms^-1
3. 2 ms^-14. 8π ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. A body moves in a straight line. It covers one-third of the total distance with speed v₁ and the remaining two-thirds of the distance with speed v₂. The average speed of the body for the entire journey is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. A car travels the first half of the total distance between two places with a speed of 40 km h⁻¹ and the second half with a speed of 60 km h⁻¹. Calculate the average speed for the entire journey.

1. 48 km/h
2. 30 km/h
3. 26.67 km/h
4. 50 km/h
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. A particle moves along a circular path of radius R. If it covers one-fourth of the circle, what is the ratio of the magnitude of its displacement to the distance traveled?

1. (2√2)/π
2. √2/π
3. π/(2√2)
4. 1/√2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. Observe the given distance-time graph.

Identify the respective speeds of the body when it moves from O to A and from B to C.

1. 3 km h⁻¹, 5 km h⁻¹
2. 1 km h⁻¹, 3 km h⁻¹
3. 2 km h⁻¹, 4 km h⁻¹
4. 4 km h⁻¹, 2 km h⁻¹
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 13, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST 4 (08.08.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST 4 (08.08.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

BIOLOGY

1. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

1. pre-synaptic membrane
2. tips of axons
3. post-synaptic membrane
4. membranes of synaptic vesicles
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. The ______ neuron receives a signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the ______. The ______ neuron then carries signals from CNS to the _______.

1. Efferent, PNS, afferent, effector
2. Efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor
3. Afferent, CNS, efferent, receptor
4. Afferent, CNS, efferent, effector
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding conduction of nerve impulse?

1. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na* ions.
2. Fluid outside the axon has a high concentration of Na+ and low concentration of K¹, in a resting neuron.
3. Ionic gradients are maintained by Na-K pump across the resting membrane, which transports 3Na ions outwards for 2K+ ions into the cell.
4. A neuron is polarised only when the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a negative charge and its inner surface is positively charged
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Read the statements about human neural system and find the wrong one.

1. The CNS includes brain and spinal cord.
2. The PNS is divided into somatic and autonomic neural system.
3. The somatic neural system is classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system.
4. The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Movement of skeletal muscles are under the control of autonomic neural system.
Statement B: Involuntary activities of various organs are under control of autonomic neural system.

1. Both statements A and B are correct.
2. Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
3. Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. Assertion: All motor neurons are efferent neurons.
Reason: Motor neurons conduct nerve impulses from the spinal cord to the brain.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. Which one is wrongly matched?

1. Gemma cup – Marchantia
2. Chlamydomonas – multicellular organism
3. Biflagellate zoospores – brown algae
4. Unicellular organism – Chlorella
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. Assertion: Somatic neural system is the voluntary division of PNS.
Reason: Somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. Assertion: A Protonema stage occur in mosses.
Reason: Protonema is a juvenile stage.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but reason is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. Nerve impulse generates in a neuron due to movement of

1. Cl- ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
2. Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
3. K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
4. Cl- ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kind of spores. Such plants are called

1. homosporous
3. Homosorus
2. heterosorus
4. Heterosporus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. Synaptic knob is a bulb-like structure found at the

1. axon terminal
2. in cell body
3. in myelin sheath
4. at dendrites branching
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. In Dryopteris, the dominant phase is

1. Unicellular gametophyte
2. zygote
3. Unicellular sporophyte
4. Multicellular sporophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. Naked seeds of gymnosperms meant for absence of which of the following

1. Seed coat
2. Integument
3. Embryo
4. Ovary wall
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. Nissl’s granules are mainly composed of:

1. Lipids and glycoge
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Mitochondria
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. Which part of a neuron receives nerve impulses from other neurons?

1. Axon
3. Dendrites
2. Axon terminal
4. Myelin sheath
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. The junction between two neurons where nerve impulses are transmitted is called the:

1. Node of Ranvier
2. Synapse
3. Neurilemma
4. Dendrite
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. The antherozoids of Funaria are

1. uniflagellate
2. biflagellate
3. multiflagellate
4. Do not have flagella
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. Protonema is structure found in bryophytes

1. which is sporophytic in moss
2. which is gametophytic in moss
3. which is sporophytic in liverwort
4. which is gametophytic in liverwort
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing

1. Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
2. Independent gametophyte and sporophyte
3. Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
4. No sporophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. Which sequence correctly shows the path of a nerve impulse through a neuron?

1. Axon → Cell body → Dendrites
2. Dendrites → Cell body → Axon → Axon terminals
3. Cell body → Dendrites → Axon
4. Axon terminals → Dendrites → Cell body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. Repolarization of the neuron occurs mainly due to the:

1. Influx of Na⁺ ions
2. Efflux of K⁺ ions
3. Influx of Ca²⁺ ions
4. Efflux of Cl⁻ ions
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. Which sequence correctly represents the stages of an action potential?

1. Repolarization → Depolarization → Resting potential
2. Resting potential → Depolarization → Repolarization → Resting potential
3. Depolarization → Resting potential → Repolarization
4. Resting potential → Repolarization → Depolarization
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. The small gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes is called the:

1. Axoplasm
2. Synaptic cleft
3. Neurolemma
4. Cell junction
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. The direction of impulse transmission across a synapse is from the:

1. Dendrite to axon terminal
2. Postsynaptic neuron to presynaptic neuron
3. Presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron
4. Cell body to dendrite only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. Which statement about chemical synapses is CORRECT?

1. They transmit impulses faster than electrical synapses.
2. Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft to transmit the signal.
3. Synaptic transmission is always bidirectional.
4. Synaptic vesicles are located in the postsynaptic membrane.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. The type of circulation where blood is circulated through a series of vessels of varying diameters is called

1. Open type
2. Closed type
3. Single type
4. Double type
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. Peat moss is

1. Polytrichum
2. Funaria
3. Marchantia
4. Sphagnum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. Method of vegetative reproduction in bryophytes is

1. gemmae
2. Budding of secondary protonema
3. Fragmentation of secondary protonema
4. All of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates

1. Single hollow dorsal nerve chord
2. Pharynx perforated by gill slits
3. Post-anal tail
4. Dorsal heart
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. Observe the following statements and select the phylum it best describes
(i) Worm-like marine animals
(ii) Organ-system level of organization
(iii) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(iv) Body is composed of proboscis, collar and trunk

1. Phylum Annelida
2. Phylum Hemichordata
3. Phylum Platyhelminthes
4. Phylum Aschelminthes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. Which of the following group of animals possess mammary glands

1. Columba, Pteropus, Chelone
2. Hippocampus, Equus, Canis
3. Felis, Camelus, Macaca
4. Hyla, Hemidactylus, Myxine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. Which of the following is not a function of water canal system in sponges?

1. Anchorage
2. Food gathering
3. Exchange of gases
4. Removal of wastes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. Statement I: Cnidarians have tube within a tube body plan with single opening called hypostome.
Statement II: Cnidarians such as Obelia exhibit a characteristic feature called metagenesis.

1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both statements are correct
4. Both statements are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. The given figure belongs to which phylum

1. Phylum Ctenophora
2. Phylum Porifera
3. Phylum Coelenterata
4. Phylum Urochordata
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. Notochord is present only in larval tail in

1. Urochordata
2. Cephalochordata
3. Vertebrata
4. Protochordate
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. Which of the following animals have scattered cells with organization?

1. Sponges
2. Hydra cell-tissue
3. Liver fluke
4. Ascaris
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. How many of the following organisms are sessile?
Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla, Hydra, Jelly fish, Earthworm

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. Which of the following is correct regarding reproduction in sponges?

1. They undergo asexual reproduction such as gemmule formation and fragmentation
2. Fertilization is internal
3. Development is indirect
4. All of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. Match the following

1. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
2. A-1, B-2, C-3, C-4
3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
4. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. Urochordata and cephalochordate are referred as

1. Non-chordates
2. Vertebrates
3. Protochordates
4. Hemichordates
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. In which of the following phylum the body is generally divided into head, thorax and abdomen?

1. Mollusca
2. Echinodermata
3. Arthropoda
4. Annelida
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. Which statement is correct regarding taxonomic categories?

1. Species contains the largest number of organisms.
2. Kingdom contains organisms having maximum similarities.
3. As we move from species to kingdom, similarities decrease.
4. As we move from kingdom to species, diversity increases.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. Assertion (A): Amphioxus belongs to Cephalochordata.
Reason (R): It retains the notochord throughout its life.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Cnidoblasts are absent in ctenophores.
B. Cnidarians exhibit tissue-level organization.
C. Corals belong to Ctenophora.
D. Hydra exists only in medusa form.

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and D only
4. All are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

46.

46. Which of the following are true regarding Cyclostomes?
(i) Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates.
(ii) They possess paired fins.
(iii) They have a sucking mouth.
(iv) They are ectoparasites on fishes.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. All are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47.

47. Which of the following is known as Portuguese man-of-war?

1. Obelia
2. Aurelia
3. Gorgonia
4. Physalia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

48.

48. Camouflage in frogs is primarily an example of:

1. Structural adaptation for protection
2. Behavioural adaptation for protection
3. Morphological adaptation for protection
4. Physiological adaptation for protection
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49.

49. Which statement is NOT correct

1. Species is the basic unit of classification.
2. Taxa at a higher level have fewer common characteristics.
3. Organisms in the same genus always belong to different families.
4. Taxonomic hierarchy is the arrangement of categories in ascending order.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50.

50. Arrange the parts of the alimentary canal of frog in correct sequence:
1. Stomach 2. Ileum
3. Buccal cavity 4. Rectum
5. Oesophagus 6. Duodenum

1. 3 → 5 → 6 → 1 → 2 → 4
2. 3 → 1 → 5 → 6 → 2 → 4
3. 5 → 3 → 1 → 6 → 4 → 2
4. 3 → 5 → 1 → 6 → 2 → 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51.

51. A frog is called a poikilothermic animal because:

1. It maintains a constant body temperature.
2. Its body temperature varies with the environmental temperature.
3. It can survive only in water.
4. It produces heat internally.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52.

52. Assertion (A): Male frogs exhibit external sexual dimorphism.
Reason (R): Vocal sacs and nuptial pads are accessory reproductive structures that aid successful reproduction.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the\ correct explanation.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53.

53. Consider the following statements about the frog’s tongue:
1. It is attached anteriorly to the floor of the mouth.
2. Its end is free and bifid.
3. It helps in capturing insects.
4. It is attached posteriorly like in humans.
Choose the correct answer:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

54. Which of the following statements about the frog’s eyelids is incorrect?

1. The upper eyelid is immovable.
2. The lower eyelid is movable.
3. The nictitating membrane is transparent.
4. The upper eyelid closes the eye during swimming.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55.

55. Consider the following.
A. Felis domesticus B. Panthera leo
C. Panthera tigris
Which share the same family?

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C
4. A and C only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56.

56. Two frogs are examined during the breeding season.
Frog X: Vocal sacs present; nuptial pads absent.
Frog Y: Vocal sacs absent; nuptial pads absent.
Which conclusion is most appropriate?

1. X is definitely male; Y is definitely female.
2. X is definitely female; Y is definitely male.
3. X is most likely a male with abnormal or undeveloped nuptial pads; Y is most likely female.
4. Sex cannot be inferred from these observations.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57.

57. Assertion (A): Frogs undergo aestivation during hot and dry seasons.
Reason (R): Aestivation helps them avoid desiccation and survive unfavorable conditions.
Choose the correct option:

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58.

58. Which statement is incorrect regarding the external morphology of an adult frog?

1. The head is triangular in shape.
2. The trunk bears a pair of limbs.
3. The cloacal aperture opens at the posterior end of the trunk.
4. The trunk is divided into head and trunk.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

59. Which of the following is the best sequence involved in frog reproduction?

1. Vocal sac inflation → Attraction of female → Amplexus → External fertilization
2. Amplexus → Vocal sac inflation → External fertilization → Egg laying
3. Egg laying → Vocal sac inflation → Amplexus → Fertilization
4. Amplexus → Egg laying → Internal fertilization → Tadpole
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60.

60. Which statement about the head of a frog is correct?

1. It bears two pairs of eyes
2. It bears external nares.
3. It is divided into thorax and abdomen.
4. It is provided with a neck.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61.

61. Which statement regarding dermal plicae is correct?

1. They are modified scales.
2. They are folds of skin along the dorsolateral region.
3. They are present only in female frogs.
4. They are folds of skin extending present on ventral region.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

62. Consider the following statements regarding the alimentary canal:
1. The stomach opens into the duodenum.
2. The duodenum is followed by the ileum.
3. The rectum opens into the cloaca.
4. The cloaca is present only in male frogs.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

63. Which statement is incorrect regarding sexual dimorphism in frogs?

1. Vocal sacs are accessory structures found in males.
2. Nuptial pads are temporary breeding adaptations in males.
3. Females possess rudimentary vocal sacs that function during breeding.
4. Sexual dimorphism is externally evident mainly during the breeding season.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

64. Which statement correctly distinguishes camouflage from mimicry?

1. Camouflage involves resembling another organism.
2. Mimicry involves blending with the background.
3. Camouflage helps organisms blend with the environment, whereas mimicry involves resembling another organism.
4. Both are identical adaptations.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

65. Statement 1: The ileum is involved in absorption of digested nutrients.
Statement 2: The ileum is a part of the large intestine.

1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only 2 is correct
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

66. Which of the following correctly matches the body part with its feature?
1. Head- Bears external nares and tympanum
2. Trunk- Divided into thorax and abdomen
3. Head -Bears eardrums
4. Trunk- Bears external nares

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67.

67. Consider the following statements:
1. Rectum is a part of the large intestine of frog.
2. Rectum opens into the cloaca.
3. Rectum secretes digestive enzymes.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

68. Which taxonomic category includes one or more related genera?

1. Species
2. Family
3. Order
4. Class
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69.

69. Which statement is correct?

1. Every genus has only one species.
2. Every family has only one genus.
3. A genus may contain one or more species.
4. A class contains related kingdoms.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

70. Which of the following experiments provided the first direct evidence that DNA is the transforming principle?

1. Griffith’s experiment
2. Avery–MacLeod–McCarty experiment
3. Hershey–Chase experiment
4. Meselson–Stahl experiment
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

71. Which statement is NOT supported by Griffith’s experiment?

1. Dead bacteria can transfer hereditary information.
2. Transformation occurs in bacteria.
3. DNA is responsible for transformation.
4. Non-virulent bacteria may become virulent.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

72.

72. During the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive sulfur was absent from bacterial cells because

1. sulfur cannot enter bacteria.
2. protein coats remain outside the bacterial cell.
3. proteins degrade immediately after infection.
4. sulfur is absent in bacteriophages.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73.

73. Which observation would contradict Hershey and Chase’s conclusion?

1. ³²P found in bacterial pellet
2. ³⁵S found in supernatant
3. ³⁵S found inside bacterial DNA
4. ³²P detected in progeny phages
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

74. Assertion (A): Transformation failed only after DNase treatment.
Reason (R): Phosphorus clung to DNA among the major biomolecules involved in Hershey and Chase experiment.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the explanation.
3. A true, R false.
4. A false, R true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

75.

75. Assertion(A): Heat-killed S bacteria alone did not kill mice.
Reason (R): Heating destroyed the transforming principle.

1. Both true
2. A true, R false
3. A false, R true
4. Both false
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76.

76. The primary purpose of the blender in the Hershey-Chase experiment was to

1. break bacterial cells.
2. separate phage coats from infected bacteria.
3. separate DNA from protein.
4. destroy bacteriophages.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77.

77. Consider the following statements.
A. DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups.
B. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
C. Histones bind DNA through electrostatic interactions.
D. Histones are rich in glutamic acid.
Choose the correct option.

1. A, B and C only
2. A and D only
3. B and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78.

78. Which sequence correctly represents increasing levels of DNA compaction?

1. DNA → Histone octamer → nucleosome → 30 nm fibre → Looped domains → Chromosome
2. DNA → Chromatosome → Nucleosome → 30 nm fibre → Chromosome
3. DNA → 30 nm fibre → Nucleosome → Chromosome
4. DNA → Histone → Chromosome
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79.

79. Read the following statements regarding Phaeophyceae (Brown algae):
I. Reserve food is stored mainly as mannitol and laminarin.
II. Their cell wall consists of cellulose and is usually covered externally by a gelatinous coating of algin.
III. The photosynthetic pigments include chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
IV. Asexual reproduction occurs by biflagellate zoospores having two unequal laterally attached flagella.
V. Sexual reproduction is exclusively oogamous.
Choose the correct option.

1. I, II, III and IV only
2. I, II, III and V only
3. II, III, IV and V only
4. I, III, IV and V only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80.

80. Match the following column

1. (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(v); (e)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii); (e)-(v)
3. (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i); (e)-(v)
4. (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(v); (e)-(iv)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81.

81. In Moss, peristome function mainly in

1. Photosynthesis
2. Absorption
3. Spore dispersal
4. Protection
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82.

82.
In above diagram, the labelling ‘C’ is

1. Root
3. Holdfast
2. Modified leaf root
4. Rhizoid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83.

83. Read the following statements regarding the prothallus of pteridophytes.
I. The prothallus is usually small, photosynthetic and independent.
II. It bears both antheridia and archegonia.
III. The antheridia and archegonia generally mature simultaneously.
IV. Different maturation time of male and female sex organs reduces self fertilization.
Choose the correct option.

1. I, II and III only
2. II, III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. I, III and IV only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84.

84. Linnaeus classification is based on

1. Anatomy of plant
2. Phylogenetic relationship
3. Number of stamens and carpel
4. Mode of nutrition
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85.

85. Members of Rhodophyceae are

1. Green algae
2. Blue algae
3. Brown algae
4. Red algae
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

86. Read the following statements. How many statements are correct?
I. Artificial classification system assumes that organisms belonging to the same taxa have common ancestor.
II. Pattern of syngamy is same in red algae and volvox.
III. In all amphibians of plant kingdom, sporophyte is not free living, but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derived nourishment from it.
IV. In conifers, the needle like foliage leaves reduce surface area thus reduce water loss.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87.

87. Which statement is incorrect?

1. Each category is referred to as a taxon.
2. Kingdom is the highest category.
3. Family consists of related orders.
4. Species is the lowest taxonomic category.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88.

88. Assertion (A): As we move from kingdom to species, the number of common characteristics increases.
Reason (R): Lower taxonomic categories contain more closely related organisms.

1. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89.

89. If two organisms belong to the same genus, they must belong to the same

1. Family only
2. Family, Order, Class, Phylum and Kingdom
3. Species
4. Species and Family only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90.

90. Which one of the following is NOT a taxonomic category?

1. Division
2. Taxon
3. Species
4. Family
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 7, 2026

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