NEET 2026 WEEKLY TEST 1 (18.07.2026)

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Welcome to your NEET 2026 WEEKLY TEST 1 (18.07.2026)

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1.

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 120 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Wherever the symbols/constants are not mentioned, they are to be considered as per their standard meaning/value.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 480.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

1. √48+√12 equals

1. √108
2. √111
3. √60
4. √72Deselect Answer

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None

2.

2. The volume contraction (ΔV) of a solid copper cube of edge length 10 cm, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7 MPa, would be ___________ mm³

(Given: bulk modulus of copper K=0.14 TPa)

1. 100
2. 75
3. 25
4. 50Deselect Answer

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None

3.

3. (21-2÷4×12+2)/34=?

1. 1/17
2. 1/34
3. 1/2
4. 2/21

Deselect Answer

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None

4.

5. The provided graph displays the stress-strain relationship for two distinct metal alloys. Alloy A and Alloy B, tested under identical conditions. Analyze the curves and determine which of the following statements regarding their mechanical properties is incorrect.

1. Alloy B has a higher Ultimate Tensile Strength than Alloy A
2. Alloy A has a higher Young’s Modulus than Alloy B
3. Alloy A exhibits significantly higher ductility than Alloy B
4. Alloy B is more brittle than Alloy A

Deselect Answer

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None

5.

6. A diode, a resistor, and an inductor are connected in series. The total power consumed by the circuit is 45 W when the current is 2 A. When the current increases to 4 A, the total power consumed becomes 50 W. Calculate the percentage increase in the power consumed.

1. 10%
2. 11%
3. 21%
4. 8%

Deselect Answer

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None

6.

7. Choose the correct statement(s):
A. Higher value of compressibility results in higher decrease in volume
B. The strain produced due to stress in solids are generally visible to the naked eye
C. According to Hooke’s law, stress and strain are inversely proportional

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. C only

Deselect Answer

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None

7.

8. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with a speed of 63×10⁶ ms^-1 is:

1. 1.10 Å
2. 11.0 Å
3. 0.11 Å
4. 110 Å

Deselect Answer

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None

8.

9. Consider the following statements in context to stretching a wire:
A. The proportional limit has higher value than the elastic limit
B. The ultimate tensile stress is the highest stress the wire can handle before it snaps
C. Higher the stress-strain graph, easier it is to stretch the wire
Choose the incorrect statement(s)

1. A only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. C only

Deselect Answer

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None

9.

10. When an incident radiation strikes a photosensitive material the number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to: (Assuming the frequency ν of an incident radiation is greater than the threshold frequency ν₀)

1. (ν-ν₀)
2. threshold frequency (ν₀)
3. intensity of light
4. frequency of light (ν)

Deselect Answer

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None

10.

11. The nearest approximate value of √(7³-1) is

1. 18.15
2. 18.49
3. 19.72
4. 18.02

Deselect Answer

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None

11.

12. The maximum or the minimum value of the function f(x)=25x²-10x+5

1. f(x)_min=4
2. f(x)_max=8
3. f(x)_min=8
4. f(x)_max=4

Deselect Answer

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None

12.

13. Ultraviolet radiations of 2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy of the fastest electron emitted in joules is approximately: (Take 1eV=1.6×10^-19) J)

1. 3.2×10^-21
2. 3.2×10^-19
3. 3.2×10^-17 4. 3.2×10^-15

Deselect Answer

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None

13.

14. The relation between de-Broglie wavelength λ (or matter wave) of a particle and its kinetic energy E is:

Deselect Answer

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14.

15.

1. 6.666×10^-5 2. 2.5×10^-5
3. 0.666×10⁵4. 2.5×10⁵

Deselect Answer

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None

15.

16. Two wires, suspended individually and made of same material have different lengths l₁ and l₂. The first wire is pulled by a mass of 15 kg while the second wire suspends a mass of If the radius of the first wire is twice the radius of the second wire, then the ratio of extensions produced in the wires respectively is

Deselect Answer

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None

16.

17. Representing the stopping potential V₀ along Y-axis and frequency v along X-axis for a given photocathode, the curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal to:

1. h
2. hC/e
3. C
4. h/e

Deselect Answer

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None

17.

18. Calculate the area under the curve of f(x)=x²from x=0 to x=2 using the definite integral

1. 8 units
2. 8/3 units
3. 3 units
4. 3/2 units

Deselect Answer

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None

18.

19. The figure shows the variation in photoelectric current (i) with voltage (V) between the electrodes in a photocell for two different radiations. If I_a and I_b are the intensities of the incident radiation and ν_a and ν_b their respective frequencies, then:

1. I_a>I_b ;ν_a>ν_b
2. I_a<I_b ;ν_a<ν_b
3. I_a>I_b ;ν_a<ν_b 4. I_a<I_b ;ν_a>ν_b

Deselect Answer

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None

19.

20. The maximum mass that a steel wire of cross section 02 cm² can withstand within the elastic limit of 800 MPa is (Young’s modulus of steel 200 GPa, take g=10 ms^-2)

1. 120 kg
2. 140 kg
3. 160 kg
4. 180 kg

Deselect Answer

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None

20.

21. An angular displacement of wheel rotating at an angular velocity of 8 rad/s, undergoes a constant angular acceleration of 3 rad/s² for 6 seconds is

1. 100 radians
2. 102 radians
3. 104 radians
4. 110 radians

Deselect Answer

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None

21.

22. Assertion (A): A planet moves faster when it is closer to the Sun.
Reason (R): The angular momentum of the planet about the Sun is conserved because the gravitational force is a central force.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Deselect Answer

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None

22.

23. A flywheel has an initial angular velocity of 10 rad s⁻¹ and rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2 rad s⁻² for 8 s. Its final angular velocity is

1. 18 rad s⁻¹
2. 24 rad s⁻¹
3. 26 rad s⁻¹
4. 30 rad s⁻¹

Deselect Answer

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None

23.

24. Assertion (A): The equation ω=ω₀+αt is valid only when angular acceleration is constant.
Reason (R): This equation is derived by integrating angular acceleration assuming remains constant.

1. A is true, but R is false.
2. A is false, but R is true.
3. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Deselect Answer

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None

24.

25. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved

Deselect Answer

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None

25.

26. A disc rotates about a fixed axis with zero angular acceleration. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. The angular velocity of the disc is increasing uniformly.
2. The torque acting on the disc must be zero.
3. The angular velocity of the disc remains constant.
4. The disc cannot have any linear acceleration at its rim.

Deselect Answer

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26.

27. Differentiate with respect to ‘x’ if y=2 lnx-2x²-3 cosx+1

Deselect Answer

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27.

28. Find ∫6x(x²+6)dx

1. 5x³+9x²+c
2. 10x⁵+9x³+c
3. 1.5x⁴+18x²+c
4. 3.5x⁴+11x³+c

Deselect Answer

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None

28.

29. Given S=t²+5t+3, find dS/dt at t=1

1. 10
2. 7
3. 5
4. 3

Deselect Answer

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29.

Deselect Answer

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30.

Chemistry

31. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹
2. ns² np³
3. ns² np⁴ 4. ns² np ^1-6Deselect Answer

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None

31.

32. A compound with a molecular formula of C₆H₁₄ has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is

1. n-hexane
2. 2- methyl pentane
3. 2,3 dimethyl pentane
4. 2,2 dimethyl pentaneDeselect Answer

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None

32.

33. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65).Deselect Answer

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None

33.

34. IUPAC name of following compound is

1. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
2. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
3. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
4. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-alDeselect Answer

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None

34.

35. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
A. 37 I. S block
B. 60 II. P block
C. 53 III. D block
D 78 IV. F block

1. A- I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A- I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A- II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III

Deselect Answer

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None

35.

36. The only liquid elements at room temperature in p- block is?

1. P
2. Cl
3. Br
4. AtDeselect Answer

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None

36.

37. IUPAC name of following compound is:

1. 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
2. 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
3. 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
4. 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexaneDeselect Answer

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None

37.

38. There are ____ Representative elements in Modern Periodic Table

1. 13
2. 30
3. 45
4. 50Deselect Answer

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None

38.

39. The IUPAC name of

1. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
2. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
3. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chlorideDeselect Answer

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None

39.

40. Predict the Period and Group of atomic number 34?

1. 2, 13
2. 3, 14
3. 4, 15
4. 4, 16Deselect Answer

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None

40.

41. Iupac name of

1. 5,6 – dimethylhept-2-ene
2. 2,3- dimethylhept-5-ene
3. 5,6 – dimethylhept-5-ene
4. 5-isopropylhex-2 –eneDeselect Answer

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None

41.

42. The element Z =115 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group

1. Carbon family
2. Oxygen family
3. Nitrogen family
4. Halogen familyDeselect Answer

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None

42.

43. What will be the molarity of 30 mL of 0.5 M H₂SO₄ solution diluted to 500 mL?

1. 0.3 M
2. 0.03 M
3. 3 M
4. 0.103 MDeselect Answer

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None

43.

44. Which of the following do not belong to d- block elements?

1. [Xe] 5d¹6s²2. [Xe] 4f¹ 5d¹ 6s²
3. [Rn] 6d¹ 7s²4. [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹Deselect Answer

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None

44.

45. IUPAC name of

1. 6-Bromo – 2- chloro cyclohexene
2. 1-Bromo-3- chlorocyclohexene
3. 3-Bromo – 1 chlorocyclohexene
4. 2 bromo 3-chlorocyclohex-2-eneDeselect Answer

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None

45.

46. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and B
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and AlDeselect Answer

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None

46.

47. The I.U.P.A.C. name of

1. 3–Methyl cyclohexene
2. 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.
3. 6–methyl cyclohexene
4. 1–methyl cyclohex5–eneDeselect Answer

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None

47.

48. Which of the following elements has maximum electron affinity?

1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. IDeselect Answer

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None

48.

49. Common name of the compound C₆H₅CHO is

1. Anisole
2. benzaldehyde
3. salicylaldehyde
4. none of theseDeselect Answer

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None

49.

50. At high altitudes the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level. This leads to

1. low concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues
2. high concentrations of oxygen in the blood and tissues
3. release of dissolved gases and formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood
4. thickening of blood and tissuesDeselect Answer

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None

50.

51. The IUPAC nameof the compound

1. 4-Cyano-4-methyloxopentane
2. 4-Cyano-4-methylpentan-2-one
3. 2, 2-Dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
4. 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentaneDeselect Answer

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None

51.

52. The law which indicates the relationship between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure is ______.

1. Raoult’s law
2. Henry’s law
3. lowering of vapour pressure
4. van’t Hoff lawDeselect Answer

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None

52.

53. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
2. 2. 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
3. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
4. 2,3-dimethyl-3-pentenolDeselect Answer

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None

53.

54. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its vapour pressure?

1. Mole fraction
2. Parts per million
3. Mass percentage
4. MolalityDeselect Answer

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None

54.

55. Colligative properties depend on _____.

1. the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
2. the number of solute particles in solution
3. the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
4. the nature of solvent particlesDeselect Answer

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55.

56. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?

1. 1.0 M NaOH
2. 1.0 M Na₂SO₄
3. 1.0 M NH₄NO₃
4. 1.0 M KNO₃Deselect Answer

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None

56.

57. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two components is called

1. solute
2. Solvent
3. both (a) and (b)
4. SolutionDeselect Answer

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57.

58. Partial pressure of a solution component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is known as

1. Henry’s law
2. Raoult’s law
3. Distribution law
4. Ostwald’s dilution lawDeselect Answer

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None

58.

59. What are the conditions for an ideal solution which obeys Raoult’s law over the entire range of concentration?

1. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
2. Δ_mixH = +ve, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
3. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = +ve, P_Total = p°_A x_A + p°_B x_B
4. Δ_mixH = 0, Δ_mixV = 0, P_Total = p°_B x_BDeselect Answer

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59.

60. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) No. of moles of solute\Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) No. of moles of solute\Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) No. of moles of component\Moles in the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component\Mass of solution = (Z)

Deselect Answer

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60.

Biology

61. Observe the following sentences
i. Metagenesis is observed in helminths
ii. Roundworms have organ-system level of body organization
iii. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
iv. Water canal system is a characteristic of poriferans
Choose the correct option from the following

1. I, II and III are correct
2. II, III and IV are correct
3. II and IV are correct
4. II and III are correct

Deselect Answer

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None

61.

62. Adenine and ribose together form:

1. Adenosine
2. Adenylate
3. Deoxyadenosine
4. Adenine nucleotide

Deselect Answer

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62.

63. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Poriferans
4. Ctenophora

Deselect Answer

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None

63.

64. The codon sequence AUG UUU UUC UUC codes for:

1. Met–Phe–Phe–Phe
2. Phe–Met–Phe–Phe
3. Met–Met–Phe–Phe
4. Met–Leu–Leu–Phe

Deselect Answer

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64.

65. Select the wrong statement regarding phylum ctenophora

1. They are mostly marine
2. They show bioluminescence
3. They are hermaphrodite
4. They have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates

Deselect Answer

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None

65.

66. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Protonephridia
3. Green glands
4. Flame cells

Deselect Answer

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None

66.

67. Which one is not a termination codon?

1. UAA
2. UAG
3. UGA
4. UGG

Deselect Answer

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None

67.

68. Which of the following cells in sponges help in trapping food?

1. Pinacocytes
2. Porocytes
3. Choanocytes
4. Ostia

Deselect Answer

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None

68.

69. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. AUG – Methionine
2. UGG – Stop codon
3. UAA – Glycine
4. UGA – Methionine

Deselect Answer

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69.

70. Flatworms exhibit all the following characters except

1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Coelom
3. Three embryonic layers
4. Incomplete digestive system

Deselect Answer

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None

70.

71. If the number of adenine nucleotides in a DNA molecule is 800, the total number of hydrogen bonds due to A–T pairs is:

1. 800
2. 1200
3. 1600
4. 2400

Deselect Answer

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None

71.

72. The type of symmetry where the body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane is

1. Asymmetrical
2. Radial symmetry
3. Biradial symmetry
4. Bilateral symmetry

Deselect Answer

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None

72.

73. In the DNA double helix, the nitrogenous bases are located:

1. On the outer surface
2. Inside the helix
3. Attached to phosphate groups externally
4. Randomly distributed

Deselect Answer

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None

73.

74. Cnidarians and ctenophores share common characteristics such as

1. Diploblastic
2. Both extracellular and intracellular digestion
3. Tissue level organization
4. All of the above

Deselect Answer

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74.

75. Which pair contributes more to the stability of DNA?

1. A–T
2. G–C
3. Both equally
4. Cannot be determined

Deselect Answer

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None

75.

76. Which of the following is a correct match?

1. Cnidaria – Bilateral symmetry
2. Aschelminthes – Organ-system level of organization
3. Platyhelminthes – Pseudocoelomate
4. Ctenophora – Open circulatory system

Deselect Answer

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76.

77. Which one of the following animals is not a protostome?

1. Arthropoda
2. Mollusca
3. Annelida
4. Echinodermata

Deselect Answer

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77.

78. Nitrogenous bases on opposite DNA strands are held together by:

1. Peptide bonds
2. Phosphodiester bonds
3. Hydrogen bonds
4. Ester bonds

Deselect Answer

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78.

79. The basic fundamental feature that is used to classify animal kingdom is

1. Level of organization
2. Symmetry
3. Segmentation
4. All of these

Deselect Answer

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79.

80. In DNA, adjacent nucleotides of the same strand are joined by:

1. Hydrogen bonds
2. Glycosidic bonds
3. Phosphodiester bonds
4. Peptide bonds

Deselect Answer

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None

80.

81. The middle layer in the body wall of sponges is called

1. Mesoderm
2. Blastocoel
3. Mesoglea
4. Endoderm

Deselect Answer

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None

81.

82. A double-stranded DNA molecule contains 10,000 base pairs. If adenine constitutes 35% of the total nucleotides, how many cytosine nucleotides are present?

1. 3000
2. 7000
3. 1500
4. 3500

Deselect Answer

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None

82.

83. Which of the following phylum have tissue level of organization?

1. Porifera
2. Aschelminthes
3. Ctenophora
4. Annelida

Deselect Answer

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None

83.

84. In a DNA molecule containing 2400 nucleotides, adenine makes up 25% of the bases. The number of guanine nucleotides is:

1. 600
2. 1200
3. 300
4. 900

Deselect Answer

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None

84.

85. Bioluminescence is a characteristic well-marked in

1. Pleurobrachia
2. Fasciola
3. Ancylostoma
4. Gorgonia

Deselect Answer

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None

85.

86. Physalia, Adamsia, Obedia and Pennatula are all examples of which phylum?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Coelenterata
3. Ctenophora
4. Aschelminthes

Deselect Answer

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None

86.

87. Which of the following does NOT obey Chargaff’s rule?

1. Nuclear DNA
2. Mitochondrial double-stranded DNA
3. Single-stranded DNA viruses
4. Chromosomal DNA

Deselect Answer

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None

87.

88. The ratio of adenine to guanine in a DNA sample is 3:2. The percentage of thymine is:

1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 40%
4. 60%

Deselect Answer

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None

88.

89. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, A, D, E, C
2. B, A, E, C, D
3. D, E, C, A, B
4. E, D, C, B, A

Deselect Answer

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89.

90. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, cytosine constitutes 18% of the total bases. The percentage of adenine is:

1. 18%
2. 32%
3. 50%
4. 64%

Deselect Answer

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None

90.

91. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, E, A, C, B
2. B, E, A, C, D
3. B, E, A, D, C
4. D, E, A, B, C

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

91.

92. Which genotype produces 16 different types of gametes?

1. AaBbCcDD
2. WwXxYyZz
3. PpQqRRSs
4. EeffggHh

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

92.

93. Two bryophytes, X and Y, possess multicellular rhizoids and jacketed sex organs. During spore germination, X develops a filamentous juvenile stage before forming the mature gametophyte, whereas Y develops directly into a dorsiventral thallus. Which of the following correctly identifies X and the distinguishing feature?

1. X = Marchantia; presence of seta
2. X = Funaria; presence of protonema
3. X = Riccia; presence of foot
4. X = Anthoceros; presence of capsule

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

93.

94. Select the correct option.

1. A-Gall bladder, B-Liver, D-Stomach, E-Cloaca
2. A-Heart, B-Lung, C-Fat body, E-Rectum
3. A-Adrenal gland, B-Liver C-Fat body, D-Kidney
4. A-Gall bladder, C-Fat body, D-Kidney, E-Rectum

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

94.

95. Consider the following statements regarding the gametophyte of homosporous pteridophytes:
Statement I: A single prothallus generally bears both antheridia and archegonia.
Statement II: Self-fertilisation is largely prevented because the male and female gametes usually mature simultaneously.
Choose the correct answer.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

95.

96. The anterior end of each oviduct bears a:

1. Ovisac
2. Ovary
3. Ostium
4.Testis

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

96.

97. A paleobotanist discovers an extinct vascular plant with the following characteristics:
(a) Produces two types of spores.
(b) Female gametophyte develops within the megaspore.
(c) Megaspores are retained on the parent sporophyte until fertilisation.
Which evolutionary innovation does this combination of characters most directly represent?

1. Transition towards seed habit
2. Evolution of alternation of generations
3. Origin of vascular tissue
4. Evolution of independent gametophytes

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

97.

98. Which pair of structures open into the cloaca?

1. Ureter and Kidney
2. Urinogenital duct and Testis
3. Stomach and Liver
4. Oviduct and Ureter

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

98.

99. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure.

		A		B
1.	Sporophyte		Gametophyte
2.	Gametophyte		Sporophyte
3.	Male shoot		Female shoot
4.	Female shoot		Male shoot

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

99.

100. Which of the following holds true for liverworts?

1. The plant body is dorsiventral.
2. Plant bears true roots.
3. Plants possess gemma cups for asexual reproduction.
4. Both (a) and (c)Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

100.

101. Which one of the following combinations is correct?

1. Ovisac – Temporary storage of eggs
2. Ovary – Jelly secretion
3. Oviduct – Production of ova
4. Cloaca – FertilizationDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

101.

102. A photosynthetic organism possesses a haplontic life cycle in which the only diploid stage is short-lived and immediately undergoes meiosis. Which of the following organisms most likely exhibits this pattern?

1. Mosses
2. liverworts
3. Algae
4. PterisDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

102.

103. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dominant phase or reproductive strategy of the respective plant group?

1. Bryophytes possess a dominant gametophyte and a nutritionally dependent sporophyte.
2. Pteridophytes possess an independent sporophyte and a free-living gametophyte.
3. Most algae reproduce both sexually and asexually.
4. Pteridophytes produce seeds after fertilisation.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

103.

104. Which of the following genotypes produces the maximum number of gametes?

1. AABbCcdd
2. AaBbCc
3. AaBBCc
4.AAbbCC

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

104.

105. Select the incorrect statement about bryophytes

1. Zygotes do not undergo reduction division immediately.
2. The sporophyte is free-living.
3. The main plant body is haploid.
4. They show haplo-diplontic type of alternation of generations.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

105.

106. The testes are located:

1. Adjacent to the urinogenital duct
2. Attached to the anterior part of the kidney
3. Inside the liver
4. Behind the urinary bladder

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

106.

107. Which of the following are gametophytic structures?
(a) Protonema of moss
(b) Prothallus of fern
(c) Capsule of moss
(d) Main plant body of Selaginella
Choose the correct answer.

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

107.

108. Identify the incorrect statement.

1. Frog has a pair of ovaries.
2. Oviducts open into the cloaca.
3. Fertilization occurs in the uterus.
4. Eggs receive a jelly coat in the oviduct

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

108.

109. Assertion (A): The sporophytic generation is almost absent in organisms with a haplontic life cycle.
Reason (R): The zygote does not immediately undergo meiosis to produce multicellular sporophyte.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

109.

110. The common chamber that receives digestive, urinary, and reproductive products in frog is:

1. Rectum
2. Cloaca
3. Bladder
4. Urethra

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

110.

111. Which of the following characters collectively distinguish algae from bryophytes?
I. Absence of embryo formation
II. Predominantly aquatic habitat
III. Presence of jacketed sex organs
IV. Dominant thalloid body
Choose the correct answer.

1. I and II only
2. I, II and IV only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

111.

112. Which is the correct sequence of egg passage?

1. Ovary → Cloaca → Oviduct → Outside
2. Ovary → Kidney → Cloaca → Outside
3. Ovary → Oviduct → Ovisac → Cloaca → Outside
4., Ovary → Ureter → Ovisac →Cloaca → Outside

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

112.

113. Which of the following statements correspond to sporophyte?

1. It is diploid phase of life cycle.
2. It is formed by germination of meiospore.
3. It is dominant stage in pteridophyte.
4. Both (a) and (c)

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

113.

114. Select the incorrect statement with respect to given type of life cycle.

1. Meiosis occurs at the time of spore formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many bryophytes and pteridophytes.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

114.

115. Which of the following structures is not paired structure in a male frog?

1. Urinary bladder
2. Testes
3. Kidney
4.Urinogenital ducts

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

115.

116. Select the incorrect statements regarding seminal vesicle in male frog.
i. Produced and store sperms temporarily before they are discharged
ii. Enlarged posterior part of urinogenital duct
iii. Help in transport of sperms to cloaca
iv. Two pairs present

1. i and ii
2. ii and iii
3. iii and iv
4. i and iv

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

116.

117. The genotype AaBb produces:

1. AA,BB,aa,bb
2. AB, Ab, aB, ab
3. Aa, Bb
4.A, a, B, b

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

117.

118. Arrange the following structures in the correct order through which food passes:
i. Oesophagus
ii. Buccopharyngeal cavity
iii. Stomach
iv. Rectum
v. Cloaca
vi. Duodenum

1. 2 → 3 → 1 → 6 → 5 → 4
2. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 → 6
3. 2 → 1 → 3 → 6 → 4 → 5
4. 1→ 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

118.

119. Select the correct statements.
i. Female frog has two oviducts.
ii. Oviducts are independent of ureters.
iii. Ureters carry eggs to the cloaca.

1. i only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

119.

120. Guanine attached to deoxyribose forms:

1. Guanosine
2. Deoxyguanosine
3. Guanylate
4. Deoxyguanylate

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

120.

1. 4
2. – 4
3. – 2
4. – 3

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4

None

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