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NEET WEEKLY TEST 3 (01.08.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST 3 (01.08.2026)

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ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

CHEMISTRY

1. The atomic number of an elements represents the number of ______ in the nucleus of its atom

1. Mass number
2. Proton
3. Neutron
4. Valence electron
Deselect Answer

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2

3

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None

2.

2. What is the atomic number of Y
1. 70
2. 39
3. 57
4. 72Deselect Answer

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None

3.

3. Atomic Number 40 is the Chemical element
1. Hafnium
2. Zirconium
3. Niobium
4. BariumDeselect Answer

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None

4.

4. Atomic number 42 is the chemical element Molybdenum, represented by the symbol
1. M
2. Mb
3. Mo
4. MdDeselect Answer

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None

5.

5. In the modern periodic Table, 6^th Period contains
1. 8 elements
2. 18 elements
3. 32 elements
4. 42 elementsDeselect Answer

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None

6.

6. The correct order of atomic number for Lanthanide series are
1. La < Ce< Pr < Sm < Nd < Pm < Eu < Gd
2. La < Ce < Pm < Sm < Nd < Pr < Eu < Gd
3. Eu < Gd < Tb < Dy < Ho < Er < Yb
4. Eu < Gd < Tb < Dy < Ho < Er < TmDeselect Answer

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None

7.

7. Z = 113
1. Fl
2. Mc
3. Lv
4. NhDeselect Answer

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None

8.

8. Tennessine is
1. Pnictogens
2. Halogens
3. Noble Gases
4. TransitionDeselect Answer

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None

9.

9. The Elements ______ is not included in the 4^th period of Modern periodic Table
1. Ga and Ge
2. Cu and Zn
3. Cl and Ar
4. K and CaDeselect Answer

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None

10.

10. Nobelium
1. 100
2. 41
3. 42
4. 102Deselect Answer

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None

11.

11. How many elements are present in Group IIIA
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7Deselect Answer

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None

12.

12. How many elements are present in Group IIIB
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7Deselect Answer

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None

13.

13. Lead (Pb), Atomic number 84 is placed in
1. Group 13
2. Group 14
3. Group 15
4. Group 16Deselect Answer

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None

14.

14. Match List 1 and List 2
List 1 List 2
1.Radium A. Ru
2.Radon B. Rn
3.Rhodium C. Ra
4.Ruthenium D. Rh
5.Rhenium E. Re
1. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4- E, 5- C
2. 1-A, 2-B, 3- D, 4-E, 5- C
3. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A, 5-E
4. 1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-A, 5-DDeselect Answer

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None

15.

15. Which of the following is not an actinoid?
1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Terbium (Z = 65)
4. Uranium (Z = 92)Deselect Answer

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None

16.

16. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?
1. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
2. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3. Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size)
4. B < C < O < N (increasing first ionization enthalpy)Deselect Answer

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None

17.

17. The correct order of ionic radii of Y³⁺, La³⁺, Eu³⁺ and Lu³⁺ is:
1. Y³⁺ < Lu³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < La³⁺
2. Y³⁺ < La³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < Lu³⁺
3. Lu³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < La³⁺ < Y³⁺
4. La³⁺ < Eu³⁺ < Lu³⁺ < Y³⁺Deselect Answer

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None

18.

18. The General Electronic configuration of Group 15 element is?
1. ns² np¹
2. ns² np³
3. ns² np⁴
4. ns² np ^1-6Deselect Answer

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None

19.

19. Match Column 1 and 2
Column 1 Column 2
1. Terbium A. Tl
2. Thulium B. Tb
3. Thallium C. Tm
4. Tantalum D. Ta

1. 1- B, 2-Tl, 3-Ta, 4 D
2. 1- C, 2- B, 3- D, 4- A
3. 1- B, 2-C, 3- A, 4- D
4. 1- B, 2-A, 3- D, 4- C
Deselect Answer

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None

20.

20. Which element is not Representative elements
1. Livermorium
2. Tellurium
3. Barium
4. NobeliumDeselect Answer

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None

21.

21. There are _____ elements present in Group II A
1. 2
2. 6
3. 8
4. 18Deselect Answer

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None

22.

22. Ytterbium and Lutetium is placed in
1. 4^th period
2. 5^th period
3. 6^th period
4. 7^th periodDeselect Answer

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None

23.

23. Which one of the following element does not belongs to Transition elements
1. Vanadium
2. Niobium
3. Cadmium
4. PalladiumDeselect Answer

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None

24.

24. What is the atomic number of Sn is
1. 32
2. 49
3. 50
4. 53Deselect Answer

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None

25.

25. Both Indium and Lead is present in
1. S- block
2. p- block
3. d- block
4. p and d blockDeselect Answer

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None

26.

26. 5^th period contain an elements of
1. Br and Kr
2. I and Xe
3. Xe and Kr
4. Br and IDeselect Answer

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None

27.

27. The standard atomic mass of Oxygen is

1. 14.88 u
2. 15.999 u
3. 16.999 u
4. 17.999 u
Deselect Answer

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None

28.

28. Among the following isoelectronic species which is the smallest size?
1. O^2-
2. F^–3. Na⁺4. Mg²⁺Deselect Answer

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None

29.

29. +4 Oxidation state is shown by
1. La, Lu
2. Ce, Tb
3. Eu, Yb
4. Gd, TmDeselect Answer

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None

30.

30. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
1. Gallium was earlier called eka – Aluminium
2. 4^th period begins with Rubidium
3. 15 elements of 6^th period are called Lanthanoids
4. Henry Moseley discovered the relationship between X-ray spectra and atomic number of the elements.Deselect Answer

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None

31.

31. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?
1. [Ne] 3s¹
2. [Ne] 3s²
3. [Xe] 6s¹ 4. [Xe] 6s²Deselect Answer

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None

32.

32. How many unpaired electrons and sum of spin are present in Gadolinium (Z= 64)
1. 7, 2
2. 7, 4
3. 8, 4
4. 8, 8Deselect Answer

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None

33.

33. Electron gain enthalpy is the amount of energy released when an electron is _____ to the outermost shell of an elements in its _____ state. It becomes more _____ across a period and less ____ down a group.
1. Added, gaseous, negative, negative
2. Remove, liquid, positive, negative
3. Added, liquid, negative, positive
4. Removed, gaseous, positive, positiveDeselect Answer

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None

34.

34. The element Z = 115 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group
1. Carbon family
2. Oxygen family
3. Nitrogen family
4. Halogen familyDeselect Answer

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None

35.

35. An element Silver will be place in which group?
1. Group 5
2. Group 6
3. Group 11
4. Group 12Deselect Answer

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None

36.

36. Which of the following elements has maximum electron affinity?
1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. IDeselect Answer

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None

37.

37. The electronic configuration of an element is [Kr]5s². Name the element which is just below the element in the periodic table?
1. Cesium
2. Strontium
3. Barium
4. RadiumDeselect Answer

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None

38.

38. Assertion: F atom has less negative electron gain enthalpy than Cl atom.
Reason: Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p -electrons in Cl than by 2p -electrons in F atom.
1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. If assertion is true but reason is
4. If both assertion and reason areDeselect Answer

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None

39.

39. Which of the following Electronic configuration is of transition elements
1. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²
2. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s²4p¹
3. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s²4p⁶
4. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵ 4s²Deselect Answer

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None

40.

40. Among the elements W, X, Y and Z having atomic numbers 9, 10, 11 and 12 respectively, the correct order of ionization energies is
1. W > Y > X > Z
2. X > W > Z > Y
3. X > Z > Y > W
4. Z > Y > X > WDeselect Answer

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None

41.

41. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
1. Li₂ 2. F₂
3. Li₂⁺4. Be₂Deselect Answer

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None

42.

42. Elements Chromium, Molybdenum, Tungsten and Seaborgium are present in
1. Group 4
2. Group 5
3. Group 6
4. Group 7Deselect Answer

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None

43.

43. Which of the following element is Synthetic element

1. Uranium
2. Iridium
3. Technetium
4. Thallium
Deselect Answer

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None

44.

44. On moving down the group, valence electron and valency
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remain the same
4. Both 1 and 2Deselect Answer

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None

45.

45. Choose the incorrect statement about Hydrogen
1. Hydrogen is non – metal under normal condition
2. It shares electrons to make molecules like H₂0
3. Hydrogen has a high ionization enthalpy
4. It has low Ionization enthalpy than Li and Na,Deselect Answer

1

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None

July 30, 2026
NEET WEEKLY TEST 2 (25.07.2026)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST 2 (25.07.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

DOBM

PHYSICS
1. Three wires A, B andC of the same material are connected in series and subjected to a force of 400 N.
Wire A: length = 2 m, area = 2 mm²
Wire B: length = 1 m, area = 1 mm²
Wire C: length = 3 m, area = 3 mm²
Young’s modulus of the material is 2×10¹¹ Nm^-2. Then the total extension of the combination is

1. 4 mm
2. 3 mm
3. 6 mm
4. 5 mmDeselect Answer

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None

2. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K), and Sodium (Na) are 14 eV, 2.30 eV, and 2.75 eV respectively. If an incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy of 4.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons having lowest kinetic energy?

1. Na
2. Cs
3. K
4. cannot be determineDeselect Answer

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None

3. A brass rod and a steel rod having the same cross-sectional area are joined end to end.
Brass: L=1.2 m, Y=0.1 TPa
Steel: L=0.8 m, Y=2×10¹¹ Pa
A tensile force of 1000 N produces a total extension of 0.02 mm The cross-sectional area is

1. 1×10^-4 m²
2. 8×10^-4 m²
3. 1.5×10-4 m² 4. 2×10^-4 m²
Deselect Answer

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None

4. For a metal of work function 6.6 eV, which of the following wavelengths of incident radiation does not give rise to the photoelectric effect? (Take Planck’s constant as 6×10^-34 Js).

1. 100 nm
2. 150 nm
3. 200 nm
4. 50 nm
Deselect Answer

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None

5. Two wires A and B are made of the same material and have the same length. The diameter of wire A is twice that of wire B. If both wires are subjected to the same tensile force of 400 N, then the ratio of the elastic potential energy stored in wire to that in wire B is

1. 1 : 2
2. 1 : 4
3. 2 : 1
4. 4 : 1
Deselect Answer

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None

6. Waves are associated with matter only:

1. When it is stationary.
2. When it is in motion with the velocity of light only.
3. When it is in motion with any velocity.
4. None of the above.
Deselect Answer

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None

7. Consider the following statements regarding Young’s modulus:
Statement I: Young’s modulus is the ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain, provided the elastic limit is not exceeded.
Statement II: Young’s modulus depends only on the material of the wire and is independent of its length and cross-sectional area.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Deselect Answer

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None

8. The photoelectric cut-off voltage in a certain experiment is 5 V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?

1. 1.6×10^-19 J
2. 4 eV
3. 2.5×10^-19 J
4. 4.0×10^-19 J
Deselect Answer

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None

9. Consider the following statements regarding elastic deformation:
Statement I: For two wires made of the same material and having equal lengths, the thinner wire undergoes a greater extension than the thicker wire when subjected to the same tensile force.
Statement II: The strain produced in a wire is directly proportional to its cross-sectional area.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Deselect Answer

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None

10. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 150 g travelling at 0 m/s?

1. 14.7×10^-34 m
2. 4.47×10^-34 m
3. 4.7×10^-34 m
4. 1.47×10^-34 m
Deselect Answer

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None

11. Which of the following figures represents the variation of the particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

Deselect Answer

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None

1. √9+√12
2. √9-√12
3. √15
4. √21
Deselect Answer

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None

13. A particle moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r. Which one of the following statements about its acceleration is correct?

1. The acceleration is zero because the speed is constant.
2. The acceleration is constant in both magnitude and direction.
3. The acceleration has constant magnitude but continuously changes its direction.
4. The acceleration continuously changes in both magnitude and direction.
Deselect Answer

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None

14. If x²-8√3 x+45=0, sum of their roots is

1. – 8√3
2. 45√3
3. 8√3
4. 37√3
Deselect Answer

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None

15. Differentiate with respect to ‘x’ if y=(3x²+5)

Deselect Answer

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None

16. Acceleration due to gravity on earth is 10 units. If it is increased by 75%, what its new value?

1. 7.5 units
2. 12.5 units
3. 25 units
4. 17.5 units
Deselect Answer

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None

17. Find ∫(3x²-4x+2)dx

1. x³-2x²+2x+C
2. 3x³-4x²+2x+C
3. x³-4x²+2+C
4. x²-2x+2+C
Deselect Answer

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None

18. The nearest approximate value of is

1. 11.5
2. 11
3. 10.75
4. 11.75
Deselect Answer

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None

19. Assertion :If ω₀=0, then the angular displacement after time t is
Reason : A body starting from rest has zero initial angular velocity

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

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None

20. The value of (log₁₀20³-log₁₀2³) is

1. 2
2. 3
3. 10
4. 10³
Deselect Answer

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None

21. Consider the following statements regarding bulk modulus:
Statement I: The bulk modulus of a material is defined as the ratio of pressure applied to the resulting volumetric strain.
Statement II: A material with a larger bulk modulus is more compressible.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Deselect Answer

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None

22. The slope of the tangent to the curve y=x³-2x at x=1 is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
Deselect Answer

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None

23. Evaluate

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14
Deselect Answer

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None

24. The radius of a circular loop increases from 2 cm to 3 cm. What is the percentage increase in its area?

1. 100%
2. 125%
3. 75%
4. 50%
Deselect Answer

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None

25. A wheel starts rotating with an angular velocity of 20 rad s⁻¹. Its angular acceleration is zero. Find the angular displacement covered in 5 s.

1.50 rad
2. 100 rad
3. 75 rad
4. 25 rad

Deselect Answer

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None

26. A particle moves in a circle of radius rwith constant angular velocity. If its angular acceleration is zero, then the motion is:

1. The particle is in uniform circular motion.
2, The particle moves with uniformly accelerated circular motion.
3, The particle moves in non-uniform circular motion.
4. The particle completes one revolution with zero displacement.
Deselect Answer

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None

27. A particle moves in a circle with constant angular velocity. Its angular acceleration is zero. After completing one full revolution, its displacement is:

1. 2πr
2. 2r Co
3. πr
4. Zero
Deselect Answer

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None

28. A particle is moving along a circular path. If its angular displacement is zero, then the angular velocity of the particle is:

1. Zero
2. Positive
3. Negative
4. Cannot be determined from the given information
Deselect Answer

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None

29. A force F=(3x²+2x-5) Newton acts on a body. The work done by this force in displacing the body from x=0 metre to x=2 metre is

1. 2 J
2. 6 J
3. 10 J
4. 14 J
Deselect Answer

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None

30. For the function y=x³-3x^2+5, the minimum value of y is

1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7
Deselect Answer

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None

CHEMISTRY
31. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
2. 2. 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
3. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
4. 2,3-dimethyl-3-pentenol

Deselect Answer

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None

32. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C
Deselect Answer

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None

33. Which of the following is known as the bridge element of 2^nd group in Mendeleev’s table ?

1. Zn
2. Sr
3. Mg
4. Ca
Deselect Answer

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None

34. The correct option with order of melting points of the pairs (Mn, Fe), (Tc, Ru) and (Re, Os) is:

1. Fe < Mn, Ru < Tc and Re < Os
2. Fe < Mn, Ru < Tc and Os < Re
3. Mn < Fe, Tc < Ru and Re < Os
4. Mn < Fe, Tc < Ru and Os < Re
Deselect Answer

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None

35. The IUPAC name of the compound

1. 4-Cyano-4-methyloxopentane
2. 4-Cyano-4-methylpentan-2-one
3. 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
4. 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane
Deselect Answer

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None

36. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?

1. Lithium
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
4. Rubidium
Deselect Answer

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None

37. Electronic configutation [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d² 6s² belongs to

1. 3^rd group
2. 4^th group
3. 5^th group
4. 6^th group
Deselect Answer

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None

38. Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of number of unpaired electrons in them.
(A) Sc                         (B) Cr
(C) V                         (D) Ti
(E) M
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
2. (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)
3. (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
4. (C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D)
Deselect Answer

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None

39. Across a period from left to right, first ionization enthalpy generally

1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. First decrease, then increase
Deselect Answer

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None

40. Common name of the compound C₆H₅CH₂OH is

1. Anisole
2. benzaldehyde
3. phenol
4. Benzyl alcohol
Deselect Answer

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None

41. Which among the following species has the same number of electrons in its outermost as well as penultimate shell ?

1. Mg²⁺2. O^2-
3. F^–4. Ca²⁺
Deselect Answer

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None

42. The I.U.P.A.C. name of

1. 3–Methyl cyclohexene
2. 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.
3. 6–methyl cyclohexene
4. 1–methyl cyclohex5–ene
Deselect Answer

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None

43. The electronic configuration of an element is [Kr]5s² . Name the element which is just below the element in the periodic table?

1. Cesium
2. Strontium
3. Barium
4. Radium
Deselect Answer

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None

44. Match the Following (Alloys)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A)–(IV), (B)–(II), (C)–(III), (D)–(I)
2. (A)–(IV), (B)–(III), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
3. (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)
4. (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(II), (D)–(I)
Deselect Answer

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None

45. The number of elements from the following that do not belong to lanthanoids is: Eu, Cm, Er, Tb, Yb and Lu

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

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None

46. Transuranium are

1. Uranium and Neptunium
2. Thorium and Lawrencium
3. Neptunium and Americium
4. Actinium and Uranium
Deselect Answer

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None

47. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not isoelectronics ?

1. Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺2. Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
3. He, H^–, Li ⁺4. K⁺, Ca²⁺, Ne
Deselect Answer

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None

48. IUPAC name of

1. 6-Bromo – 2- chloro cyclohexene
2. 1-Bromo-3- chlorocyclohexene
3. 3-Bromo – 1 chlorocyclohexene
4. 2 bromo 3-chlorocyclohex-2-ene
Deselect Answer

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None

49. Which of the following has the highest electronegativity in the periodic table?

1. Oxygen
2. Fluorine
3. Chlorine
4. Nitrogen
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50. The elements of group 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18 are collectively called

1. noble elements
2 typical elements
3. transition elements
4. representative element
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s
d > f
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52. Iupac name of

1. 5,6 – dimethylhept-2-ene
2. 2,3- dimethylhept-5-ene
3. 5,6 – dimethylhept-5-ene
4. 5-isopropylhex-2 –ene
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53. Screening effect is not observed in

1. He⁺2. Be³⁺
3. Li²⁺4. All of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54. The IUPAC name of

1. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
2. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
3. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55. According to the modern periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functions of their

1. Atomic mass
2. Atomic number
3. Atomic radius
4. Atomic density
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorrect

1. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
2. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.
3. All the lanthanoids are much more reactive than aluminium.
4. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57. Which elements mostly form colored compounds?

1. s-block
2. p-block
3. d-block
4. f-block

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower than for early lanthanoids.
Reason (R): Electrons are entering 5f orbitals in actinoids which experience greater shielding from nuclear charge.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59. An element X has an atomic number of 35. To which group and period of the modern periodic table does it belong?

1. Group 17, Period 4
2. Group 15, Period 4
3. Group 17, Period 3
4. Group 7, Period 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60. Lanthanoid ions with 4f⁷ configuration are:
(A) Eu²⁺                     (B) Gd³⁺
(C) Eu³⁺                     (D) Tb³⁺
(E) Sm²⁺
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B) and (E) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (A) and (B) only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

BIOLOGY

61. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide by the absence of:

1. Nitrogenous base
2. Pentose sugar
3. Phosphate group
4. Glycosidic bond
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having:

1. Spermatozoids
2. Conducting system
3. Separate gametophytes
4. Archegonia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. Cytosine + Ribose → Cytidine
2. Uracil + Deoxyribose → Uridine
3. Thymine + Ribose → Thymidine
4. Adenine + Phosphate → Adenosine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.

1. i and ii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65. Which of the following is NOT a nucleoside?

1. Adenosine
2. Cytidine
3. Adenylate
4.Uridine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66. Which of the following feature is related to the gametophyte of pteridophyte?

1. It bears male and female sex organs
2. It bears antheridia only
3. It is dependent on sporophyte
4. It is well differentiated into stem, root and leaves
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67. Which one of the following contains a phosphate group?

1. Guanosine
2. Cytidine
3. Deoxyadenosine
4. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68. The plant body of Funaria is

1. completely sporophyte
2. predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
3. completely gametophyte
4. predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical angiosperm is:

1. n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 4n
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70. Deoxyadenosine consists of:

1. Adenine + Ribose
2. Adenine + Deoxyribose
3. Adenine + Ribose + Phosphate
4. Adenine + Deoxyribose + Phosphate
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71. Vegetative reproduction in mosses take place by budding in the

1. Primary protonema
2. Thallus
3. Secondary protonema
4. Sporophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

72. Which nucleoside is present in DNA but absent in RNA?

1. Adenosine
2. Guanosine
3. Cytidine
4. Deoxythymidine (Thymidine)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73. Select the incorrect statement

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function, and behaviour
2. In oomycetes, female gametes are smaller and motile, while male gametes are larger and non-motile
3. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74. Which nucleoside is found only in RNA?

1. Uridine
2. Thymidine
3. Deoxycytidine
4. Deoxyguanosine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

75. Which of the following show shows diploid phase in gymnosperm?

1. Megaspore, endosperm, pollen grains
2. Megaspore mother cell, zygote, pollen grains
3. Zygote, embryo, endosperm
4. Megaspore mother cell, zygote, embryo
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76. Which of the following is not a characteristic of living organisms?

1. Growth
2. Reproduction
3. Consciousness
4. Photosynthesis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77. Read the following statements and select the incorrect statement(s)
i. In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on same tree.
ii. In Pinus, male and female strobili are borne on same tree.
iii. In Cycas, roots are tap root and formed fungal association called mycorrhiza.
iv. In Pinus, sporophytic phase is dominant.

1. (i) only
2. Both (i) and (iii)
3. (iii) only
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78. The study of identification, nomenclature and classification of organisms is called:

1. Ecology
2. Taxonomy
3. Genetics
4. Physiology
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79. Select the correct pattern of arrangement of reproductive structures for gymnosperms.

1. Spores → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Stobili
2. Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Stobili
3. Sporangia →Sporophylls → Spores →Stobili
4. Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80. Who is known as the Father of Taxonomy?

1. Darwin
2. Aristotle
3. Linnaeus
4. Whittaker
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81. If the diploid roots of gymnosperm have 36 chromosomes, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm

1. 36
2. 18
3. 54
4. 72
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82. Scientific names are generally written in:

1. Hindi
2. Latin
3. Greek
4. English
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83. Assertion: The endosperm mother cell is haploid and formed from megaspore
Reason: The endosperm in gymnosperm is formed after fertilization..

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84. In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the:

1. 5′ carbon of sugar
2. 3′ carbon of sugar
3. 1′ carbon of sugar
4. 2′ carbon of sugar
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

1. Laminaria and Sargassum
2. Gelidium and Gracilaria
3. Anabena and Volvox
4. Chlorella and Spirulina
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86. Assertion (A): A nucleoside contains a phosphate group.
Reason (R): A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of _________and an outer layer of _________

1. Cellulose, starch
2. Pectose, cellulose
3. Pectose, algin
4. Cellulose, pectose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88. Assertion (A): RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.
Reason (R): Uracil is a pyrimidine nitrogenous base.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89. The scientific name of mango is:

1. Mangifera indica
2. Mangifera Indica
3. mangifera indica
4. Indica Mangifera
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements.
(a) In gymnosperms microspores are male gametophytes.
(b) The megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis and formed four haploid megaspores.
(c) The formation of more than one embryo is found in Pinus.
(d) Both sporophytic and gametophytic phase are dependent to each other in gymnosperms.
(e) The endosperm is haploid before fertilization but diploid after fertilization.
Choose the correct answer from the above.

1. (a) and (e) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (b) and (c) only.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

91. In Mollusca, special organ is present for feeding called

1. Parapodia
2. Radula
3. Operculum
4. Osphradium
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

92. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the ovisacs of a frog?

1. They are found in male frogs to store sperm
2. They open into the ureters before entering the cloaca
3. They are the anterior funnel-shaped openings of the oviduct
4. They are the posterior dilated regions of the oviducts opening separately into the cloaca
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93. Hippocampus belongs to Class

1. Agnatha
2. Chondrichthyes
3. Osteichthyes
4. Mammalia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

94. Select the correct option.

1. A-Testes B- Gall bladder C- Adrenal gland E- Kidney
2. A-Vasa efferentia B- Gall bladder C- Kidney D- Bidder’s canal
3. A- Vasa efferentia B- Testes D- Fat body E- Kidney
4. B-Testes C- Adrenal gland D- Bidder’s canal E- Fat body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95. Which of the following is not found in birds?

1. Pelvic girdle
2. Pectoral girdle
3. Hindlimb
4. Forelimb
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96. Assertion (A): The oesophagus of a frog is situated at the posterior side of the body.
Reason (R): The oesophagus transport food item from the buccal cavity to the stomach.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97. Which of the following is not an annelid?

1. Leech
2. Earthworm
3. Nereis
4. Sea cucumber
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98. Which of the following sets of animals possess a four chambered heart?

1. Crocodiles, birds, mammals
2. Crocodiles, lizards, birds
3. Amphibians, reptiles, birds
4. Lizard, mammals, birds
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99. In a male frog, the testes are:

1. Paired, yellowish, ovoid bodies
2. Unpaired elongated organ
3. White coiled glands
4. Attached to the urinary bladder
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

100. How does the female frog’s reproductive tract differ from the male’s?

1. Female frogs lack a urinary bladder
2. In females, the ureter and oviduct open separately into the cloaca
3. In females, the oviduct is a shared tube with the excretory system
4. Ovaries are positioned on the ventral side of the heart
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101. Which of the following will produced only one type of gamete?

1. AaBBCc
2. AABbCC
3. AaBbCc
4. AABBCC
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102. Identify the phyla
(i) That possess notochord in the larval tail only
(ii) Where notochord extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life

1. (i) Hemichordate; (ii) Urochordate
2. (i) Urochordate; (ii) Echinodermata
3. (i) Cephalochordate; (ii) Urochordate
4. (i) Urochordate; (ii) Cephalochordate
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the testes in male frogs:

1. They are a pair of reddish, spherical structures.
2. Each testis is covered by a fold of peritoneum called mesorchium.
3. Fat bodies are attached to the anterior end of the testes.
4. They are situated in the upper part of the abdominal cavity.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

104. Notochord arises from

1. Endoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Ectoderm
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105. Assertion: The frog’s digestive tract ends in the cloaca
Reason: The cloaca is the common chamber for digestive, excretory and reproductive systems.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106. Which of the following group of animals have a unique property of possessing mammary glands, hair and pinnae?

1. Elephas, Corvus, Neophron
2. Chelone, Panthera, Vipera
3. Balaenoptera, Pterophus, Delphinus
4. Betta, Hyla, Canis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107. Which of the following is true regarding the ovaries in a female frog?

1. They are directly attached to the urinary bladder
2. They are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called the mesorchium
3. They are attached to the dorsal body wall by a fold of peritoneum called the mesovarium
4. They produce eggs that pass into the body cavity and exit through the kidneys
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Kidneys participate in both excretion and sperm transport.
II. Ureters transport urine only in male frogs.
III. Cloaca opens outside through the cloacal aperture.

1. I only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109. Read the following statements with respect to Cyclostomes and select the incorrect ones.
A. They lack scales and paired fins
B. They have circular mouth with jaws
C. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
D. They migrate to deep sea for spawning

1. A and D only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110. Select the correct pair.

1. QqRrSs-7
2. QqRrSs-8
3. XxYyZz-16
4. XxYyZz-0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111. Superclass Tetrapoda is further classified into how many classes

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112. Which of the following will be produced by genotype AaBb?

1. Ab, aa,bb,AB
2. aB,Ab,Aa,Bb
3. Ab,AB,aB,ab
4. Ab,aB,Aa,ab
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

113. Which of the following is true about digestive system of echinoderms?

1. Mouth is ventral
2. Mouth is dorsal
3. Digestive system is complete
4. All of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114. Identify the parts

1. A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Post anal tail, D-Gill slits
2. A-Notochord, B-Nerve cord, C-Post anal tail, D-Gill slits
3. A-Gill slits, B-Nerve cord, C-Post anal tail, D-Notochord
4. A-Gill slits, B-Notochord, C-Post anal tail, D-Nerve cord
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115. Select the incorrect statement.

1. Cloaca is the common chamber for digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems.
2. The rectum opens into the cloaca.
3. The oesophagus opens directly into the ileum.
4. The duodenum receives bile and pancreatic juice.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

116. Select the INCORRECT statement with reference to the reproductive system of a female frog:

1. A mature female frog posses a pair of ovary.
2. Ovaries have no functional or internal connections with the kidneys.
3. Both oviducts open into the cloaca separately.
4. Ureters act as a urinogenital duct carrying both urine and eggs
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117. Match the following phylum with their characteristic feature

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

118. The superclass of Gnathostomata is divided on which basis

1. Presence of fins or limbs
2. Presence or absence of notochord
3. Presence or absence of jaws
4. Presence or absence of scales
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119. Air bladder is present in which of the following aquatic organisms

1. Clarias
2. Scoliodon
3. Pristis
4. Trygon
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

120. Consider the following statements:
I. The liver of a frog has three lobes.
II. The gall bladder lies between the lobes of the liver.

1. Both I and II are correct.
2. Only I is correct.
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

July 24, 2026
NEET 2026 WEEKLY TEST 1 (18.07.2026)

Welcome to your NEET 2026 WEEKLY TEST 1 (18.07.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID NUMBER

1.

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 120 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Wherever the symbols/constants are not mentioned, they are to be considered as per their standard meaning/value.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 480.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS
1. √48+√12 equals

1. √108
2. √111
3. √60
4. √72Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. The volume contraction (ΔV) of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7 MPa, would be ___________ mm³
(Given: bulk modulus of copper K=0.14 TPa)

1. 100
2. 75
3. 25
4. 50Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. (21-2÷4×12+2)/34=?

1. 1/17
2. 1/34
3. 1/2
4. 2/21
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

5. The provided graph displays the stress-strain relationship for two distinct metal alloys. Alloy A and Alloy B, tested under identical conditions. Analyze the curves and determine which of the following statements regarding their mechanical properties is incorrect.

1. Alloy B has a higher Ultimate Tensile Strength than Alloy A
2. Alloy A has a higher Young’s Modulus than Alloy B
3. Alloy A exhibits significantly higher ductility than Alloy B
4. Alloy B is more brittle than Alloy A
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

6. A diode, a resistor, and an inductor are connected in series. The total power consumed by the circuit is 45 W when the current is 2 A. When the current increases to 4 A, the total power consumed becomes 50 W. Calculate the percentage increase in the power consumed.

1. 10%
2. 11%
3. 21%
4. 8%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

7. Choose the correct statement(s):
A. Higher value of compressibility results in higher decrease in volume
B. The strain produced due to stress in solids are generally visible to the naked eye
C. According to Hooke’s law, stress and strain are inversely proportional

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. C only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

8. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of 63×10⁶ ms^-1 is:

1. 1.10 Å
2. 11.0 Å
3. 0.11 Å
4. 110 Å
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

9. Consider the following statements in context to stretching a wire:
A. The proportional limit has higher value than the elastic limit
B. The ultimate tensile stress is the highest stress the wire can handle before it snaps
C. Higher the stress-strain graph, easier it is to stretch the wire
Choose the incorrect statement(s)

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. C only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

10. When an incident radiation strikes a photosensitive material the number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to: (Assuming the frequency ν of an incident radiation is greater than the threshold frequency ν₀)

1. (ν-ν₀)
2. threshold frequency (ν₀)
3. intensity of light
4. frequency of light (ν)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

11. The nearest approximate value of √(7³-1) is

1. 18.15
2. 18.49
3. 19.72
4. 18.02
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

12. The maximum or the minimum value of the function f(x)=25x²-10x+5

1. f(x)_min=4
2. f(x)_max=8
3. f(x)_min=8
4. f(x)_max=4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

13. Ultraviolet radiations of 2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy of the fastest electron emitted in joules is approximately: (Take 1eV=1.6×10^-19) J)

1. 3.2×10^-21
2. 3.2×10^-19
3. 3.2×10^-17 4. 3.2×10^-15
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

14. The relation between de-Broglie wavelength λ (or matter wave) of a particle and its kinetic energy E is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

15.

1. 6.666×10^-5 2. 2.5×10^-5
3. 0.666×10⁵4. 2.5×10⁵
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

16. Two wires, suspended individually and made of same material have different lengths l₁ and l₂. The first wire is pulled by a mass of 15 kg while the second wire suspends a mass of If the radius of the first wire is twice the radius of the second wire, then the ratio of extensions produced in the wires respectively is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

17. Representing the stopping potential V₀ along Y-axis and frequency v along X-axis for a given photocathode, the curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal to:

1. h
2. hC/e
3. C
4. h/e
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

18. Calculate the area under the curve of f(x)=x²from x=0 to x=2 using the definite integral

1. 8 units
2. 8/3 units
3. 3 units
4. 3/2 units
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

19. The figure shows the variation in photoelectric current (i) with voltage (V) between the electrodes in a photocell for two different radiations. If I_a and I_b are the intensities of the incident radiation and ν_a and ν_b their respective frequencies, then:

1. I_a>I_b ;ν_a>ν_b
2. I_a<I_b ;ν_a<ν_b
3. I_a>I_b ;ν_a<ν_b 4. I_a<I_b ;ν_a>ν_b
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

20. The maximum mass that a steel wire of cross section 02 cm² can withstand within the elastic limit of 800 MPa is (Young’s modulus of steel 200 GPa, take g=10 ms^-2)

1. 120 kg
2. 140 kg
3. 160 kg
4. 180 kg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

21. An angular displacement of wheel rotating at an angular velocity of 8 rad/s, undergoes a constant angular acceleration of 3 rad/s² for 6 seconds is

1. 100 radians
2. 102 radians
3. 104 radians
4. 110 radians
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

22. Assertion (A): A planet moves faster when it is closer to the Sun.
Reason (R): The angular momentum of the planet about the Sun is conserved because the gravitational force is a central force.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

23. A flywheel has an initial angular velocity of 10 rad s⁻¹ and rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2 rad s⁻² for 8 s. Its final angular velocity is

1. 18 rad s⁻¹
2. 24 rad s⁻¹
3. 26 rad s⁻¹
4. 30 rad s⁻¹
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

24. Assertion (A): The equation ω=ω₀+αt is valid only when angular acceleration is constant.
Reason (R): This equation is derived by integrating angular acceleration assuming remains constant.

1. A is true, but R is false.
2. A is false, but R is true.
3. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

25. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

26. A disc rotates about a fixed axis with zero angular acceleration. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The angular velocity of the disc is increasing uniformly.
2. The torque acting on the disc must be zero.
3. The angular velocity of the disc remains constant.
4. The disc cannot have any linear acceleration at its rim.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

27. Differentiate with respect to ‘x’ if y=2 lnx-2x²-3 cosx+1

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

28. Find ∫6x(x²+6)dx

1. 5x³+9x²+c
2. 10x⁵+9x³+c
3. 1.5x⁴+18x²+c
4. 3.5x⁴+11x³+c
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

29. Given S=t²+5t+3, find dS/dt at t=1

1. 10
2. 7
3. 5
4. 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

Chemistry
31. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹
2. ns² np³
3. ns² np⁴ 4. ns² np ^1-6Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

32. A compound with a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

1. n-hexane
2. 2- methyl pentane
3. 2,3 dimethyl pentane
4. 2,2 dimethyl pentaneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

33. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65).Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

34. IUPAC name of following compound is

1. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
2. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
3. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
4. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-alDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

35. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
A. 37 I. S block
B. 60 II. P block
C. 53 III. D block
D 78 IV. F block

1. A- I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A- I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A- II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

36. The only liquid elements at room temperature in p- block is?

1. P
2. Cl
3. Br
4. AtDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

37. IUPAC name of following compound is:

1. 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
2. 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
3. 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
4. 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexaneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

38. There are ____ Representative elements in Modern Periodic Table

1. 13
2. 30
3. 45
4. 50Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

39. The IUPAC name of

1. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
2. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
3. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chlorideDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

40. Predict the Period and Group of atomic number 34?

1. 2, 13
2. 3, 14
3. 4, 15
4. 4, 16Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

41. Iupac name of

1. 5,6 – dimethylhept-2-ene
2. 2,3- dimethylhept-5-ene
3. 5,6 – dimethylhept-5-ene
4. 5-isopropylhex-2 –eneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

42. The element Z =115 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group

1. Carbon family
2. Oxygen family
3. Nitrogen family
4. Halogen familyDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

43. What will be the molarity of 30 mL of 0.5 M H₂SO₄ solution diluted to 500 mL?

1. 0.3 M
2. 0.03 M
3. 3 M
4. 0.103 MDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

44. Which of the following do not belong to d- block elements?

1. [Xe] 5d¹6s²2. [Xe] 4f¹ 5d¹ 6s²
3. [Rn] 6d¹ 7s²4. [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

45. IUPAC name of

1. 6-Bromo – 2- chloro cyclohexene
2. 1-Bromo-3- chlorocyclohexene
3. 3-Bromo – 1 chlorocyclohexene
4. 2 bromo 3-chlorocyclohex-2-eneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

46. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and B
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and AlDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

46.

47. The I.U.P.A.C. name of

1. 3–Methyl cyclohexene
2. 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.
3. 6–methyl cyclohexene
4. 1–methyl cyclohex5–eneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47.

48. Which of the following elements has maximum electron affinity?

1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. IDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

48.

49. Common name of the compound C₆H₅CHO is

1. Anisole
2. benzaldehyde
3. salicylaldehyde
4. none of theseDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49.

50. At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level. This leads to

1. low concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues
2. high concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues
3. release of dissolved gases and formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood
4. thickening of blood and tissuesDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50.

51. The IUPAC nameof the compound

1. 4-Cyano-4-methyloxopentane
2. 4-Cyano-4-methylpentan-2-one
3. 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
4. 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentaneDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51.

52. The law which indicates the relationship between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure is ______.

1. Raoult’s law
2. Henry’s law
3. lowering of vapour pressure
4. van’t Hoff lawDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52.

53. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
2. 2. 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
3. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
4. 2,3-dimethyl-3-pentenolDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53.

54. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?

1. Mole fraction
2. Parts per million
3. Mass percentage
4. MolalityDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

55. Colligative properties depend on _____.

1. the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
2. the number of solute particles in solution
3. the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
4. the nature of solvent particlesDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55.

56. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?

1. 1.0 M NaOH
2. 1.0 M Na₂SO₄
3. 1.0 M NH₄NO₃
4. 1.0 M KNO₃Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56.

57. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two components is called

1. solute
2. Solvent
3. both (a) and (b)
4. SolutionDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57.

58. Partial pressure of a solution component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is known as

1. Henry’s law
2. Raoult’s law
3. Distribution law
4. Ostwald’s dilution lawDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58.

59. What are the conditions for an ideal solution which obeys Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration?

1. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
2. Δ_mixH = +ve, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
3. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = +ve, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
4. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_B x_BDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

60. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) No. of moles of solute\Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) No. of moles of solute\Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) No. of moles of component\Moles in the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component\Mass of solution = (Z)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60.

Biology
61. Observe the following sentences
i. Metagenesis is observed in helminths
ii. Roundworms have organ-system level of body organization
iii. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
iv. Water canal system is a characteristic of poriferans
Choose the correct option from the following

1. I, II and III are correct
2. II, III and IV are correct
3. II and IV are correct
4. II and III are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61.

62. Adenine and ribose together form:

1. Adenosine
2. Adenylate
3. Deoxyadenosine
4. Adenine nucleotide
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

63. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Poriferans
4. Ctenophora
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

64. The codon sequence AUG UUU UUC UUC codes for:

1. Met–Phe–Phe–Phe
2. Phe–Met–Phe–Phe
3. Met–Met–Phe–Phe
4. Met–Leu–Leu–Phe
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

65. Select the wrong statement regarding phylum ctenophora

1. They are mostly marine
2. They show bioluminescence
3. They are hermaphrodite
4. They have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

66. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Protonephridia
3. Green glands
4. Flame cells
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

67. Which one is not a termination codon?

1. UAA
2. UAG
3. UGA
4. UGG
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67.

68. Which of the following cells in sponges help in trapping food?

1. Pinacocytes
2. Porocytes
3. Choanocytes
4. Ostia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

69. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. AUG – Methionine
2. UGG – Stop codon
3. UAA – Glycine
4. UGA – Methionine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69.

70. Flatworms exhibit all the following characters except

1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Coelom
3. Three embryonic layers
4. Incomplete digestive system
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

71. If the number of adenine nucleotides in a DNA molecule is 800, the total number of hydrogen bonds due to A–T pairs is:

1. 800
2. 1200
3. 1600
4. 2400
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

72. The type of symmetry where the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane is

1. Asymmetrical
2. Radial symmetry
3. Biradial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

72.

73. In the DNA double helix, the nitrogenous bases are located:

1. On the outer surface
2. Inside the helix
3. Attached to phosphate groups externally
4. Randomly distributed
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73.

74. Cnidarians and ctenophores share common characteristics such as

1. Diploblastic
2. Both extracellular and intracellular digestion
3. Tissue level organization
4. All of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

75. Which pair contributes more to the stability of DNA?

1. A–T
2. G–C
3. Both equally
4. Cannot be determined
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

75.

76. Which of the following is a correct match?

1. Cnidaria – Bilateral symmetry
2. Aschelminthes – Organ-system level of organization
3. Platyhelminthes – Pseudocoelomate
4. Ctenophora – Open circulatory system
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76.

77. Which one of the following animals is not a protostome?

1. Arthropoda
2. Mollusca
3. Annelida
4. Echinodermata
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77.

78. Nitrogenous bases on opposite DNA strands are held together by:

1. Peptide bonds
2. Phosphodiester bonds
3. Hydrogen bonds
4. Ester bonds
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78.

79. The basic fundamental feature that is used to classify animal kingdom is

1. Level of organization
2. Symmetry
3. Segmentation
4. All of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79.

80. In DNA, adjacent nucleotides of the same strand are joined by:

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Glycosidic bonds
3. Phosphodiester bonds
4. Peptide bonds
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80.

81. The middle layer in the body wall of sponges is called

1. Mesoderm
2. Blastocoel
3. Mesoglea
4. Endoderm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81.

82. A double-stranded DNA molecule contains 10,000 base pairs. If adenine constitutes 35% of the total nucleotides, how many cytosine nucleotides are present?

1. 3000
2. 7000
3. 1500
4. 3500
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82.

83. Which of the following phylum have tissue level of organization?

1. Porifera
2. Aschelminthes
3. Ctenophora
4. Annelida
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83.

84. In a DNA molecule containing 2400 nucleotides, adenine makes up 25% of the bases. The number of guanine nucleotides is:

1. 600
2. 1200
3. 300
4. 900
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84.

85. Bioluminescence is a characteristic well-marked in

1. Pleurobrachia
2. Fasciola
3. Ancylostoma
4. Gorgonia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85.

86. Physalia, Adamsia, Obedia and Pennatula are all examples of which phylum?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Coelenterata
3. Ctenophora
4. Aschelminthes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

87. Which of the following does NOT obey Chargaff’s rule?

1. Nuclear DNA
2. Mitochondrial double-stranded DNA
3. Single-stranded DNA viruses
4. Chromosomal DNA
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87.

88. The ratio of adenine to guanine in a DNA sample is 3:2. The percentage of thymine is:

1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 40%
4. 60%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88.

89. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, D, E, C
2. B, A, E, C, D
3. D, E, C, A, B
4. E, D, C, B, A
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89.

90. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, cytosine constitutes 18% of the total bases. The percentage of adenine is:

1. 18%
2. 32%
3. 50%
4. 64%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90.

91. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, E, A, C, B
2. B, E, A, C, D
3. B, E, A, D, C
4. D, E, A, B, C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

91.

92. Which genotype produces 16 different types of gametes?

1. AaBbCcDD
2. WwXxYyZz
3. PpQqRRSs
4. EeffggHh
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

92.

93. Two bryophytes, X and Y, possess multicellular rhizoids and jacketed sex organs. During spore germination, X develops a filamentous juvenile stage before forming the mature gametophyte, whereas Y develops directly into a dorsiventral thallus. Which of the following correctly identifies X and the distinguishing feature?

1. X = Marchantia; presence of seta
2. X = Funaria; presence of protonema
3. X = Riccia; presence of foot
4. X = Anthoceros; presence of capsule
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93.

94. Select the correct option.

1. A-Gall bladder, B-Liver, D-Stomach, E-Cloaca
2. A-Heart, B-Lung, C-Fat body, E-Rectum
3. A-Adrenal gland, B-Liver C-Fat body, D-Kidney
4. A-Gall bladder, C-Fat body, D-Kidney, E-Rectum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

94.

95. Consider the following statements regarding the gametophyte of homosporous pteridophytes:
Statement I: A single prothallus generally bears both antheridia and archegonia.
Statement II: Self-fertilisation is largely prevented because the male and female gametes usually mature simultaneously.
Choose the correct answer.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95.

96. The anterior end of each oviduct bears a:

1. Ovisac
2. Ovary
3. Ostium
4.Testis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96.

97. A paleobotanist discovers an extinct vascular plant with the following characteristics:
(a) Produces two types of spores.
(b) Female gametophyte develops within the megaspore.
(c) Megaspores are retained on the parent sporophyte until fertilisation.
Which evolutionary innovation does this combination of characters most directly represent?

1. Transition towards seed habit
2. Evolution of alternation of generations
3. Origin of vascular tissue
4. Evolution of independent gametophytes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97.

98. Which pair of structures open into the cloaca?

1. Ureter and Kidney
2. Urinogenital duct and Testis
3. Stomach and Liver
4. Oviduct and Ureter
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98.

99. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure.

A

B

1.

Sporophyte

Gametophyte

2.

Gametophyte

Sporophyte

3.

Male shoot

Female shoot

4.

Female shoot

Male shoot

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99.

100. Which of the following holds true for liverworts?

1. The plant body is dorsiventral.
2. Plant bears true roots.
3. Plants possess gemma cups for asexual reproduction.
4. Both (a) and (c)Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

100.

101. Which one of the following combinations is correct?

1. Ovisac – Temporary storage of eggs
2. Ovary – Jelly secretion
3. Oviduct – Production of ova
4. Cloaca – FertilizationDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101.

102. A photosynthetic organism possesses a haplontic life cycle in which the only diploid stage is short-lived and immediately undergoes meiosis. Which of the following organisms most likely exhibits this pattern?

1. Mosses
2. liverworts
3. Algae
4. PterisDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102.

103. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dominant phase or reproductive strategy of the respective plant group?

1. Bryophytes possess a dominant gametophyte and a nutritionally dependent sporophyte.
2. Pteridophytes possess an independent sporophyte and a free-living gametophyte.
3. Most algae reproduce both sexually and asexually.
4. Pteridophytes produce seeds after fertilisation.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103.

104. Which of the following genotypes produces the maximum number of gametes?

1. AABbCcdd
2. AaBbCc
3. AaBBCc
4.AAbbCC
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

104.

105. Select the incorrect statement about bryophytes

1. Zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately.
2. The sporophyte is free-living.
3. The main plant body is haploid.
4. They show haplo-diplontic type of alternation of generations.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105.

106. The testes are located:

1. Adjacent to the urinogenital duct
2. Attached to the anterior part of the kidney
3. Inside the liver
4. Behind the urinary bladder
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

107. Which of the following are gametophytic structures?
(a) Protonema of moss
(b) Prothallus of fern
(c) Capsule of moss
(d) Main plant body of Selaginella
Choose the correct answer.

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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1

2

3

4
None

107.

108. Identify the incorrect statement.

1. Frog has a pair of ovaries.
2. Oviducts open into the cloaca.
3. Fertilization occurs in the uterus.
4. Eggs receive a jelly coat in the oviduct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

109. Assertion (A): The sporophytic generation is almost absent in organisms with a haplontic life cycle.
Reason (R): The zygote does not immediately undergo meiosis to produce multicellular sporophyte.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

110. The common chamber that receives digestive, urinary, and reproductive products in frog is:

1. Rectum
2. Cloaca
3. Bladder
4. Urethra
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

111. Which of the following characters collectively distinguish algae from bryophytes?
I. Absence of embryo formation
II. Predominantly aquatic habitat
III. Presence of jacketed sex organs
IV. Dominant thalloid body
Choose the correct answer.

1. I and II only
2. I, II and IV only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV
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1

2

3

4
None

111.

112. Which is the correct sequence of egg passage?

1. Ovary → Cloaca → Oviduct → Outside
2. Ovary → Kidney → Cloaca → Outside
3. Ovary → Oviduct → Ovisac → Cloaca → Outside
4., Ovary → Ureter → Ovisac →Cloaca → Outside
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1

2

3

4
None

112.

113. Which of the following statements correspond to sporophyte?

1. It is diploid phase of life cycle.
2. It is formed by germination of meiospore.
3. It is dominant stage in pteridophyte.
4. Both (a) and (c)
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1

2

3

4
None

113.

114. Select the incorrect statement with respect to given type of life cycle.

1. Meiosis occurs at the time of spore formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many bryophytes and pteridophytes.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

115. Which of the following structures is not paired structure in a male frog?

1. Urinary bladder
2. Testes
3. Kidney
4.Urinogenital ducts
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115.

116. Select the incorrect statements regarding seminal vesicle in male frog.
i. Produced and store sperms temporarily before they are discharged
ii. Enlarged posterior part of urinogenital duct
iii. Help in transport of sperms to cloaca
iv. Two pairs present

1. i and ii
2. ii and iii
3. iii and iv
4. i and iv

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1

2

3

4
None

116.

117. The genotype AaBb produces:

1. AA,BB,aa,bb
2. AB, Ab, aB, ab
3. Aa, Bb
4.A, a, B, b
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1

2

3

4
None

117.

118. Arrange the following structures in the correct order through which food passes:
i. Oesophagus
ii. Buccopharyngeal cavity
iii. Stomach
iv. Rectum
v. Cloaca
vi. Duodenum

1. 2 → 3 → 1 → 6 → 5 → 4
2. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 → 6
3. 2 → 1 → 3 → 6 → 4 → 5
4. 1→ 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6
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1

2

3

4
None

118.

119. Select the correct statements.
i. Female frog has two oviducts.
ii. Oviducts are independent of ureters.
iii. Ureters carry eggs to the cloaca.

1. i only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii
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1

2

3

4
None

119.

120. Guanine attached to deoxyribose forms:

1. Guanosine
2. Deoxyguanosine
3. Guanylate
4. Deoxyguanylate
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1

2

3

4
None

120.

1. 4
2. – 4
3. – 2
4. – 3
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1

2

3

4
None

July 16, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XX NEW 2

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XX NEW 2

Name

Email

ZZR ID

Deselect Answer

None

April 11, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XX NEW
Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XX NEW

Name

Email

ZZR ID

PHYSICS

The current in the given circuit is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s. The charge on the capacitor at an instant when the current in the circuit is 2 A will be

1. 4 μC
2. 5 μC
3. 6 μC
4. None of theseDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2. The electric field due to line charge distribution varies as

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1

2

3

4
None

3. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

May be all positive

May be all negative

Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases

Always zero

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. Assertion: At resonance, current is maximum.
Reason: Impedance is minimum.

Both (A) and (R) true, (R) explains (A)

Both (A) and (R) true, (R) does not explan (A)

A is true, R is false

Both are false

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. The wavelength of light diminishes m times (μ=1.33 for water) in a medium. From inside water a diver looks at an object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as:

Green

2. Blue

Yellow

4. Red

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1

2

3

4
None

6. The electric potential due to an electric dipole varies as
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1

2

3

4
None

7. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be:

5I

3I

6I

4I

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1

2

3

4
None

8. A square loop carrying a current 𝑖 is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current 𝐼 is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will:

Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

Move away from the wire to towards right

Move towards the wire

Remain stationary

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9. The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 + b cos 𝜔𝑡

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.
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1

2

3

4
None

11. The number of spectral lines when an electron jumps from fourth excited state to ground state is

6

10

15

3

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1

2

3

4
None

12. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto glass (n = 1.5) at polarising angle:

Reflected light is polarized 100 percent

Reflected &refracted beams are partially polarized

Reflected & refracted beams are completely polarized

Refracted light is polarized 100 percent

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1

2

3

4
None

13. What percentage of the potential energy is gained by the body in rising through a height equal to the radius of the Earth. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of a body infinite distance away from Earth is zero.

1%

10%

50%

20%

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1

2

3

4
None

14.
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3

4
None

15.
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1

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4
None

16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁= 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen, 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

6mm

4mm

3mm

2mm

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1

2

3

4
None

17. At what height above the surface of Earth of radius R will the acceleration due to gravity be reduced by 0.1%?

R/100

R/200

R/1000

R/2000

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1

2

3

4
None

18.
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1

2

3

4
None

19.
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1

2

3

4
None

20.
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3

4
None

21. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 7 R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 3R from the surface of earth is:

6 hours

8 hours

6√2 hours

8√2 hours

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1

2

3

4
None

22.
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1

2

3

4
None

23.
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1

2

3

4
None

24.
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3

4
None

25. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?

Electric field and potential

Electric field and charge density

Electric potential and charge density.

Electric field, potential and charge density.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.
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1

2

3

4
None

27. For a gas, the r.m.s speed at 800 K is:

Four times the value at 200 K

Half the value at 200 K

Twice the value at 200 K

Same as at 200 K

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1

2

3

4
None

28.
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1

2

3

4
None

29.
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1

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3

4
None

30. If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is doubled then the capacitance

Decreases two times

Increases two times

Increases four times

Remain the same

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1

2

3

4
None

31.
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1

2

3

4
None

32.
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1

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3

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None

33.
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1

2

3

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None

34.
A river of width 200 𝑚 is flowing from west
to east with a speed of 18 𝑘𝑚/ℎ. A boat,
moving with speed of 36 𝑘𝑚/ℎ in still
water, is made to travel one-round trip (bank
to bank of the river). Minimum time taken
by the boat for this journey and also the
displacement along the river bank are
respectively

1. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0 𝑚
2. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 𝑚
3. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 100 𝑚
4. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 �
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1

2

3

4
None

35.
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1

2

3

4
None

36.
Two balls with same mass and initial
velocity, are projected at different angles in
such a way that maximum height reached by
first ball is 4 times higher than that of the
second ball. 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are the total flying
times of first and second ball, respectively,
then the ratio of 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is
1. 1∶ 1
2. 1∶ 2
3. 2∶ 1
4. 4∶ 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

1. 16
2. 64
3. 120
4. 160
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1

2

3

4
None

38. In an experiment, a set of reading are
obtained as follows: 1.24 𝑚𝑚, 1.25 𝑚𝑚,
1.23 𝑚𝑚, 1.21 𝑚𝑚. The expected least
count of the instrument used in recording
these readings is

1. 0.02 mm
2. 0.01 mm
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.05 mm
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1

2

3

4
None

39.
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1

2

3

4
None

40.
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1

2

3

4
None

41. In the given figure the blocks 𝐶 and 𝐵 weigh
8 𝑘𝑔 and 6 𝑘𝑔 respectively. The co-efficient
of sliding friction between any two surfaces
is 0.5. The force required to slide the
block 𝐶 with constant speed is
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1

2

3

4
None

42.
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1

2

3

4
None

43. A bus moving along a straight highway with
speed of 72 𝑘𝑚/ℎ is brought to halt
within 4𝑠 after applying the brakes. The
distance travelled by the bus during this time
(Assume the retardation is uniform) is

1. 40 𝑚
2. 25 𝑚
3. 30 𝑚
4. 15 𝑚
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1

2

3

4
None

44.
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1

2

3

4
None

45. Which of the following are false for
electromagnetic wave?
1. Transverse
2. Longitudinal
3. Produced by accelerating charge
4. Mechanical Waves
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1

2

3

4
None

CHEMISTRY
46.

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1

2

3

4
None

47. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

1. Mercury
2. Potassium
3. Iodine
4. Oxygen
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1

2

3

4
None

48.

Total number of alkali insoluble solid sulphonamides obtained by reaction of given amines with Hinsberg’s reagent is____.

Aniline, N-Methylaniline, Methanamine, N,N-Dimethylmethanamine, N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine, N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline, N,N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine, Isopropyl amine

8

5

2

4

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49. An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol. When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H₂O₂, a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The blue colour is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen atoms bonded to chromium through only single bonds in a molecule of X?

1. 0.5
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1.5
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1

2

3

4
None

50. For the following cell reaction
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1

2

3

4
None

51.
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1

2

3

4
None

52.
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1

2

3

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None

53. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?

1. 9.0 L
2. 0.1 L
3. 0.9 L
4. 2.0 L

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

(A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

(B) < (A) < (C) < (D)

(B) < (A) < (D) < (C)

(A) < (B) < (D) < (C)

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1

2

3

4
None

55. Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?

1. Benzene and Toluene
2. n-Hexane and n-Heptane
3. Ethanol and Acetone
4. Bromoethane and Chloroethane

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56. In the following sequence of reactions,the product D is:
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1

2

3

4
None

57. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapour pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is __. (Given data: Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol⁻¹ and 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹ respectively)

1. 0.1
2.1.12
3. 2.5
4. 1.01
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1

2

3

4
None

58. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are giv Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

1. The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group
2. In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
3. Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.
4. In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the
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1

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3

4
None

59.
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1

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3

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None

60. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapour pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar?

1. 1
2. 0.20
3. 2
4. 1.20

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1

2

3

4
None

61.
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1

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3

4
None

62.
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1

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3

4
None

63. Under ambient conditions, the total number
of gases released as products in the final step
of the reaction scheme shown below is
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1

2

3

4
None

64.
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1

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3

4
None

65.
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None

66.
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None

67.
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4
None

68.
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2

3

4
None

69.
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2

3

4
None

70.
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1

2

3

4
None

71.
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1

2

3

4
None

72.
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1

2

3

4
None

73.
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1

2

3

4
None

74.
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1

2

3

4
None

75.
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1

2

3

4
None

76.

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1

2

3

4
None

77.

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2

3

4
None

78.
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None

79.
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1

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None

80.
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3

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None

81.The descending order of basicity of following amines is:
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1

2

3

4
None

82.
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1

2

3

4
None

83.
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1

2

3

4
None

84. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, 8
moles of permanganate anion quantitatively
oxidise thiosulphate anions to produce X
moles of a sulphur containing product. The
magnitude of X is

1. 7
2. 6
3. 8
4. 4
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1

2

3

4
None

85. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.

Statement II: The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields amine as final product.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.
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1

2

3

4
None

87. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L^-1 s^-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.01M to 0.075M.

1. 8.49s
2. 8.33s
3. 7.96s
4. 7.53s
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1

2

3

4
None

88.
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1

2

3

4
None

89. 2 grams of metal carbonate is neutralized
completely by 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl. The
equivalent wt. of metal carbonate is

1. 50
3. 150
2. 100
4. 20
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1

2

3

4
None

90.

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1

2

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None

BIOLOGY

91. According to early man, the common feature of inanimate and animate objects was

1. The sense of awe
2. Their growing ability
3. Constant movement
4. All of the above
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1

2

3

4
None

92. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?

1. Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)
2. Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I)
3. Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)
4. Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I)
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1

2

3

4
None

93. Through which of the following experiments the second proof of DNA being the genetic material was provided?

1. X-ray crystallographic studies
2. Phage infection to bacteria
3. Bacterial translocation
4. Bacterial transformation

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1

2

3

4
None

94. Statement I: The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a lipid bi-layer called aleurone layer.

Statement II: The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and coleorhizae respectively.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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1

2

3

4
None

95. The following figure represents a diagrammatic sectional view of

Coelomate

Pseudocoelomate

Acoelomate

None of the above

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1

2

3

4
None

96. Enzymes that catalyse the substrate level phosphorylation reaction in glycolysis belong to

oxidoreductases

transferases

hydrolases

ligases

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1

2

3

4
None

97. Observe the following statements and choose how many of them are true
i. Annelids are metamerically segmented with true coelom
ii. Arthropods are characterized by the presence of jointed appendages
iii. Molluscs have calcareous exoskeleton
iv. Some vertebrates do not possess jaws (Gnathostomata) while most of them possess jaws (Agnatha)
v. Classes Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes bear fins for locomotion

2 2. 3

4 4. 5

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1

2

3

4
None

98. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:
A. Crossing over
B. Synapsis
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata
D. Disappearance of nucleolus

1. B, C, D, A 2. B, A, D, C
2. B, A, C, D 3.A, B, C, D
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1

2

3

4
None

99. If a compound that allows protons to freely diffuse across a membrane is added to cells that are actively metabolising glucose via cellular respiration which of the following processes would get affected?

Electron Transport chain

Chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP

ATP synthesis

All of these

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1

2

3

4
None

100. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.

Choose the set of incorrect statement(s)

from the following options.

i and ii 2. ii, iii and iv

i, ii and iii 4. i only

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1

2

3

4
None

101. Anaerobic respiration produces very little energy as compared to aerobic respiration because

there is incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate

NADH produced during glycolysis is often used up

electron transport chain is absent

all of these

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1

2

3

4
None

102. Protonema is:

1. Haploid and is found in mosses
2. Diploid and is found in liverworts
3. Diploid and is found in mosses
4. Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
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1

2

3

4
None

103. Assertion (A): The countercurrent mechanism in the kidney helps in concentrating urine.

Reason (R): It operates in the loop of Henle and vasa recta, creating an osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

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None

104. A population is observed:
I. At time t₁: N < K/2
II. At time t₂: N = K/2
III. At time t₃: N > K
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Growth rate at t₂ > t₁(b) Growth rate at t₃ is negative
(c) Environmental resistance is maximum at t₃(d) Population at t₁ is in deceleration phase

(a), (b) and (c)

(a) and (b) only

(b) and (d) only

All are correct

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105. Pick out the wrong statement.

The first product of Krebs’ cycle is Acetyl CoA

a-ketoglutarate is formed by the decarboxylation of oxalosuccinate

a-ketoglutarate is both dehydrogenated and decarboxylated by a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.

Succinate dehydrogenase is a membrane-bound enzyme that catalyses the dehydrogenation of succinate

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106. In a leaf abscission study:
I. Auxin level decreases gradually
II. Ethylene production increases
At which ratio is leaf fall most likely to occur?

High auxin : low ethylene

Equal auxin : ethylene

Low auxin : high ethylene

High auxin : high ethylene

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107. Which set of conditions favours activation of the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism?

1. High GFR, high blood volume, high Na⁺ in DCT
2. Fall in glomerular blood flow, fall in GFR, low blood pressure
3. High atrial stretch, release of ANF
4. High ADH levels independent of osmolarity
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1

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3

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108. Select the option that correctly identifies the family of mustard plant and its main characters

Brassicaceae: tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, capsule or schizocarp fruit

Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, many stamens, pentacarpellary gynoecium, capsule type fruit.

Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, berry type fruit.

Brassicaceae: trimerous flowers, three

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1

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109. Pick out the wrong statement.

Three German scientists Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof and J.Parnas discovered Glycolysis

In preparatory phase of glycolysis glucose is broken down to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.

In the Krebs cycle, during the formation of phosphoenol pyruvate, the phosphate group gains energy and assists in generating ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.

Malate dehydrogenase catalyses the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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110. A unicellular organism shows: Cell wall, photosynthetic pigments in thylakoids (not chloroplasts), no membrane-bound organelles and reproduction by binary fission. Which group does it belong to?

1. Protista 2. Cyanobacteria
2. Fungi 4. Euglenoids
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1

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111. Read the following statements carefully:
I. In alveoli, is approximately 104 mm Hg and is 40 mm Hg, while in deoxygenated blood reaching the alveoli, is 40 mm Hg and is 45 mm Hg.
II. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of to the tissues under normal conditions.
III. The solubility of is about 20-25 times higher than that of O₂, which is the major reason why a major part of CO₂ is transported in the form of bicarbonate.
IV. The binding of CO₂ to haemoglobin is related to the Haldane effect, while the release of O₂ from oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by the Bohr effect
Which of the above statements are correct?

I and II only 2. II and III only

I, II and III only 4. I, II, III and IV

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1

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112. A cell shows increased breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.
Which organelle is primarily responsible, and why?

Lysosome, due to acidic enzymes.

Peroxisome, due to oxidases and catalase.

Mitochondria, due to ATP production.

Golgi apparatus, due to protein modification

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1

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None

113. “A” is essential in the tricarboxylic acid cycle and is also a component of complex II in the electron transport chain. Its activity is inhibited by a three-carbon dicarboxylic acid compound (Y), which acts as a competitive inhibitor of “B”.
Identify A and B

A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Malonate

A: Succinyl-CoA synthase; B: Malonate

A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Erythromycin

A: a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; B: Pyruvate

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114. An athlete has TV = 500 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, and RV = 1200 ml. His inspiratory capacity (IC) is 3500 ml. What is his expiratory capacity and functional residual capacity (FRC) respectively?

1600 ml and 2300 ml

1700 ml and 2300 ml

1600 ml and 2400 ml

1700 ml and 2400 ml

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115. A diploid cell (2n = 10) undergoes meiosis. If 20 such cells enter meiosis, how many total chromosomes will be present in all the gametes formed?

1. 200 2. 100
3. 400 4. 50
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1

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116. The energy stored in respiratory substrates after cellular oxidation is not directly released into the cell for other functions. Instead, this energy is gradually released in the form of ATP molecules through a series of controlled, stepwise reactions. Which of the following enables this controlled, stepwise release of energy?

1. Enzymes 2. Minerals
3.Vitamins            4. Hormones
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117.Which option correctly describes the equations for curves (a) and (b), in the given graph of species-area relationship?

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118. Assertion (A): The respiratory rhythm centre in the medulla oblongata is primarily responsible for the basic rhythm of respiration, but it can be moderated by the pneumotaxic centre in the pons.

Reason (R): Chemosensitive areas in the medulla are highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺ ions, while peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies) respond mainly to changes in O₂ concentration (and to some extent CO₂ and H⁺).

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

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1

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3

4
None

119. A plant exhibits two morphologically distinct phases: one is photosynthetic and independent, while the other is reduced, nutritionally dependent, and produces spores via meiosis. The dominant phase produces gametes by mitosis. Identify the correct classification.

Diplontic with reduced gametophyte

Haplo-diplontic with dominant gametophyte.

Haplo-diplontic with dominant sporophyte.

Haplontic with parasitic sporophyte

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120. What is the first phase of translation

1. aminoacylation of tRNA
2. Recognition of anticodon
3. binding of mRNA to ribosome
4. recognition of DNA molecule
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121. The property of muscle that allows it to be stretched and return to original length is

1. Excitability 2. Contractility
3. Elasticity 4. Extensibility
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1

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3

4
None

122. Match List-I with List-II

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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1

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None

123. Many Ribosomes can be associated in a single mRNA in order to create large copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. What are these strings of ribosomes called

Polyhedral Bodies

Histones

Polysomes

Plastidome

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124. The structured observed by Henking in the sperms of insects was later given the name

X-body 2. X-chromosome

X-structure 4. Y-body

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1

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3

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None

125. What does the given symbol represent in a pedigree chart

Consanguineous mating

Mating

Carrier for x-linked disorder

Genetic disorder free parents

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1

2

3

4
None

126. Match List-I with List-II

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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127. Pick out the wrong statement

1. Histones are rich in Lysine and Arginine
2. Histones contain 8 molecules
3. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic
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1

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128. Consider the following statements about gametogenesis in humans:
A. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life.
B. Oogenesis begins in fetal life, with primary oocytes arrested in prophase-I until puberty.
C. Both processes involve equal cytoplasmic division, producing four functional gametes.
D. Sertoli cells provide nourishment to developing spermatids, while in oogenesis, follicular cells (granulosa) perform a similar role.

Which combination contains the incorrect statement(s)?

A and C 2. A and D

3. B and C 4. C only

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129. Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane in plant cells is impermeable to NADH.
Reason (R): Shuttle mechanisms like the malate-aspartate shuttle are used to transport electrons from cytoplasmic NADH into the mitochondria.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true
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1

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130. Select the correct statement
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome

B and D only 2. A and E only

B and C only 4. A and C only

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131. Secondary follicles can be distinguished from primary follicles with the help of

Granulosa cells covering

Presence of antrum

Presence of theca layer

All of these

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132. From the statements given below choose the correct option
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S

A B E are true 2. A B C are true

A B D are true 4. C B E are true

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133. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

1. It produces oxygen as the end product.
2. It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
3. It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
4. It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration
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1

2

3

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None

134. A 39 year old female have 3 children. If menses start at the age of 13 year, then calculate the number of secondary oocyte and ova produced till age

312 secondary oocyte and 39 ova

300 secondary oocyte and 3 ova

312 secondary oocyte and 3 ova

290 secondary oocyte and 39 ova

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1

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3

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None

135. Given below are two statements.

Statement I In C₂ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased.
Statement II In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration, while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

Statement I is false, but Statement Il is true

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1

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None

136. During aerobic respiration in plants, how many molecules of ATP are directly produced from one molecule of glucose via substrate-level phosphorylation?

1. 2                       2. 1
3. 6                       4. 8Deselect Answer

1

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137. The male sex accessory ducts include

Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle

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1

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None

138. Which of these bonds is least likely to stabilize the three-dimensional folding of proteins?

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Hydrophobic interactions
3. Electrostatic interactions
4. Ester bonds
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1

2

3

4
None

139. Plants that sustain high photosynthetic rates even in hot conditions, show reduced losses from photorespiration, better efficiency in using water and more effective use of nitrogen. Which photosynthetic pathway or physiological type best describes this plant?

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1

2

3

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140. Select the incorrect statement regarding contraceptives

They are regular requirement for the maintenance of reproductive health

They have a significant role in checking uncontrolled population growth

They are practiced against a natural reproductive effects like conception or pregnancy

The possible side-effects are nausea, vomiting and irregular menstrual bleeding

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141. Which of the following is a non-proteinaceous enzyme?

Lysozyme

Ribozyme

Deoxyribonuclease

Carboxypeptidase

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1

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3

4
None

142. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

First positive then negative and continue to be negative

First negative then positive and continue to be positive

First positive then negative and again back to positive

First negative then positive and again back to negative

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1

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3

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None

143. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their incidence is very high among persons in the age group

1. 12 – 18 years 2. 18 – 29 years
2. 20 – 30 years 4. 15 – 24 years
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1

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None

144. Match the following
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1

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145. In the Krebs cycle of plant respiration, the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate involves:

Substrate-level phosphorylation

Oxidative decarboxylation

Photophosphorylation

Reduction of FAD⁺

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146. A person suffering from AIDS is given a vaccine for a bacterial disease. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

The vaccine will provide active immunity as the person’s B-cells are still functional.

The vaccine may not be effective because of severe depletion of helper T-cells, which are required for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

The person will develop full immunity because macrophages can still process antigens.

Only IgM will be produced, providing short-term protection.

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1

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None

147. At a temperature above 35°c

Rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis

There is no fixed pattern

Rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration

Both declines simultaneously

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

148. Assertion (A): Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before organ transplantation.
Reason (R): The patient has to take immunosuppressants lifelong after transplantation to prevent graft rejection.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true but (R) is false.

(A) is false but (R) is true.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149. In a population under Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, if selection removes homozygous recessive individuals, what happens initially?

p increases, q decreases

p decreases, q increases

Both remain constant

Only genotype frequency changes, not allele frequency

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1

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4
None

150. Immunological memory exists in

Active immunity

Passive immunity

Innate immunity

Both active and passive immunity

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None

151. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Hypothalamus links nervous and endocrine systems

Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by infundibulum

Anterior pituitary secretes tropic hormones

Posterior pituitary synthesizes ADH

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1

2

3

4
None

152. Salmonella typhi affects _______ to cause typhoid

Heart

Lungs

Intestine

Liver

Deselect Answer

1

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None

153. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location:-

Smooth muscle, show branching, found in the walls of heart

Striated muscle, tapering at both ends, attached with the bones of the ribs

Skeletal muscle, shows striations, attached with bones of limbs

Cardiac muscle, unbranched, found in walls of heart

Deselect Answer

1

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154. In a dihybrid cross, parental combinations are 80% and recombinants are 20%. What is the distance between genes?

10 cm

20 cm

40 cm

80 cm

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1

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3

4
None

155. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

1) They do not need to reproduce.
2) They are somatic cells.
3) They do not metabolise.
4) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.

Only 1

1,3 and 4

2 and 3

Only 4

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1

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4
None

156. A hormone that:

is derived from amino acids

acts via nuclear receptors

shows long half-life

Thyroxine

Adrenaline

Insulin

Glucagon

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157. According to Charles Darwin, which is the unit of selection?

Gene

Population

Individual

Species

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1

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158. A small population migrates to an island. The allele frequencies differ from original population. Over generations, rare alleles become common due to chance.
This involves:

Gene flow + natural selection

Founder effect + genetic drift

Mutation + recombination

Stabilizing selection

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1

2

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None

159. The mitotic spindle fibres are primarily composed of which of the following, and their assembly is directly inhibited by colchicine?

Actin filaments

Intermediate filaments

Tubulin dimer

Myosin fibres

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1

2

3

4
None

160.

4. Corolla arranged in twisted aestivation
Deselect Answer

1

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None

161. Assertion (A): PCR can amplify DNA exponentially.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase works in both directions.

Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true, R is false

A is false, R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162. Which of the following characteristics represent inheritance of blood groups in humans?

A. Dominance
B. Co-dominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Multiple allelism
E. Polygene

A, C, E

A, B, D

C, D, E

B, C, D

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1

2

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None

163. Which statement is correct regarding Morgan’s experiment?

Only parental combinations are formed

Recombinants are always more than parental

Parental combinations are more frequent than recombinants

No variation occurs

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1

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3

4
None

164. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans:
a) Platelets
b) Neutrophils
c) Erythrocytes
d) Eosinophils
e) Monocytes

a, c, b, d, e

. c, a, b, e, d

c, b, a, e, d

d, e, b, a,c

Deselect Answer

1

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165. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after

Anaphase

Telophase

Metaphase

Prophase

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1

2

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4
None

166. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The atrio ventricular node AVN generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

Blood moves freely from the atria to the ventricle during joint diastole

Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167. Assertion (A): Morgan preferred Drosophila melanogaster for experiments
Reason (R): It has a short life cycle and many visible traits

Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true, R is false

A is false, R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168. Which organism is genetically engineered to produce α-1-antitrypsin for treating emphysema?

Transgenic cow

Transgenic sheep

Transgenic mice

Transgenic bacteria

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169. Which Indian law prevents the unauthorized exploitation of bio-resources?

Indian Patents Bill

Environment Protection Act

Biodiversity Act

Forest Conservation Act

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1

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None

170. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produces crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes
death of the insect.
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.

Choose the correct sequence of steps from
the options given below:
1. E,C,B,A,D
2. B,C,A,E,D
3. A,E,B,D,C
4. B,E,C,A,DDeselect Answer

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171. An organism with two different alleles is

Homozygous for the trait

Homozygous for the allele

Heterozygous for the trait

Heterologous for the allele

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1

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172.

1. A−2,B−1,C−4,D−3
2. A−3,B−1,C−2,D−4
3. A−2,B−4,C−1,D−3
4. A−3,B−4,C−1,D−2
Deselect Answer

1

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173. Identify INCORRECT statement:

Cretinism occurs in children

Myxedema occurs in adults

Graves’ disease involves hypothyroidism

Goitre involves thyroid enlargement

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1

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None

174. At the end of glycolysis, X is the net energy gain from one molecule of glucose via Y, but there is also energy stored in the form of Z. Identify X, Y and Z

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175. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cell of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells –

Malpighian layer of skin

osteocytes

Liver cell

Neurons

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176. Transformation experiment of Griffith explains

nature of viruses that infect bacteria

ingredients of culture medium

chemical substance released by S-type of bacteria

chemical substance released by R-type of bacteria.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of Hibiscus sinensisis

Monoadelphous

Polyandrous

Diadelphous

Polyadelphous.

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4
None

178.
Deselect Answer

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179. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are :

without nucleus, but with hemoglobin

very much smaller and fewer

nucleated with hemoglobin

nucleated without hemoglobin

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180. Microbodies, which help to convert stored lipids into carbohydrates so they can be used for plant growth, are known as:

1. Peroxisomes
2. Sphaerosomes
3. Glyoxysomes
4. Lysosomes

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None
April 11, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XX (11.04.2026)
Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XX (11.04.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

The current in the given circuit is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s. The charge on the capacitor at an instant when the current in the circuit is 2 A will be

1. 4 μC
2. 5 μC
3. 6 μC
4. None of theseDeselect Answer

1

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None

2. The electric field due to line charge distribution varies as

Deselect Answer

1

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4
None

3. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

May be all positive

May be all negative

Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases

Always zero

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. Assertion: At resonance, current is maximum.
Reason: Impedance is minimum.

Both (A) and (R) true, (R) explains (A)

Both (A) and (R) true, (R) does not explan (A)

A is true, R is false

Both are false

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. The wavelength of light diminishes m times (μ=1.33 for water) in a medium. From inside water a diver looks at an object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as:

Green

2. Blue

Yellow

4. Red

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6. The electric potential due to an electric dipole varies as
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be:

5I

3I

6I

4I

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

8. A square loop carrying a current 𝑖 is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current 𝐼 is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will:

Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

Move away from the wire to towards right

Move towards the wire

Remain stationary

Deselect Answer

1

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4
None

9. The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 𝜔𝑡 + b cos 𝜔𝑡

Deselect Answer

1

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None

10.
Deselect Answer

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11. The number of spectral lines when an electron jumps from fourth excited state to ground state is

6

10

15

3

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1

2

3

4
None

12. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto glass (n = 1.5) at polarising angle:

Reflected light is polarized 100 percent

Reflected &refracted beams are partially polarized

Reflected & refracted beams are completely polarized

Refracted light is polarized 100 percent

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1

2

3

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None

13. What percentage of the potential energy is gained by the body in rising through a height equal to the radius of the Earth. Assuming that the gravitational potential energy of a body infinite distance away from Earth is zero.

1%

10%

50%

20%

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1

2

3

4
None

14.
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None

15.
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None

16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁= 12000 Å and λ₂ = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen, 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

6mm

4mm

3mm

2mm

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1

2

3

4
None

17. At what height above the surface of Earth of radius R will the acceleration due to gravity be reduced by 0.1%?

R/100

R/200

R/1000

R/2000

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1

2

3

4
None

18.
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None

19.
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None

20.
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None

21. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 7 R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 3R from the surface of earth is:

6 hours

8 hours

6√2 hours

8√2 hours

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1

2

3

4
None

22.
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None

23.
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None

24.
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None

25. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?

Electric field and potential

Electric field and charge density

Electric potential and charge density.

Electric field, potential and charge density.

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1

2

3

4
None

26.
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1

2

3

4
None

27. For a gas, the r.m.s speed at 800 K is:

Four times the value at 200 K

Half the value at 200 K

Twice the value at 200 K

Same as at 200 K

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1

2

3

4
None

28.
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None

29.
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None

30. If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is doubled then the capacitance

Decreases two times

Increases two times

Increases four times

Remain the same

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1

2

3

4
None

31.
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None

32.
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None

33.
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None

34.
A river of width 200 𝑚 is flowing from west
to east with a speed of 18 𝑘𝑚/ℎ. A boat,
moving with speed of 36 𝑘𝑚/ℎ in still
water, is made to travel one-round trip (bank
to bank of the river). Minimum time taken
by the boat for this journey and also the
displacement along the river bank are
respectively

1. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0 𝑚
2. 40𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 𝑚
3. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 100 𝑚
4. 20𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 200 �
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1

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3

4
None

35.
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None

36.
Two balls with same mass and initial
velocity, are projected at different angles in
such a way that maximum height reached by
first ball is 4 times higher than that of the
second ball. 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are the total flying
times of first and second ball, respectively,
then the ratio of 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is
1. 1∶ 1
2. 1∶ 2
3. 2∶ 1
4. 4∶ 1
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1

2

3

4
None

37.

1. 16
2. 64
3. 120
4. 160
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1

2

3

4
None

38. In an experiment, a set of reading are
obtained as follows: 1.24 𝑚𝑚, 1.25 𝑚𝑚,
1.23 𝑚𝑚, 1.21 𝑚𝑚. The expected least
count of the instrument used in recording
these readings is

1. 0.02 mm
2. 0.01 mm
3. 0.1 mm
4. 0.05 mm
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1

2

3

4
None

39.
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1

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None

40.
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1

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3

4
None

41. In the given figure the blocks 𝐶 and 𝐵 weigh
8 𝑘𝑔 and 6 𝑘𝑔 respectively. The co-efficient
of sliding friction between any two surfaces
is 0.5. The force required to slide the
block 𝐶 with constant speed is
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1

2

3

4
None

42.
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1

2

3

4
None

43. A bus moving along a straight highway with
speed of 72 𝑘𝑚/ℎ is brought to halt
within 4𝑠 after applying the brakes. The
distance travelled by the bus during this time
(Assume the retardation is uniform) is

1. 40 𝑚
2. 25 𝑚
3. 30 𝑚
4. 15 𝑚
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1

2

3

4
None

44.
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1

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3

4
None

45. Which of the following are false for
electromagnetic wave?
1. Transverse
2. Longitudinal
3. Produced by accelerating charge
4. Mechanical Waves
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1

2

3

4
None

CHEMISTRY
46.

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2

3

4
None

47. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

1. Mercury
2. Potassium
3. Iodine
4. Oxygen
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1

2

3

4
None

48.

Total number of alkali insoluble solid sulphonamides obtained by reaction of given amines with Hinsberg’s reagent is____.

Aniline, N-Methylaniline, Methanamine, N,N-Dimethylmethanamine, N-Methyl methanamine, Phenylmethanamine, N-propylaniline, N-phenylaniline, N,N-Dimethylaniline, Allyl amine, Isopropyl amine

8

5

2

4

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1

2

3

4
None

49. An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol. When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H₂O₂, a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The blue colour is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen atoms bonded to chromium through only single bonds in a molecule of X?

1. 0.5
2. 5
3. 4
4. 1.5
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1

2

3

4
None

50. For the following cell reaction
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1

2

3

4
None

51.
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1

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3

4
None

52.
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None

53. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2?

1. 9.0 L
2. 0.1 L
3. 0.9 L
4. 2.0 L

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1

2

3

4
None

54.

(A) < (B) < (C) < (D)

(B) < (A) < (C) < (D)

(B) < (A) < (D) < (C)

(A) < (B) < (D) < (C)

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1

2

3

4
None

55. Which one of the following pairs will not form an ideal solution?

1. Benzene and Toluene
2. n-Hexane and n-Heptane
3. Ethanol and Acetone
4. Bromoethane and Chloroethane

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1

2

3

4
None

56. In the following sequence of reactions,the product D is:
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1

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3

4
None

57. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapour pressure decreases from 650 mm Hg to 640 mm Hg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is __. (Given data: Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol⁻¹ and 5.12 K kg mol⁻¹ respectively)

1. 0.1
2.1.12
3. 2.5
4. 1.01
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1

2

3

4
None

58. Following statements regarding the periodic trends of chemical reactivity of the alkali metals and the halogens are giv Which of these statements gives the correct picture?

1. The reactivity decreases in the alkali metals but increases in the halogens with increase in atomic number down the group
2. In both the alkali metals and the halogens the chemical reactivity decreases with increase in atomic number down the group.
3. Chemical reactivity increases with increase in atomic number down the group in both the alkali metals and halogens.
4. In alkali metals the reactivity increases but in the halogens it decreases with increase in atomic number down the
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None

59.
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None

60. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapour pressures of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar?

1. 1
2. 0.20
3. 2
4. 1.20

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1

2

3

4
None

61.
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3

4
None

62.
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1

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3

4
None

63. Under ambient conditions, the total number
of gases released as products in the final step
of the reaction scheme shown below is
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3

4
None

64.
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4
None

65.
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None

66.
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None

67.
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4
None

68.
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2

3

4
None

69.
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2

3

4
None

70.
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2

3

4
None

71.
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2

3

4
None

72.
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2

3

4
None

73.
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2

3

4
None

74.
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2

3

4
None

75.
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2

3

4
None

76.

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2

3

4
None

77.

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2

3

4
None

78.
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2

3

4
None

79.
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2

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4
None

80.
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2

3

4
None

81.The descending order of basicity of following amines is:
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1

2

3

4
None

82.
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1

2

3

4
None

83.
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1

2

3

4
None

84. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, 8
moles of permanganate anion quantitatively
oxidise thiosulphate anions to produce X
moles of a sulphur containing product. The
magnitude of X is

1. 7
2. 6
3. 8
4. 4
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1

2

3

4
None

85. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.

Statement II: The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields amine as final product.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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1

2

3

4
None

86.
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1

2

3

4
None

87. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L^-1 s^-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.01M to 0.075M.

1. 8.49s
2. 8.33s
3. 7.96s
4. 7.53s
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1

2

3

4
None

88.
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1

2

3

4
None

89. 2 grams of metal carbonate is neutralized
completely by 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl. The
equivalent wt. of metal carbonate is

1. 50
3. 150
2. 100
4. 20
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1

2

3

4
None

90.

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1

2

3

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None

BIOLOGY

91. According to early man, the common feature of inanimate and animate objects was

1. The sense of awe
2. Their growing ability
3. Constant movement
4. All of the above
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1

2

3

4
None

92. During which stages (or prophase I substages) of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents and DNA replication respectively?

1. Pachytene and interphase (between two meiotic divisions)
2. Pachytene and interphase (just prior to prophase I)
3. Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just prior to prophase I)
4. Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior to prophase I)
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1

2

3

4
None

93. Through which of the following experiments the second proof of DNA being the genetic material was provided?

1. X-ray crystallographic studies
2. Phage infection to bacteria
3. Bacterial translocation
4. Bacterial transformation

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1

2

3

4
None

94. Statement I: The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a lipid bi-layer called aleurone layer.

Statement II: The plumule and radical are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile and coleorhizae respectively.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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1

2

3

4
None

95. The following figure represents a diagrammatic sectional view of

Coelomate

Pseudocoelomate

Acoelomate

None of the above

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1

2

3

4
None

96. Enzymes that catalyse the substrate level phosphorylation reaction in glycolysis belong to

oxidoreductases

transferases

hydrolases

ligases

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1

2

3

4
None

97. Observe the following statements and choose how many of them are true
i. Annelids are metamerically segmented with true coelom
ii. Arthropods are characterized by the presence of jointed appendages
iii. Molluscs have calcareous exoskeleton
iv. Some vertebrates do not possess jaws (Gnathostomata) while most of them possess jaws (Agnatha)
v. Classes Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes bear fins for locomotion

2 2. 3

4 4. 5

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1

2

3

4
None

98. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:
A. Crossing over
B. Synapsis
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata
D. Disappearance of nucleolus

1. B, C, D, A 2. B, A, D, C
2. B, A, C, D 3.A, B, C, D
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1

2

3

4
None

99. If a compound that allows protons to freely diffuse across a membrane is added to cells that are actively metabolising glucose via cellular respiration which of the following processes would get affected?

Electron Transport chain

Chemiosmotic synthesis of ATP

ATP synthesis

All of these

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1

2

3

4
None

100. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.

Choose the set of incorrect statement(s)

from the following options.

i and ii 2. ii, iii and iv

i, ii and iii 4. i only

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1

2

3

4
None

101. Anaerobic respiration produces very little energy as compared to aerobic respiration because

there is incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate

NADH produced during glycolysis is often used up

electron transport chain is absent

all of these

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1

2

3

4
None

102. Protonema is:

1. Haploid and is found in mosses
2. Diploid and is found in liverworts
3. Diploid and is found in mosses
4. Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
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1

2

3

4
None

103. Assertion (A): The countercurrent mechanism in the kidney helps in concentrating urine.

Reason (R): It operates in the loop of Henle and vasa recta, creating an osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true

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1

2

3

4
None

104. A population is observed:
I. At time t₁: N < K/2
II. At time t₂: N = K/2
III. At time t₃: N > K
Which of the following is correct?

(a) Growth rate at t₂ > t₁(b) Growth rate at t₃ is negative
(c) Environmental resistance is maximum at t₃(d) Population at t₁ is in deceleration phase

(a), (b) and (c)

(a) and (b) only

(b) and (d) only

All are correct

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1

2

3

4
None

105. Pick out the wrong statement.

The first product of Krebs’ cycle is Acetyl CoA

a-ketoglutarate is formed by the decarboxylation of oxalosuccinate

a-ketoglutarate is both dehydrogenated and decarboxylated by a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.

Succinate dehydrogenase is a membrane-bound enzyme that catalyses the dehydrogenation of succinate

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1

2

3

4
None

106. In a leaf abscission study:
I. Auxin level decreases gradually
II. Ethylene production increases
At which ratio is leaf fall most likely to occur?

High auxin : low ethylene

Equal auxin : ethylene

Low auxin : high ethylene

High auxin : high ethylene

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1

2

3

4
None

107. Which set of conditions favours activation of the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism?

1. High GFR, high blood volume, high Na⁺ in DCT
2. Fall in glomerular blood flow, fall in GFR, low blood pressure
3. High atrial stretch, release of ANF
4. High ADH levels independent of osmolarity
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1

2

3

4
None

108. Select the option that correctly identifies the family of mustard plant and its main characters

Brassicaceae: tetramerous flowers, six stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, capsule or schizocarp fruit

Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, many stamens, pentacarpellary gynoecium, capsule type fruit.

Brassicaceae: pentamerous flowers, five stamens, bicarpellary gynoecium, berry type fruit.

Brassicaceae: trimerous flowers, three

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1

2

3

4
None

109. Pick out the wrong statement.

Three German scientists Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof and J.Parnas discovered Glycolysis

In preparatory phase of glycolysis glucose is broken down to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.

In the Krebs cycle, during the formation of phosphoenol pyruvate, the phosphate group gains energy and assists in generating ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.

Malate dehydrogenase catalyses the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate

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1

2

3

4
None

110. A unicellular organism shows: Cell wall, photosynthetic pigments in thylakoids (not chloroplasts), no membrane-bound organelles and reproduction by binary fission. Which group does it belong to?

1. Protista 2. Cyanobacteria
2. Fungi 4. Euglenoids
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1

2

3

4
None

111. Read the following statements carefully:
I. In alveoli, is approximately 104 mm Hg and is 40 mm Hg, while in deoxygenated blood reaching the alveoli, is 40 mm Hg and is 45 mm Hg.
II. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of to the tissues under normal conditions.
III. The solubility of is about 20-25 times higher than that of O₂, which is the major reason why a major part of CO₂ is transported in the form of bicarbonate.
IV. The binding of CO₂ to haemoglobin is related to the Haldane effect, while the release of O₂ from oxyhaemoglobin is favoured by the Bohr effect
Which of the above statements are correct?

I and II only 2. II and III only

I, II and III only 4. I, II, III and IV

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1

2

3

4
None

112. A cell shows increased breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.
Which organelle is primarily responsible, and why?

Lysosome, due to acidic enzymes.

Peroxisome, due to oxidases and catalase.

Mitochondria, due to ATP production.

Golgi apparatus, due to protein modification

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1

2

3

4
None

113. “A” is essential in the tricarboxylic acid cycle and is also a component of complex II in the electron transport chain. Its activity is inhibited by a three-carbon dicarboxylic acid compound (Y), which acts as a competitive inhibitor of “B”.
Identify A and B

A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Malonate

A: Succinyl-CoA synthase; B: Malonate

A: Succinate dehydrogenase; B: Erythromycin

A: a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase; B: Pyruvate

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1

2

3

4
None

114. An athlete has TV = 500 ml, ERV = 1100 ml, and RV = 1200 ml. His inspiratory capacity (IC) is 3500 ml. What is his expiratory capacity and functional residual capacity (FRC) respectively?

1600 ml and 2300 ml

1700 ml and 2300 ml

1600 ml and 2400 ml

1700 ml and 2400 ml

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1

2

3

4
None

115. A diploid cell (2n = 10) undergoes meiosis. If 20 such cells enter meiosis, how many total chromosomes will be present in all the gametes formed?

1. 200 2. 100
3. 400 4. 50
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1

2

3

4
None

116. The energy stored in respiratory substrates after cellular oxidation is not directly released into the cell for other functions. Instead, this energy is gradually released in the form of ATP molecules through a series of controlled, stepwise reactions. Which of the following enables this controlled, stepwise release of energy?

1. Enzymes 2. Minerals
3.Vitamins            4. Hormones
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1

2

3

4
None

117.Which option correctly describes the equations for curves (a) and (b), in the given graph of species-area relationship?

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1

2

3

4
None

118. Assertion (A): The respiratory rhythm centre in the medulla oblongata is primarily responsible for the basic rhythm of respiration, but it can be moderated by the pneumotaxic centre in the pons.

Reason (R): Chemosensitive areas in the medulla are highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺ ions, while peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies) respond mainly to changes in O₂ concentration (and to some extent CO₂ and H⁺).

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119. A plant exhibits two morphologically distinct phases: one is photosynthetic and independent, while the other is reduced, nutritionally dependent, and produces spores via meiosis. The dominant phase produces gametes by mitosis. Identify the correct classification.

Diplontic with reduced gametophyte

Haplo-diplontic with dominant gametophyte.

Haplo-diplontic with dominant sporophyte.

Haplontic with parasitic sporophyte

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1

2

3

4
None

120. What is the first phase of translation

1. aminoacylation of tRNA
2. Recognition of anticodon
3. binding of mRNA to ribosome
4. recognition of DNA molecule
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1

2

3

4
None

121. The property of muscle that allows it to be stretched and return to original length is

1. Excitability 2. Contractility
3. Elasticity 4. Extensibility
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1

2

3

4
None

122. Match List-I with List-II

A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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1

2

3

4
None

123. Many Ribosomes can be associated in a single mRNA in order to create large copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. What are these strings of ribosomes called

Polyhedral Bodies

Histones

Polysomes

Plastidome

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1

2

3

4
None

124. The structured observed by Henking in the sperms of insects was later given the name

X-body 2. X-chromosome

X-structure 4. Y-body

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1

2

3

4
None

125. What does the given symbol represent in a pedigree chart

Consanguineous mating

Mating

Carrier for x-linked disorder

Genetic disorder free parents

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126. Match List-I with List-II

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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1

2

3

4
None

127. Pick out the wrong statement

1. Histones are rich in Lysine and Arginine
2. Histones contain 8 molecules
3. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128. Consider the following statements about gametogenesis in humans:
A. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues throughout life.
B. Oogenesis begins in fetal life, with primary oocytes arrested in prophase-I until puberty.
C. Both processes involve equal cytoplasmic division, producing four functional gametes.
D. Sertoli cells provide nourishment to developing spermatids, while in oogenesis, follicular cells (granulosa) perform a similar role.

Which combination contains the incorrect statement(s)?

A and C 2. A and D

3. B and C 4. C only

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129. Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane in plant cells is impermeable to NADH.
Reason (R): Shuttle mechanisms like the malate-aspartate shuttle are used to transport electrons from cytoplasmic NADH into the mitochondria.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130. Select the correct statement
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.
B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome

B and D only 2. A and E only

B and C only 4. A and C only

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

131. Secondary follicles can be distinguished from primary follicles with the help of

Granulosa cells covering

Presence of antrum

Presence of theca layer

All of these

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132. From the statements given below choose the correct option
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S

A B E are true 2. A B C are true

A B D are true 4. C B E are true

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

133. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

1. It produces oxygen as the end product.
2. It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
3. It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
4. It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

134. A 39 year old female have 3 children. If menses start at the age of 13 year, then calculate the number of secondary oocyte and ova produced till age

312 secondary oocyte and 39 ova

300 secondary oocyte and 3 ova

312 secondary oocyte and 3 ova

290 secondary oocyte and 39 ova

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135. Given below are two statements.

Statement I In C₂ plants, some O₂ binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased.
Statement II In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration, while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

Statement I is false, but Statement Il is true

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

136. During aerobic respiration in plants, how many molecules of ATP are directly produced from one molecule of glucose via substrate-level phosphorylation?

1. 2                       2. 1
3. 6                       4. 8Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

137. The male sex accessory ducts include

Rete testis, urethra, epididymis and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, seminal vesicle and vas deferens

Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and seminal vesicle

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

138. Which of these bonds is least likely to stabilize the three-dimensional folding of proteins?

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Hydrophobic interactions
3. Electrostatic interactions
4. Ester bonds
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139. Plants that sustain high photosynthetic rates even in hot conditions, show reduced losses from photorespiration, better efficiency in using water and more effective use of nitrogen. Which photosynthetic pathway or physiological type best describes this plant?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

140. Select the incorrect statement regarding contraceptives

They are regular requirement for the maintenance of reproductive health

They have a significant role in checking uncontrolled population growth

They are practiced against a natural reproductive effects like conception or pregnancy

The possible side-effects are nausea, vomiting and irregular menstrual bleeding

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141. Which of the following is a non-proteinaceous enzyme?

Lysozyme

Ribozyme

Deoxyribonuclease

Carboxypeptidase

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?

First positive then negative and continue to be negative

First negative then positive and continue to be positive

First positive then negative and again back to positive

First negative then positive and again back to negative

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

143. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their incidence is very high among persons in the age group

1. 12 – 18 years 2. 18 – 29 years
2. 20 – 30 years 4. 15 – 24 years
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

144. Match the following
Deselect Answer

1

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None

145. In the Krebs cycle of plant respiration, the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate involves:

Substrate-level phosphorylation

Oxidative decarboxylation

Photophosphorylation

Reduction of FAD⁺

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146. A person suffering from AIDS is given a vaccine for a bacterial disease. Which of the following is most likely to happen?

The vaccine will provide active immunity as the person’s B-cells are still functional.

The vaccine may not be effective because of severe depletion of helper T-cells, which are required for both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

The person will develop full immunity because macrophages can still process antigens.

Only IgM will be produced, providing short-term protection.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147. At a temperature above 35°c

Rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis

There is no fixed pattern

Rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration

Both declines simultaneously

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

148. Assertion (A): Tissue matching and blood group matching are essential before organ transplantation.
Reason (R): The patient has to take immunosuppressants lifelong after transplantation to prevent graft rejection.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(A) is true but (R) is false.

(A) is false but (R) is true.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149. In a population under Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, if selection removes homozygous recessive individuals, what happens initially?

p increases, q decreases

p decreases, q increases

Both remain constant

Only genotype frequency changes, not allele frequency

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

150. Immunological memory exists in

Active immunity

Passive immunity

Innate immunity

Both active and passive immunity

Deselect Answer

1

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None

151. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Hypothalamus links nervous and endocrine systems

Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by infundibulum

Anterior pituitary secretes tropic hormones

Posterior pituitary synthesizes ADH

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

152. Salmonella typhi affects _______ to cause typhoid

Heart

Lungs

Intestine

Liver

Deselect Answer

1

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4
None

153. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location:-

Smooth muscle, show branching, found in the walls of heart

Striated muscle, tapering at both ends, attached with the bones of the ribs

Skeletal muscle, shows striations, attached with bones of limbs

Cardiac muscle, unbranched, found in walls of heart

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

154. In a dihybrid cross, parental combinations are 80% and recombinants are 20%. What is the distance between genes?

10 cm

20 cm

40 cm

80 cm

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

155. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

1) They do not need to reproduce.
2) They are somatic cells.
3) They do not metabolise.
4) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.

Only 1

1,3 and 4

2 and 3

Only 4

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156. A hormone that:

is derived from amino acids

acts via nuclear receptors

shows long half-life

Thyroxine

Adrenaline

Insulin

Glucagon

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157. According to Charles Darwin, which is the unit of selection?

Gene

Population

Individual

Species

Deselect Answer

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None

158. A small population migrates to an island. The allele frequencies differ from original population. Over generations, rare alleles become common due to chance.
This involves:

Gene flow + natural selection

Founder effect + genetic drift

Mutation + recombination

Stabilizing selection

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159. The mitotic spindle fibres are primarily composed of which of the following, and their assembly is directly inhibited by colchicine?

Actin filaments

Intermediate filaments

Tubulin dimer

Myosin fibres

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

160.

4. Corolla arranged in twisted aestivation
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

161. Assertion (A): PCR can amplify DNA exponentially.
Reason (R): DNA polymerase works in both directions.

Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true, R is false

A is false, R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162. Which of the following characteristics represent inheritance of blood groups in humans?

A. Dominance
B. Co-dominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Multiple allelism
E. Polygene

A, C, E

A, B, D

C, D, E

B, C, D

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

163. Which statement is correct regarding Morgan’s experiment?

Only parental combinations are formed

Recombinants are always more than parental

Parental combinations are more frequent than recombinants

No variation occurs

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

164. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans:
a) Platelets
b) Neutrophils
c) Erythrocytes
d) Eosinophils
e) Monocytes

a, c, b, d, e

. c, a, b, e, d

c, b, a, e, d

d, e, b, a,c

Deselect Answer

1

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None

165. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon after

Anaphase

Telophase

Metaphase

Prophase

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

166. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The atrio ventricular node AVN generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction

The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria

Blood moves freely from the atria to the ventricle during joint diastole

Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167. Assertion (A): Morgan preferred Drosophila melanogaster for experiments
Reason (R): It has a short life cycle and many visible traits

Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true, R is false

A is false, R is true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168. Which organism is genetically engineered to produce α-1-antitrypsin for treating emphysema?

Transgenic cow

Transgenic sheep

Transgenic mice

Transgenic bacteria

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169. Which Indian law prevents the unauthorized exploitation of bio-resources?

Indian Patents Bill

Environment Protection Act

Biodiversity Act

Forest Conservation Act

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

170. Following are the steps involved in action of toxin in Bt. Cotton
A. The inactive toxin converted into active form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
B. Bacillus thuringiensis produces crystals with toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
D. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut cells, creates pores and causes
death of the insect.
E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive protoxins in bacteria.

Choose the correct sequence of steps from
the options given below:
1. E,C,B,A,D
2. B,C,A,E,D
3. A,E,B,D,C
4. B,E,C,A,DDeselect Answer

1

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None

171. An organism with two different alleles is

Homozygous for the trait

Homozygous for the allele

Heterozygous for the trait

Heterologous for the allele

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

172.

1. A−2,B−1,C−4,D−3
2. A−3,B−1,C−2,D−4
3. A−2,B−4,C−1,D−3
4. A−3,B−4,C−1,D−2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

173. Identify INCORRECT statement:

Cretinism occurs in children

Myxedema occurs in adults

Graves’ disease involves hypothyroidism

Goitre involves thyroid enlargement

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

174. At the end of glycolysis, X is the net energy gain from one molecule of glucose via Y, but there is also energy stored in the form of Z. Identify X, Y and Z

Deselect Answer

1

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None

175. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cell of the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells –

Malpighian layer of skin

osteocytes

Liver cell

Neurons

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176. Transformation experiment of Griffith explains

nature of viruses that infect bacteria

ingredients of culture medium

chemical substance released by S-type of bacteria

chemical substance released by R-type of bacteria.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of Hibiscus sinensisis

Monoadelphous

Polyandrous

Diadelphous

Polyadelphous.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178.
Deselect Answer

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None

179. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are :

without nucleus, but with hemoglobin

very much smaller and fewer

nucleated with hemoglobin

nucleated without hemoglobin

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

180. Microbodies, which help to convert stored lipids into carbohydrates so they can be used for plant growth, are known as:

1. Peroxisomes
2. Sphaerosomes
3. Glyoxysomes
4. Lysosomes

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None
April 10, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XIX (08.04.2026)

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XIX (08.04.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

1.

PHYSICS

1. A small circular loop of radius r is placed in the plane of a square loop of side length L(r << L). A circular loop is at the center of the square as shown in the figure. The mutual inductance of the given system is:

Deselect Answer

1

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4
None

2.

2. A particle of mass 5m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each move along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v each. The energy released during the process is:

1. 3/5 mv²2. 5/3 mv²
3. 3/2 mv²
4. 4/3 mv²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. In the pulley system shown, a light, inextensible rope passes over a fixed, frictionless pulley and supports a movable pulley that carries a mass m. One end of the rope is pulled slowly at a constant velocity, making an angle α with the horizontal. If the tension in the rope at the pulling end is T, what is the value of T?

1. mg cos α
2. mg sin α
3. mg
4. 1/2 mg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Consider two satellites, S₁ and S₂ with periods of revolution 1 hr and 8 hr, respectively revolving around a planet in circular orbits. The ratio of the angular velocity of the satellite S₁ to the angular velocity of the satellite S₂ is:

1. 8 :1
2. 1 :4
3. 2 :1
4. 1 :8
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation equal to 10% of the acceleration due to gravity. The maximum height will be decreased by: (Take g = 10 ms^-2)

1. 8%
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 11%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. In a moving coil galvanometer, if the number of turns in the coil increase by 25%, the change in voltage sensitivity is:

1. zero
2. 1%
3. 25%
4. 50%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. Two balls are thrown simultaneously in the air. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls while in the air.

1. depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
2. depends on the masses of the two balls
3. depends on the speeds of the two balls
4. is equal to g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. A wire of length ‘l‘ and resistance 100 Ω is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

1. 52 Ω
2. 55 Ω
3. 60 Ω
4. 26 Ω
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. Three particles move along the three sides of a triangle, ABC, starting from the three vertices simultaneously. Each covers one side of the triangle and reaches the next vertex; all the particles reaching their destinations at the same time. Suppose that the particles move at constant velocities: (see figure).

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom is 1.5 (h/π) .The energy in the same orbit is nearly:

1. -1.5 eV
2. -1.6 eV
3. -1.3 eV
4. -1.4 ev
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. An iron ball (water equivalent = 10g) at100 and a brass ball (water equivalent = 15g) at 80 are dropped into 100 g of water at 28 Assume no loss of heat. The final temperature of the mixture will be:

1. 30
2. 40
3. 60
4. 70
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. In the figure shown, a river of width 4 km is flowing with a speed of 5 km/h. A swimmer whose swimming speed relative to the water is 4km / h starts swimming from point A on the bank. On the other bank, B is a point that is directly opposite to A. At what angle with the downstream the man should swim so that he reaches point B directly?

1. 90°
2. 120°
3. 150°
4. Not possible
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

13.

13. A cubical block of mass M is at rest on a frictionless horizontal plane. A second block of mass m is placed atop the first, the coefficient of friction (static and kinetic) between them being 1/3. The upper block is pulled to the right by a horizontal force F. It is given that M = 2m.

It is observed that the two blocks move together. The force of friction between the blocks is;

1. 1/3 mg
2. 1/3 Mg
3. F/3
4. 2F/3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. The mean free path for a gas molecule depends upon the diameter, of the molecule as:

1. l∝1/d²
2. l∝d
3. l∝d²
4. l∝1/d
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. A 250 turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µA and subjected to the magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by against the torque is:

1. 4.55 μJ
2. 2.3 μJ
3. 1.15 μJ
4. 9.4 μJ
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A spherical equipotential surface is not possible for a point charge.
Reason (R): A spherical equipotential surface is possible inside an aspherical capacitor.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. A circular coil of radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 3.0× 10^-5 T with its plane perpendicular to the field initially. It is rotated at constant angular speed about an axis along the diameter of coil and perpendicular to magnetic field so that it undergoes half of rotation in 0.2 s. The maximum value of EMF induced (in μV) in the coil will be close to:

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. A simple pendulum is made with a thin wire (length: l, area: A, Young’s modulus: Y) attached to a heavy bob of mass M. The pendulum is released from the rest with the bob at the same level as the point of suspension and swings down in a circular are. The elongation in the wire when the bob reaches the lowest point is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. Two SHMs have equations:
x₁ = a sin (ωt + ∅₁) and x₂ = a sin (ωt + ∅₂) of the resultant SHM is equal to amplitude of superimposing SHM(s), the phase difference between them is:

1. π/6
2. 2π/3
3. π/4
4. π/3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of glass of a refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass with a refractive index 1.7.This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of the second prism should be:

1. 6°
2. 8°
3. 10°
4. 4°
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

20. Two blocks A & B are connected by a spring and placed on a smooth horizontal surface, as shown in the figure. The spring is in its relaxed position. The block A is given a velocity of 1 m/s towards right. After some time, it comes to rest momentarily. The speed of block B is:

1. 1/3 m/s
2. 1/2 m/s
3. 1/4 m/s
4. none of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

21. The electrostatic potential in a region of space is given by the function:
V(x)=A cos(2πx/a),where A, a are constants.
The potential at x=a/2 is:

1. zero
2. A
3. -A
4. A/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

22. On increasing the number density of a gas in a vessel, the mean free path of a gas:

1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. becomes double
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

23. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the adjacent figure. The average velocity is:

1. 1 ms^-1
2. 2 ms^-1 m/s
3. less than 1 ms^-1
4. greater than 2 ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

26. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
1. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (ⅲ)
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
4. (ii) (iv)       (iii)       (i)

Deselect Answer

1

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None

26.

27. Two infinitely large plane parallel sheets carry uniform surface charge densities +σ,-σ and are placed a distance d The electric fields in the regions are E₁, E₂, E₃ along the direction 2 which is perpendicular to the two planes. sigma, – sigma
Then:

1. E₁ < 0, E₂ > 0, E₃ < 0
2. E₁ < 0, E₂= 0, E₃ < 0
3. E₁ = 0, E₂ > 0, E₃ = 0
4. E₁ < 0,E₂ > 0, E₃ > 0
Deselect Answer

1

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None

27.

27. A heater coil is connected to a constant voltage source. If the heater wire is cut into two equal parts and one of these parts is connected to the same voltage source, how will the heat produced compared to the original heat produced by the entire coil?

1. halved
2. doubled
3. quartered
4. quadrupled
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The work done during the cyclic process shown in the diagram is:

1. 4πP₀ V₀ 2. -4πP₀ V₀
3. -πP₀ V₀
4. πP₀ V₀
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

29.

29. The moment of inertia (I) of an orbiting electron in the n^th Bohr orbit, measured with respect to the nucleus, is proportional to:

1. n²
2. n³
3. n⁴
4. n⁶
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

30.

Deselect Answer

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None

31.

31. If Z₁ and Z₂ are the impedances of the given circuits (a) and (b) as shown in the figures, then choose the correct option:

1. Z₁< Z₂
2. Z₁ + Z₂= 20Ω
3. Z₁= Z₂ 4. Z₁ > Z₂Deselect Answer

1

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None

32.

32. The main scale of a vernier caliper has the least count of 1 mm. 20 divisions of the vernier scale coinciding with 19 divisions of the main scale. The vernier constant of the caliper is:

1. 0.01 cm
2. 0.01 mm
3. 0.005 cm
4. 0.005 mm
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33.

33. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:
B_y = 2×10^-7 sin(π×10³ x+3π×10¹¹ t)T
The wavelength is:

1. 1. π×10³ m
2. 2×10^-3 m
3. 2×10³ m
4. π×10^-3 m
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34.

34. A hydrogen atom (H) and a helium (He) atom, both have the same kinetic energy (they are non-relativistic). Their de-Broglie wavelengths are in the ratio: λ_H/λ_He =

1. 4
2. 1/4
3. 2
4. 1/2
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35.

35. For a uniform rectangular sheet shown in the figure, if I_o and I_o , be moments of inertia about the axes perpendicular to the sheet and passing through O (the centre of mass) and O’ (corner point), then:

1. I_o, = I_o 2. I_o, < I_o
3. I_o, > I_o 4. can’t say
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36.

36. Two rods having the same cross-section (area: A) are joined end-to-end and forces F, F are applied at the two ends, as shown.

The lengths of the rods (I & II) are L, 2L while the Young’s moduli are 2Y, Y respectively. Quantities associated with this system are mentioned in Column-1, while their values are indicated in Column-II but in a different order. Match them.

1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-I
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37.

37. A 20 kg block is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane by a constant force, which gives it an acceleration of 1 m/s² The block starts from rest. The power developed by the force after 10 s is:

1. 20 W
2. 200 W
3. 2000 W
4. 2 W
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38.

38. Consider a system in which the work done by external forces acting equals Joules and the potential energy decreases by 30 Joules. Which of the following statements is true?

1. There are definitely no “non-conservative” forces acting in this situation
2. At least one of the forces in this situation is ‘conservative” in nature
3. Work done by the “internal” forces would be -30 joules
4. Work done by the “internal” forces would be -40 joules
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39.

39. A clock S operates based on the oscillations of a spring, while a clock P operates based on pendulum motion. Both clocks run at the same rate on Earth. On a planet with the same density as Earth but twice the radius, which of the following will be true?

1. S will run faster than P.
2. P will run faster than S.
3. Both will run at the same rate.
4. Both will run at the same rate but different from their rates on Earth.
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40.

40. A narrow parallel beam of light is incident onto a spherical mirror, as shown; the beam making an angle of 2° with the principal axis (PO). The radius, PO, of the mirror is 30 cm.
The reflected beam of light is:

1. convergent
2. divergent
3. parallel
4. diffuse
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41.

41. A steel bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 2.5 A – m² and a mass of 6.6 × 10^-2 If the density of the material is 6.6 × 10³ kg -m^-3,the intensity of magnetisation of the magnet is;

1. 2.5 ×10⁵ A – m^-1
2. 2.5 ×10^-5 A – m^-1
3. 1.25 ×10⁵ A – m^-1
4. 1.25 ×10^-5 A – m^-1
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42.

42. A cup of water is placed in a car accelerating to the left at a constant acceleration a. There is a small air bubble inside the water. Which figure correctly illustrates the shape of the water surface and the direction of the air bubble’s motion?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
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43.

43. A straight conductor carrying current I splits into two parts as shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is R. The total magnetic field at the centre P of the loop is:

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44.

44. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and -Q respectively, are placed at a certain distance apart and the force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then the force between the charges becomes:

1. 4F/3
2. F
3. 9F/16
4. 16F/9
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45.

45. Which statements are true when a light ray strikes a surface at the polarizing angle?
(A) The reflected ray is at a right angle to the refracted ray.
(B) The angle of reflection exceeds the angle of incidence.
(C)The reflected light is polarised, with its electric field vector lying within the plane that contains both the incident and reflected rays.
(D)The reflected light is polarised, with its electric field vector oriented perpendicular to the plane containing both the incident and reflected rays.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (A) and (D) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A) and (C) only
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46.

CHEMISTRY
46. Assertion (A): For hydrogen, 2s & 2p orbitals have the same energy-
Reason (R): For an atom of the same principal quantum number, s, p, d & f have the same energy.
In light of the above statements choose the answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
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47.

47. A nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO₂ to give an unstable compound B. On treatment with phenol, B forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C₁₂ H₁₀ N₂ O The structure of compound A is:

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48.

48. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol^-1) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol^-1) in 100 ml. of water at 27 °C The osmotic pressure of the solution is (R-0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1 )

1. 8.2 atm
2. 2.46 atm
3. 4.92 atm
4. 1.64 atm
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49.

49. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C), and formic acid (D) is:

1. B > A > D > C
2. B > D > C > A
3. A > B > C > D
4. A > C > B > D
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50.

50. Match the species in Column -I with the shape in Column-II.

1. (1) → (d), (2) → (a), (3) → (b), (4) → (c)
2. (1) → (b), (2) →(a), (3) →(c), (4) → (c)
3. (1) → (c), (2) →(a), (3) → (b), (4) →(c)
4. (1) → (c), (2) → (a), (3) → (b), (4) → (d)
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51.

51. Zwitter ion is formed when aniline is treated with:

1. Acetic anhydride in pyridine.
2. A mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid at low temperatures
3. Conc, sulphuric acid followed by heating at 200 °C
4. nitric acid at high temperature.
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52.

52. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. All the transition metals except scandium form MO oxides which are ionic.
B. The highest oxidation number corresponds to the group number in transition metal oxides is attained in Sc₂ O₃ to Mn₂ O₇
C. Basic character increases from V₂O₃ to V₂ O₄ to V₂O₅.
D. V₂O₄ dissolves in acids to give V₂O4^3-.
D. CrO is basic, but Cr₂O₃ is amphoteric.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only
2. A and E only
3. B and D only
4. C and D only
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53.

53. In a reaction,

A is

1. HgSO₄/H₂SO₄
2. Cu₂ Cl₂
3. H₃ PO₂ and H₂O
4. H⁺/ H₂ O
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54.

54. This reaction is a zero-order with respect to N₂2N₂ O(g) → 2N₂ (g) + O₂ (g)
If the half-life for this reaction is 19.0 minutes and the initial concentration of N₂ O is 1.39 M. then the value of rate constant k is:

1. 0.0158 mol L^-1 min ^-1
2. 0.0263 mol L^-1 min ^-1
3. 0.0366 mol L^-1 min ^-1
4. 0.0526 mol L^-1 min ^-1
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55.

55. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: A Daniel cell consists of zinc and copper electrodes immersed in solutions of their respective salts.
Statement II: Mercury cell consists of zinc-mercury amalgam as the anode and a paste of HgO & carbon as the cathode.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
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56.

56. What is the stoichiometric coefficient of sulfur (S) in the balanced equation for the following reaction in acidic medium?
H₂ S(aq) + HNO₃ (aq) →NO(g) + S(s) + H₂ O(l)

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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57.

57. What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?

1. 2-Nitro-4-hydroxymethyl-5-aminobenzaldehyde
2. 3-Amino-4-hydroxymethyl-5-nitrobenzaldehyde
3. 5-Amino-4-hydroxymethyl-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
4. 4-Amino-2-formyl-5-hydroxymethylnitrobenzene
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58.

58. When 7.3 g of magnesium bicarbonate (Mg (HCO₃)₂) is decomposed by heating, how much carbon dioxide gas (in mL) is released at STP?

1. 1000 mL
2. 1120 mL
3. 2230 mL
4. 3240 mL
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59.

59. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26 which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of electron?

1. [Cr (CO)₆]
2. [Fe (CO)₅ ]
3. [Fe(CN)₆]^4- 4. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
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60.

60. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker and to it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of 2 mL and the pH is continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH?

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61.

61. When glucose is reduced with red phosphorous and HI, then n-hexane is formed. This reaction shows that glucose has:

1. A ring structure
2. A linear chain of six carbon atoms
3. Five-OH groups
4. -CHO group
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62.

62. First ionisation enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen because of:

1. More shielding of paired electrons in 2p orbital of oxygen.
2. Half-filled stable configuration of nitrogen.
3. More Z effective of oxygen.
4. Small atomic size of oxygen
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63.

63. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Mass and volume properties. are extensive
Reason (R): Mass/volume is also. an extensive property.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
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64.

64. Which of the following statements are not true about the following decomposition reaction?
2 KCIO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂a. Potassium is undergoing oxidation
b. Chlorine is undergoing oxidation
c. Oxygen is reduced
d. None of the species are undergoing either oxidation or reduction
The correct choice from the above is:

1. a, b and d
2. b, c and d
3. b, d and a
4. None of the above
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65.

65. What mass of glucose (C₆ H₁₂ O₆) must be dissolved in 1 liter of solution to make it isotonic with a 15 g/L solution of urea (NH₂CONH₂)? (Given: Molar mass in g mol^-1 C:12, H:1, O: 16, N:14)

1. 55 g
2. 15 g
3. 30 g
4. 45 g
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66.

66. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms a complex ‘A’.
The formula of A and hybridisation state of Al in ‘A’ is 4. respectively:

1. [Al (H₂ O)₆ ]³⁺ ,sp³ d²
2. [Al (H₂ O)₄ ]³⁺ ,sp³
3. [Al (H₂ O)₄ ]³⁺ ,dsp²
4. [Al (H₂ O) ]³⁺ , d²sp³
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67.

67. The correct statement regarding CH₄, NH₃, and H₂O is:

1. The H-C-H bond angle in CH₄ the H-N-H bond angle in and H-O-H bond angle in H₂O are, all, less than 90°
2. The H-O-H bond angle in H₂O is greater than the H-C-H bond angle in CH₄
3. The H-O-H bond angle in H₂O is less than the H-N-H bond angle in NH₃
4. The H-C-H bond angle in CH₄ is less than the H-N-H bond angle NH₃
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68.

68. The correct order of C-C bond lengths of the following molecules are:

1. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₄> C₆ H₆ > C₂ H₂
2. C₂ H₂ > C₂ H₄> C₆ H₆ > C₂ H₆
3. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₂> C₆ H₆ > C₂ H₄
1. C₂ H₆ > C₂ H₆> C₆ H₂ > C₂ H₆
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69.

69. Match the species in Column-I with their corresponding hybridisation in Column-II:

Codes:
A         B          C          D
1. ii iii i           iii
2, i i iii ii
3, iii ii ii          i
4, i iii         ii          iii
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70.

70. What is the name of the following reaction?

1. Friedel-Crafts reaction
2. Perkins reaction
3. Acetylation reaction
4. Schotten-Baumann reaction
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71.

71. Which of the compounds with molecular formula C₅H₁₀ yields acetone on ozonolysis?

1. 2-methyl-2-butene
2. 3-methyl-1-butene
3. cyclopentene
4. 2-methyl-1-butene
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72.

72. Which of the following law illustrates hydrogen and oxygen combination to form H₂ O₂ and H₂ O containing 5.93% and 11.2% hydrogen, respectively?

1. Law of conversation of mass
2. Law of constant proportion
3. Law of reciprocal proportion
4. Law of multiple proportions
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73.

73. Propene, CH₃ – CH = CH₂ can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Which set of reagents among the following is ideal to effect the conversion?

1. Alkaline KMnO₄
2. B₂ H₆ and alk. H₂ O₂
3. O₃/zinc dust
4. OsO₄/CHCl₃
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74.

74. Match the items of Column-I with items of Column-II:

Codes:
A         B          C          D
1. III IV        I           II
2. I II III        IV
3. II I           IV        III
4. IV I           III        II

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75.

75. A reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

1. sec-Butyl alcohol
2. tert-Butyl alcohol
3. iso-Butyl alcohol
4. iso-Propyl alcohol
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76.

76. Assertion (A): Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason (R): The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires a high temperature.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
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77.

77. Match the reactions in List-I with their corresponding products in List-II:

1. A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
2. A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
3. A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
4. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

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78.

78. Limiting molar conductivity of (i.е., Λ⁰_m (NH₄ OH)) is equal to –

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79.

79. In the graph shown below, which point represents the condition for bond formation?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
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80.

80. In Williamson’s synthesis, ethoxyethane is prepared by:

1. passing ethanol over heated alumina
2. heating sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide
3. treating ethyl alcohol with an excess of H₂ SO₄ at 430-440 K
4. heating ethanol with dry Ag₂O
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81.

81. The reason for not utilizing HCl to acidify the medium in oxidation reactions involving KMnO₄ (in an acidic environment) is:

1. Both HCl and KMnO₄ act as oxidizing agents.
2. KMnO₄ oxidizes HCl into Cl₂ which is also an oxidizing agent.
3. KMnO₄ is a weaker oxidizing agent than HCl.
4. KMnO₄ acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.
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82.

82. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The 19^th electron in the potassium atom enters into the 4s-orbital, not into the 3d orbital.
Reason (R): (n + 1) rule is followed for determining of the lowest energy state.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
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83.

83. In a 0.5 litre capacity vessel, CO and Cl₂ are mixed to form COCl₂. At equilibrium, it contains 0.2 mole of COCl₂ and 0.1 mole each of CO and The equilibrium constant (K_C) for the following reaction is: CO+Cl₂⇌COCl₂
1. 15
2. 5
3. 20
4. 10
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84.

84. Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards S_N2 reaction.
(I) CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ CH₂ Cl
(II) CH₃ CH₂ CH(Cl)CH₃
(III) (CH₃)₂ CHCH₂ Cl
(IV) (CH₃)₃ CCl

1. (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
2. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
3. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
4. (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
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85.

85. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:

1. II<III<IV<I
2. I<IV<III<II
3. I<IV<II<III
4. III<I<II<IV
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86.

86. Which of the following pairs is both isoelectronic and isotopic?
(Given: Atomic numbers: Ca = 20, Ar = 18, K = 19, Mg = 12, Fc = 26 and Na = 11)

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87.

87. The number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)₂ Cl₂]Cl will be:
en = ethylenediamine)

1. Two (2)
2. One (1)
3. Three (3)
4. Four (4)
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88.

88. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is:

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89.

89. Match the compounds (given in Column I) with the oxidation state of Cobalt (given in Column II) and assign the correct code.

Codes:
A         B          C          D
1. 2 3          4          1
2. 3 1 4          2
3. 1 4 3          2
4. 4 1 2          3
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90.

90. In the reaction sequence,

[X] will be:

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91.

BIOLOGY

91. The biological processes cyanobacteria in paddy fields include:
I: biological fixation of 𝐶𝑂2.
II: biological fixation of atmospheric dinitrogen.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
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92.

92. The importance of a promoter in transcription is to:

1. Terminate RNA synthesis.
2. Signal the RNA polymerase where to start transcription.
3. Modify the RNA after transcription.
4. Transport the RNA out of the nucleus.
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93.

93. Which of the following is true about chloroplasts?

1. They contain DNA, divide by binary fission, and have 70S ribosomes.
2. They lack DNA but divide by binary fission and have 80S ribosomes.
3. They contain DNA, do not divide, and have 80S ribosomes.
4. They lack DNA, do not divide, and have 70S ribosomes.
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94.

94. Consider the following statements:
I. The stored food in Rhodophyceae is floridean starch.
II. Cellulose and algin are present in the cell wall of Phacophyceac.
III. Chlorophyceae members have 2 laterally placed unequal flagella.
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
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95.

95. The PNS is divided into two divisions where:
I. The somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
II. The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
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96.

96. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles.
2. Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie parallel to each other in which each has an organisation like the cartwheel.
3. Centrioles are made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin protein where each of the peripheral fibril is a triplet.
4. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub.
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97.

97. Aldosterone:

1. acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the excretion of Na+ and water and reabsorption of K + and phosphate ions.
2. acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K + and phosphate ions.
3. acts mainly at the collecting duct and stimulates the excretion of Na+ and water and reabsorption of K + and phosphate ions.
4. acts mainly at the collecting duct and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and excretion of K + and phosphate ions.
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98.

98. In dicot stems, the endarch protoxylem arrangement indicates:

1. Xylem and phloem are arranged radially.
2. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
3. Xylem is situated towards the centre, with protoxylem facing inward.
4. Vascular bundles are closed.
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99.

99. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. (IV) (I) (II) (III)
2. (IV) (III) (II) (I)
3. (III) (I) (IV) (II)
4. (I) (IV) (III) (II)
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100.

100. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Assertion (A): Mendel’s law of independent assortment holds good for genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R). Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is not correct and (R) is not correct
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) isthe correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is correct and (R) is not correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101.

101. Identify the correct statement regarding the given figure?

I. ‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together during cell division.
II. B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure associated with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers attach during cell division to pull sister chromatids apart.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102.

102. Primary productivity in an ecosystem refers to:

1. The rate at which consumers produce organic material.
2. The amount of biomass produced by decomposers.
3. The rate at which producers synthesize organic material from inorganic substances.
4. The total amount of organic material available in the ecosystem.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103.

103. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion: Often flowers of animal- pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of animal.
Reason: Plants were already widespread on land when animals invaded land.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason explains Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason does not explain Assertion
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

104.

104. Norepinephrine:
a. is released by sympathetic fibers
b. is released by parasympathetic fibers
c. increases the heart rate
d. decreases blood pressure
Which of the above said statements are correct?

1. a and c
2. b and c
3. b and d
4. a and d
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105.

105. Regarding the temperature optimum for photosynthesis of different plants:
I. Tropical plants have a lower temperature optimum than the plants adapted to temperate climates.
II. The C4 plants respond to higher temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis while C3 plants have a much lower temperature optimum.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

106. The correct path of electron transport within Complex III of the mitochondrial ETS will be:

1. Cyt b → Fe − S → Cyt C1
2. Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Fe − S
3. Fe − S → Cyt b → Cyt C1
4. Cyt C1 → Fe − S → Cyt b
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107.

107. Identify the correct statements:
I. ADA deficiency is caused due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
II. Bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy are completely curative.
III. Lymphocytes transformed with cADA gene are permanent cure for the condition.

1. Only I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

108. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and select the best match from the codes given:

Options

A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R Q P S
3. R P Q S
4. Q R S P
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

109. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given promoter is in turn regulated by:

1. The concentration of ribosomes attached to the mRNA.
2. The presence of DNA polymerase at the transcription site.
3. Interaction with accessory proteins, which influence its ability to recognize start sites.
4. The activity of tRNA molecules during translation.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

110. An example of mutualism between plants and insect pollinators will be:

1. Bees pollinate flowers while obtaining nectar, which is their food source.
2. Flowers provide shelter to insects, and insects provide nothing in return.
3. Insects eat parts of the flower, which helps the plant reproduce.
4. Plants capture and digest insects to obtain nutrients.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111.

111. In frogs:

1. The blood lacks RBCs and few proteins, unlike lymph.
2. The hepatic portal system connects the liver to the kidneys.
3. The circulation of blood is achieved without the pumping action of the heart.
4. The blood is composed of plasma and cells, including nucleated RBCs containing haemoglobin.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112.

112. The first polar body born out of first meiotic division during oogenesis:
I. may divide further
II. may degenerate

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

113.

113. How is cytokinesis different in plant cells compared to animal cells?

1. A furrow appears in the plasma membrane of plant cells
2. Plant cells do not undergo cytokinesis
3. Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of a cell plate
4. Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by forming spindle fibers
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

114. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:

1. Gut of female Anopheles
2. Salivary glands of Anopheles
3. Human RBCs
4. Human liver
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115.

115. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active.
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome.
(d)Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (c), (e) only
2. (b), (d), (e) only
3. (a), (c), (d) only
4. (b), (e) only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

116.

116. How many statements regarding Ethylene are true?
I. It is synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and ripening fruits.
II. It promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs especially of leaves and flowers.
III. It enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the fruits.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117.

117. Identify the correct description of vascular bundle in dicot stems:

1. Vascular bundles are scattered throughout the stem with no specific arrangement
2. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with each bundle having a phloem on the outer side and xylem on the inner side
3. Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, with each bundle having a xylem on the outer side and phloem on the inner side
4. Vascular bundles are found only in the center of the stem, forming a solid core
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

118.

118. Which pair of the given bacteria can commonly cause pneumonia in humans?

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus
2. Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. Pneumocystis carinii and Mycoplasma hominis
4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Bacillus anthracis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119.

119. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Evolution can occur if there is genetic variation within a population.
Reason (R): The meaning of EVOLUTION is descent with modification from preexisting species.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

120.

120. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationship between organisms.
Statement II: Taxonomy takes into account only some easily observable external characters of organisms.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

121.

121. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of vocal sacs and a copulatory pad.
Statement II: Female frogs have vocal sacs and copulatory pads.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

122.

122. What is the importance of sacred groves in biodiversity conservation?

1. They are spiritual sites where no biological activity occurs.
2. They serve as reservoirs of rich biodiversity, protecting endemic species.
3. They are used to cultivate medicinal plants using traditional methods.
4. They represent areas where invasive species are cultivated.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

123.

123. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovary wall in gymnosperms.
2. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
3. Horsetails are gymnosperms.
4. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

124.

124. Which statement is true regarding mitochondria?

1. They are the site of glycolysis.
2. They contain their own DNA and ribosomes.
3. They are involved in the synthesis of fatty acids.
4. They are the primary site of protein synthesis.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

125.

125. Select the incorrect statement:

1. LH and FSH trigger ovulation in ovary.
2. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
3. LH triggers the secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
4. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126.

126. Which statement accurately describes the types of muscle tissue and their differentiating features?

1. Skeletal muscle is involuntary and striated, cardiac muscle is voluntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated.
2. Skeletal muscle is voluntary and striated, cardiac muscle is involuntary and striated, and smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated.
3. All muscle types are involuntary, but only skeletal and cardiac muscles are striated.
4. All muscle types are striated, but only skeletal and smooth muscles are voluntary.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

127.

127. How many of the given statements regarding ovaries are correct?
I: Ovaries are the primary female sex organs.
II: Ovaries produce the female gamete (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones).
III: Each ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
IV: Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128.

128. African sleeping sickness is caused by an infection with:

1. a dsDNA virus
2. a gran negative bacterium
3. a flagellated protozoan
4. a fungus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129.

129. At a chemical synapse:
I. neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses.
II. the axon terminals contain vesicles filled with the neurotransmitters.
III. the released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130.

130. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G.?

1. T ∶ 20%, G ∶ 30%
2. T ∶ 30%, G ∶ 20%
3. T ∶ 30%, G ∶ 30%
4. T ∶ 20%, G ∶ 20%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

131.

131. How many of the given statements are correct?
A: Left atrium has the thickest musculature in the human heart.
B: SA node is located in the wall of the right atrium.
C: Right ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into aorta.
D: Heart is covered by a double-layered pericardium.
E: Left atrium receives deoxygenated blood through

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132.

132. Diaphragms, contraceptive devices used by the females, are
I: introduced into the uterus
II: placed to cover the cervical region
III: act as physical barriers for sperm entry
IV: act as spermicidal agents

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. Only III & IV are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

133.

133. The correct chronological steps [earliest to last] in the sexual cycle of fungi are:

1. Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores
2. Plasmogamy – Karyogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
3. Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Mitosis in zygote resulting in diploid spores
4. Karyogamy – Plasmogamy – Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

134.

134. Select the favorable conditions required for the formation of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli.

1. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
2. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H +,, higher temperature
3. High pO2 , low pCO2 , less H + ,, lower temperature
4. Low pO2 high pCO2 more H + , higher temperature
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135.

135. The filiform apparatus plays a key role in:

1. The recognition of pollen grains by the pistil.
2. The production of male gametes within the pollen tube.
3. Protecting pollen grains from desiccation.
4. Guiding the pollen tube into a synergid.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

136.

136. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is important in the concentration of urine.
Reason (R): This segment is highly permeable to water, allowing for maximum water reabsorption.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

137.

137. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where glucose is partially oxidized to produce energy.
Reason (B): Fermentation results in the production of ethanol or lactic acid without the use of oxygen.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

138.

138. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa- sinensis) is:

1. Monadelphous
2. diadelphous
3. polyandrous
4. polyadelphous
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139.

139. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Intrapulmonary pressure must be greater than atmospheric pressure for air to enter the lungs.
Statement II: Intrapulmonary pressure must be lower than atmospheric pressure for air to be exhaled out of the lungs.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

140.

140. The posterior pituitary gland is not a “true” endocrine gland because:

1. it is provided with a duct
2. it only stores and releases hormones
3. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
4. it secretes enzymes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141.

141. Plant growth is considered unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. What is the primary reason behind this characteristic feature of plants?

1. Presence of specialized permanent tissues
2. Presence of meristems at specific locations in the plant body
3. Ability to perform photosynthesis continuously
4. Presence of vascular tissues for nutrient transport
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142.

142. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In apinnately compound leaf, several leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf(as in neem).
Statement II: In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.c., at the tip of the petiole (as in silk cotton).

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

143.

143. Lactational amenorrhea, as a natural method of contraception, has been reported to be effective only up to a maximum period of:

1. one month following parturition.
2. two months following parturition.
3. three months following parturition.
4. six months following parturition.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

144.

144. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens reccives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

145.

145. Dwarfism can be caused by the deficiency, during childhood, of:
I. Growth hormone
II. Thyroid hormones

1. Only I and the dwarf will have normal mental development
2. Only II and the dwarf will also be mentally retarded
3. Both I and II and in both cases the mental development will be affected
4. Both I and II and mental development will be effected only in II.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146.

146. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae, and they are the chief ‘producers’ in the oceans.
Statement II: Diatoms have cell walls embedded with cellulose, which makes them indestructible and leads to the formation of diatomaceous earth.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147.

147. Identify the correct statements:
I: Non-steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes.
II: Non-steroid peptide hormones enter the cell.
III: Steroid hormones do not bind to plasma membrane receptors.

1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only III
4. I, II and II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

148.

148. Why are the androecium and the gynoecium collectively termed as essential organs of a flower?

1. They are present in all types of flowers, including unisexual flowers.
2. They directly contribute to sexual reproduction by producing gametes.
3. Their primary function is to attract pollinators for reproduction.
4. They ensure vegetative reproduction by forming seeds.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149.

149. Identify the correct statement:

1. Monocotyledonous plants generally have taproot systems with one or more primary and secondary roots.
2. The root hair zone develops in the region of elongation.
3. Roots that develop from a stem, leaf, or other plant part are called adventitious roots.
4. Apical meristem is found in the region of maturation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

150.

150. Regarding red algae:
I: Majority are fresh water with greater concentrations found in the colder areas.
II: They occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

151.

151. The thoracic chamber is formed:

Select the correct match from the codes given:

A B C D
1. Q P R S
2. Q P S R
3. P Q R S
4. P Q S R
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

152.

152. DNA fingerprinting relies on the unique sequences present in an individual’s genome. Which specific type of DNA sequence is most commonly used in this technique?

1. Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs)
2. Exonic regions of protein-coding genes
3. Highly conserved sequences in the mitochondrial genome
4. Single-copy genes found in all individuals of a species
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

153.

153. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is:

1. escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
2. providing more space for a large epididymis
3. providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
4. maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154.

154. A person suffering from pneumonia is least likely to show/complain:

1. A rapid respiratory rate
2. High grade fever
3.Chest pain
4. Pain in abdomen
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

155.

155. Lymph functions include all EXCEPT:

1. Transporting fats from the digestive tract
2. Returning excess tissue fluid to the bloodstream
3. Transporting oxygen to the brain
4. Fighting infections
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156.

156. Plants exhibit open growth due to the continuous activity of meristems. How do meristematic cells contribute to this type of growth?

1. They undergo repeated cell division and differentiate immediately after formation.
2. They retain their capacity to divide, and their derivatives contribute to the plant body.
3. They grow in size without dividing, allowing plants to expand indefinitely.
4. They remain undifferentiated and do not contribute to plant body formation.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157.

157. What is the role of vasa recta in the juxtamedullary nephrons?

1. Reabsorption of urea
2. Maintaining the osmotic gradient for efficient water reabsorption
3. Transport of electrolytes to the glomerulus
4. Formation of primary filtrate in the nephron
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

158.

158. In the systematic organization and classification of living organisms, the hierarchical structure known as the taxonomic hierarchy includes various levels of classification. Which among the following taxonomic ranks, positioned between the class and family, plays a crucial role in the precise identification and naming of species within the Linnaean system?

1. Phylum
2. Order
3. Genus
4. Species
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159.

159. What does polyembryony refer to?

1. Formation of a single embryo from two different pollen grains, e.g., apple
2. Development of multiple embryos from a single fertilized egg, e.g., citrus
3. Formation of an embryo without fertilization, e.g., wheat
4. Fusion of two embryos to form a single viable seed, e.g., maize
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

160.

160. When compared to the adult red blood cells in human blood, the adult white blood cells are:
I: lesser in number
II: longer lived
III: nucleated

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

161.

161. The nerve fibres that transmit impulses from tissues to the CNS are called____, while those that transmit impulses from the CNS to peripheral tissues are called________.

1. efferent fibres, afferent fibres
2. afferent fibres, efferent fibres
3. somatic fibres, autonomic fibres
4. sensory fibres, sympathetic fibres
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162.

162. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Smooth muscles are found in the walls of internal organs such as the stomach and intestines.
Reason (R): Smooth muscles are striated and voluntary.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

163.

163. What would likely happen if a predator overexploits its prey population?

1. The prey population would increase rapidly.
2. The predator population would increase due to abundant food.
3. Both predator and prey populations could decline or become extinct.
4. The ecosystem would stabilize at a new equilibrium.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

164.

164. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: For most animal species, the logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.
Statement II: Animals show a higher mdiversity than plants.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

165.

165. Which of the following organic molecule is not correctly matched with the diagrammatic representation of its structure?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

166.

166. Mary Mallon:

1. was the recipient of the first gene therapy.
2. was the last known case of small pox.
3. was a chronic carrier of Salmonella typhi.
4. was the first child born through IVF.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167.

167. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:

A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R P S Q
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168.

168. The number of chromosomes in the male and female is/are not equal in:
I: Humans II: Honeybees
III: Grasshoppers IV: Drosophila

1. Only II
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, III and IV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169.

169. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:

1. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
2. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
3. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
4. All of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

170.

170. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions.
Reason (R): Pteridophytes are terrestrial plants that possess vascular tissues − xylem and phloem.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A)
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

171.

171. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are called floating ribs.
Reason (R): Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected both dorsally and ventrally.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains(A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

172.

172. Which statement is true regarding transcription in prokaryotes?

1. RNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate transcription.
2. Transcription and translation can be coupled.
3. Introns are removed from the transcribed RNA before
4. Transcription occurs in the nucleus.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

173.

173. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The presence of gill slits and a tail in the early stages of development of an embryo indicates that it can develop only as a fish.
Reason (R): Embryos pass through the adult stages of other animals.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

174.

174. Under normal physiological conditions:

1. Inspiratory reserve volume is less than expiratory reserve volume
2. Residual volume in a healthy male is about 2500 to 3000 ml
3. Functional residual capacity should be more than expiratory capacity
4. Total lung capacity + residual volume = Vital capacity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

175.

175. Which method is considered highly effective in preventing pregnancy and is also capable of protecting users from sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and HIV/AIDS?

1. Copper releasing IUDs
2. Oral contraceptives
3. Condoms
4. Hormone releasing IUDs
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176.

176. What is photophosphorylation?

1. The synthesis of ATP using light energy during photosynthesis.
2. The production of glucose directly from sunlight.
3. The splitting of water molecules to release oxygen.
4. The generation of ATP without the use of light.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177.

177. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

1. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Lysosomes
2. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, and Lysosomes
3. The endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes, and Lysosomes
4. The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes, and Vacuoles
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178.

178. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In Ascomycetes, sexual reproduction leads to the formation of spores called ascospores.
Statement II: These exogenously on specialized structures called basidia.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

179.

179. Which of the following events does not take place during diakinesis stage of prophase 1 of meiosis I?

1. Terminalization of chiasmata
2. Meiotic spindle assembling to prepare separation of homologous chromosomes
3. Separation of the chromatin
4. Nuclear envelope breakdown and disappearance of nucleolus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

180.

180. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

April 7, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XVIII (01.04.2026)

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XVIII (01.04.2026)

Name

FATHER'S NAME

ZZR ID

Email

1.

PHYSICS

1. The least count of a screw gauge is 0.01 mm. If the pitch is increased by 80% and number of divisions on the circular scale is reduced by 20%, the new least count will be

1. 0.025 mm
2. 0.018 mm
3. 0.0225 mm
4. 0.002 mmDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV ). The kinetic energy in joules of the fastest electron emitted is approximately

1. 3.2×10^-21
2. 3.2×10^-19
3. 3.2×10^-17 4. 3.2×10^-15Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve the maximum energy change?

1. From n = 2 to n = 1
2. From n = 3 to n = 1
3. From n = 5 to n = 2
4. From n = 3 to n = 2Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each radius R, one lying in x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is I, the resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at thei common center is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. A ball of mass m is used to measure the height of a building by dropping it from the top of it. If the error in the measurement of time is 0.2s and the ball takes 2s to reach the ground, then the error in the calculation of the height will be

1. 1.96 m
2. 3.92 m
3. 9.81 m
4. 19.6 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height h from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. In ac LCR series circuit connected to an ac source, the supply voltage is V=V₀ sin(100πt+π/6), V_L=40V,V_R=40V, Z=5Ωand R=4Ω. Then match column I and II. All quantities are in SI units

(A) peak current                   (i) 10√2
(B) peak voltage                   (ii) 50√2
(C) X_C (iii) 50
(iv) 1

1. (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iv)
2. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i)
3. (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii)
4. (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

8.

8. Two concentric circular loops of radii r₁ = 30 cm and r₂ = 50 cm are placed in x-y plane as shown in figure. A current I = 7A is flowing through them in the direction as shown. The net magnetic moment of this system of two circular loop is approximately

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. An ac voltage is given by

How many times will the current becomes zero in 1 sec?

1. 50
2. 100
3. 30
4. 25
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A canon ball is fired with a velocity 200 m/s at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At the highest point of its flight it explodes into 3 equal fragments, one going vertically upwards with a velocity 100 m/s, the second one falling vertically downwards with a velocity 100 m/s. The third fragment will be moving with a velocity of

1. 100 m/s in the horizontal direction
2. 300 m/s in the horizontal direction
3. 300 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal
4. 200 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. An electromagnetic wave is traveling in free space with electric field amplitude E₀= 300 V/m.

1. The magnetic field amplitude is B₀=3μT
2. The energy density of the wave is equally shared between electric and magnetic fields.
3. The electric and magnetic fields are parallel to each other and to the direction of propagation.
4. The speed of the wave depends on the amplitude of E₀
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. A spring of constant 100 N/m is stretched by applying equal forces each of magnitude F at the two ends. The energy stored in the spring is 200 J. Now, spring is cut into two equal parts and one of the part is stretched by applying equal forces each of magnitude F at the two ends. The energy stored is

1. 200 J
2. 100 J
3. 400 J
3. 50 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1−x)M. For a given separation, the value of x for which the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is:

1. 1/2
2. 3/5
3. 1
4. 2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. A ray of light passes through a prism under the condition of minimum deviation. It is observed that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of the prism. The refractive index of the prism material is:

1. Sin A/2
2. 2Sin A/2
3. Cos A/2
4. 2Cos A/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. The refractive indices of flint glass prism for violet, yellow and red colours are 1.7, 1.79 and 1.85 respectively, find dispersive power of the flint glass.

1. 0.19
2. 1.19
3. 0.29
4. 1.29
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. Two coherent waves of equal intensities interfere, the ratio of their maximum to minimum intensity is

1. 0
2. I
3. 4I
4. Infinity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. A system is taken from state A to state B along two different paths 1 and 2. If the heat absorbed and work done by the system along these two paths are Q₁, Q₂ and W₁, W₂ respectively, then

1. Q₁=Q₂
2. W₁=W₂3. Q₁-W₁=Q₂-W₂
4. Q₁+W₁=Q₂+W₂
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. For the image to be real, the focal length should be

1. 10 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 25 cm

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. The graph which represents the variation of the mean kinetic energy of a molecule with temperature t℃ is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. Out of gravitational, electromagnetic, Vander Waals, electrostatic and nuclear forces; which two are able to provide an attractive force between two neutrons

1. Electrostatic and gravitational
2. Electrostatic and nuclear
3. Gravitational and nuclear
4. Vander Waals attraction
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along x and y directions according to x= 3sin(100πt), y= 4sin(100πt).

1. Motion of particle will be ellipse in clockwise direction
2. Motion of particle will be straight line with slope ¾
3. Motion of particle will be SHM with amplitude 5
4. Phase difference between two motions is π/2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will

1. be reduced to half
2. remains the same
3. be doubled
4. increase four times
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 revolutions in the first 3 seconds. Assuming a uniform angular acceleration, how many rotations it will make in the next 3 seconds?

1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 40
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. If W be the amount of heat produced in the process of charging an uncharged capacitor then the amount of energy stored in it is:

1. 2W
2. W/2
3. W
4. Zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. Two sound waves given by the equations y = A sin(122πt) and y = A sin (128πt) pass through a point simultaneously. The number of beats per second is

1. 6
2. 3
3. 4
4. 2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. In the circuit shown in the figure, the energy stored in 6 μF capacitor will be:

1. 48×10^-6 J
2. 32×10^-6 J
3. 96×10^-6 J
4. 24×10^-6 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side is ‘a’. Work done in removing a charge – Q from its centre to infinity is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. A uniform circular disc lies in the XY plane. The X and Z axes lie in the plane of a disc and are mutually perpendicular, while the Y-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the disc through its centre. The moment of inertia of the body about X and Y axes is respectively 30 kgm² and 40 kgm². Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Moment of Inertia about Z-axis is 10 kgm^-2
2. Moment of Inertia about Diameter is 40 kgm^-2
3. Moment of Inertia about an axis in the plane is 20 kgm^-2
4. Moment of Inertia about Z-axis is 70 kgm^-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. A current of 1 mA is flowing through a copper wire. How many electrons will pass a given point in one second (e=1.6×10^-19) C)

1. 6.25×10¹⁹
2. 6.25×10¹⁵3. 6.25×10¹⁸4. 6.25×10³¹
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. The unit represented by x=1/LC , where L is inductance and C is capacitance is

1. ampere squared
2. meter squared
3. per second squared
4. per second
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. Find the equivalent resistance between the points a and b

1. 2Ω
2. 4Ω
3. 6Ω
4. 8Ω
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. A flywheel of moment of inertia 4 kgm² has an initial angular velocity of 20 rads^-1. A constant torque of 20Nm acts on wheel. The work done by torque in increasing its angular velocity to 80 rads^-1 is

1. 1.2 x 10²J
2. 1.2 x 10³J
3. 1.2 x 10⁴J
4. 1.2 x 10⁵J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. The potential difference between point A and B is

1. 207 V
2. 407 V
3. 107 V
4. Zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. A boy throws a ball into air at 45° from the horizontal to land it on a roof of a building of height h. If the ball attains maximum height in 2 s and lands on the building in 3 s after launch, then value of is

1. 25 m
2. 30 m
3. 10 m
4. 15 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. For dynamic lift, consider the following
Assertion: The speed of air on the upper surface of the wing is less than the speed on the lower surface
Reason: Bernoulli’s theorem gives us that higher velocity leads to lower pressure

1. Both A and R are true
2. A is true but R is not its correct explanation
3. Both A and R are false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. A particle starting from rest at the origin moves along the x-axis such that its velocity is given as v=6√x m/s. Its acceleration in ms^-2will be

1. 36
2. 0
3. 18
4. 3/√x
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. A body falling under gravity covers two points A and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of upper point A from the starting point is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 80 m
2. 50 m
3. 45 m
4. 20 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. A flexible chain of mass mhangs between two fixed points at the same level. The inclination of the chain with the horizontal at the two points of support is 30°. Considering the equilibrium of each half of the chain, the tension of the chain at the lowest point is

1. mg
2. 1/2 mg
3. √3/2 mg
4. 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. A brass wire of length 2 m and radius 1 mm at 27°C is held taut between two rigid supports. Initially it was cooled to a temperature of -43°C creating a tension Tin the wire. The temperature to which the wire has to be cooled in order to increase the tension in it to 1.4T is

1. -86°C
2. – 71°C
3. -67°C
4. -75°C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. In the figure below, the minimum Zener current will be

1. 9 mA
2. 4 mA
3. 10 mA
4. 5 mA
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. A planet of mass m moves in the xy-plane in an elliptical path. Its position vector at any instant is given by where a, b and w are constants. Its angular momentum will be

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. The increase in potential energy of a soap bubble to make its diameter 14 cm from 7 cm (in μJ) will be (given surface tension of the bubble to be 0.04 N/m, use π=22/7)

1. 3696
2. 3520
3. 3969
4. 3820
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. A small block of mass m slides down from rest from the top of a frictionless inclined surface, while the inclined plane is moving towards left with constant acceleration a. The angle between the inclined plane and ground is θ and its base length is L .
Assuming that initially the small block is at the top of the inclined plane, the time it takes to reach the lowest point of the inclined plane will be

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. A single slit of width a = 0.2 mm is illuminated successively by two different light sources of λ_A= 600nm and λ_B= 450nm. The diffraction pattern is observed on a screen at distance L= 2m. which of the following statement is correct regarding the central maximum of the two lights?

1. The central maximum is wider for λ_A than λ_B
2. The central maximum is wider for λ_B than λ_A
3. Both central maxima have the same width
4. Central maximum disappears for λ_B because the wavelength is smaller
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

1. 11q
2. 5q
3. 3q
4. 2q
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

46.

CHEMISTRY
46. What is the percent by mass of iodine needed to reduce the freezing point of benzene to 3.5°C? The freezing point and cryoscopic constant of pure benzene are 5.5°C and 5.12 K/m respectively.

1. 5%
2. 9%
3. 10%
4. 12%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47.

47. The total number of monobromo derivatives formed by the alkanes with molecular formula C₅H₁₂ is (excluding stereoisomers) .

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 8
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

48.

48. The compound which undergoes SN1 reaction most rapidly is:

Deselect Answer

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None

49.

49. What amount of energy (KJ) is released in the combustion of 5.8 g of C₄ H₁₀ (g)
2C₄ H₁₀ (g)+13O₂ (g)→8CO₂ (g)+10H₂ O(l) ; ΔH=-5756 kJ

1. – 5756
2. – 575.6
3. – 287.8
4. – 182
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50.

50. (NH₄)₂SO₄FeSO₄·6H₂ is

1. Mohr’s salt
2. Alum
3. blue vitriol
4. simple salt
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51.

51. One mole of KMnO₄ reacts with

1. 5 moles of oxalic acid
2. 5 moles of oxalic acid
3. 1/5 moles of oxalic acid
4. 5 moles of oxalic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52.

52. Which of the following compounds is the most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reactions?

1. Acetone
2. Acetaldehyde
3. Benzaldehyde
4. Acetophenone
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53.

53. Which of the following can be prepared only by electrolysis?

1. Cl₂
2. Br₂
3. F₂
4. I₂

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

54. The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

55.

55. Which of the following process is used to separate volatile liquid from non-volatile impurities?

1. Distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Differential extraction
4. Crystallisation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56.

56. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.

1. 48.625 kJ mol^-1 2. 354.20 kJ mol^-1
3. 654.35 kJ mol^-1
4. 52.863 kJ mol-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57.

57. Considering the basic strength of amines in aqueous solution, which one has the smallest pKb value?

1. Benzylamine
2. Aniline
3. P- nitroaniline
4. O- nitroaniline
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58.

58. Which of the following has the highest bond energy?

1. O — O
2. S — S
3. Se — Se
4. Te — Te
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

59. Secondary structure of a protein refers to ____________.

1. mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
2. three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain
3. linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
4. regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

60.

60. The major product of the following reaction is

Deselect Answer

1

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None

61.

61. The value of for NH₄ Cl, NaOH and NaCl are 129.8, 258.1 and 126.4 ohm^-1cm² mol^-1 Calculate for NH₄ OH solution in ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1.

1. 215.5
2. 251.5
3. 244.
4. 261.5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

62. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 30 minutes. Calculate the specific reaction rate of the reaction.

1. 0.342 min
2. 48.62 min
3. 0.023 min
4. 0.048 min
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

63. Match the reagent from Column I which on reaction with CH₃-CH=CH₂ gives some product given in Column II as per the codes given below:

1. A-4, B-1, C-5, D-3, E-2
2. A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-3
3. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-3, E-1
4. A-2, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

64. Which of the following will give a yellow or orange ppt. with 2,4 DNP?
(i) Propanal (ii) Propanone (iii) Propanoic acid IV) Glucose

1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) (ii)and (IV)
4. (i), (ii) (iii) and (IV)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

65. The Nernst equation E = E° – RT/nF ln Q indicates that the Q will be equal to equilibrium constant K_cwhen

1. E = E°
2. RT/nF = 1
3. E = zero
4. E° = 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

66. The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 4 g in 100 g of water at 25°C. If 2.0 g, 4.0 g and 6.0 g of the salt added to 100 g of water at 25°C, in system X, Y and Z, the vapour pressure would be in the order

1. X < Y < Z
2. X > Y > Z
3. Z > X = Y
4. X > Y = Z
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67.

67. If the electronegativity difference between two atoms A and B is 2.0, then the percentage of covalent character in the molecule is

1. 54%
2. 46%
3. 23%
4. 72%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

68. What will be the pH of 1 × 10⁻⁴ M H₂SO₄ solution?

1. 10.4
2. 3.70
3. 3
4. 13
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69.

69. What volume of carbon monoxide at 2 atm and 273°C is required in order to produce 5.6 g of metal by the reduction of Ferric Oxide?

1. 5.6 L
2. 4.25 L
3. 6.72 L
4. 3.36 L
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

70. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved in 40 g H₂O to give 20% by weight of solution?

1. 15 g
2. 11.5 g
3. 10 g
4. 31.5 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

71. Which facts are correctly represented?

1. Bond length : NO⁺ < N0²⁺ No^–
2. Bond order : NO⁺ > NO²⁺ = NO > NO^–
3. Bond length : NO⁺ < NO²⁺ = NO < No^–
4. Bond order : NO⁺ > NO²⁺ > NO > NO^–
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

72.

72. How many species among the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(i) But-2-ene
(ii) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(iii) 1,2-dichloroethene
(iv) 1-phenyl propene
(v) 3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(vi) 2-methyl propene

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73.

73. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.
A. n-butane B. 2-methylbutane
C. n-pentane
D. 2, 2-dimethylpropane

1. A > B > C > D
2. B > C > D >A
3. D > C > B > A
4. C > B > D > A
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

74. A particular reaction at 27 ∘ C for which Δ H > 0 and Δ S > 0 is found to be spontaneous. The reaction may proceed non-spontaneously

1. the temperature is decreased
2. the temperature is increased
3. the temperature is kept constant
4. the temperature is irrelevant.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

75.

75. Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10% by mass of glucose, 5% by mass of urea and 1% by mass of KCl. (K_f (H₂O) = 1.86 K/m)

1. −2.25°C
2. 0°C
3. −3.03°
4. −1.63°C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76.

76. Consider the following reaction sequence

Product C is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77.

77. In a laboratory, say you make an aqueous solution of Ni²⁺ containing [Ni(H2O)₆]²⁺and its magnetic moment was found to be 2.83 BM. When Ammonia is added to the solution, the magnetic moment of the solution

1. will remain same
2. increases from 2.83
3. decreases from 2.83
4. cannot be predicted theoretically
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78.

78. The EAN of metal atoms in [Fe(CO)₂ (NO₊)₂ ] and Co₂ (CO)₈respectively are:

1. 34, 36
2. 36, 34
3. 36, 36
4. 34 ,34
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79.

79. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO₄ and H₂SO₄?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80.

80. In the system X + 2Y ⇌ Z, the equilibrium concentrations are,[X] = 0.06 mol L⁻¹, [Y] = 0.12 mol L⁻¹, [Z] = 0.216 mol L⁻¹. Find the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

1. 250
2. 500
3. 125
4. 273
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81.

81. Which of the following radial distribution graphs corresponds l = 2 for the H – atom?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82.

82. A transition metal exists in its highest oxidation state. It is expected to behave as

1. a chelating agent
2. a central metal in a coordination compound
3. an oxidizing agent
4. a reducing agent.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83.

83. If the threshold frequency of a metal for photoelectric effect is v₀, then which of the following will not happen?

1. If frequency of the incident radiation is v₀, thenkinetic energy of the electrons ejected is zero.
2. If frequency of incident radiation is v, the kinetic energy of the electrons ejected will be hv – hv₀.
3. If frequency is kept same at v, but intensity is increased, the number of electrons ejected will increase.
4. If frequency of incident radiation is further increased, the number of photoelectrons ejected will increase.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84.

84. How much electricity in terms of faraday is required to produce 100 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?

1. 1 F
2. 2 F
3. 3 F
4. 5 F
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85.

85. Final product (B) obtained in the following sequence of reactions is

(1) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃(2) CH₂ = CH – CH₃(3) CH₂ = CH – CH₂-CH₃(4) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

86. The charge required for the oxidation of one mole of Mn₃O₄ into MnO₄^2-in presence of alkaline medium is

1. 289,500 C
2. 96,500 C
3. 10 x 96,500 C
4. 193,000 C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87.

87. For the reaction of type A → 2B, match the column I with column II.

1. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
2. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
3. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
4. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88.

88. Which of the following metals does not show inert pair effect?

1. Tl
2. Ga
3. In
4. Al
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89.

89. An atom of an element A has three electrons in its outermost shell, and that of B has six electrons in the outermost orbit. The formula of the compound formed by these two elements will be

1. A₃B₆2. A₂B₃
3. A₂B
4. A₃B₂
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90.

90. Which of the following expressions is correct?

1. v = a (z – b)
2. v² = a (z – b)²
3. v = a² (z – b)²
4. v² = a² (z – b)²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

91.

BIOLOGY

91. Assertion (A): Insulin decreases blood glucose levels.
Reason (R): Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver and muscles. Options:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

92.

92. Which of the following acts as an immunosuppressive agent used in organ transplantation?

1. Cyclosporin A from Trichoderma polysporum
2. Statins from Monascus purpureus
3. Penicillin from Penicillium notatum
4. Lactic acid from Lactobacillus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93.

93. Match cardiac structures with functions:

Correct combination:

1. P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
2. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
3. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
4. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

94.

94. Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with —

1. Leguminous roots
2. Wheat roots
3. Algae
4. Bryophytes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95.

95. Which muscle type has maximum number of mitochondria and why?

1. Skeletal muscle – rapid contraction
2. Smooth muscle – slow contraction
3. Cardiac muscle – continuous activity
4. All have equal mitochondria
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96.

96. Mycorrhiza helps the host plant by —

1. Fixing nitrogen directly
2. Absorbing phosphorus from soil
3. Increasing CO₂ fixation
4. Degrading cellulose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97.

97. Assertion (A): Gene therapy is commonly performed on somatic cells.
Reason (R): Changes in somatic cells are heritable.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98.

98. In competitive inhibition, increasing substrate concentration can overcome inhibition because:

1. Inhibitor binds irreversibly to enzyme
2. Km increases but Vmax remains same
3. Inhibitor and substrate compete for active site
4. Vmax decreases
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99.

99. Assertion (A): Damage to the hypothalamus can affect hunger and thirst.
Reason (R): Hypothalamus acts as an endocrine gland only.

1. Both A and R are true, R correctly explains A
2. Both A and R are true, R does not correctly explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

100.

100. A protein shows a complete loss of enzymatic activity when heated to a high temperature, but its primary structure remains unchanged. Which interaction is MOST directly disrupted during this process?

1. Peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
2. Covalent disulfide bonds between cysteine residues
3. Hydrogen bonds stabilizing secondary structure
4. Ionic bonds between substrate and active site during catalysis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101.

101. A dormant seed fails to germinate even under favourable conditions. Which hormonal treatment is most likely to break dormancy?

1. Increased abscisic acid
2. Increased ethylene
3. Increased gibberellin
4. Increased cytokinin
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102.

102. β-pleated sheets in proteins are stabilized by:

1. H-bonds parallel to backbone
2. H-bonds perpendicular to backbone
3. Disulfide bonds
4. Ionic bonds
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103.

103. A species occupies a much narrower range of resources in nature than it can tolerate in laboratory conditions. This difference is best explained by:

1. Abiotic stress
2. Competitive exclusion
3. High biotic potential
4. Reduced carrying capacity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

104.

104. Insertion of foreign DNA in lacZ gene results in:

1. Blue colonies on X-gal medium
2. White colonies on X-gal medium
3. No colony formation
4. Increased β-galactosidase activity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105.

105. Which biomolecule has maximum diversity in living systems?

1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Lipids
4. Nucleic acids
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

106. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envlope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

1. Decondensation from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
2. Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina.
3. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast.
4. Formation of the contractile and transcription from chromosome.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107.

107. The prosthetic group in hemoglobin is:

1. Globin
2. Heme
3. FAD
4. NAD+
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

108. Which statements are correct?
1. Evolution always leads to increasing complexity
2. Natural selection acts on phenotypes
3. Mutations are always harmful
4. Gene flow can introduce new alleles
Options:

1. 2 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. All correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

109. The present biodiversity crisis differs from previous mass extinctions mainly because it is:

1. Restricted to animals
2. Caused by extraterrestrial events
3. Driven by a single species
4. Occurring over millions of years
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

110. In Michaelis-Menten kinetics, at [S] = 10 Km, % Vmax achieved is:

1. 10%
2. 50%
3. 91%
4. 99%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111.

111. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Insertion of foreign DNA can inactivate antibiotic resistance genes
2. pBR322 contains only one selectable marker
3. It is a plasmid vector
4. It can replicate independently
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112.

112. Open vascular bundles in stems contain:

1. No cambium
2. Fascicular cambium
3. Interfascicular cambium
4. Only phloem cambium
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

113.

113. Assertion (A): DNA ligase cannot join blunt ends efficiently.
Reason (R): Blunt ends lack hydrogen bonding between complementary bases.

1. Both A and R are true, R explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

114. Bulliform cells are found in:

1. Dicot leaves
2. Monocot leaves
3. Dicot stems
4. Root epidermis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115.

115. Which are correct?
1. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by dopamine
2. Growth hormone is highest during deep sleep
3. TSH directly stimulates thyroid hormone release independent of iodine
4. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion
Options:

1. 1, 2, 4
2. 1, 3, 4
3. 2, 3, 4
4. All correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

116.

116. In a population, frequency of allele A = 0.7. Find frequency of heterozygous individuals.

1. 0.42
2. 0.49
3. 0.21
4. 0.09
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117.

117. Assertion (A): Genetic drift is more significant in small populations.
Reason (R): Smaller populations have lower mutation rates.

1. Both A and R are true, R explains A
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3. A is true, R is false
4. A is false, R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

118.

118. Priestley’s experiment showed that plants release a gas only after:

1. 24 hours of light exposure
2. Being kept in dark for several hours
3. Continuous CO₂ supply
4. Addition of mineral nutrients
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119.

119. Correct sequence of hormone action:
1. Second messenger formation
2. Receptor binding
3. Gene expression
4. Protein synthesis

1. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
2. 2 → 3 → 1 → 4
3. 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
4. 1 → 2 → 4 → 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

120.

120. Jan Ingenhousz proved that O2 evolution occurs only from:

1. Non-green parts in dark
2. Green parts in sunlight
3. Roots in water
4. Stems during night
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

121.

121. In myelinated neurons, conduction is faster because:

1. Continuous depolarization
2. Increased Na⁺ leakage
3. Saltatory conduction
4. Absence of nodes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

122.

122. In variegated leaf experiment, starch forms only in:

1. White areas exposed to light
2. Green areas exposed to light
3. All areas in dark
4. Yellow areas only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

123.

123. Which of the following does NOT contribute to Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium disturbance?

1. Gene migration
2. Genetic drift
3. Random mating
4. Natural selection
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

124.

124. T.W. Engelmann’s experiment used bacteria to show action spectrum peaks at:

1. Green and yellow light
2. Blue and red light
3. Violet and orange light
4. UV and infrared
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

125.

125. A plant with genotype AaBb is test-crossed. But genes A and B show complete linkage (no crossing over). What will be the phenotypic ratio?

1. 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1 ∶ 1
2. 1 ∶ 1
3. 3 ∶ 1
4. 1: 2: 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126.

126. Cornelius van Niel’s work on bacteria showed photosynthesis involves:

1. H₂O → O₂ always
2. H₂S as H-donor in bacteria
3. CO₂ reduction without light
4. O₂ evolution from sulfur
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

127.

127. Which of the following is absent in frog?

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system
3. Coronary circulation
4. Lymphatic system
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128.

128. tRNA has anticodon and carries:

1. Specific amino acid
2. mRNA
3. DNA template
4. Ribosome subunit
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129.

129. Identify the correct sequence at synapse:

1. Ca²⁺ entry
2. Vesicle fusion
3. Neurotransmitter binding
4. Action potential arrival

1. 4 → 1 → 2 → 3
2. 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
3. 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
4. 4 → 1 → 3 → 2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130.

130. Lac operon is inducible because:

1. Repressor always binds operator
2. Lactose inactivates repressor
3. Glucose activates it
4. CAP always present
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

131.

131. A population suddenly decreases due to a natural disaster, and surviving individuals have different allele frequencies than original population. This is:

1. Gene flow
2. Founder effect
3. Bottleneck effect
4. Adaptive radiation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132.

132. If complete oxidation of 1 glucose yields 36 ATP, how many ATP from 1 glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)?

1. 18
2. 19
3. 17
4. 20
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

133.

133. Which of the following cells can transform into macrophages?

1. Neutrophils
2. Basophils
3. Monocytes
4. Eosinophils
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

134.

134. RQ = 0.9 typically indicates respiration of:

1. Fats primarily
2. Mixed carbohydrates + proteins
3. Organic acids
4. Glucose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135.

135. Match Column I and II

Options:

1. A-3, B-2, C-1
2. A-2, B-1, C-3
3. A-1, B-2, C-3
4. A-3, B-1, C-2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

136.

136. Succinyl CoA synthetase produces GTP equivalent to:

1. 1 ATP
2. 2 ATP
3. 3 ATP
4. 4 ATP
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

137.

137. In frog, if renal portal system is removed, which is MOST affected?

1. Oxygen supply to muscles
2. Filtration of blood from hind limbs
3. Liver metabolism
4. Lung ventilation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

138.

138. Which Krebs cycle intermediate is structurally similar to amino acid glutamate?

1. Citrate
2. α-Ketoglutarate
3. Succinate
4. Oxaloacetate
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139.

139. An organism is unicellular, lacks a cell wall in some stages, shows heterotrophic nutrition, and reproduces by binary fission. However, it possesses membrane-bound organelles. The most appropriate classification is:

1. Monera
2. Cannot be classified
3. Fungi
4. Protista
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

140.

140. What is Bohr effect in oxygen dissociation curve?

1. Shift of the curve downward due to increase in pCO2
2. Shift of the curve downward due to increase in pO2
3. Shift of the curve upward due to decrease in pCO2
4. Shift of the curve upward due to increase in pO2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141.

141. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Paired appendages are absent in division Gnathostomata
2. Notochord runs the entire length of the body in cephalochordates
3. Hemichordates have segmented wornlike body
4. Reptiles have external ear opening called tympanum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142.

142. A secretory protein synthesized in a eukaryotic cell undergoes several modifications before being released. If the Golgi apparatus is experimentally inhibited, which of the following will most likely occur?

1. Protein synthesis stops immediately
2. Proteins accumulate in rough endoplasmic reticulum
3. Proteins are directly secreted without modification
4. Lysosomes increase their activity
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

143.

143. The correct pathway of milk in the mammary glands of human is

1. Mammary lobe – mammary duct – ampulla – areola
2. Mammary alveoli – mammary duct – ampulla – lactiferous duct
3. Mammary duct – mammary alveoli – ampulla – lactiferous duct
4. Mammary duct – ampulla – mammary lobe – nipple
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

144.

144. A fungus is observed to have:
i. Septate mycelium
ii. Asexual reproduction by conidia
iii. Sexual reproduction producing ascospores within asci
If mutation prevents formation of sexual structures, which change is most likely?

1. Complete loss of reproduction
2. Continued reproduction via conidia
3. Shift to basidiospore formation
4. Formation of zoospores instead
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

145.

145. One of the grounds for termination of pregnancy (MTP) is

1. The fetus is female
2. The baby will be born in a poor family
3. The continuation of pregnancy would be grave physical injury for the mother
4. If two registered medical practitioners gave permission for MTP
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146.

146. A batch of dormant cereal seeds is divided into three groups:
Group A: Treated with abscisic acid
Group B: Treated with gibberellin
Group C: Treated with both ABA and GA in equal concentrations
After incubation under optimal conditions, which observation is most likely?

1. Only A germinates
2. Only B germinates
3. B shows maximum germination, C shows reduced germination
4. All groups germinate equally
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147.

147. ANF mechanism is activated when

1. GFR reduces
2. Blood flow to the atria of the heart increases
3. Na+ concentration of the body decline
4. Diuresis occurs in the body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

148.

148. A mutation disrupts the polymerisation of tubulin proteins in a cell. Which of the following processes will be most severely affected?

1. Muscle contraction
2. Chromosome movement during mitosis and cilia movement
3. Cell wall formation
4. Lipid synthesis in smooth ER
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149.

149. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character

1. The female parent is heterozygous
2. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character
3. The trait under study could not be colour blindness
4. The male parent is homozygous dominant
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

150.

150. Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeletal system?

1. Sternum
2. Atlas
3. Skull
4. Coxal bone
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

151.

151. A critically endangered plant produces recalcitrant seeds (cannot be dried or stored). Which conservation method would be most effective?

1. Seed bank
2. Botanical garden
3. Cryopreservation of tissues
4. Wildlife sanctuary
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

152.

152. PMNL of WBC is a type of which barrier?

1. Cytokine barrier
2. Cellular barrier
3. Physical barrier
4. Physiological barrier
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

153.

153. In a fern, if the haploid number is 8, how many chromosomes would be present in: zygote, rhizoid, spore mother cell, and oosphere respectively?

1. 16, 8, 16, 8
2. 8, 8, 16, 16
3. 16, 16, 8, 8
4. 8, 16, 8, 16
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154.

154. Select the incorrect match from the given options

1. Radiotherapy – tumor cells are irradiated lethally
2. Chemotherapy – drugs are used to kill cancerous cells
3. MRI – detect pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue
4. Computed tomography – uses X-rays to generate a two-dimensional image of the internal organs
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

155.

155. The characters given below are shown by
i. Extracellular and intracellular digestion
ii. Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic, tissue level of organization
iii. Bisexual, external fertilization and indirect development
iv. No asexual reproduction
v. Presence of 8 comb plates

1. Ctenophora
2. Porifera
3. Cnidaria
4. Rotifers
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156.

156. Which of the following statements about the role of ADH in water balance is correct?

1. ADH increases water permeability of the collecting ducts.
2. ADH decreases water reabsorption in the nephron.
3. ADH is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
4. ADH promotes sodium excretion in urine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157.

157. Which of the given organisms reproduce asexually by non-motile spores?

1. Laminaria
2. Polysiphonia
3. Chara
4. Volvox
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

158.

158. In ginger, vegetative propagation occurs through:

1. Rhizome
2. Tuber
3. Bulbils
4. Corm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159.

159. The correct sequence of phases in the menstrual cycle is

1. Menstrual phase, follicular phase and luteal phase
2. Menstrual phase, luteal phase and secretory phase
3. Menstrual phase, proliferative phase and secretory phase
4. Both 1 and 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

160.

160. Match the following diseases with their treatment

1. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
2. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
3. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

161.

161. If a disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to the male progeny, the disease is

1. Sex-linked dominant
2. Sex-linked recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. Autosomal recessive
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162.

162. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the given figures?

1. Both the organisms belong to Kingdom Protista.
2. Both move with the help of flagella.
3. A shows heterotrophic as well as autotrophic mode of nutrition, while ‘B’ shows only heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
4. Both (1) and (3)
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163.

163. Observe the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Respiration is most efficient in insects among the invertebrates
Statement II: In insects, air is directly carried to the cells by tracheoles

1. Both statement I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Only statement I is correct
4. Only statement II is correct
Deselect Answer

1

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164.

164. A floral diagram reveals:
i. Sepals and petals arranged alternately
ii. Stamens equal in number to petals and epipetalous
iii. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary
iv. Ovules attached to a central axis, ovary divided into two locules
v. Flower is actinomorphic and bisexual
Which family does this diagram best represent?

1. Fabaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Liliaceae
4. Asteraceae
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1

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165.

165. Choose the correct statements from the following statements
i. Progesterone – implantation and maintenance of pregnancy
ii. Inner cell mass – group of cells that would differentiate as zygote
iii. Cleavage – mitotic division of zygote
iv. Luteinizing hormone – oogenesis
v. Implantation – embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium
vi. Prolactin – lactation after birth
vii. Oxytocin – uterine contraction during labour

1. i, ii, iv, vi
2. i, ii, iv, v, vii
3. i, iii, v, vi, vii
4. iii, iv, v, vi
Deselect Answer

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166.

166. Pteridophytes are evolutionarily more advanced than bryophytes because:

1. Both gametophyte and sporophyte are photosynthetic and independent in pteridophytes, whereas bryophytes have a dominant sporophyte
2. Sporophyte is dominant and independent in pteridophytes, while in bryophytes it remains attached and dependent on the gametophyte
3. Gametophyte is dominant in pteridophytes but reduced in bryophytes
4. Sporophyte is absent in bryophytes but present in pteridophytes
Deselect Answer

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167.

167. Slogan for a happy and small family is

1. Hum do hamare chaar
2. Hum do hamare ek
3. Hum do hamare do
4. None of these
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168.

168. Which of the following is not observed during contraction of muscle fibre?

1. A band retain the length
2. Shortening of sarcomere
3. I band gets reduced
4. H zone retains the length
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1

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169.

169. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?

1. Metagenesis
2. Gastrovascular cavity
3. Diploblastic
4. Cnidoblast
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170.

170. Select the incorrect statement

1. Heroin is a depressant which slows down body functions
2. Morphine has an effect on the neuromuscular system
3. Cocaine interferes with the transport of dopamine
4. Morphine is a powerful painkiller
Deselect Answer

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3

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171.

171. Assertion (A): During the menstrual cycle, ovulation takes place approximately on the 14th day.
Reason (R): Rapid secretion of LH (luteinizing hormone) in the middle of the cycle induces rupture of the Graafian follicle and release of the ovum.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

172.

172. Assertion (A): Immunosuppressants should be avoided in organ transplant patients.
Reason (R): These drugs make the body highly susceptible to a number of infectious diseases

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

173.

173. The clavicle articulates with the scapula in the

1. Glenoid cavity
2. Acetabulum
3. Acromion
4. Pubic symphysis
Deselect Answer

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None

174.

174. In which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle are histone proteins predominantly synthesized, a crucial event for DNA packaging during cell division?

1. During G2 stage of prophase
2. During entire prophase
3. During S-phase
4. During telophase
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175.

175. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits.

Choose the correct answer from the option below:

1. (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iii)
2. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
3. (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii)
4. (A) – (ii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii)
Deselect Answer

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176.

176. Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertation (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of Moss is protonema stage.
Reason (R): Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

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3

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177.

177. Which type of modification is seen in the stem of limited growth?

1. Phylloclades
2. Cladodes
3. Stem Thorns
4. Stem tendrils
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178.

178. Which of the following is true regarding the post-mitotic gap phase of the cell cycle?

1. During this phase the cell is metabolically active.
2. Replication of DNA occurs.
3. The cell grows continuously but does not replicate
4. Both (A) and (C)
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179.

179. Phyllode is present in

1. Euphorbia
2. Asparagus
3. Opuntia
4. Australian Acacia
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180.

180. Which of the following correctly represents the Z-scheme of electron transport?

1. PS II → PS I → NADP⁺
2. PS I → PS II → NADP⁺
3. PS II → Cyt b₆f → PS I → NADP⁺
4. PS I → Cyt b₆f → PS II → NADP⁺
Deselect Answer

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March 30, 2026
NEET REVISON TEST XVII (28.03.2026)

Welcome to your NEET REVISON TEST XVII (28.03.2026)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

1.

PHYSICS
1. The ratio of the RMS speed (v_RMS) of the molecules of an ideal gas to the speed of sound (v_s) in the gas, i.e. v_RMS/v_s =

Deselect Answer

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2.

2. A straight vertical conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a small distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is:

1. greater than at Q
2. same as at Q
3. less than at Q
4. greater or less than at Q depending upon the strength of currentDeselect Answer

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None

3.

3. After passing through a polarizer, a linearly polarized light of intensity I is incident on an analyser making an angle of 30° with the axes of the polariser. The intensity of light emitted from the analyser will be:

1. I/2
2. I/3
3. 3I/4
4. 2I/3Deselect Answer

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None

4.

4. A particle is moving along the x-axis with its position (x) varying with time (t) as x = αt⁴ + βt² + γt + δ. The ratio of its initial velocity to its initial acceleration is:

1. 2α: δ
2. γ: 2δ
3. 4α: β
4. γ : 2 β
Deselect Answer

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None

5.

5. A uniform beam 3.0 m long, of weight 100 N has a 300 N weight placed 0.5 m from one end. The beam is suspended by a string 1.0 m from the same end. A diagram of the weights placed on the beam is given below:

How far from the other end must a weight of 80 N be placed for the beam to be balanced?

1. 0.75 m
2. 2.25 m
3. 1.25 m
4. 1.875 m
Deselect Answer

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3

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6.

6. A ray of light, incident on a thin prism (angle = 3° ), emerges deviated by 2°. The refractive index of the material of the prism is:

1. 3/2
2. 4/3
3. 5/3
4. 5/2
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7.

7. Raindrops fall from the sky making an angle of 30° with the vertical. If a man runs at 2 m/s, he finds that the drops fall vertically. If he were to run in the opposite direction with the same speed, the raindrops will fall with a vertical speed of:

1. 2 m/s
2. 4 m/s
3. 2 √3 m/s
4. 4 √3 m/s
Deselect Answer

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8.

8. A long cylinder of radius R carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-section. The magnitude of the magnetic field is:

1. maximum at the axis of the cylinder
2. maximum at the surface of the cylinder
3. maximum at an infinite distance from the cylinder
4. minimum at the surface of the cylinder
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9.

9. The radius of the orbit corresponding to the 4^th excited state in Li⁺⁺ ion is:
(where is the radius of the first orbit in the hydrogen atom)

1. 25/3 a₀
2. 16/3 a₀
3. 25a₀
4. 12a₀
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None

10.

10. Three charges are arranged at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a, as shown in the figure.

The electric field at the centre of the base of the triangle will vanish if:

1. q=Q
2. q=-Q
3. q=-2Q
4. q=0
Deselect Answer

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11.

11. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): In the human body, uniformity of temperature is maintained by facilitating heat transfer by forced convection.
Reason (R): Heat from metabolic reactions is carried from the hotter parts to the colder parts by circulating blood, pumped by the heart.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

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12.

12. If the time period of a 2 m long simple pendulum is 2 s, the acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion is:

1. π² m/s²
2. 2π² m/s²
3. 9.8 m/s² 4. 16 m/s²
Deselect Answer

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13.

13. Consider the bob of a pendulum of mass M, suspended by a wire of length L, cross-section A. As the bob oscillates, it has a speed v at its lowest point. The stress in the wire, at the lowest point, is:

Deselect Answer

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14.

1. 5, √3
2. 4, √5
3. 10, √2
4. 10, 2Deselect Answer

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15.

15. In which of the following thermodynamic processes, as represented by a (P-V) diagram, might the heat energy absorbed by the system be equal to the area under the (P-V) graph?

Deselect Answer

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16.

16. PQ and RS are long parallel conductors separated by a certain distance. M is the mid-point between them (see the figure). The net magnetic field at M is B. Now, the current 2 A is switched off. The field at M now becomes:

1. 2B
2. B
3. B/2
4. 3B
Deselect Answer

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None

17.

17. Two identical resistances are joined in parallel to form a composite resistance. If one of the resistances decreases by 2%, the equivalent resistance of the pair:

1. decreases by 2%
2. decreases by 1%.
3. increases by 2%
4. increases by 1%
Deselect Answer

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18.

18. Buses ply between two towns, (A, B) separated by 6 km: those going from A towards B go at 20 km/h while those going from B to A go at 30 km/h. If a passenger were to make a round trip from A to B and back, without stopping, his average speed will be:

1. 25 km/h
2. 24 km/h
3. 27 km/h
4. 28 km/h

Deselect Answer

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19.

19. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is:

1. the frequency of microwaves has no relation with the natural frequency of water molecules.
2. microwaves are heatwaves, so always produce heating
3. infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
4. the frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules.
Deselect Answer

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20.

20. Pick the correct graph between potential V at distance r from centre for the uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R.

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21.

21. How much energy is carried by each photon emitted from a 5 mW laser operating at a wavelength of 663 nm?
(take h = 6.63 × 10^-34 J-s and c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s )

1. 3 × 10^-18 J
2. 3 × 10^-19 J
3. 3 × 10^-20 J
4. 3 × 10^-21 J
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22.

22. What is the change in gravitational potential energy when a body of mass is raised to a height R above the surface of the Earth? (where R is the radius of the Earth)

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23.

23. Electrons (mass ) moving with a velocity v are incident normally onto a single slit of width d, and are detected on a screen placed at a distance D behind the slit. The central point on the screen where most of the electrons are detected is O. The closest point to O where no electrons are detected is X. Then OX equals:

1. hD/mvd
2. hD/2mvd
3. 2hD/mvd
4. 3hD/2mvd

Deselect Answer

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None

24.

24. A system consists of three masses m₁, m₂ and m₃ connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m₁ hangs freely, and m₂ and m₃ are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = μ.) The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m₁ is:
(Assume m₁= m₂ = m₃ = m and g is the acceleration. due to gravity.)

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25.

25. Two identical 5 kg blocks are moving with the same speed of 2 m/s towards each other along a frictionless horizontal surface. Two blocks collide, stick together, and come to rest. Consider the two blocks as a system. The work done by external and internal forces is respectively:

1. 0,0
2. 0, 20 J
3. 0,-20 J
4. 20 J,-20 J

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26.

26. A 100 Ω resistance is connected in series with a 4 H inductor and an AC source voltage. The instantaneous voltage across the resistance is V_R = 2 sin(1000t) V

Which of the following options is incorrectly matched?

1. A → P
2. D → S
3. B → Q
4. C → R
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27.

27. A rod of mass M and length L is suspended vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to rotate about A and then released. There is no friction anywhere.

The angular speed of the road, when it reaches its lowest position, is . Then ω²=

1. g/L
2. 2g/L
3. 3g/L
4. 12g/L
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28.

28. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + l) The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:

1. 1/2 MgL
2. Mgl
3. MgL
4. 1/2 Mgl
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29.

29. Match the terms of Column-1 with the items of Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Codes:

1. A →P, B → Q, C → R
2. A →Q, B → R, C → P
3. A →Q, B → P, C → R
4. A → R, B → Q, C → P
Deselect Answer

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30.

30. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Work done by all forces on a body equals the change in its kinetic energy.
Statement II: Work done by non-conservative forces does not change the kinetic energy of a system.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
Deselect Answer

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31.

31. For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of the number of rotations made in a day by the hour hand to the second hand, respectively, is:

1. 24 :1
2. 1 : 720
3. 1 : 60
4. 2 : 5
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32.

32. Two identical particles, each of mass m, are moving toward each other with velocities 2v and v. The velocity of their centre-of-mass will be:

1. v
2. 2v
3. v/2
4. zero
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33.

33. The pressure wave P = 0.01sin (1000t – 3x) Nm^-2, corresponds to the sound produced by a vibrating blade on a day when the atmospheric temperature is 0℃. On some other day, when the temperature is T, the speed of sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is found to be 336 ms^-1 .The approximate value of is:

1. 4 ℃
2. 12 ℃
3. 11 ℃
4. 15 ℃
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34.

34. Two coherent light sources produce an interference pattern, with their intensities in the ratio of 2x. What is the value of the ratio

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35.

35. The resistance R can be varied between 0 (short-circuit) and ∞ (infinity, open-circuit). The current i (which depends on R) has a maximum value of:

1. 6 A
2. 3A
3. 1.5 A
4. 2 A
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36.

36. Two charges, q₁ = 1.1 ×10^-8 C and q₂ = 1.1 ×10^-9 C are initially placed 0.1 m apart. How much energy is required to bring them to a distance of 0.01 m apart ?

1. 10^-9 J
2. 10 ^-6 J
3. 10^-8 J
4. 10^-5 J
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37.

37. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m/s and at an angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 m/s at the same angle follows a trajectory that is identical to the trajectory of the projectile fired from the Earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the other planet is: (given g = 9.8 m/s²)

1. 3.5m/s² 2. 5.9 m/s²
3. 16.3 m/s² 4. 110.8 m/s²
Deselect Answer

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38.

38. The nuclear radius is given by R = r₀ A^1/3 where r₀ is constant and A is the atomic mass number. Then:

1. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is twice that of Sn¹¹⁹.
2. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is thrice that of Sn¹¹⁹
3. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is the same as that of Sn¹¹⁹
4. The nuclear mass density of U²³⁸ is half that of Sn¹¹⁹
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39.

39. A very long conducting wire is bent in a semi-circular shape from A to B as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the point P for steady current configuration is given by:

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40.

40. A rubber cord has a cross-sectional area 1 mm² and the total unstretched length 10 cm. It is stretched to 12 cm and then released to project a mass of 80 g. The Young’s modulus for rubber is 5 × 10⁸ N – m² .What would be the velocity of mass when the rubber cord is unstretched?

1. 5 m/s
2. 3 m/s
3. 7 m/s
4. 2 m/s
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41.

41. A hollow metal sphere of radius R. is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre :

1. decreases as increases for r < R and for r > R.
2. increases as increases for and for r > R
3. is zero as increases for r R.
4. is zero as increases for r R
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42.

42. An AC source given by V = V_m sin(ωt) is connected to a pure inductor L in a circuit and I_m is the peak value of the AC current. The instantaneous power supplied to the inductor is:

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43.

43. By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density – 13.6 g/cm³). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass up to a maximum depth of:

1. 10 cm
2. 75 cm
3. 13.6 cm
4. 1.36 cm
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44.

44. A candle 21 cm tall sits 4 m away from a diverging lens with a focal length of 3 m (see figure).

Where is the resulting image?

1. 12 m from the lens on the same side as the object.
2. 12/7 m from the lens on the same side as the object.
3. 12 m from the lens on the opposite side of the object.
4. 12/7 m from the lens on the opposite side of the object.
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45.

45. A wire shaped in the form of a right angled triangle XYZ moves with a uniform velocity in a region of space where there exists a uniform magnetic field B, acting into the plane. The velocity v is along the side YZ. The length XY = l.

The motional EMF acting along XY is:

1. Blv
2. Blv sin θ
3. Blv cos θ
4. zero
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46.

CHEMISTRY
46.; Tetrahedral and diamagnetic compound among the following is:

1. [NiCl₄]^2-2. [Ni(CN)₄]^2-3. Ni(CO)₄
4. [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺

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47.

47. The correct decreasing order of bond length in the given compound is:

1. I>III>II
2. II>I>III
3. I>II>III
4. III>II> I
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48.

48. The reaction, among the following, that is anticipated to have the highest change in entropy (∆S) is:

1. Ca(S) + 1⁄2 O₂ (g) → CaO(S)
2. C(S) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g)
3. N₂ (S) + O₂ (g) → 2NO(g)
5. CaCO₃ (S)→ CaO(S)+ CO₂ (g)
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49.

49. What is the freezing point of an aqueous solution that boils at 101 ℃?
(Given: K_f = 1.86 ℃/m and K_b = 0.51 ℃/m)

1. 3.647 ℃/m
2. – 3.647 ℃/m
3. – 0.364 ℃/m
4. – 5.647 ℃/m
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50.

50. What is the product (Y) formed in the following sequence of reactions?

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51.

51. The oxidising ability of the given anions follows the order:

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52.

52. Which of the following is the correct sequence for converting 4-nitrotoluene to 2- bromotoluene?

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53.

53. If 75% of a first-order reaction was completed in 90 minutes, 60% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (in minutes):
(Take: log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40)

1. 50 min
2. 60 min
3. 70 min.
4. 65 min
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54.

54. An amine is reacted with benzene sulphonyl chloride then a solid compound is formed which is insoluble in alkali. The amine is:

1. CH₃ – CH₂ – NH₂
2. CH₃ – NH – CH₂ – CH₃
3. (CH₃)₃ N
4. C₆ H₅ – NH₂
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55.

55. In the given reaction, the oxidation state of Cl in the major product will be:
Cl₂ O₇ + H₂ O₂ →

1. +1
2. +2
3. +3
4. +5
Deselect Answer

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56.

56. Which of the following is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

1. Me₂ SiCl₂
2. Me₃ SiCl
3. PhSiCl₃
4. MeSiCl₃
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57.

57. According to Molecular Orbital Theory, which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. C₂ has no unpaired electrons.
2. In C₂ molecule, both the bonds are bonds.
3. C₂ is paramagnetic but C₂^2- is diamagnetic.
4. In C₂^2- ion, there is one σ and two π bonds.
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None

58.

58. The incorrect reaction among the following is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

59. Given that the total pressure inside a reaction vessel is 1.12 atm at 105 ℃ for the reaction NH₄ HS_(s) ⇌ NH₃^(g) + H₂S_(g). What is the value of

1. 0.56
2. 1.25
3. 0.31
4. 0.03
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60.

60. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The bond angle of SO₂ is less than that of H₂O
Reason (R): Both the molecules form a V-shaped structure.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61.

61. An element R forms an oxide with the formula R₂ O₅ where R shows its highest oxidation number. To which group does the element R belong in the periodic table?

1. Group 14
2. Group 15
3. Group 16
4. Group 17
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

62. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Glycogen is similar to amylose in its structure.
Statement II: Glycogen is found in yeast and fungi also.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

63. Which of the following species has a bond angle of

1. SF₆
2. NCl₃
3. BCl₃ 4. PH₃
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

64. Arrange the first ionization enthalpies of Na Mg, Al, and Si in ascending order:

1. Na Al < Si
2. Na > Mg > Al > Si
3. Na < Mg < Al < Si
4. Na > Mg > Al < Si
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

65. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Freon-12 (CCl₂ F₂) is manufactured from tetrachloromethane through the Swarts reaction.
Reason (R): In the stratosphere, freon is capable of initiating radical chain reactions that may disrupt the natural ozone balance.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

66. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N-N bond(s) is(are):
A. N₂ O B. N₂ O₃
C. N₂ O₄ D. N₂ O₅
1. A, B, and C
2. B and C
3. D only
4. A only
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

67.

67. Calculate the approximate mass of CO₂ produced when I gm of butane (C₄ H₁₀) is burned with an excess of O₂ form CO₂
1. 1g
2. 2g
3. 3g
4. 4g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

68. The incorrect statement about spectra is:

1. Atomic spectra can be used in chemical analysis to identify unknown atoms.
2. Each element in the gaseous state has a unique line spectrum.
3. The number of lines in the spectrum is the same as the number of electrons in the atom.
4. The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of an electric field is known as the Stark effect.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

69.

69. Assertion (A): Carbon forms two oxides CO and CO₂ where CO is neutral whereas CO₂ Reason (R): CO₂ will combine with water to give carbonic acid and CO is soluble in water.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

70. Assertion (A): The coordination number of Fe and Co in [Fe(C₂ O₄)₃]^3- and [Co (en)₃]³⁺ is 6.
Reason (R): and en (ethane-1, 2-diamine) are bidentate ligands.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

71. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

1. ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H should be highly positive
2. ∆S is negative and therefore, ∆H should be highly negative
3. ∆ S is positive and therefore, ∆H should be negative
4. -∆ S is positive and therefore, ∆H should also be highly positive
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

72.

72. What is the correct ascending order of masses for the following (I to IV)?
(Atomic mass: N = 14, 0 = 16 Cu = 63 )
I. 1 molecule of oxygen
II. 1 atom of nitrogen
III. 1 × 10^-10 g molecule-weight of oxygen
IV. 1 × 10^-10 g atom-weight of copper

Codes
1. II<I<III<IV
2. IV<III<II<I
3. II<III<I<IV
4. III<IV<1<II
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

73.

73. The IUPAC name for the following compound is:

1. 4-Hexen-3-one
2. 3-Hexenone
3. 2-Hexene-4-one
4. Hex-3-on-4-ene
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

74. The correct statement regarding cellulose among the following is:

1. Cellulose is not found in plants.
2. Cellulose is a straight-chain polysaccharide composed only of β-D-glucose units which are joined by glycosidic linkage between Cl of one glucose unit and C4 of the next glucose unit.
3. Cellulose is a branched chain polysaccharide composed only of α-D-glucose units which are joined by glycosidic linkage between Cl of one glucose unit and C3 of the next glucose unit.
4. Cellulose is the least abundant organic substance in the plant kingdom.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

75.

75. Consider the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1:1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene. The correct statement is:
Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 ℃
(Given, vapour pressure data at 25℃ benzene 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)

1. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
2. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
3. Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
4. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

76.

Deselect Answer

1

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None

77.

77. The correct sequence of reagents to obtain iodoethane from ethanol, among the options provided, is:

1. a- Red P,Br₂; b-AgF
2. a-H₂SO₄/heat; b- I₂/ CCl₄
3. a-KMnO₄; b-SOCl₂
4. a-Red P, Br₂; b-NalDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

78.

78. Consider the following statements:
A. Benzene gives substitution reaction more readily than addition reaction.
B. In benzyne mechanism reaction intermediate is carbanion also.
C. Tertiary alcohol always gives S_N1 reaction.
D. Reactivity of alcohol is very poor for SN reaction because alcohol is strongly acidic in character.
Of these statements:

1. only a is correct.
2. a and c are correct
3. a, b, and d are correct
4. a, b and c are correctDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

79.

79. The unpaired electron in Eu³⁺ will bear similarities to that found in:

1. Yb²⁺
2. Ho³⁺
3. Sm²⁺ 4. Gd³⁺Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

80.

80. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Helium is used to dilute oxygen in the diving apparatus.
Reason (R): Helium has a high solubility in
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81.

81. In view of the signs of ∆_r G° for the following reactions:
PbO₂ + Pb → 2PbO, ∆_r G° < 0
SnO₂ + Sn → 2PbO, ∆_r G° < 0
The oxidation states more characteristic for lead and tin are respectively:

1. For lead +2, for tin +2
2. For lead +4, for tin +4
3. For lead +2, for tin +4
4. For lead +4, for tin +2Deselect Answer

1

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None

82.

82. Consider the following reaction:

The products A and B, respectively, are:

Deselect Answer

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None

83.

83. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

1. In K vs T
2. In K/T vs T
3. In K vs 1/T
4. In K/T vs 1/TDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

84.

84. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A)       (B)       (C)       (D)
1. (III)      (I)        (II) (IV)
2. (II) (III)      (IV)      (I)
3. (III) (II)       (I)        (IV)
4. (IV) (III)      (II)       (I)Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

85.

85. The shortest wavelength of the Paschen series for H-atom is:

1. 9/R
2. 16/R
3. 144/7R
4. 7R/144Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

86. Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P):

Deselect Answer

1

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None

87.

87. In a set of reactions, propanoic acid yielded a compound D.

The structure of compound D would be:

1. CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ NH₂
2. CH₃ CH₂CONH₂
3. CH₃CH₂ NHCH₂
4. CH₃ CH₂ NH₂Deselect Answer

1

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None

88.

88. A 5A current is passed through a solution of copper sulphate for 40 min. The amount of copper deposited at the cathode is:

1. 40.65g
2. 0.45g
3. 3.94g
4. 65.04gDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89.

89. The molar solubility of CaF₂ (K_sp = 5.3×10^-11) in 0.1 M solution of NaF will be:

1. 5.3×10^-11 mol L^-1
2. 5.3×10^-8 mol L^-1
3. 5.3×10^-9 mol L^-1
4. 5.3×10^-10 mol L^-1Deselect Answer

1

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None

90.

90. E° for the cell, Zn | Zn²⁺ (aq) || Cu2+ (aq) | Cu(s) is 1.01 V at 25℃ . The equilibrium constant for the cell reaction Zn + Cu²⁺ (aq) ⇌ Cu + Zn²⁺ (aq) of the order:

1. 10^-37 2. 10³⁷
3. 10^-17
4. 10¹⁷Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

91.

BIOLOGY

91. Cancer is characterised by:
A: Uncontrolled cell division and abnormal growth
B: Loss of cell differentiation and invasion of healthy tissues
C: Formation of tumors that are malignant

1. Only A and B
2. Only A and C
3. Only B and C
4. A, B and C
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

92.

92. The changes in the ovary and the uterus Mduring menstrual cycle are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones, where:
I: The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
II: Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day).

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93.

93. Though we cannot be certain, what can be the probable reason’s for the sudden disappearance of dinosaurs from the Earth?
I: Climatic changes killed them
II: Most of them evolved into birds

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
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1

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3

4
None

94.

94. Identify the correct statement:

1. Algae are primarily parasitic and thrive in dry environments.
2. Algae are autotrophic organisms and can be both freshwater and marine.
3. Algae are always unicellular and lack chlorophyll.
4. Algae reproduce only through sexual means.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95.

95. Which of the following white blood cells is not correctly matched to its abundance out of the total white blood cells in a healthy human being?

1. Neutrophils boxed 60 − 65 %
2. Eosinophils 2 − 3 %
3. Monocytes 6 − 8 %
4. Basophils 20 − 25 %
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96.

96. Cocaine acts through:

1. Interfering with the action of acetylcholine
2. Potentiating catecholamines
3. Interfering with the transport of dopamine
4. Releasing endorphins and enkephalins
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97.

97. Consider the following statements regarding contraception:
I: Condoms are effective in preventing both pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.
II: Oral contraceptives are used by males to prevent the release of sperm.

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statements are correct.
4. Neither Statement is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98.

98. What is the primary cause of osteoporosis, an age-related skeletal disorder?

1. High levels of calcium in the blood
2. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joints
3. Decreased levels of estrogen
4. Excessive cartilage growth in bones
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99.

99. T.W. Engelmann’s experiment with Cladophora and aerobic bacteria demonstrated the action spectrum of photosynthesis. What was the key finding of this experiment?

1. Bacteria accumulated in the regions of blue and red light, indicating maximum photosynthetic activity.
2. Oxygen evolution was highest in the regions of green light.
3. The action spectrum of photosynthesis closely matched the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b.
4. Photosynthetic efficiency was independent of light wavelength.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

100.

100. Which of the following is not a stem modification?

1.Thorns of citrus
2.Tendrils of cucumber
3.Flattened structure of Opuntia
4.Pitcher of Nepenthes
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1

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3

4
None

101.

101. Identify the correct statements amongst the following:
I: When a shoot tip transforms into a flower,it is always solitary
II: In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in basipetal order
III: In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in basipetal order

1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and III
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

102.

102. What is the major difference between enzyme-catalysed and uncatalyzed reactions?

1. Enzymes increase the activation energy required for the reaction.
2. Enzymes increase the rate of reaction without being consumed.
3. Enzymes work only in the presence of inorganic catalysts.
4. Enzymes make a reaction endothermic instead of exothermic.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

103.

103. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components (s)?

1. Ori-original restriction enzyme
2. Rop-reduced osmotic pressure
3. Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers
4. Amp^R, teti^R– antibiotic resistance genes
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

104.

104. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Filtrate gets diluted as it moves upwards in ascending limb of loop of Henle
Reason (R): Ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

105.

105. Consider the given two statements
Assertion (A): The process of transcription and translation can be coupled in bacterial cells.
Reason (R): Bacterial cells can carry out splicing and other post-transcriptional modifications in the hnRNA.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True, (R) is False.
4. (A) is False, (R) is False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

106. The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logisitic growth model is

From indicates:

1. Biotic potential
2. Carrying capacity
3. Population density
4. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

107.

107. NADPH and ATP:
I: are the products of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
II: are used in the light independent reactions of photosynthesis.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

108. Under normal resting conditions, almost the entire respiratory effort is due to the:

1. contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm
2. movements of the rib cage
3. abdominal muscles
4. sternocleidomastoid muscle
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

109. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Electrical synapses allow for faster transmission than chemical synapses.
Reason (R): Electrical synapses are rare in our system.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

110. A population of a species invades a new area.
Which of the following condition will lead to adaptive radiation?

1. Area with a large number of habitats having very low food supply
2. Area with a single type of vacant habitat
3. Area with many types of vacant habitats
4. Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111.

111. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

1. Sex of the foetus
2. Down syndrome
3. Jaundice
4. Klinefelter syndrome
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112.

112. Regarding the formation of resting membrane potential in a neuron:

1. The resting potential is established by the passive diffusion of Na+ and K+ ions across the axonal membrane, without the involvement of active transport.
2. The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3Na+ ions out of the neuron for every 2 K+ ions into the neuron, creating a polarized state with a positively charged exterior and a negatively charged interior.
3. The resting membrane potential is due to equal distribution of Na+ and K+ ions across the membrane, resulting in no potential difference.
4. The inner surface of the axonal membrane is positively charged due to an excess of Na+ ions inside the neuron.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

113.

113. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

1. IAA and gibberellin
2. Auxin and cytokinin
3. Auxin and abscisic acid
4. Gibberellin & abscisic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

114. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is a disorder caused due to:

1. an inversion of the chromosomal segment containing the gene for adenosine deaminase
2. a translocation event involving the segment of the chromosome containing the gene for adenosine deaminase
3. a duplication of the gene for adenosine deaminase
4. deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

115.

115. Identify the incorrect statement regarding

1. It is a composite gland which acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland.
2. The endocrine pancreas consists of ‘Islets of Langerhans’.
3. There are about 1 to 2 million Islets of Langerhans in a normal human pancreas representing 90 percent of the pancreatic tissue.
4. It is an organ of the digestive system and endocrine system of vertebrates.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

116.

116. HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, primarily targets:

1. The heart and blood vessels
2. The brain and nervous system
3. The liver and kidney cells
4. Helper T cells and macrophages of the immune system
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117.

117. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (ii)
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Deselect Answer

1

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None

118.

118. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R P S Q
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S
Deselect Answer

1

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None

119.

119. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the male sex accessory duct system:

1. The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
2. The epididymis ascends to the abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
3. Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
4. Ejaculatory ducts store and transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

120.

120. Which of the following sense organs in frogs are well-organised structures rather than cellular aggregations around nerve endings?
I: Sensory papillae for touch
II: Taste buds
III: Nasal epithelium
IV: Eyes
V: Tympanum with internal ears

1. Only I, II and III
2. Only IV and V
3. Only II, IV and V
4. Only IV
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
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121.

121. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: Multipolar neurons are found in the cerebral cortex
II: Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of eye
III: Unipolar neurons are found usually in the embryonic stage.
IV: Unmyelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
V: Myelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural systems.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

122.

122. Mobile genetic elements:
I: are called as transposons.
II: can be a source for complementary dsRNA molecule involved in RNAi in eukaryotic cells.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

123.

123. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the cell cycle of a typical eukaryotic cell:

1. The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of the cell cycle.
2. M phase starts with the nuclear division.
3. Interphase is the resting stage in the cell cycle where the cell is metabolically inactive.
4. Neurons in human body are permanently in Go phase of the cell cycle.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

124.

124. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus is associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies.
Reason (R): Insulin stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target cells.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

125.

125. The nervous system of a frog is organised into:

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126.

126. Why do ecosystems require a constant supply of energy?

1. To support the cycling of matter through biotic and abiotic components.
2. To counteract the tendency toward increasing disorder, in line with the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
3. To ensure continuous reproduction of species within the ecosystem.
4. To stabilize the populations of consumers at each trophic level.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

127.

127. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person, The P – wave represents the:

1. Initiation of the ventricular contraction
2. Beginning of the systole
3. End of systole
4. Contraction of both the atria
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128.

128. Which of the following scientists, often referred to as ‘The Darwin of the 20th century, pioneered the currently accepted biological species concept and played a key role in establishing species diversity as the central question of evolutionary biology?

1. Theodosius Dobzhansky
2. Ernst Mayr
3. James Watson
4. Stephen Jay Gould
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129.

129. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of:

1. the vas deferens with the duct of the bulbourethral gland
2. the vas deferens with the duct of the seminal vesicle
3. the epididymis and the vas deferens
4. the duct of bulbourethral gland and the urethra
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130.

130. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Evolution is a stochastic process.
Reason (R): Evolution is based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. (A) is False but (R) is True
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

131.

131. In pea seeds, starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene. A plant with genotype Bb will produce:
I: large starch grains
II: smaller starch grains
III: intermediate sized starch grains
IV: round seeds
V: wrinkled seeds

1. Only I and IV
2. Only II and V
3. Only III and IV
4. Only III and V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132.

132. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for sex-determination in humans.

1. due to some defect like aspermia in man
2. due to the genetic makeup of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
3. due to the genetic makeup of the egg
4. due to some defect in the women
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

133.

133. In seagrasses:

1. female flowers remain submerged in water and pollen grains are released inside the water
2. pollen grains are released on the surface of the water, which are passively carried away by water currents; some of them eventually reach the female flower
3. pollination is by wind
4. pollination is by bats
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

134.

134. Mycoplasma are organisms that:
I. completely lack a cell wall.
II. are the smallest living cells known.
III. can survive without oxygen.
IV. include forms which are pathogenic in animals and plants.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135.

135. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R P S Q
3. P R S Q
4. R P Q S
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

136.

136. Which of the following is a difference between Mycoplasma and other bacteria?

1. Mycoplasma has a rigid cell wall, while other bacteria do not.
2. Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen, while other bacteria cannot.
3. Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall, while other bacteria have a peptidoglycan cell wall.
4. Mycoplasma is larger in size compared to other bacteria.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

137.

137. Which one of the following matches is correct?

1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (d)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

138.

138. Which of the following pteridophytes does not belong to the same class as the other three?

1. Dryopteris
2. Pteris
3. Adiantum
4. Equisetum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139.

139. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used to amplify a specific segment of DNA.
Reason (R): PCR involves use of a thermostable DNA dependent DNA polymerase.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

140.

140. The smallest, functional unit of contraction in a skeletal muscle is the:

1. muscle fiber
2. sarcomere
3. myofilament
4. myofibril
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141.

141. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

1. DNA helicase
2. DNA polymerase
3. RNA polymerase
4. DNA ligase
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142.

142. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): A sigmoid curve is a characteristic of living organism growing in a natural environment.
Reason (R): It is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of a plant.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True; (R) is False.
4. (A) is False; (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

143.

143. The biomolecule shown in the given figure is:

1. an aromatic amino acid
2. a zwitterion
3. a substituted pyrimidine
4. a substituted purine
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

144.

144. This microbe is used as a biological control agent, organisms, making it environmentally friendly. It specifically in integrated pest management programs. It infects and kills insect pests without harming non-target belongs to a group of viruses that specifically target arthropods. Which microbe is this?

1. Ortho paramyxovirus
2. Baculovirus
3. Retrovirus
4. Gemini virus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

145.

145. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Reason (R): The cis and the trans faces of the organelle are entirely different, but interconnected.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

146.

146. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish between self-cells and nonself. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

1. graft rejection
2. auto-immune disease
3. active immunity
4. allergic response
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147.

147. Dark melanic peppered moths will be common:

1. in an unpolluted forest
2. in a polluted forest
3. in a formerly polluted forest that has been cleaned up
4. in an unpolluted forest established as a result of primary xerarch succession
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

148.

148. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The outer nuclear membrane usually remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum and also bears ribosomes on it.
Statement II: Nuclear pores are the passages through which movement of RNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm and protein molecules from the cytoplasm to the nucleus takes place.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149.

149. Which mechanism best describes the action of enzymes?

1. Enzymes work by increasing the temperature of substrates.
2. Enzymes reduce the activation energy needed for a reaction.
3. Enzymes provide ATP to reactions.
4. Enzymes permanently change shape after a reaction.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

150.

150. Exopthalmic goitre, a severe form of hyperthyroidism known as Graves’ disease, is characterized by:

1. Reduced basal metabolic rate and increased weight
2. Increased metabolic rate, weight loss, and protrusion of the eyeballs
3. Deficiency in calcium absorption leading to brittle bones
4. Complete shutdown of thyroid hormone synthesis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

151.

151. Match the items in Column I with those in

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

152.

152. MALT constitutes about lymphoid tissue in the human body.

1. 20%
2. 70%
3. 10%
4. 50%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

153.

153. Consider the given two statements:
I. Ubiquinone is an electron carrier located within the inner mitochondrial membrane.
II. Cytochrome c is an electron carrier located on the Jouter surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Neither I nor II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154.

154. Saheli is:

1. a copper releasing intra-uterine device
2. combination oral contraceptive pill
3. non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI
4. is an assisted reproductive technology centre located in New Delhi
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

155.

155. ‘Resource Partitioning’ enables:

1. superior species to exclude the inferior species from the habitat.
2. co-existence of competing species.
3. reproductive isolation and speciation.
4. competing species to grow exponentially.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156.

156. All of the following will be true for ovaries, except:

1. Ovaries are the primary female sex organs that produce the female gamete and several gonadotropins.
2. The ovaries are located one on each side of the lower abdomen
3. Each ovary is about 2 to 4 cm in length and is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ligaments.
4. Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma. The stroma is divided into two zones a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157.

157. Symptoms like constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots are commonly seen in:

1. Amoebic dysentery
2. Ascariasis
3. Typhoid
4. Cholera
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

158.

158. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

1. reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
2. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac
3. Both heart rate and cardiac output increased
4. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159.

159. The process by which cancer cells spread from their original location to another part of the body is called as:

1. metagenesis
2. metastasis
3. teratogenesis
4. mitosis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

160.

160. Which of the following will give us the vital capacity of a human?

1. Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Expiratory Reserve Volume
2. Inspiratory Reserve Volume – Expiratory Reserve Volume + Residual volume
3. Functional Residual Capacity + Tidal Volume
4. Total Lung Capacity – Residual volume
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

161.

161. In a healthy adult human being, on an average:

1. about 25-30 mg of urea is excreted out per day
2. 125 ml per minute urine is produced
3. 3 about 200 L carbon dioxide is removed by the lungs per minute
4. 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

162.

162. If a female individual is with small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. Also the physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an individual will show :

1. 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
2. 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
3. 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes
4. Trisomy of chromosome 21
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

163.

163. How many of the floral characters of plants belonging to Family Solanaceae are correctly matched to their description?
I: Flower Zygomorphic
II: Calyx Valvate aestivation
III: Androecium Epiphyllous
IV: Ovary Inferior
V: Fruits Berry or capsule

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

164.

164. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The flowers, pollinated by wind or water, produce an enormous amount of pollen when compared to the number of ovules available for pollination.
Reason (R): Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water pollination.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

165.

165. Resistance to an antibiotic is the character conferred to bacterial cell by:

1. Peptidoglycan cell wall
2. Main chromosomal DNA
3. Plasmid DNA
4. Satellite DNA
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

166.

166. Consider the two statements:
I: Predators in nature are ‘prudent’.
II: Prey species have evolved defenses to lessen the impact of predation.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167.

167. What is a function of the pericycle in plants?

1. Photosynthesis
2. Storage of food
3. Secondary growth initiation
4. Protection from pathogens
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168.

168. In pteridophytes:
I: true vascular tissues are not seen.
II: the gametophyte generation is the dominant generation in the life cycle.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169.

169. What describes a bivalent seen during meiosis-I?

1. Two chromatids and one centromere
2. Two chromatids and two centromere
3. Four chromatids and two centromere
4. Four chromatids and four centromere
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

170.

170. Which of the following processes is facilitated by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

1. Conversion of O2 into oxyhemoglobin in the alveoli.
2. Formation of carbamino-hemoglobin in tissues.
3. Conversion of CO2 into bicarbonate ions in RBCs.
4. Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin in tissues.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

171.

171. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): It is necessary to define the boundaries that would demarcate the region and the strand of DNA that would be transcribed.
Reason (R): In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

172.

172. A protein hormone that regulates the blood calcium levels is secreted by:
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid

1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

173.

173. Identify the incorrect statement:
The primary endosperm nucleus undergoes

1. successive nuclear divisions to form free-nuclear endosperm.
2. The surrounding white kernel of the coconut is composed of free-nuclear endosperm.
3. The cells of the triploid endosperm tissue are rich in reserve food materials.
4. Endosperm development precedes embryo development to ensure nutrition for the developing embryo.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

174.

174. A cardiovascular centre that can moderate the cardiac function through the autonomic neural system is located in the:

1. Pons varoli
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Hypothalamus
4. Cerebrum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

175.

175. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The receptors for insulin are located inside the cell.
Reason (R): Insulin is lipid soluble.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. Both (A) and (R) are False
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176.

176. Match the following placentation types with their correct examples:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(iii)
2. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i)
3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv), (e)-(ii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii), (e)-(v)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177.

177. Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because:

1. it is easily available
2. it is hygroscopic
3. it reduces transpiration
4. it serves as a disinfectant
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178.

178. In which type of vascular bundle arrangement are the xylem and phloem positioned alternately along different radii, and where is this arrangement typically found?

1. Radial; in roots
2. Conjoint; in leaves
3. Closed; in stems
4. Open; in dicotyledonous stems
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

179.

179. The middle lamella, which holds neighboring plant cells together, is primarily composed of which substance?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium pectate
3. Cellulose
4. Hemicellulose
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

180.

180. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): During inspiration, the intrapulmonary pressure becomes less than the atmospheric pressure.
Reason (R): Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles increases the thoracic volume.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

March 26, 2026
NEET REVISION TEST XVI (25.03.2026)

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XVI (25.03.2026)

Name

FATHER'S NAME

ZZR ID

EMAIL

1.

PHYSICS

1. Consider a particle moving along a straight line under the action of a force which delivers constant power.

Assertion (A): If the velocity of the particle is doubled, its acceleration is halved.

Reason (R): The power delivered by the force equals the force × velocity which is a constant, and the acceleration is proportional to the force.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is Truc.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2.

2. A parallel beam of light is brought to focus on its axis at F, by a lens, as shown in the figure. The focal length of the lens is f. The intensity of the refracted beam is proportional to: (x is the distance from lens where intensity is measured)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3.

3. If the monochromatic source in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then:

1. there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
2. there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded by a few coloured fringes.
3. all bright fringes will be of equal width.
4. interference pattern will disappear.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4.

4. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio of 1:25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern I_max /I_min is:

1. 9/4
2. 121/49
3. 49/121
4. 4/9
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5.

5. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6.

6. A small-signal voltage V(t)=V₀sin(ωt) is applied across an ideal capacitor C: Find the correct statement from the options given below:

1. over a full cycle, the capacitor C does not consume Jany energy from the voltage source
2. current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
3. current I(t) leads voltage V(t) 180°
4. current I(t) lags voltage V(t) 90°
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7.

7. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is projected vertically upward with a speed u. Acceleration due to gravity (g) acts downwards, while a uniform electric field E acts along the horizontal. The speed of the projectile’s impact on the horizontal is v, while the horizontal range is R. Then:

1. v² = u² + 2gR
2. v² = u² + 2gR(qE/mg)
3. v² = u² + gR
4. v² = u² + gR(qE/mg)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8.

8. The following diagram represents three vectors of equal magnitudes in a plane.

What arrow best represents the direction of the sum of three vectors?

1. →
2. ←
3. ↑
4. ↓
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9.

9. A uniform rod AB, of mass 0.5 kg is connected radially to a uniform solid sphere of equal mass and radius 0.5 m.

The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through B, perpendicular to the rod, equals:

1. 3/8 kg – m² 2. 3/4 kg – m²
3. 3kg – m² 4. 3/2 kg – m²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10.

10. A plane electromagnetic waveform given by:
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11.

11. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in wb) is given by the equation ϕ= 5t² + 3t + 60. The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at t = 4s will be:

1. 33 V
2. 43 V
3. 108 V
4. 10 V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12.

12. The end ‘B’ of the circuit is earthed (V_B = 0) while a sinusoidal voltage is applied at ‘A’; V_A = V₀ sin ωt. The rms voltage across the capacitor C equals that across the upper resistor R (as shown in the figure). What is the phase difference between the current through the capacitor and the voltage across the capacitor when no current flows out at X?

1. 0°
2. 45°
3. 90°
4. 180°
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13.

13. If the length of a wire is doubled and its radius is halved compared to their respective initial values, then, Young’s modulus of the material of the wire will:

1. remain the same.
2. become 8 times its initial value.
3. become 1/4th of its initial value.
4. become 4 times its initial value.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14.

14. A non-conducting circular ring is charged so that its upper half carries a charge q. while the lower half carries a charge 2q. The potential at the centre of the ring (radius R) is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15.

15. An infinitely long straight line carries a uniform positive charge λ per unit length. A negative point charge (-q) moves in a circular path with the charge λ as its axis, under the action of its electric field. The kinetic energy of the point charge is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16.

16. A wall clock uses a vertical spring-mass system to measure the time. Each time the mass reaches an extreme position, the clock advances by a second. The clock gives the correct time at the equator. If the clock is taken to the poles it will:

1. run slow
2. run fast
3. stop working
4. give correct time
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17.

17. A metal rod of length 1 m is moving perpendicular to its length with 8 m/s velocity along the positive x-axis. A magnetic field B = 2T exists perpendicular to the plane of motion. The EMF induced between the two ends of the rod is:

1. 16 V
2. 0 V
3. 8 V
4. 4 V
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18.

18. Two identical uncharged capacitors are connected in series and a charge Q, passes from A to B. After this happen,

1. Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has no charge.
2. Both capacitors have charges Q each.
3, Left capacitor has charge Q, Right one has charge (-Q).
4. Neither capacitor has any charge, as the charge has passed from A to B and left them.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19.

19. In an exoergic nuclear reaction (i.e. energy is released in the reaction), let
1. E₁ total binding energy of initial nuclei
2. E₂ : total binding energy of final nuclei
3. A₁: total number of nucleons of initial nuclei
4. A₂ : total number of nucleons of final nuclei
Then:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20.

20. A rocket is fired vertically upward with a speed of v_e/√2 from the Earth’s surface, where is escape velocity on the surface of Earth. The distance from the surface of Earth upto which the rocket can go before returning to the Earth is:
(given, the radius of Earth = 6400 km)

1. 1600 km
2. 3200 km
3. 6400 km
4. 12800 km
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21.

21. An ammeter having a resistance of 0.1 Ω can measure a maximum current of 2 A. To convert it into a voltmeter that can measure upto 50 V, one must add:

1. a resistance of 25 Ω in series
2. a resistance of 1/25 Ω in series
3. a resistance of 25 Ω in parallel
4. a resistance of 1/25 Ω in parallel
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22.

22. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is:

1. 1:2
2. 1:1
3. √2 :1
4. 1 / √2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23.

23. A mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a certain initial velocity u. Which one of the following velocity-time (v-t) graphs represents the motion of the mass?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24.

24. Three resistors having resistances r₁,r₂ and r₃ are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio dot i₃/i₁ of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25.

25. Two projectiles are thrown at an angle of projection α and β with the horizontal. If α + β = 90°, then the ratio of the range of two projectiles on the horizontal plane is equal to:

1. 1:1
2. 2:1
3. 1:2
4. 1:3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26.

26. A steel wire of length 3.2 m (Y_s = 2.0 × 〖10¹¹ N m^-2) and a copper wire of length 4.4 m ( = 1.1 10¹¹ N m^-2 ), both having a radius 1.4 mm, are connected end to end. When a load is applied, the net stretch of the combined wires is found to be 1.4 mm. The magnitude of the load applied, in Newtons, will be:
(use, π = 22/7)

1. 360
2 .180
3. 1080
4. 154
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27.

27. A bob of mass is suspended by a thread of length L. At the lowest point A (see figure) of its position, a horizontal velocity v₀ is imparted such that it completes a semicircular trajectory in the vertical plane. The minimum velocity imparted should be:

1. √5gL
2. √3gL
3. √gL
4. √(gL/5)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28.

28. The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier when switch S is open. The output voltage (V₀) pattern across R_L when S is closed:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29.

29. If a stone is projected vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 10 m/s then its:
(take g = 10 m/s²)

1. Potential energy will be maximum at 0.5 s.
2. Kinetic energy will be maximum again at 1 s.
3. Kinetic energy = potential energy at a height of 2.5 m from the ground.
4. Potential energy will be minimum at 1 s.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30.

30. The pressure experienced by a swimmer 20 m below the water surface in a lake is appropriately: (Given density of water – 10³ kgm^-3, g = 10 ms^-2 and 1 atm = 10⁵ Pa)

1. 1 atm
2. 2 atm
3. 3 atm
4. 4 atm
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1

2

3

4
None

31.

31. A uniform ring of mass M and radius R has a particle of mass m placed at its centre, as shown in the figure. The gravitational force exerted by the particle (mass: m) on the ring (mass: M) is:

1. proportional to Mm/R²
2. proportional to Mm/R³
3. proportional to Mm/R
4. zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32.

32. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): A real gas behaves like an ideal gas at low pressures and high temperatures.
Reason (R): At low pressures & high temperatures, the intermolecular potential energy is much smaller than the kinetic energy of random motion of the molecules.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (B) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33.

33. A long straight wire carries 10 A dc current. An electron travels perpendicular to this wire at a distance of 0.1 m with velocity 5.0 × 10⁶m^-1. The magnitude of the force acting on the electron due to the current in the wire is:

1. zero
2. 0.6 × 10^-17 N
3. 1.6 ×10^-17 N
4. 2.2 × 10^-17 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34.

34. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω resistor to that in 200 Ω & resistor in a given time is

1. 4:1
2. 1:2
3. 2:1
4. 1:4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35.

35. When two homogeneous bodies A, B are floated in water, they are found to be submerged differently. Both bodies have the same cross-section, and the exposed parts of both are of the same height L. Then:

1. Weight of A = 1/3 weight of B
2. Weight of submerged part of A = 1/2 weight of submerged part of B
3. Density of A = 3/4 the density of B
4. Weight of exposed part of A = weight of exposed part of B
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1

2

3

4
None

36.

36. The speed (s) of a car as a function of time (t) is shown figure. The distance travelled by the car in 8 seconds is:

1. 180 m
2. 60 m
3. 80 m
4. 18 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37.

37. The frequencies of the series-limit of the Lyman & Balmer series of lines are ( v_L and v_B) respectively. Then, the frequency ( v_L-v_B) belongs to:

1. Lyman series
2. Balmer series
3. Paschen series
4. none of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38.

38. Match the entries in Column-I with their respective consequences in Column-II.

1. A-III; B-IV; C-III; D-I
2. A-IV: B-I, III; C-IV; D-II, III
3. A-I; B-III; C-IV; D-II
4. A-III; B-II, IV; C-II; D-I, II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39.

39. A person with a mass of 80 kg is standing on the rim of a circular platform with a mass of 200 kg and rotating about its axis at a speed of 5 revolutions per minute (rpm). As the person moves toward the centre of the platform, what will be the platform’s new rotational speed (in rpm) once the person reaches its centre ?

1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40.

40. A square loop of side length a, carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field B acting parallel to one of its sides. Then:

1. A net force acts on the loop, but no torque.
2. A torque acts on the loop, but no net force.
3. A force and a torque, both act on the loop.
4. neither a force nor a torque acts on the loop.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41.

41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The de Broglie wavelength associated with a material particle depends on its charge and nature.
Statement II: The wave nature of particles in sub-atomic domain is significant and measurable.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42.

42. A light beam of frequency 1.4 × 10⁴ Hz in air encounters a surface of hydrogen peroxide (index of refraction = √2 ) stored in a vessel (as shown below).

What is the critical angle for this encounter?

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. none of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43.

43. n₁ moles of an ideal gas at a temperature T₁ and n₂ moles of the same gas at a temperature T₂ are taken in two parts of the same insulated vessel with a partition between them. The partition is now removed. The final temperature is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44.

44. A particle moves with a speed v in a circle of radius R. The x-component of the average velocity of the particle in a half-revolution as shown in the figure, is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45.

45. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P, the fractional decrease in radius is:

1. B/3P
2. 3P/B
3. P/3B
4. P/B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

46.

CHEMISTRY
46. An acid that forms an anhydride (X) on heating and an acid imide (Y) on strong heating with ammonia is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47.

47. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The freezing point of 0.05 M urea solution is different from that of 0.05 M sodium chloride solution.
Reason (R): The depression in the freezing point is directly proportional to the number of species present in the solution.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

48.

48.
Product, Product is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49.

49. What type of hydrogen bonding exists in the given structures (I) and (II), respectively?

1. Intermolecular H-boding & Intramolecular H-bonding
2. Intramolecular H-boding & Intermolecular H-bonding
3. Both are Intermolecular H-bonding
4. Both are Intramolecular H-bonding
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50.

50. Complete hydrolysis of RNA gives:

1. β-D-Ribose and phosphoric acid only
2. β-D-2-Deoxyribose and phosphoric acid only
3. β-D-Ribose, phosphoric acid, and nitrogen-containing heterocyclic compounds
4. β-D-2-Deoxyribose and nitrogen-containing heterocyclic compounds only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51.

51. In the structure of diborane (B₂H₆), the hybridised state of B & the maximum number of atoms which are present in one plane, respectively, are:

1. sp² & 4
2. sp³ & 4
3. sp² & 6
4. sp³ & 6
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52.

52. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard Emf of the cell is found to be 0.295V at 25℃ The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25℃ will be:

1. 1 ×10^-10
2. 29.5 × 10^-2
3. 10
4. 1 × 10¹⁰
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53.

53. Choose the compound which has a maximum bond angle at nitrogen among the following:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54.

54. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. SnF₄ is ionic in nature.
2. PbF₄ is covalent in nature.
3. SiCl₄ is easily hydrolysed.
4. GeX₄ (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX₂
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55.

55. Statement I: Order is applicable only for elementary reactions whereas molecularity is applicable for both elementary as well as complex reactions.
Statement II: Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity.
In the light of the above statements, identify the correct option:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56.

56. An organic compound X on treatment with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ gives compound Y which reacts with I₂ and NaOH to form CHI₃. The compound X can be-

1. CH₃ OH
2. CH₃ CHO
3. CH₃ COCH₃
4. CH₃ CH(OH)CH₃
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57.

57. The following equilibrium are given
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58.

58. The correct stability order of the resonating structure of the given compound is:

1. A > B > C
2. B > A > C
3. C > A > B
4. B > C > A
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59.

59. A pair of ions that have the same electronic configuration among their constituent species is:

1. Sr³⁺, Cr³⁺
2. Fe³⁺ , Mn²⁺
3. Fe³⁺ , Co³⁺ 4. Cr³⁺ , Fe³⁺
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60.

60. C₆ H₆ freezes at 5.5°C The temperature at which a solution of 10 g of C₄ H₁₀ in 200 g of C₆ H₆ will freeze is: (The molal freezing point depression constant of C₆ H₆ is 5.12 ℃/m .)

1. 2 ℃
2. 1 ℃
3. 6 ℃
4. 5 ℃
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61.

61. According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), the compound, among the following, that forms a colored complex is:

1. [Ti (H₂O)₆ ]⁴⁺
2. [Cr (NH₃)₆]³⁺
3. K [VF₆]
4. (NH₄)₂ [TiCl₆]
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62.

62. Example(s) of a pseudo-unimolecular reaction among the following is/are:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63.

63. The incorrect order of stability of the compounds among the following is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64.

64. Which pair of oxides are acidic in nature?

1. B₂ O₃, CaO
2. B₂ O₃, SiO₂
3. N₂O, BaO
4. CaO, SiO₂
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65.

65. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): For each ten-degree rise in temperature, the specific rate constant nearly doubles.
Reason(R): Energy-wise distribution of molecules in a gas is an exponential function of temperature.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False, but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

66.

1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

67.

67. In humans, the main oxygen carrier in the blood is:

1. Hemocyanin
2. Proteins
3. Haemoglobin
4. Both microorganisms and haemoglobin.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

68.

1. sp³ to sp²
2. sp to sp
3. sp² to sp
4. sp to sp³
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

69.

69. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. Actinoid contraction is greater for element-to-element than lanthanoid contraction.
2. Lanthanoids on reaction with H₂O give oxygen gas.
3. Ce (+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
4. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

70.

70. The major product (A) of the following reaction is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

71.

71. Case Study
A halogen is more electronegative than carbon. Consequently, the two atoms do not share their bonding electrons equally, because a partial negative charge is formed on halogen and a partial positive charge on the carbon to which it is bonded. It is the polar-carbon halogen bond that causes alkyl halides to undergo substitution reactions.
There are two important mechanisms for the substitution reaction:
1. S_Nl: The carbon-halogen bond breaks heterolytically without any assistance from the nucleophile, forming a carbocation. The carbocation- an electrophile-then reacts with the nucleophile to form the substitution product
2. S_N2 : A nucleophile is attracted to the partially positively charged carbon (an electrophile). As the nucleophile approaches the carbon and forms a new bond, the carbon-halogen bond breaks heterolytically (the halogen takes both of the bonding electrons)
Which solvent, from the following, favors the S_N2 mechanism?

1. Non-polar solvent
2. Polar protic solvent
3. Polar aprotic solvent
4. All of the above
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1

2

3

4
None

72.

72. The most acidic compound among the following is:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

73.

73. Mg is present in:

1. Chlorophyll
2. Haemoglobin
3. Vitamin- B₁₂ 4. Vitamin-B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

74.

74. The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is:

1. 2, 0, 0, 1/2
2. 2, 1, -1,+ 1/2
3. 3, 1, +1, 1/2
4. 3, 0, +2, 1/2
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1

2

3

4
None

75.

75. Which of the following reactions will not give primary amine?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

76.

76. At constant T and P, 5.0 L of SO₂ is reacted with 3.0 L of O₂ according to the following equation:
2 SO₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2SO₃ (g)
The volume of the remaining reaction mixture at the completion of the reaction will be:

1. 0.5 L
2. 8.0 L
3. 5.5 L
4. 5 L
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

77.

77. Determine the enthalpy change for the specified reaction:
2H₂ O₂ (l) → 2H₂ O(l) +O₂ (g)
(Given the heat of formation of H₂O₂ (l) and H₂O(l) are 188 and – 286 kJ/mol respectively)

1. – 196 kJ/mol
2. 196 kJ/mol
3. 948 kJ/mol
4. –948kJ/mol
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78.

78. Assertion (A): for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is diluted.
Reason (R): For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with a dilution of the solution.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
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1

2

3

4
None

79.

79. Compound

be differentiated by

(1) H₃O^⊕, Na
(2) H₃O^⊕ , Tollens’ test
(3) H₃ O^⊕, Fehling test
(4) All of these

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1

2

3

4
None

80.

80. Match the elements in Column I with their corresponding types in Column II.

Identify the correct match:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
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1

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None

81.

81. A mixture of NH₄NO₃ and (NH₄)₂ HPO₄ contains 30.40% mass percent of nitrogen. What is the mass ratio of NH₄ NO₃ to (NH₄)₂ HPO₄ in the mixture?

1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 3:4
4. 4:1
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1

2

3

4
None

82.

82. The correct ‘spin only’ magnetic moments of [CoF₆]^3- and [Co(C₂ O₄)₃]^3-respectively, are:

1. 0 BM and 4.9 BM
2. 0 BM and 0 BM
3. 4.9 BM and 0 BM
4. 4.9 BM and 4.9 BM
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83.

83. Assertion (A): Na⁺ and Al³⁺ are isoelectronic but the magnitude of ionic radius of Al³⁺ is less than that of Na⁺ .
Reason (R): The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell electrons in Al³⁺ is greater than that in Na⁺1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True and (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84.

84. Give test to differentiate (Bromobenzene) Ph-Br be and benzyl bromide (PhCH₂Br).

(1) (i) aq. KOH (ii) Na
(2) AgNO₃(3) KMnO₄(4) All these

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1

2

3

4
None

85.

85. Select the correct option based on the statements below:
Statement I: Pressure, molar heat capacity, density, mole fraction, specific heat, temperature, and molarity are intensive properties.
Statement II: Mass, internal energy, and heat capacity are extensive properties.

1. Both Statements I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
3. Both Statements I and II are false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86.

86. Which compound, upon reduction with lithium aluminium hydride, yields a secondary amine?

1. Nitroethane
2. Methylisocyanide
3. Acetamide
4. Methyl cyanide
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87.

87. Calculate moles of ICI and ICI₃ formed respectively if 25.4 g of and 14.2 g of CI₂ are made to react completely to yield a mixture of ICI and:
[Given: Molecular mass of I₂ – 254, CI₂ -71]

1. 0.5 and 0.2
2. 0.1 and 0.1
3.0.1 and 0.3
4. 0.3 and 0.4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88.

88. The following reaction can be classified as:

1. Dehydration
2. Williamson alcohol synthesis
3. Williamson ether synthesis
4. Dehydrogenation of alcohol
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1

2

3

4
None

89.

89. Consider the following reaction:
A₂ B₃ ⇌ 2A(g) + 3B(g)
If the initial concentration of A₂ B₃ (g) is C, what is the value of α?
(assuming α << 1 and K_eq is the equilibrium constant of the reaction)

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1

2

3

4
None

90.

90. Which of the following electronic configurations for ground state atoms is incorrect?

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1

2

3

4
None

91.

BIOLOGY

91. Which of the following is not a character of collenchyma tissue?

1. They provide mechanical support to the growing part of the plant
2. They occur in layers below epidermis in dicotyledonous plants
3. They consist of cells with thick corners due to cellulose deposition
4. They are usually dead and without protoplasts
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1

2

3

4
None

92.

92. During glycolysis, the step in which 3- phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) is converted to 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate involves:

1. Utilization of NAD + as an oxidizing agent to form NADH + H +
2. Conversion of ATP to ADP.
3. Production of CO2 as a by-product.
4. Reduction of to FADH2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

93.

93. In an animal cell, hydrolases active at acidic pH are richly found in:

1. Lysosomes
2. Centrosome
3. Peroxisomes
4. Glyoxysomes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

94.

94. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): When carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidised, the RQ will be 1.
Reason (R): The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of respiratory substrate used during respiration.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explains (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

95.

95. Co-existence between competing species can be promoted by:

1. Resource partitioning
2. Periodic migration
3. Aestivation
4. Reproductive isolation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

96.

96. The growth of a root elongating at a constant rate will be represented by:

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

97.

97. Which vitamin, important for effective erythropoiesis, is added by LAB when it is used to convert milk into curd?

1. Vitamin D
2. Vitamin A
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin E
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

98.

98. In an ecosystem, a sparrow can function at multiple trophic levels. As a primary consumer, it eats seeds, while as a secondary consumer, it eats:

1. Fruits
2. Peas
3. Insects and worms
4. Tree bark
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

99.

99. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

1. Medulla oblongata-Homeostatic control
2. Cerebellum-Language comprehension
3. Corpus callosum-Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices
4. Cerebrum-Calculation and contemplation
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

100.

100. Which of the following best describes the relationship between BOD and the polluting potential of sewage water?

1. BOD is inversely proportional to the polluting potential.
2. Higher BOD indicates higher polluting potential.
3. Lower BOD indicates higher organic content.
4. BOD is unrelated to polluting potential.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

101.

101. The restriction endonuclease enzymes have been isolated from:

1. Bacteria
2. Yeasts
3. Algae
4. Fungi
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

102.

102. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA.
Reason (R): Plasmid is extrachrosomal DNA in Some bacteria

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

103.

103. Which of the following best explains the reason form the unequal division of cytoplasm during oogenesis?

1. To ensure the ovum has sufficient nutrients and organelles for early development
2. To allow rapid meiotic divisions in the resulting polar bodies
3. To prevent the formation of additional follicles during each cycle
4. To reduce the likelihood of aneuploidy in the resulting gametes
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1

2

3

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None

104.

104. Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol:

1. undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in cytosol itself by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvickinase.
2. undergoes reduction in cytosol itself by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
3. undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in mitochondrial matrix by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic dehydrogenase.
4. undergoes oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondrial matrix by a complex set of reactions catalysed by pyruvic\ decarboxylase.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
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105.

105. Identify the incorrect statement regarding mitosis:

1. Mitosis usually results in the production of haploid daughter cells with variable genetic complement.
2. The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.
3. Mitosis restores the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
4. Mitosis replaces lost cells in multicellular organisms.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

106.

106. In lac operon, z gene codes for:

1. 𝛽 − galactosidase
2. Permease
3. Repressor
4. Transacetylase
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

107.

107. A sheath of dense irregular connective tissue that groups muscle fibres into bundles or fascicles is called as:

1. Epimysium
2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium
4. Aponeurosis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

108.

108. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:

1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
3. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

109.

109. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

110.

110. During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, protons accumulate in the thylakoid lumen. What is the primary reason for this proton gradient formation?

1. Protons are actively transported into the lumen from the stroma using ATP.
2. Protons are generated by splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane and transported across via electron carriers.
3. The NADP reductase enzyme pumps protons into the lumen while converting NADP⁺ to NADPH.
4. ATP synthase directly transfers protons from the ytoplasm into the lumen.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

111.

111. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: All three classes of algae possess cellulose in their cell walls.
Statement II: Rhodophyceae lacks flagella, whereas Chlorophyceae can have up to 8 flagella.
Statement III: Phaeophyceae stores food in the form of laminarin and starch.

1. Only Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Only Statement III is correct
4. All Statements are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

112.

112. Consider the given two statements:
I: Multiload 375 is a copper releasing contraceptive.
II: LNG 20 releases progesterone.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

113.

113. Which tracing on the standard ECG leads to contraction of the ventricles during a cardiac cycle?

1. P wave
2. QRS complex
3. ST segment
4. T wave
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

114.

114. A cross between tall plants was made resulting in offspring of tall and dwarf plants with ratio 3 : 1. The genotype (s) of both parents are:

1. TT and TT
2. Tt and tt
3. Tt and Tt
4. tt and tt
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

115.

115. Gymnosperms lack:

1. Secondary growth
2. Vessels in their xylem
3. Albuminous cells
4. A dominant sporophyte
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

116.

116. Consider the following statements regarding invasive species:
Statement I: The introduction of the Nile perch into Lake Victoria led to the extinction of several indigenous cichlid fish species.
Statement II: All introduced species in a native ecosystem will become invasive.
Choose the correct option:

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

117.

117. A diagram showing the axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D:

1. B- Synaptic connection; D – 𝐾+
2. A- Neurotransmitter; B- Synaptic cleft
3. C- Neurotransmitter; D- 𝐶𝑎++
4. A- Receptor; C- Synaptic vesicles
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1

2

3

4
None

118.

118. The technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by:

1. Kary Mullis
2. Alec Jeffreys
3. Paul Berg
4. Thomas Cech
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

119.

119. Assertion (A): The Organic farmer holds the view that eradication of pest is undersirable
Reason (B) : Biocontrol is not a good strategy to control pest

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

120.

120. Identify the correct statement regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer:

1. Oncogenes are genes that promote normal cell growth and division under all conditions.
2. Viral oncogenes are responsible for directly causing most types of cancers in humans.
3. Proto-oncogenes, when activated under certain conditions, can lead to the transformation of normal cells into cancerous cells.
4. Cellular oncogenes function to suppress cancerous growths in normal cells.
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1

2

3

4
None

121.

121. In the brainstem, which part connects the brain to the spinal cord and regulates functions like respiration and cardiovascular reflexes?

1. Midbrain
2. Cerebellum
3. Pons
4. Medulla oblongata
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1

2

3

4
None

122.

122. The simplest tubular excretory system is the flame cell system, which is found in the animals of the phylum:

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Annelida
4. Mollusca
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

123.

123. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by:

1. Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2. Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3. Recombination between linked genes.
4. Jumping genes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

124.

124. The cell walls of diatoms are ‘indestructible’ as they are embedded with:

1. Silica
2. Chitin
3. Calcium
4. Raphides
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

125.

125. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Vestigial structures can be considered evidence for evolution.
Reason (R): Vestigial structures are often homologous to structures that are functioning normally in other species.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

126.

126. Which one of the following statement with regards to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

1. Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
2. Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
3. Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
4. Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

127.

127. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments produced by restriction enzyme digestion:

1. will move towards a node with smaller fragments moving farther than the larger segments
2. will move towards anode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments
3. will move towards cathode with smaller fragment moving farther than the larger segments
4. will move towards cathode with larger fragments moving farther than the smaller segments
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

128.

128. The two key concepts of the Darwinian Theory of Evolution are:

1. Branching descent and natural selection
2. Saltation and Catastrophism
3. Use and disuse of organs and inheritance of acquired traits
4. Reproductive isolation and Founder effect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

129.

129. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chlorella is used as food supplement by space travellers
Statement II: Chlorella is a unicellular algae

1. Both I and II are true and II correctly explains I
2. I is true and II is false
3. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
4. Both I and II are false
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

130.

130. Consider the two statements:
Assertion(A): Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane leads to the synthesis of ATP.
Reason(R): The gradient is broken down due to the movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma through the transmembrane channel of the CF0 of the ATP synthase.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

131.

131. During muscle contraction, the part that retains its length is labelled as:

1. 2
2. 1
3. 6
4. 7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

132.

132. The extinct human who lived 100000 to 40000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was:

1. Homo habilis
2. Neanderthal human
3. Cro-Magnon humans
4. Ramapithecus
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

133.

133. RNA polymerase III is not responsible for transcription of:

1. tRNA
2. 5srRNA
3. snRNAs
4. 5.8srRNA
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1

2

3

4
None

134.

134. Pteridophytes are considered important in the plant kingdom because they were the first plants to:

1. Develop seeds
2. Form flowers
3. Develop vascular tissue
4. Produce fruits
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

135.

135. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Agro-chemical based agriculture is not a suitable method for increasing food production worldwide in the future.
Statement II: Agrochemicals are often too expensive for farmers in the developing world.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

136.

136. Alien species invasion often leads to:

1. An increase in the genetic diversity of native species.
2. Improved ecosystem services.
3. Significant disruptions in the native ecosystem.
4. Stabilization of the affected ecosystems
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

137.

137. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?

1. Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
2. Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
3. Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
4. Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in the cell membrane
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1

2

3

4
None

138.

138. Assertion (A): The thymus and the bone marrow constitute the primary lymphoid organs.
Reason (R): The thymus and the bone marrow are the sites of lymphocyte activation by antigens.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

139.

139. Exophthalmos is an important clinical sign seen in a person suffering from:

1. Excess of thyroid hormones
2. Deficiency of thyroid hormones
3. Excess of adrenal hormones
4. Deficiency of adrenal hormones
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

140.

140. Genetics deals with:
I: the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny.
II: the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

141.

141. Matching Type Match the type of interaction with its corresponding example:

1. A-2, B-1, C-3
2. A-1, B-3, C-2
3. A-3, B-1, C-2
4. A-1, B-2, C-3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

142.

142. The malarial paroxysm is characterized by chills and high-grade fever. This is associated with-

1. Rupture of liver cells when the parasite multiplies in the liver cells
2. Inoculation of the sporozoite by the mosquito into human blood
3. Release of hemozoin due to rupture of RBC by the parasite
4. Development of the adult trophozoite in the RBC
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1

2

3

4
None

143.

143. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:

1. Plasticity
2. Maturity
3. Elasticity
4. Flexibility
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1

2

3

4
None

144.

144. Regarding various levels of protein structure, which of the following is not true?

1. The positional information of amino acids in a protein is called the primary structure.
2. Alpha helix is a secondary structure and beta pleated sheet is a tertiary structure of a protein.
3. Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of proteins.
4. Quaternary structures are seen in proteins made of more than one polypeptide chain.
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1

2

3

4
None

145.

145. Rust and smut fungi belong to the fungal class:

1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. Basidiomycetes
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1

2

3

4
None

146.

146. Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver?

1. Insulin
2. Glucagon
3. Growth hormone
4. Thyroxine
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1

2

3

4
None

147.

147. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about:

1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
4. 90 %
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1

2

3

4
None

148.

148. In a healthy human, under normal physiological conditions the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic [oxygenated blood] circulation is:

1. about 104 mm Hg
2. about 40 mm Hg
3. about 95 mm Hg
4. about 159 mm Hg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

149.

149. Which letter in the given figure represents the lactiferous duct?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
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1

2

3

4
None

150.

150. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through _______ and then enters one of the _____________ through filiform apparatus.

1. Chalaza; Synergids
2. Micropyle; Antipodals
3. Micropyle; Synergids
4. Chalaza; Antipodals
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1

2

3

4
None

151.

151. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA content in G1 phase, what would be the corresponding values at the end of the S phase?

1. 2N, 2C
2. 4N, 2C
3. 2N, 4C
4. 4N, 4C
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1

2

3

4
None

152.

152. Embryological support for evolution, proposed by Ernst Heckel, was disapproved by:

1. Charles Lyell
2. Georges Cuvier
3. Charles Darwin
4. von Baer
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1

2

3

4
None

153.

153. Regarding IUDs:
a: They are effective contraceptives
b: IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c: IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d: IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

1. Only a and b are correct
2. Only c and d are correct
3. Only a and c are correct
4. Only b and d are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154.

154. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The problem of classification becomes tougher as one ascends in the taxonomic hierarchy.
Reason (R): Higher taxonomic categories are more complex, incorporating diverse members with fewer common characteristics.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

155.

155. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the double helix model of DNA given by Watson and Crick:

1. The two strands have anti-paralle polarity
2. A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
3. The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
4. The two strands are coiled in a left-handed fashion
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156.

156. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Relaxation of the diaphragm and the inter-costal muscles brings about inspiration.
Reason (R): Relaxation of the diaphragm and the inter – costal muscles leads to an increase in intra – pulmonary pressure to slightly above the atmospheric pressure.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157.

157. At maturity, the female gametophyte in angiosperms has:
I: Three cells grouped together at the micropylar end constituting the egg apparatus
II: Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

158.

158. Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion:

1. conducted to and from the tissues by a network of tubes.
2. over their entire body surface.
3. using their moist cuticle.
4. across the gills.
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1

2

3

4
None

159.

159. How many of the given genetic disorders are due to mutations in autosomal genes?
I: Sickle cell anaemia
II: Thalassemia
III: Phenylketonuria
IV: Haemophilia

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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1

2

3

4
None

160.

160. Organisms belonging to the same Class in taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the same:

1. Order
2. Family
3. Genus
4. Phylum
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1

2

3

4
None

161.

161. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as:

1. Coleorrhiza
2. Scutellum
3. Coleoptile
4. Epiblast
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1

2

3

4
None

162.

162. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Insulin is a polymer of fructose.
2. Cellulose is a homopolymer
3. Starch is a homopolymer
4. Chitin is nitrogen containing complex polysaccharide
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1

2

3

4
None

163.

163. What is a limitation of ecological pyramids?

1. They always show producers at the bottom and top consumers at the top.
2. They show inverted numbers when depicting energy flow.
3. They can only depict energy, not matter.
4. They do not account for decomposers.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

164.

164. The onset of puberty:
I: in males is due to secretion of GnRH by the hypothalamus.
II: in females is due to secretion of GnIH by the hypothalamus.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrec
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1

2

3

4
None

165.

165. Which of the following is/are a correct match?

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
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1

2

3

4
None

166.

166. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?

1. 125 beats per minute
2. 50 beats per minute
3. 75 beats per minute
4. 100 beats per minute
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

167.

167. The differentiation of the inner cell mass into ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm is important because:

1. It leads to the formation of the placenta.
2. It triggers the release of oxytocin for parturition.
3. These layers give rise to all tissues and organs in the adult body.
4. It ensures the proper development of the umbilical cord.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

168.

168. Consider the given two statements:
I: Sweet potato and potato are examples of homologous organs.
II: Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita are analogous organs.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrec
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

169.

169. The axoplasm inside the axon contains:
I: low concentration of K+
II: high concentration of negatively charged proteins
III: high concentration of Na +

1. Only I and III
2. I, II and III
3. Only II
4. Only I and II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

170.

170. Which of the following can lead to acromegaly?

1. Hypoadrenalism
2. Hyperadrenalism
3. Hypercortisolism
4. Hyperpituitarism
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

171.

171. Neanderthals:

1. had a cranial capacity of about 1000 cc
2. lived in Africa, some 200000 to 400000 years ago
3. used hides to protect their bodies
4. never buried their dead
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

172.

172. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

173.

173. The taxonomic category – Order Primata – includes all of the following animals except:

1. Monkey
2. Gorilla
3. Gibbon
4. Tiger
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

174.

174. The molecule shown below is a/an:

1. Amino acid
2. Lipid
3. Polysaccharide
4. Protein
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

175.

175. Cardiac output is

1. Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in each cardiac cycle
2. Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute
3. 5 litres in a healthy individual
4. Both (2) and (3)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

176.

176. When compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells:

1. are smaller and generally divide at a slower rate.
2. are smaller and generally divide at a faster rate.
3. are smaller and generally divide at a similar rate.
4. are larger and generally divide at a slower rate.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

177.

177. Crossing over:
I: is the exchange of genetic material between two sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes.
II: is an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase.
III: leads to recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes.
IV: is completed by the end of pachytene, leaving the chromosomes linked at the sites of crossing over.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178.

178. What characterizes the secondary structure of proteins?

1. It is the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
2. It includes α-helices and β-pleated sheets formed by hydrogen bonds.
3. It represents the overall threedimensional structure of a single polypeptide.
4. It involves interactions between different polypeptide chains or subunits.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

179.

179. The structure shown in the given figure is a part of:

1. Tendon
2. Ligament
3. Cartilage
4. Bone
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1

2

3

4
None

180.

180. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Morphine should not be rountinely used in patients with mild to moderate pain
Reason (R): Morphine increases sensitivity to pain.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

March 24, 2026

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