Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (18.10.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1) r/42) r/2 3) 2r4) 4r
1) 3.5×10-7 sec2) 4.5×10-7 sec3) 1.5×10-7 sec4) 2.5×10-7 sec
1) in a circular orbit2) along a parabolic path3) along a straight line4) in an elliptical orbit.
1) 1.18 × 10–13 2) 1.28 × 10–133) 1.6 × 10–134) 1.72 × 10–13
1) 2 2) 5/33) 44) 7/3
1) Charge cannot be destroyed2) Charge exists on particles3) There is a minimum permissible charge on a particle4) Charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
1) 8 Vm2) 12 Vm3) 16 Vm4) zero
1) Electric field lines do not pass through a conductor2) Electric charges are quantized3) Electric field lines pass through an equipotential surface4) Electric field line is a vector quantity
1) 6q 2) -6q3) 5q4) -5q
1) 11.66 NC-12) 136 NC-13) 16 NC-14) 6.78 NC-1
1) Work is done on the charge2) Work is done by the charge3) Potential energy of the charged is changed4) No work is done on the charge
1) 6 cm from point A toward B2) 3 cm from point A opposite to B3) 9 cm from point B towards A4) 18 cm from the point B towards A
1) 1:22) 2:13) 1:14) 1:4
1) [ML1 T-2 A1 ] 2) [ML0 T-2 A-1]3) [ML1 T-2 A-2]4) [ML0 T2 A-1 ]
1) 0.2 2) 0.6 3) 0.4 4) 0.04
1) 0.05 mm2) 0.01 mm3) 0.50 mm4) 0.25 mm
1) 1 : 22) 1 : 43) 2 : 14) 4 : 1
1) 390 bar2) 400 bar3) 490 bar 4) 300 bar
1) 100 m2) 77 m3) 63 m 4) 85 m
1) 374.82) 374.833) 3754) None
1) mass2) momentum3) angular momentum4) energy
1) 1 GPa-12) 0.01 GPa-13) 10 GPa-14) 0.1 GPa-1
1) 2sinA2) 2cosA3) 1/2cosA 4) tanA
1) 3:4 2) 2:1 3) 1:24) 2:3
1) 1.002) 1.533) 1.81 4) 1.32
1) 9mm2) 0.9cm 3) 0.9mm4) 9cm
1) 105° 2) 305°3) 205°4) 405°
1) 1.32) 1.43) 1.5 4) 1.7
Welcome to your NEET MID TERM EXAM 1 (08.10.2025)
Important Instruction
PHYSICS
1) 1 V2) -2 V3) -5 V4) 10 V
1) -3.4 eV 2) -0.64 eV3) -0.85 eV 4) -10.25 eV
7. A point charge q is kept at the center of the circle formed by cutting a spherical shell by a plane as shown. The electric flux linked with the remaining surface of the shell is
1) 47 μF2) 3 μF3) 60 μF4) 10 μF
1) -20 V/m 2) -30 V/m3) -40 V/m 4) 21 V/m
1) 11%2) 29%3) 15%4) 13%
1) Pressure2) Angle3) Shear modulus4) Angular speed
1) 2.232) 4.46 3) 22.3 4) 44.6
1) 40 km2) 36 km3) 30 km4) 45 km
1) 21.9×1022) 2.19×1043) 2.19×1024) 21.9×104
1) 212005√3 2) 122500√33) 212005 4) 122500
1) 13 N2) 14 N3) 6.5 N4) 7 N
1) 2.5% 2) 4% 3) 0.53%4) 0.83%
1) 4Mg/k2) 2Mg/k3) Mg/k 4) Mg/2k
1) 1/22) 1/4 3) 24) 3/4
1) 0.15% 2) 1.5%3) 2.5%4) 0.5%
1) 3200 km 2) 1600 km 3) 2430 km 4) 1630 km
1) 2: r2) 1: r 3) 3: r 4) 4: r
1) 0 J2) 20,000π2 J3) 2,650 J4) 12,600π J
1) 1/r22) r 3) 1/r4) r2
1) 4×10-20 N2) 8π×10-20 N3) 4π×10-20 N4) 8×10-20 N
1) 3 IL2) √5 IL 3) 5 IL 4) √3 IL
1) 100 %2) 75%3) 50%4) 0%
1) 1kg-m22) 2kg-m23) 3kg-m24) None of these
1) (0, 0, 0)2) (1, 3, 2)3) (-1, 2, 3)4) (3, 1, 8)
1) x-axis 2) y-axis3) z-axis 4) yz-plane
38. The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration of the motor wheel is
1) 2πrads−22) 4πrads−23) 6πrads−2 4) 8πrads−2
1) 75°2) 90°3) 105°4) 120°
1) 1.7 2) 1.43) 1.54) 1.3
1) 1.5mm 2) 3mm3) 6mm4) 9mm
1) C₂H42) C₃H₄3) C₂H₂ 4) C₄H₈
1) 42.43%2) 53%3) 56%4) 53.98%
1) C₈H₁₆O2) C₄H₈O₂3) C₆H₁₂O4) C₂H₄O
1) 51.0 g2) 68.0 g3) 76.5 g4) 102.0 g
1) 8.50 mL 2) 8.28 mL3) 9.00 mL 4) 7.90 mL
1) −393.6 2) −370.63) −353.6 4) −473.6
1) 25.0 °C 2) 40.0 °C3) 68.0 °C4) 47.0 °C
1) +226 kJ 2) +210 kJ3) −117 kJ4) −74 kJ
1) – 40 kJ·mol⁻¹ 2) + 40 kJ·mol⁻¹3) +160 kJ·mol⁻¹ 4) −160 kJ·mol⁻¹
1) Bromine water 2) KMnO4 solution3) Tollen’s reagent4) Chlorine gas
1) I and IV only2) II and III only3) II, III, IV only4) All of the above
1) (B)-II 2) (D)- (IV)3) (C) -III4) (A) – I
1) Cl2O72) SeO23) Bi2O3 4) Sb2O3
1) 42) 33) 24) 1
1) 6.98 X 10-12 2) 0.62 X 10-133) 6.58 X 10-13 4) 5. 26 X 10-12
1) 2.45 X 10-8 J 2) 7.12 X 1043) 9.34 X 104 J 4) 1 X 10-8 J
1) -12) +13) -1/2 4) -2
1) 1.78 x 10-3 2) 17.433) 0.1144) 2.814
1) (Keq / 25c2)1/5 2) (Keq / 108c4)1/53) (Keq / 6c5)1/5 4) (Keq / 5c4)1/5
1) NH4Cl2) NaCl3) Na3PO44) Sr (OH)2
1) 0.502) 0.253) 0.1254) 0.05
1) 0.62) 0.43) 0.854) 0.15
1) 82) 163) 324) 64
1) Root2) Modified leaf root3) Holdfast4) Rhizoid
Welcome to your JEE WEEKLY TEST MATHEMATICS (26.09.2025)
1. A lady wants to select one cotton saree and one polyester saree form a textile shop. If there are 15 cotton and 13 polyester varieties in that shop, in how many ways can she pick up two sarees
1) 1252) 2153) 3454) 195
2. In a class, there are 30 boys and 18 girls. The teacher wants to select one boy and one girl to represent the class for quiz competition. In how many ways can the teacher make this selection?
1) 625 2) 1253) 254) 540
3. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000, in which all the digits are distinct?
1`) 7292) 6483) 858 4) 546
4. How many three digit odd numbers can be formed using the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 if the repetition of digit is not allowed
1) 216 2) 1203) 604) 50
5. The number of ways in which a man can invite one or more of his friends to dinner is?
1) 302) 633) 1204) 15
6. How many number of four digits can be formed with the digits 1,2,3,4,5 if the digit can be repeated in any number of times?
1) 552) 5!3) 6254) 9000
7. There are 7 chairs in a row. In how many ways can 3 persons occupy any three of them
1) 2402) 2103) 2604) 120
8. How many 4 digit numbers are there, when a digit may be repeated any number of times?
1) 3×432) 9×1033) 104 4) 410
9. How many three digit odd numbers can be formed by using the digits 5,6,7,8 of the repetition of digits is allowed?
1) 642) 323) 244) 30
10. A class is composed by 2 brothers and 6 other boys. In how many ways can all the boys be seated at the round table so that the 2 brothers are not seated beside each other
1) 14402) 43203) 36004) 720
11. Numbers greater than 1000 but not greater than 4000 are ti be formed with the digits 0,1,2,3,4 allowing repetitions, the number of possible numbers is
1) 3702) 3763) 3654) None of these
12. A coin is tossed n times, the number of all possible outcomes is
1) 102) 63) 124) none of these
14. The number of ways in which n shirts can be selected from a rack displaying 3n different shirts is
15. Find the rank of word ‘WIFE’ among the words that can be formed with its letters and arranged as in dictionary is
1) 82) 243) 44) 18
16. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’ be permuted so that consonants always occur together?
17. The number of triangles that can be formed with 6 points on a circle is
1) 152) 63) 20 4) 12
18. The number of ways in which a necklace can be formed by using 5 identical red beads and 6 identical white beads is:
19. Find the number of positive integers greater than 6000 and less than 7000 which are divisible by 5, provided that no digit is to be repeated
1) 1002) 1123) 2004) 212
20.
1) 202) 123) 64) 30
21. How many words can be formed using the letters of the word ‘PENALTY’ where ‘T’ is the starting letter and ‘E’ is positioned in the middle
1) 2402) 7203) 1204) 180
22. How many possible two-digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 3, 5 and 7 (repetition of digits is allowe4)?
1) 102) 93) 84) 7
24. The general term in the expansion of (a-b)n is
25. In a binomial expansion with power 13
1) one of the middle term is the 7th term2) the middle term is the average of the 6th and the 7th terms3) the middle term is obtained by subtracting 6th term from the 7th term.4) there are two middle terms 6th and 7th term
26. The middle term in the expansion of (x+y)10 is the
1) 6th term2) 5th term3) average of 5th and 6th terms4) 7th term
27. If the coefficients of 7th and 13th terms in the expansion of (1+x)n are equal, then is equal to
1) 102) 153) 18 4) 20
28. The sixth term in the expansion of
29. The middle term in the expansion of
1) 254 2) 2523) 2504) 251
30. The number of terms in the expansion of (2x-3y)8 is
1) 62) 93) 84) 5
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (27.09.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
BIOLOGY
1) lactose but not lactase2) lactase but not lactose3) lactobacillus but not lactose4) lactose as well as laevorotatory
2. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
1) Lactose permease2) Transacetylase3) Lactose permease and transacetylase.4) B-galactosidase
3. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
1) sn RNA 2) hn RNA3) 23 S rRNA4) 5 S IRNA
4. The genetic code is:
1) Ambiguous and universal2) Degenerate and non-overlapping3) Commaless and universal4) Unambiguous and overlapping
5. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of
1) Bryophyte2) Alga3) Angiosperm4) Gymnosperm
1) Missense mutation2) Frameshift mutation3) Nonsense mutation4) Silent mutation
1) Nonsense mutation2) Missense mutation3) Silent mutation4) Frameshift mutation
1) DNA polymerase III2) DNA polymerase I3) Primase4) DNA ligase
1) Coding region of the gene2) Promoter region of the gene3) Terminator region of the gene4) Intronic region of the gene
1) Repressible operon2) Inducible operon3) Constitutive operon4) Overlapping operon
1) 3.1 × 10⁶ bp2) 3.1 × 10⁷ bp3) 3.1 × 10⁸ bp4) 3.1 × 10⁹ bp
1) mRNA (except T for U) 2) tRNA3) rRNA4) The template strand
1) 1980 2) 19903) 20004) 2010
1) 2,0002) 20,0003) 200,000 4) 2 million
1) 50%2) 25%3) 10% 4) 2%
1) Exons2) Introns3) Satellite DNA 4) Promoter regions
1) PCR amplification2) Gel electrophoresis3) Southern blotting4) Restriction digestion
1) Very high in siblings2) Almost zero, except for identical twins3) 50% in parent-child pairs4) 100% in unrelated individuals
1) DNA polymerase2) RNA polymerase3) Reverse transcriptase4) Ligase
1) RNA polymerase I2) RNA polymerase II3) RNA polymerase III4) All of the above
1) Sunflower2) Pea3) Lemon4) Mustard
1) Vexillary 2) Imbricate3) Twisted4) Valvate
1) pea2) Argemone3) Diathus 4) lemon
1) monadelphous 2) polyandrous3) diadelphous 4) polyadelphous.
1) vexillum2) corona3) carina 4) pappus.
1) Three2) Four3) Five 4) Six
1) Hilum2) Micropyle3) Nucellus 4) Chalaza
1) Scutellum 2) Coleoptile3) Aleurone4) Coleorhiza
1) endocarp2) receptacle3) mesocarp 4) epicarp
1) maize2) pea3) coconut4) castor.
1) Solanaceae2) Fabaceae3) Brassicaceae 4) Asteraceae.
1) Liliaccae 2) Solanaceae3) Asteraceae4) Fabaceae.
1) Corymb 2) Cyathium3) Capitulum4) Hypanthodium
1) Phyllotaxy2) Venation3) Vernation 4) Aestivation
41. Study the above floral formula and identify the family.
1) Disc florets of Asteraceae family2) Ray florets of Asteraceae family3) Disc florets of Gramineae family4) Ray florets of Gramineae family
1) marginal2) free central3) basal4) axile.
1) Flower is bisexual, actinomorphic and pentamerous2) Stigma equal to number of carpels3) Stamens are epipetalous4) Corolla arranged in imbricate aestivation.
1) Compositae2) Cruciferae3) Gramineae4) Solanaceae
1) More H+ and high temperature2) Less H+ and high temperature3) More H+ and low temperature4) Less H+ and low temperature
1) Emphysema2) Pneumonia3) Allergies4) Asthma
1) They carry 99.5% of O22) They transport 90% of O2, the rest 10% being transported by plasma in dissolved form3) They carry 20-25% of CO24) They do not carry CO2 at all
1) Less than that in the alveoli2) Less than of carbon dioxide3) Equal to that in the alveoli4) Less than that in the tissue
1) A, C and D2) A, D and E3) C, D and E 4) A, B and D
1) TV + IRV2) IRV + ERV3) IRV + ERV + TV4) ERV + RV
1) They bifurcate from the trachea2) They are divided into three parts – primary, secondary and tertiary bronchiole3) They are the last segment of the conducting system4) They penetrate the body cells
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false4) Both A and R are false
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
1) Faster and deeper2) Slow and deep3) Shallower and slow4) No effect on breathing
1) (a) – Expiration, (b) – Inspiration2) (a) – Breathing, (b) – Respiration3) (a) – Inspiration, (b) – Expiration4) (a) – diaphragm relax, (b) – diaphragm contract
1) Squamous epithelium2) Podocytes3) Endothelium4) Connective tissue
1) Posterior-anterior2) Dorso-ventral3) Longitudinal4) Posterior-ventral
1) Total lung capacity2) Functional residual capacity3) Residual volume4) Vital capacity
1) HCO3– 2) H2CO33) CO2Hb 4) Free form
1) Endothelium of capillary2) Mucus layer3) Basement layer4) Epithelium
1) JD Watson2) Alfonso Corti3) Melvin Calvin4) GN Ramachandran
1) RBC count increases2) RBC count decreases3) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin increases4) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases
1) I – II – III – IV – V2) III – IV – II – V – I3) II – V – I – III – IV4) IV – V – II – I – III
1) Inspiratory capacity2) Inspiratory reserve volume3) Expiratory capacity4) Expiration reserve volume
1) Bronchioles are damaged2) Alveolar walls are damaged3) The respiratory muscles are damaged4) The alveolar sacs are reduced in size
1) Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of cotton plants2) Strategy developed to attack nematode is RNA interference3) Translation of tRNA occurs in nematode4) Nematode specific antisense gene is introduced in cotton plants
1) Introduction of a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes2) Enzyme replacement therapy3) Introduction of gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA into early embryonic cells4) Bone marrow transplant
1) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct3) Both statements are correct4) Both statements are incorrect
1) Is disarmed by deleting Ti gene and used as vector2) Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens3) Can induce tumors in all types of plants4) Transfer T-DNA region to host plant
1) Eli Lily 2) Elixir3) Genetech4) Biocon
1) Production of interferons2) Production of insect resistant crops3) Production of recombinant vaccine4) Molecular diagnosis of disease
1) A, B and C2) B,C and D3) A only 4) D only
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is correct but R is not correct4) A is not correct but R is correct
1) A,B,C,D2) A,B,C3) A,D4) B,C
1) Right to use invention2) Right to use biological entities3) Right to use products4) Right to use process
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is correct but R is not correct4) A is not correct but R is correct
1) synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase2) silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA3) interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA4) synthesis of mRNA from DNA
1) Single polypeptide chains with 51 amino acids2) Consists of A,B and C chains3) Chains A and B are combined using disulfide bonds4) Prohormone is made up of C- peptide only
1) Vibrio cholerae2) Botulinum toxin3) Bacillus thuriengiensis4) Bacillis anthracis
1) Creating monopolies excluding innovators fron rightful share to markets2) Making decisions regarding validity of GM research and safety of introducing VM organisms3) Use of highly infectious pathogens as agent of biological weapons4) All of above
1) Alpha-1-antitrypsin2) Lactoferrin3) Tissue plasmogen activator4) Interleukin 2
1) Cotton bollworms only2) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively3) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively4) Corn borer only
1) Golden rice are golden in colour due to beta carotene2) Poplar trees clean up heavy metal pollution from contaminated water3) Potrykus and Beyer introduced two genes associated with synthesis of carotene in rice4) Poplar trees are used in phytoremediation
1) Ethical2) Low cost3) Cause temporary effect4) Deadly
1) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b3) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b4) A-d, B-d, C-b, D-c
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (20.09.2025)SDA
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
CHEMISTRY
Q1. For a chemical process occurring at constant temperature and pressure, which of the following determines whether the process is spontaneous?
(a) ΔH only
(b) ΔS only
(c) ΔG
(d) Activation energy
Q2. Consider a reaction with ΔH = −40.0 kJ·mol⁻¹ and ΔS = −100.0 J·K⁻¹·mol⁻¹. At which temperature range will the reaction be spontaneous?
(a) At all temperatures
(b) At low temperatures only
(c) At high temperatures only
(d) Never spontaneous
Q3. For a reaction at equilibrium under given T and P, the Gibbs free energy change ΔG (for the reaction as written) is:
(a) ΔG < 0
(b) ΔG > 0
(c) ΔG = 0
(d) Cannot be determined without ΔH
Q4. The enthalpy of combustion of CH₄ is –890 kJ·mol⁻¹. What is the amount of heat released when 11.2 L of methane at STP is burnt completely?
(a) –445 kJ
(b) –222.5 kJ
(c) –1780 kJ
(d) –890 kJ
Q5. The entropy change ΔS_system is positive (i.e., increases) for which of the following processes (at the stated conditions)?
(a) Ice melting at 0 °C (fusion of ice)
(b) Water freezing at 0 °C
(c) Isothermal compression of an ideal gas
(d) Formation of NaCl(s) from Na(s) and ½Cl₂(g)
ΔHf°(CH₄, g) = −74.8 kJ·mol⁻¹
ΔHf°(CO₂, g) = −393.5 kJ·mol⁻¹
ΔHf°(H₂O, l) = −285.8 kJ·mol⁻¹
Calculate ΔH for the reaction :
CH₄(g) + 2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2 H₂O(l)
Find the minimum temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous.
H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) → 2HCl(g),
ΔH = −184.6 kJ at 298 K. What is ΔU? (R = 8.314 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹)
Given the following reactions and their enthalpy changes:
C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?
16. At chemical equilibrium, which of the following is valid?
17. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 x 1020 at 300K. Find the standard free energy change ΔGo for the reaction.
A reversible reaction is said to have attained equilibrium when
19. The equilibrium constant, K for the reaction 2Hl(g) ⇋ H2(g) + I2(g) at room temperature is 2.85 and that at 698 K is 1.4 x 10-2. This implies that the forward reaction is
20. For a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium constant
At a given temperature, the equilbrium constant for the reactions
NO(g) + 1/2O2(g) ⇋NO2(g) and
2NO2(g) ⇋2NO + O2(g)
are K1 and K2. If K1 is 4 x 10-3, then K2 will be
CoO(s) + H2(g) ⇋Co(s) + H2O(g); K1 = 65
CoO(s) + CO(g) ⇋Co(s) + CO2(g); K2 = 500
The equilibrium constant for the reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇋CO2(s) + H2(g)at 100K is
A ⇋B, Kc = 1, B ⇋C, Kc = 3 and C ⇋D, Kc = 5
Evaluate the value of Kc for A ⇋D
24. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋2NH3(g)
For the reaction initially the mole ratio was 1:3 of N2:H2. At equilibrium 50% of each has reacted. If the equilibrium pressure was P, the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium was
25. At 550K, the Kc for the following reaction is 104 mol-1L
X(g) + Y(g) ⇋Z(g)
At equilibrium, it was observed that [X] = 1/2[Y] = 1/2 [Z]
What is the value of [Z] (in molL-1) equilibrium?
26. 3O2(g) ⇋2O3(g)
For the above reaction at 298K. Kc is found to be 3.0 x 10-59. If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040M then concentration of O3 in M is
1.9 x 10-63
2.4 x 1031
1.2 x 1021
4.38 x 10-32
27. In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are NOT equal?
3. NO3–
4. PO32-
Which Hybridisation is not match with the following compound?
42. Which of the following has the lowest lattice energy ?
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (20.09.2025)
1) 100 K2) 273 K3) 625 K 4) 500 K
1) SiF42) XeF43) BF34) SF4
1) 3, 2, 1 2) 2, 4, 63) 1, 2, 3 4) 6, 4, 2
1) O22-2) B23) N2+4) O2
1) CO22) SO32-3) .NO3–4) BO32-
1) NaCl2) KCl3) CsCl4) RbCl
1) CO22) SO23) HCN 4) H2O
1) σ*2pz2) π*2px3) π*2py4) π2px
1) ClO3–, CO32-2) PCl5, POCl33) ClO3–, SO32–4) SF6,ClF3
1) 12) 23) 34) 4
1) SO42- – sp3 2) NH4+ – sp33) BrF5 – sp3d34) SF6 – sp3d2
1) LiF 2) RbF3) KF4) NaF
1) N2+ 2) N23) O24) O2+
1) O22) N23) O2+4) CO+
1) 1/6 2) 63) 1/364) 36
1) K X K’ = 1 2) K =K’3) K’ = √K 4) K = √K’
1) 0.182) 0.363) 0.454) 0.68
1) 162) 1/83) 1/164) 1/64
1) 1/RT2) √RT3) RT 4) (RT)2
1) 1.9 x 10-63 2) 2.4 x 10313) 1.2 x 1021 4) 4.38 x 10-32
1) -137.26 cal 2) -1381.80 cal3) -13.73 cal4) 1372.60 cal
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (13.09.2025)
1. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the object. What is the distance of the object from the mirror?1) 902) 603) -90 4) -60
2. An object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its speed is 9cm/s. The speed of its image at that instant, is1) 4cm/s towards the mirror 2) 6cm/s towards the mirror 3) 4cm/s away from the mirror 4) 6cm/s away from the mirror
3. The focal length of a plano-convex lens is equal to its radius of curvature. The value of the refractive index of its material is1) 1.33 2) 1.63) 1.5 4) 2
4. Focal length of combination of two lenses is 1 m. The power of first lens is -10D and the other lens is 7D, then the first lens is1) Concave 2) Convex 3) Plano-concave 4) Plano-convex
5. In dispersion without deviation1) The emergent rays of all the colours are parallel to the incident ray 2) Yellow coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray 3) Only red coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray 4) All the rays are parallel, but not parallel to the incident ray
6. A thin prism produces an angular dispersion of 24. If the refracting angle of the prism is 3°, and the refractive index of the material of the prism for red colour is 1.55. What is the refractive index of its material for violet light?1) 1.55 2) 1.61 3) 1.683 4) 1.653
7. The angle of prism is 5° and its refractive indices for red and violet colours are 1.5 and 1.6 respectively. The angular dispersion produced by the prism is1) 7.75° 2) 5° 3) 0.5° 4) 0.17°
8. For a glass prism (μ=√3) the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. Find the angle of the prism.1) 30° 2) 60° 3) 45° 4) 90°
9. A compound microscope is of magnifying power 100. The magnifying power of its eyepiece is 4. Find the magnification of its objective1) 252) 20 3) 154) 30
10. Astronomical telescope has two lenses of focal power 0.5D and 20D. Then its magnifying power is:1) 102) 20 3) 804) 40
11. A planet is observed by astronomical refracting telescope having an objective of focal length 16cm and an eyepiece of focal length 2cm.1) The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is 16.02 m 2) The angular magnification of the planet is −800 3) The image of the planet is inverted 4) The objective is larger than the eyepiece
1) 2.12×108ms−1 2) 1.12×108ms−13) 4.12×108ms−1 4) 5.12×108ms−1
1) 9:42) 1:√33) 1:3 √34) 3: √3
1) 4B2) 9B 3) 32B4) none of these
1). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 2). A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV3). A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4). A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
1) 1.28 × 104 km 2) 6.4 × 103 km3) 3.2 × 103 km 4) 1.6 × 106 km
1) 02) 1.3 x 10-4T 3) 2.1 x 10-4T4) 6.0 x 10-4T
1) 0.4 m/s22) 3.2 m/s23) 0.32 m/s2 4) 0.04 m/s2
1) mv/n 2) mv2/n3) mvn24) mvn
1) 0.05 N s2) 0.85 N s3) – 0.85 N s4) – 0.05 N s
1) 9 N s2) 0.9 N s3) 3 N s4) 0.3 N s
1) 0 N2) 96 N3) 84 N4) 64 N
1) 0.16 m/s 2) 0.016 m/s3) 1.6 m/s 4) None
1) 39.2 m/s2) 4.9 m/s3) 04) 19.6 m/s
1) 6 s2) 0.6 s3) 60 s4) 3 s
1) 3.02 N s2) 4.14 N s3) 2.16 N s4) 5.02 N s
1) 100000 N 2) 400000 N3) 300000 N4) 200000 N
1) Ultraviolet2) Visible3) X-rays4) Infra-red
1) 2.6×10842) 2.6×10543) 2.6×1064 4) 2.6×1074
1) 104.7 MeV 2) 7.48 MeV3) 14.96 MeV4) 147.9 MeV
1) 45 μJ 2) 4.5 μJ3) 0.45 μJ 4) 450 μJ
1) Circle2) Circular disc3) Square4) Spherical
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Welcome to your JEE FULL TEST (30.08.2025)
1) 9×4 V 2) 18×104 V3) 36×104 V 4) 36×10-4 V
1) 120 V2) Zero3) 12 V4) 1200 V
1). mg(1+π) 2). mg(1-π)3). mg/π 4). None of these
1). n³2). √n 3). n4). n²
1) 1 km2) 2 km3) 3 km4) 4 km
1) Decreases2). Increases3) May increase or decrease 4) Conserved
1) 12) 2 3) 1/24) 2/1
26. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are1) 2, 02) 2,1 3) 2 4) 1
1) 1.46 X 10 5 J/mol 2) 9.1 X 10 5 J/mol3) 9.85 X 10 5 J/mol 4) 1. 57 X 10 6 J/mol
1) 1.25 X 10-34 m 2) 3.01 X 10-34 m3) 5.27 x 10-30 m 4) 5.27 x 10-20 m
1) 5 2) 43) 14) 3
1) 82) 103) 184) 32
1) 1.1 X 10 -31 meters2) 1.1 X 10 -30 meters3) 1.1 X 10 -28 meters 4) 1.1 X 10 -33 meters
1) n=4, l= 3, m=0 2) n=4, l= 2, m= 13) n= 4, l= 4, m=1 4) n=4, l=0, m= 0
1) P2 > P3 > P1 2) P3 > P1 > P23) P2 > P1 > P3 4) P1 > P2 > P3
1) 336 mm of Hg 2) 350 mm of Hg3) 160 mm of Hg 4) 168 mm of Hg
1) 0.40K2) 0.60K3) 0.20K 4) 0.80K
1) 103oC 2) 101oC3) 100oC 4) 102oC
1) 1712) 205.23) 5704) 150
1) 12.9 g2) 9.6 g3) 8.5 g 4) 6.7 g
1) 2.24 L 2) 1.12 L3) 0.84 L4) 0.56 L
1) HF 2) H2F23) H3F3 4) H4F4
1) 28 2) 703) 354) 50
1) Phenol 2) aniline 3) cyclohexane4) Ethene
1) N2 2) NO3) NH3 4) NO2
MATHEMATICS
(Attempt only 25 questions)
51. f:R →R is defined by f(x) = x2 – 2x + 1. Find f(f(x))
1) x4 + 4x3 – 4x2 2) x4 – 4x3 + 4x23) x4 + 4x3 + 4x2 4) x4 – 4x3 – 4x2
Deselect Answer
53. Let ω1 be a point obtained by the rotation of z1=5+4i about the origin through a right angle in the anticlockwise direction, and ω2 be the point through a right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument ω1-ω2 is equal toDeselect Answer
54. A set S contains 3 elements, the number of which of the following sets is 256
1) S2) P(S)3) P(P(S)) 4) P(P(P(S)))
55. The value of for which the system of equations 2x-y+2z=2, x-2y+z=-4, x+y+λz=4 has no solution is
1) 0 2) 23) 4 4) 5
56. Let n(U)=700, n(A)=200, n(B)=300, n(A∩B)=100, then n(A’∩B’) is equal to
1) 400 2) 6003) 300 4) None of these
57. Let A={1,2,3} and let R={(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(1,3),(3,2),(1,2)}. Then R is
1) reflexive and symmetric but not reflexive2) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric3) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive4) an equivalence relation
1) (-1,1)2) {-1,1}3) (-∞,-1)4) (1,∞)
60. Let S={1,2,3}. The function f:S→S defined as below have inverse for
1) f={(1,2),(2,2),(3,3)}2) f={(1,2),(2,1),(3,1)}3) f={(1,3),(3,2),(2,1)}4) f={(1,3),(2,3),(2,1)}
61. The system of equations, +y+z=6, x+2y+3z=14, x+3y+5z=20 has
1) infinitely many solutions2) a unique solution3) only finitely many solutions4) no solution
62. Consider the following statements:
I: If A = {x: x is an even natural number} and B = {y: y is a natural number}, A subset B.II: Number of subsets for the given set A = {5, 6, 7, 8) is 15.III: Number of proper subsets for the given set A = {5, 6, 7, 8) is 15.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?1) I and II2) I and III3) II and III 4) None of the above
63. The region represented by {z=xiy∈C:|z|-Re(z)≤1} is also given by the inequality
1) y2≥2(x+1)2) y2≤2x+13) y2≤(x+1/2) 4) y2≥x+1
64. Let A = {1, 2, 3, …, 50} and R be the relation “is square of” on 𝐴. Then 𝑅 as a subset of A×A is written as:1) {(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(4,4),(5,5),(6,6), (7, 7)} 2) {(1, 1), (2, 5), (3, 9), (4, 15) (5, 25), (6, 36), (7, 49)} 3) {(1, 1), (4, 4), (9, 9), (16, 16) (25, 25), (36, 36), (49, 49)} 4) {(1, 1), (4, 2), (9, 3), (16, 4) (25, 5), (36, 6), (49, 7)}Deselect Answer
65. If f(0)=0, f(1)=1, f(2)=2 and f(x)=f(x-2)+f(x-3) for x=3, 4, 5, &.., then f(9)=
1) 122) 133) 14 4) 10
66. If A and B are two sets, then A∩(B-A) is:
1) A 2) ϕ3) B4) None of these
67. If A={1, 2, 3}, and B={3, 6} then the number of relations from A to B is
1) 322) 233) 244) 26
1) 52) 63) 84) 7
1) A∪P(A)=P(A) 2) A∩P(A)=A3) A-P(A)=A 4) P(A)-{A}=P(A)
72. The equation |z-i|=|z-1|, represents
1) a circle of radius 1/22) a circle of radius 13) the line through the origin with slope 14) none of these
1) identity matrix2) symmetric matrix3) skew symmetric matrix 4) none of these
78. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. Then the number of subsets of A containing exactly two elements is
1) 452) 203) 35 4) 40
79. The smallest positive integer for which is is
1) n=8 2) n=163) n=124) n=4
1) k=72) k=-73) k=0 4) none of these
Drawing Test (For B. Achitecture students only)Answer any two.
1. You are a bird and you are flying above a city. Draw the view.2. Imagine you are inside a pencil box. Draw the view3. Imagine and draw a scene from a local cultural festival or fair4. Draw from memory your grandparents’ face
Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 2 (30.08.2025)
2. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f (f is the focal length). The image will be at,
1) 5f 2) −1.5f3) 3f4) −3f
1) 180° 2) 0°3) Equal to angle of incidence 4) 90°
1) 6°2) 83) 10°4) 4°
1) 20°2) 2°3) 30°4) 3°
1) 5 cm2) 10 cm3) 8 cm4) 4 cm
1) 1.52) 1.663) 1.33 4) 3
1) 5.25cm2) 21.0cm3) 10.5cm 4) 42cm
1) its angular velocity2) rotating air3) its inertia 4) momentum
1) 102) 203) 10√2 4) 2√10
1) 100 m 2) 200 m3) 150 m 4) 125 m
1) 32 N2) 35 N3) 20 N4) 37 N
1) 39 N 2) 25 N3) 12 N 4) 35 N
1) 2 m/s22) 7 m/s23) 6 m/s24) 0
1) 0 m/s2) 3.2 m/s3) 4 m/s4) 8 m/s
1) fs R 2) -fs R3) 0 4) cannot be determined
1) 72 KV2) 58 KV3) 7.2 KV4) 5.8 KV
1) increases2) Decreases3) remains the same4) Becomes zero
1) 120 V 2) Zero3) 12 V4) 1200 V
1) (a) and (b) only2) (a), (b) and (d) only3) (a), (b) and (c) only 4) (b) and (c) only
1) 2.452) 3.453) 4.25 4) 5.25
1) 1 km 2) 2 km3) 3 km4) 4 km
1) Decreases 2) Increases3) May increase or decrease 4) Conserved
1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A3) If A is true but R is false4) If A is false but R is true
1) R/42) R/2 3) R/64) 4R
1) 16:92) 16:273) 1:4 4) 4:1
1) – 2%2) + 2%3) – 1% 4) + 1%
1) 4:2√22) 1: 2 3) 2:14) 8:9
1) 5/22) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/2
1) 2, 02) 2,13) 24) 1
1) Infrared2) Visible3) Microwaves4) Ultra Violet
1) 52) 43) 1 4) 3
1) 8 2) 103) 184) 32
1) dxy, dyz2) dyz,dx2– y23) dz2, dx2-y2 4) dz2, dzx
1) 22) 63) 104) 14
1) 02) 13) 2 4) 3
1) P2 > P3 > P1 2) P3 > P1 > P23) P2 > P1 > P34) P1 > P2 > P3
1) 336 mm of Hg 2) 350 mm of Hg3) 160 mm of Hg4) 168 mm of Hg
1) 0.40K 2) 0.60K3) 0.20K4) 0.80K
1) 103oC2) 101oC3) 100oC4) 102oC
1) Al2(SO4)32) K2SO43) KCl 4) C2H12O6
1) 171 2) 205.23) 5704) 150
1) 0.242) 0.33) 0.754) 0.4
1) 12.9 g2) 9.6 g3) 8.5 g4) 6.7 g
1) 2.24 L2) 1.12 L3) 0.84 L 4) 0.56 L
1) HF2) H2F23) H3F34) H4F4
1) 0.1 mole2) 0.2 mole3) 0.5 mole4) 0.3 mole
1) 28 2) 703) 35 4) 50
77. 1 litre of mixture of CO and CO2is passed through red hot charcoal in tube. The new volume becomes 1.4 litre. Find out % composition of mixture by volume. All measurements are made at same P and T.1) 50% CO, 50% CO22) 40% CO, 60% CO23) 60% CO, 40% CO24) 10% CO, 90% CO2 \Deselect Answer
78. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is
1) 10 2) 203) 30 4) 40
79. When 22.4L of H2( g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl2 (g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to
1) 2 moles2) 0.5 moles3) 1.5 moles4) 1 mole
80. Given below are two statements:Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting point due to hydrogen bonding.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true4) Statement I is false but Statement II is trueDeselect Answer
81. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
82. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?Deselect Answer
83. Which of the following conformation is most stable?Deselect Answer
84. A compound which decomposes before its boiling point can be purified by the method of1) simple distillation2) fractional distillation3) distillation under reduced pressure4) steam distillation.Deselect Answer
85. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen present is estimated as
86. The number of sigma and pi-bonds present in 1, 3-butadiene are respectively
1) 9 and 22) 8 and 2 3) 9 and 34) 9 and 1
87. The correct stability order for the following species is :1) (II)> (IV)> (I)> (III)2) (I)> (III)> (II) >(IV)3) (I) >(II) >(III)> (IV)4) (II) > (I)> (IV) >(III)Deselect Answer
88. The I.U.P.A.C. name of1) 3–Methyl cyclohexene2) 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.3) 6–methyl cyclohexene4) 1–methyl cyclohex5–eneDeselect Answer
89. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?
1) Sulphur compound2) Quinoline3) Both4) None
90. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is
1) P > Q > R > S 2) Q > R > S > P3) S > Q > R > P 4) S > R > Q > P
BOTANY
91. Backbone of DNA is made of1) Nitrogen base, phosphate and deoxyribose sugar 2) Alternate nitrogen base and phosphate 3) Alternate nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar 4) Alternate phosphate and deoxyribose sugar
92. Which of the following statements about histones is wrong?1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules. 2) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine. 3) Histones carry a positive charge in their side chains. 4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
93. If the distance between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs is 6.6 × 10⁹, then the length of DNA is approximately1) 1.1 meters 3) 3.4 meters 2) 2.2 meters 4) 6.6 meters
94. Taylor’s experiment on semi-conservative mode of chromosome replication was done on1) Vicia faba 2) E. coli 3) Drosophila 4) Tobacco
95. Association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates1) DNA is condensed into chromatin Fiber 2) DNA is denatured 3) Transcription is occurring 4) Translation is occurring
96. The final proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of:1) Griffith 2) Hershey and Chase3) Watson and Crick 4) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
97. The transforming principle in Griffith’s experiment was identified as DNA by:a) Hershey and Chase b) Watson and Crick c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty d) Meselson and Stahl
98. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment using bacteriophages, ³²P was used to label:1) Proteins 2) DNA 3) RNA 4) Lipids
99. The semi-conservative model of DNA replication was demonstrated by:1) Messelson and Stahl 2) Hershey and Chase 3) Watson and Crick 4) Franklin and Wilkins
100. Solenoid model of chromatin packaging represents:1) 10 nm “beads-on-string” fibre 2) 30 nm chromatin fibre 3) 300 nm looped domains 4) 700 nm chromatid
102. Which of the following is not true for heterochromatin?1) Densely packed2) Transcriptionally inactive 3) Stains light 4) Found at centromeres and telomeres
103. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty concluded DNA was the genetic material because:1) DNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, but protein- and RNA digesting enzymes did not 2) RNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not3) Protein-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not 4) Both DNA and protein were equally effective
104 If Hershey and Chase had used radioactive hydrogen to label nucleotides in phage DNA, after infection the radioactivity would be1) Found only in protein coat 2) Found only inside bacteria 3) Found in both coat and bacteria equally 4) Lost after blending
105. Semi-conservative replication proved that:1) Each daughter DNA has one new and one parental strand 2) Both daughter DNAs have two parental strands 3) Both daughter DNAs have two new strands 4) DNA replication is error-free
106. The average length of DNA per nucleosome repeat is about:1) 146 bp 2) 160 bp 3) 200 bp 4) 300 bp
107. Assertion (A): Histone proteins are positively charged. Reason (R): They are rich in basic amino acids like lysine and arginine.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
108. Assertion (A): Nucleosomes are the fundamental unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes. Reason (R): Each nucleosome core contains DNA wrapped around a tetramer of histone H1.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) Both A and R are false
109. In a eukaryotic cell, the linker histone H1 is absent due to a mutation. What would be the most likely consequence for chromatin structure?1) Complete loss of nucleosome formation 2) Looser chromatin compaction, affecting higher-order structure 3) No effect on chromatin structure 4) Increased DNA methylation and gene silencing
110. Assertion (A): In semiconservative DNA replication, after two generations in a ¹⁴N medium starting from fully ¹⁵N-labeled DNA, half of the DNA molecules will have intermediate density. Reason (R): Each round of semiconservative replication produces DNA molecules with one parental (¹⁵N) and one newly synthesized (¹⁴N) strand.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
111. Assertion (A): DNA replication on the lagging strand is discontinuous, resulting in Okazaki fragments. Reason (R): The lagging strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction, opposite to the movement of the replication fork, requiring multiple RNA primers.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
112. Why are Okazaki fragments formed during DNA replication?1) Because DNA polymerase can only synthesize in the 3’ to 5’ direction 2) Because the leading strand is synthesized faster than the lagging strand 3) Because the lagging strand is synthesized in short segments due to its 5’ to 3’ template orientation 4) Because RNA primers are not required for the leading strand
113. What feature of DNA polymerase contributes to the high fidelity of DNA replication?1) 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity 2) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity3) Ability to bind RNA primers 4) Interaction with single-strand binding proteins
114. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial chromosome.1) They are metacentric chromosome. 2) The centromere is present at the centre. 3) During anaphase, these chromosomes are divided into two equal arms. 4) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.Deselect Answer
115. Mannitol is stored food in:1) Porphyra 2) Fucus 3) Gracilaria 4) CharaDeselect Answer
ZOOLOGY
136. According to MTP (Amendment) Act 2017, pregnancy may be terminated on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner within1) 12 weeks 2) 24 weeks 3) Beyond 24 weeks 4) Second trimester
137. Which of the following STD is not completely curable?1) Gonorrhoea 2) Syphilis 3) Genital herpes 4) Genital warts
138. Which of the following IUDs will prevent ovulation?1) Cu7 2) LNG-20 3) Lippes loop 4) Multiload 375
139. The most widely used contraceptive is1) Condom 2) Hormone injection 3) Coitus interruptus 4) IUCD
140. Infertile couples can be assisted to have children through which technique?1) PID 2) VD 3) IUD 4) ART
141. How many of the following are indicators of improved reproductive health of society? (a) More couples with larger families (b) Better detection and cure of STIs (c) Better post-natal care (d) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries (e) Increased IMRChoose the correct option from the following1) One 3) Four 2) Three 4) Five
142. Read the following statements carefully: Statement I: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural, and social. Statement II: USA was the first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at the national level towards attaining a reproductively healthy society Choose the option which correctly describes the above-given statements:1) Both statements I and Il are correct. 2) Both statements | and Il are incorrect. 3) Only statement I is correct. 4) Only statement Il is correct
143. Match the following:1) A−(iii),B −(i),C−(iv),D−(ii) 2) A−(i),B−(iii),C−(ii),D − (iv) 3) A−(iv),B−(iii),C−(i),D−(ii) 4) A−(ii),B−(iv),C −(i),D −(iii)
144. Assertion(A): In intrauterine transfer (IUT) embryos, more than 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube. Reason(R): IUT has poor success rate.1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
145. Choose the right one among the statements given below:1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself. 2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus. 3) lUDs suppress gametogenesis. 4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
146. Emergency pills should be used after 72 hours of1) Coitus 2) Ovulation 3) Menstruation 4) Gastrulation
147. Select the odd one out from the following STDs1) Chlamydia 2) Genital herpes 3) Hepatitis-B 4) Trichomoniasis
148. The method of injecting sperm inside the cytoplasm of an ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called1) GIFT 2) ICSI 3) ET 4) ZIFT
149. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:1) Most of the major organ systems are formed 2) The body is covered with fine hair 3) Movement of the foetus 4) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
150. The function of oral contraceptive pills in birth control is1) To inhibit sperm mobility 2) To inhibit ovulation 3) To inhibit oogenesis 4) To inhibit implantation
151. Transfer of donor’s semen into the uterus of female is called1) IUI 2) IUT 3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
152. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
153. Chances of ovulation is very low during intense lactation because1) Suppression of gonadotropins 2) Increase secretion of gonadotropins 3) Suppression of fertilization 4) Increase secretion of oxytocin
154. Select the incorrect pair from the following1) Periodic abstinence – Natural contraceptive 2) Progestesert – Hormone releasing IUD 3) Saheli – Steroidal pills 4) Embryo more than 8 blastomeres – IUT
155. Which of the following statements are correct regarding oral contraceptive pills (i) They inhibit ovulation and implantation(ii) They alter the quality of fallopian mucus to prevent fertilization (iii) They inhibit sperm mobility1) (i) only 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
156. Misuse of amniocentesis can lead to1) STD 2) MTP 3) RTI 4) ART
157. In which technique of ART, fertilization takes place in fallopian tube?1) GIFT and ZIFT 2) ZIFT and AI 3) GIFT and AI 4) ZIFT and IUT
158. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT procedure1) Ova collected from female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation in the recipient 2) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube of recipient 3) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient 4) Ova is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient
159. In rDNA technology, primers are1) Chemically synthesised, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules 2) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA 3) Specific sequences present on rDNA 4) Required to identify transformants from non-transformants
160. Select the odd one out.1) Denaturation, annealing, extension 2) Recognition site, Origin of replication, Selectable marker 3) Exonuclease, Ligases, Polymerase 4) Electrophoresis, ELISA, bioreactor
161. pBR322, commonly used vector is1) Original bacterial plasmid 2) Original yeast plasmid 3) Artificial bacterial plasmid 4) Viral vector
162. Sequence of vector mediated gene transfer involves1) Treatment with divalent cations—> placing on ice —> heat shock —> incubation of cells with rDNA on ice 2) Treatment with calcium chloride —> pores made by electrical impulse —> DNA molecules incorporated into cells3) DNA coated with gold pellet —> embedded on plastic disc —> bombarded with high velocity to target cell 4) Micropipette filled with DNA—> inserted into nucleus of cell—> pressure applied—>DNA injected into cells
163. Which of the following is correctly matched?1) Separation of raw materials– Culturing 2) Primer extension in PCR – Reverse transcriptase 3) dNTPs – Deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates 4) Bacteriophage– Cloning vector
164. Regarding Sparged stirred tank bioreactor, select the correct statements. i. Sparger is responsible for proper aeration ii. Surface area for oxygen is increasediii. Air inlet is at the bottom, materials can be introduced through itiv. Fermentation process is anaerobic1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I and IV
165. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is a1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
166. Identify A and B from the given diagram.1) Pvu I and Sal I 2) Bam HI and Sal I 3) Bam HI and Pst I 4) Pvu II and Pst I
167. When linear and circular DNA are cut at four recognition sites, number of fragments produced are1) 3 and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 5 and 4 4) 3 and 3
168. Assertion: Continuous culturing maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log or exponential phase Reason: Continuous culturing of cells involve passing out of medium from one side and addition of fresh medium from the other side1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2) is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
169. Which of the following is endonuclease?1) Protease 2) Hind III 3) RNase 4) DNase I
170. Polyethylene glycol method is used for/as1) Gene transfer without a vector 2) Isolation of DNA 3) Composition of bioreactor 4) Production of plasmids
171. Statement I: Commonly used vector contains multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease Statement II: Presence of multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease results in multiple fragments1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 3) Both Statement I and II are correct 4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
172. Who is the father of Indian Biotechnology?1) Birbal Sahni 2) Prof VL Chopra 3) Prof AK Chopra 4) Dr Lalji Singh
173. Match the following:1) 1− iv,2− ii,3− i,4− iii 2) 1− iii,2− i,3− ii,4− iv 3) 1− iv,2− iv,3− iii,4− i 4) 1− ii,2− iv,3− i,4− iii
174. EFB stands for1) European Federation for Biology 2) Europe Federation for Biotechnology 3) European Federation of Biotechnology 4) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology
175. Assertion: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a divalent cation Reason: Divalent cations decrease the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation A 2) A is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
176. The minimum heat range in PCR is observed in which step?1) Denaturation 2) Extension 3) Annealing 4) Elongation
177. Select the correct option. 1. rDNA is formed by joining together DNA from two different sources. 2. Endonuclease remove nucleotides from the end of DNA. 3. Sticky ends are named so because they form hydrogen bond with their complementary cut counter parts1) 1 only 2) 1 and 2 3) 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
178. Foreign DNA was inserted into a cloning vector at the ampicillin resistance gene. Non-recombinants would survive on medium containing:1) Both tetracycline and ampicillin 2) Neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 3) Ampicillin but not tetracycline 4) Tetracycline but not ampicillin
179. Which of the following is not tool for rDNA technology?1) Restriction enzyme 2) DNA fingerprinting 3) Cloning vector 4) PCR
180. A mixture contains DNA fragments p,q,r,s with differing sizes, where, p + q = r, p > q, s > r was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from anode to cathode sides of the gel would be1) q, r, p, s 2) r, p, q, s 3) q, p, r, s 4) s, r, p, q