Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. The figure shows a square loop L with a side length of 5cm which is connected to a network of resistances. The entire setup is moving to the right with a constant speed of 1 cm/s. At a certain instant, a part of the loop L is in a uniform magnetic field of 1T, perpendicular to the plane of the loop. If the resistance of the loop is the current in the loop 1.7 W, at that instant will be close to

2. Four6-V batteries are connected in series in order to power light bulbs A and B. The resistance of light bulb A is 40 W and the resistance of light bulb B is 20 W.

How does the current through the light bulb compare with the current through light bulb B?

1. The current through light bulb A is less.
2. The current through light bulb A is equal to that through light bulb B.
3. The current through light bulb A is greater.
4. None of the above is true.

3. The stress-strain curves for four metals are shown in the figure. Which metal has the maximum Young’s modulus of elasticity?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

4. A parallel beam of fast-moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?

1. The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
2. The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
3. The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected.
4. A diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.

5. A capacitor is constructed by taking metallic circular discs of radius r placed face-to-face with a separation of d. A dielectric slab is inserted into the space between the plates so that it fills the entire width, but only half the area between the plates. The dielectric constant K. Then, the capacitance is

6. He⁺, Li⁺⁺ ions all behave similar to H- atoms in that they are well described by Bohr’s theory, with some modifications. The angular momentum of an electron in the ground state of H-atom is L_H ; in the case of He⁺, it is L_He ; and in the case of Li⁺⁺, it is L_Li . Then:

1. L_H > L_He > L_Li
2. L_H < L_He < L_Li
3. L_H = L_He = L_Li
4. L_H + L_He/2 = L_Li

7. A step-down transformer connected to an AC mains supply of 220V is made to operate at 11V,44W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

1. 2A
2. 4A
3. 0.2A
4. 0.4A

8. A mass of 6kg is suspended by a rope of negligible mass and a length of 2m from the ceiling. A force of 60N in the horizontal direction is applied at the midpoint P of the rope (see figure). The angle the rope makes with the vertical in equilibrium is: (take g = 10 ms^-2)

1. 15^o
2. 30^o
3. 45^o
4. 60^o

9. A particle starts to move along a straight line under a force that delivers constant power P starting from rest. The velocity of the particle v varies with time t as:

1. ∝t
2. v ∝  1/t
3. v ∝ √t
4. v ∝  1/√t

10. An electron and a photon have the same wavelength and their momenta are and P_v We can conclude that:

1. p_e  >p_v
2. p_e < p_v
3. p_e  = p_v               
4. No inference can be made

15. What is the vector form of the angular momentum for a particle, moving with constant velocity along a straight line parallel to the -axis, about the origin?

16. In a LCR circuit 100W resistance is connected to an a.c. source of 200V and angular frequency 300 rad/s. If only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by phase angle ϕ. If only the inductance is removed the current leads the voltage by phase angle ϕ. The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is:

1. 500W
2. 400W
3. 300W
4. 200W

17. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, both having the same mass and radius about their respective axes is:

1.√2  : √3
2.√3 : √2
3. 1:√2
4.√2 : 1

18. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1^st,2^nd,3^rd and 4^th second is:

1. 1:1:1:1
2. 1:2:3:4
3. 1:4:9:16
4. 1:3:5:7

19. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10ms^-2 and the units of length and time are changed in kilometer and hour respectively, the numerical value of the acceleration due to gravity is:

1. 360000
2. 72000
3. 36000
4. 129600

20. The potential enery of a two-body system is given by U()= (12x² – 16x) J. The value of force when x = 1m is:

1. -4N
2. 4N
3. 8N
4. -8N

21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrostatics of conductors?

1. The interior of the conductor with no cavity can have no excess charge in the static situation.
2. The electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor.
3. The electrostatic potential has the same value inside as that on its surface.
4. All of the above statements are correct.

22. A permanent magnet is driven towards a solenoid (AB) as shown, along its axis. As it approaches the solenoid:

1. ends A, B become N, S-poles due to induction
2. ends A, B become S, N-poles due to induction
3. ends A, B both become N-poles due to induction
4. ends both become -poles due to induction

23. A pair of mirrors, M₁ & M₂ are placed parallel to each other, making an angle of 45° with the horizontal. A horizontal ray of light falls on M₁, gets reflected by M₁ & M₂ and emerges. The final ray from M₂ ,


1. is horizontal
2. is vertical
3. is normal to M₂
4. travels to the left , horizontally

24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences a force which is zero only when it moves in the direction of the field or against it.
Statement II: Whenever a charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field, its trajectory may be a circle, a straight line or a helix.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct,
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

25. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is reduced when the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
Statement II: The gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is reduced when the Moon is opposite to the Sun, relative to the Earth.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

26. Given below two statements:
Statement I: For diamagnetic substances, -1≤χ<0 where χ is the magnetic susceptibility.
Statement II: Diamagnetic substances, when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move from the stronger to the weaker part of the field.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.

28. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10W,30W,30W and 90W respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the cell are 7V and 5W If the galvanometer resistance is 50W the current drawn from the cell will be:

1. 0.2 A
2. 0.1 A
3. 2.0 A
4. 1.0 A

29. A circular metallic wire is connected, at the opposite ends of diameter, to a battery (Figure A). The magnetic field at the centre of the circular wire is B₁. If, on the other hand, the terminals of the battery are connected to the ends of the wire and the wire is shaped into a full circle, the magnetic field at the centre is B₂ (Figure B). Then:


1. B₁ = 2B₂
2. B₂ = 2B₁
3. B₁ = B₂
4. B₁ = 0, B₂ ≠ 0 

30. A rectangular metal piece, measuring 3 cm in height and 6 cm in width, has a central hole that is 1 cm high and 4 cm wide, as shown in the diagram. If the metal is warmed from to 100℃ what will happen to the dimensions of the hole?


1. Both height and width will increase.
2. Both height and width will remain unchanged.
3. Height will decrease while width will increase.
4. Height will increase while width will decrease.

31. The focal length of a convex lens is f. An object is placed at a distance x from its second focal point. The ratio of the size of the real image to that of the object is:

1. f/x²
2. x²/f
3. f/x
4. x/f

32. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Internal energy of an ideal gas does not change when it is taken through a cyclic process,
Reason (R): Internal energy is a state function, and when the gas returns to the same state-it attains the same value independent of the process.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

33. During a nuclear reaction, if the mass defect is 0.4%, how much energy will be released when 2 kg of mass undergoes fusion?

1. 72 × 10⁵  J
2. 72 × 10⁹  J
3. 72 × 10¹¹  J
4. 72 × 10¹³  J

34. A body of mass m is taken from the Earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the Earth. The change in potential energy of the body will be:

1. 2/3 mgR
2. 3mgR
3. 1/3 mgR
4. 2mgR

35. Wavelengths of light. λ₁= 700 nm and λ₂ = 400 nm are used in a standard double-slit experiment. Both the slits emit light, in phase with each other.
Consider the statements below and mark the one that is true.
Statement I: The 4^th maximum corresponding to λ₁ overlaps the 3^rd maximum of
Statement II: The 2^nd maximum for overlaps the 4^th minimum for λ₂

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

36. A rod of mass M and length L is suspended vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to rotate about A and then released. There is no friction anywhere.
The force exerted by the hinge at A, when the rod is at its lowest position is:

1. 2 Mg
2. 3 Mg
3. 4 Mg 
4. 2.5 Mg

37. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The speed of sound waves in a medium depends on the elastic modulus and the density of the medium.
Statement II: The speed of sound in a gas is independent of its temperature.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

38. Which, of the following, is true for a simple pendulum undergoing small oscillations? (neglect all dissipative forces)

1. Kinetic energy is conserved
2. Momentum is conserved
3. Potential energy is conserved
4. Total energy is conserved

39. In the circuit shown in the diagram, the resistance r is unknown but fixed. The EMF E can be varied and the current (i) passing through the ammeter (A) can be measured in magnitude only.
When the EMF E is adjusted so that the current in the ammeter (A) is zero, then the value of this EMF is E₀

1. E₀= 16V if r = 8 Ω
2. E₀= 10V if r = 2 Ω
3. E₀= 5V if r = 2 Ω
4. E₀ < 20V no matter what the value of r

40. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a charge-free region, electric field lines can be taken to be discontinuous curves.
Statement II: The concept of the field was first introduced by Faraday.

1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

41. A spherical mirror has a focal length of 36 cm in air. Its focal length, when immersed in water (refractive = 4/3) will be:

1. 36 cm
2. 48 cm
3. 27 cm
4. 12 cm

42. A coil with an inductive reactance of 31W has a resistance of 8W. It is placed in series with a capacitor that has a capacitive reactance of 25W. This combination is connected to an AC source of 110 V. The power factor of the circuit is:

1. 0.4
2. 0.6
3. 0.8
4. 1.0

43. With an increase in the wavelength of the interfering light, the fringe width in Young’s double-slit experiment will

1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. can increase or can decrease

44. A projectile is thrown with an initial velocity v₀ from the ground at an angle θ with the horizontal direction. Which of the following statements is correct during its entire journey? (ignoring air resistance)

1. Horizontal component of the linear momentum of the projectile is constant during its motion.
2. Velocity of the projectile is zero at the maximum height.
3. Acceleration of the projectile is zero at the maximum height.
4. Displacement of the projectile in a horizontal direction is zero.

45. The diode D is ideal. The equivalent resistance between A, B is: (V_A < V_B)


1. 60 Ω
2. 30 Ω
3. 15 Ω
4. 5 Ω

46. Arrange the reactivity of given compounds in decreasing order for electrophilic addition reaction:

Select from the codes given below:

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

47. What types of bonds are present in the structure of  , which contains three π  bonds?

1. 3 d π – p π
2. 2 d π -pπ and 1 pπ – p π
3. l d π – pπ and 2 pπ – p π
4. 3 p π – p π

48. Identify the major product obtained in the following reaction:

49. Which of the following statements is not correct about the electron gain enthalpy?

1. In general, the electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative when going from top to bottom in a group.
2. The electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative in a period from left to right.
3. The elements with stable configurations, like noble gases, have large positive electron gain enthalpies.
4. Halogens have the highest negative electron gain enthalpies.

50. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Boron always forms a covalent bond.
Reason (R): The small size of B³⁺ favours the formation of covalent bonds.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

51. The variation of radial probability density R²(r) as a function of distance (r) of the electron from the nucleus for 3p-orbital is captured in which of the following graphs?

52. Which of the following meta-directing substituents is the most deactivating in aromatic substitution?

1. -SO₃ H
2. -COOH
3. -NO₂
4. -C≡N

53. Match the reagents (List-I) with the products (List-II) obtained from phenol:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

        (A)       (B)       (C)       (D)
1.    (III)     (IV)      (I)        (II)
2.    (II)      (I)       (IV)      (III)
3.    (IV)    (III)      (II)       (I)
4.   (IV)     (II)       (I)        (III)

54. The difference between amylose and amylopectin

1. Amylopectin has 1→4 α -linkage and 1 →6 α -linkage.
2. Amylose has 1→4 α -linkage and 1→ 6 β -linkage.
3. Amylopectin has 1→4 α -linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage.
4. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose.

55. The difference between amylose and amylopectin

1. Amylopectin has 1→4 α -linkage and 1 →6 α -linkage.
2. Amylose has 1→4 α -linkage and 1→ 6 β -linkage.
3. Amylopectin has 1→4 α -linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage.
4. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose.

56. The hybridisations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO⁺, and NH₃ respectively are:

1. sp, sp³ and sp² 
2. sp² , sp³ and sp
3. sp, sp² and sp³ 
4. sp² , sp and sp² 

57. Which are the major products (A) and (B) for the following reactions, respectively?

58. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Work is a state function that is expressed in joule
Reason (R): Work appears only at the boundary of the system.

Options:
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

59. The change in the oxidation state of Mn in the following reaction is:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7

60. The percentage of pyridine (C₅H₅N) that forms pyridinium ion (C₅H₅N⁺H) In A 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (K_b for C₅H₅N = 1.7 × 10^-9) ) is?

1. 0.0060%
2. 0.013%
3. 0,77%
4. 1.6%

61. Match Column-1 with Column-II, Columns I and II represent complexes and magnetic moment (BM) respectively.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

          (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
1.        (i)        (iii)       (iv)        (ii)
2.       (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)
3.       (iv)       (ii)        (i)         (iii)
4.       (ii)        (iv)       (iii)       (i)

62. The boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute A is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute B. What is the correlation between the molecular weights of A and B?

1. M_A = 4M_A
2. M_B = 4M_A
3. M_A = 8M_A
4. M_B = 8M_A

63. Which among the following is/are allylic alcohol(s)?


1. c, and b
2. b, and a
3. c, and a
4. None of the above

64. Which is the correct statement among the following?

1. Starch is α polymer of a-glucose
2. Amylose is a component of cellulose
3. Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid
4. In the cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom

65. Determine the percent yield of ammonia in the following reaction, where 0.25 mol of NH₃ is produced from the reaction of 0.5 mol of N₂ with 0.5 mol of H₂
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g)→2NH₃(g)

1. 75%
2. 50%
3. 33%
4. 25%

66. S-S bond is present in:

1. H₂ SO₅ 
2. H₂ S₂ O₆ 
3. H₂ S₂ O₇ 
4. H₂ S₂ O₈ 

67. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 nm is just sufficient to ionize the atom of metal A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol^-1 is: (Rounded-off to the nearest integer) [ h = 6.63 ×10^-34) Js , c = 3.00 × 10⁸ ms^-1, N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ mol^-1 ]

1. 189
2. 175
3. 181
4. 185

68. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Variables like P, V, and T are called state functions.
Reason (R): Their values depend solely on the system’s state, and not on how it is reached.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

69. At 100 the K_w of water is 55 times its value at 25  What will be the pH of a neutral solution? (log 55 = 1.74)

1. 7.00
2. 7.87
3. 5.13
4. 6.13

70. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in 250 ml of water (P₁) 10 g of urea (CH₄N₂O) in 250 ml of water (P₂) and 10 g of sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) in 250 ml of water (P₃) The decreasing order of osmotic pressures of these solutions is:

1. P₂ > P₃ > P₁
2. P₃ > P₁ > P₂
3. P₂ > P₁ > P₃
4. P₁ > P₂ > P₃

71. The correct order of 3rd ionisation potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si will be:

1. Si > Al > Mg > Na
2. Mg > Si > Al > Na
3. Mg > Na > Si > Al
4. Na > Mg > Si > Al

72. The incorrect statement among the following regarding interstitial compounds is

1. They are chemically reactive.
2. They are much harder than the pure metal.
3. They have a higher melting point than pure metals.
4. They retain metallic conductivity.

73. Following types of compounds (as I, II) are studied in terms of isomerism in:


1. Chain isomerism
2. Position isomerism.
3. Conformers
4. Stereisomerism

74. Which reagent can be used to distinguish between cis-Cyclopentane-1,2-diol and trans-Cyclopentane-1,2-diol?

1. Ozone
2. MnO₂
3. Aluminium isopropoxide
4. Acetone

75. In order to accomplish the following conversion, what reagent and conditions would be required?


1. Cold sodium hydroxide
2. Hot conc. sodium hydroxide
3. Potassium tertiary butoxide and heat
4. Hot water

76. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of K⁺ and Cl^– ions are 62.12 ×10^-4 Sm² /mol and 73.54 × 10^-4 Sm² /mol respectively. The molar conductance at infinite dilution for potassium chloride is:

1. 124.66 Scm² / mol
2. 135.66 Scm² / mol
3. 198.20 Scm² / mol
4. 175.78 Scm² / mol

77. For a certain reaction, the k [A]²[B], when the initial concentration of A is tripled keeping the concentration of B constant, the initial rate would be:

1. Increase by a factor of three
2. Decrease by a factor of nine
3. Increase by a factor of six
4. Increase by a factor of nine

78. Given the following cell reaction:
2Fe³⁺(aq) + 2I^–(aq)→ 2Fe²⁺ (aq) + I²(aq)
= 0.24V at 298 K.
The standard Gibbs energy Δ_r G^⊖ of the cell reaction is:
[Given: F = 96500 C  ]

1. 23.16 kJ mol^-1
2. -46.24 kJ mol^-1
3. -23.16 kJ mol^-1
4. 46.24 kJ mol^-1

79. Hinsberg reagent, among the following:

80. The minimum volume of water required to dissolve 0.1 g lead (II) chloride to get a saturated solution (K_sp of PbCl₂ = 3.2 × 10⁸); atomic mass of Pb = 207u) is:

1. 1.798 L
2. 0.36 L
3. 17.95 L
4. 0.18 L

81. Compound (A) in the given reaction is:

82. 5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia were absorbed in 20 mL. of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid required 15 ml. of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

1. 29.5
2. 23.7
3. 47.4
4. 59.0

83. Arrange the compounds in increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution reaction:


1. (i) < (ii) < (iii)
2. (1) < iii) < (ii)
3. (iii) < (ii) < (i)
4. (ii) < (iii) < (i)

84. How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg₃ (PO₄)₂ will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

1. 0.02
2. 3.125 × 10 ^-2
3. 1.25 × 10 ^-2
4. 2.5 × 10 ^-2

85. Arrange 1^st ionization enthalpy of group 13 elements in increasing order: (Tl, In, Ga, Al)

1. Tl < In < Ga < Al
2. In < Ga < Al < Tl
3. In < Al < Ga < Tl
4. Tl < In < Al < Ga

86. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction.
(ii) A catalyst allows the same rate of reaction to be achieved at a lower temperature
(iii) A catalyst mixes with the reactants and increases the overall concentration of reactants in the rate equation.

1. i only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i. ii. and iii

87. In a reaction, changes into Br₂ in the acidic medium. The number of electrons that are needed to balance the equation are:

1. 10 electrons on the left-hand side.
2. 6 electrons on the left-hand side
3. 3 electrons on the left-hand side
4. 3 electrons on the right-hand side

88. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and I can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
a. n = 4, l = 1      b. n = 4 1 = 0
c. n = 3, 1 = 2     d. n = 3, 1 = 1

1. (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
2. (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
3. (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
4. (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)

89. When two liquids A and B mix together, the boiling point of solution is found higher than that of the individual liquids. The nature of the solution is:

1. Ideal solution.
2. Positive deviation with a non-ideal solution.
3. Negative deviation with a non-ideal solution.
4. Normal solution.

90. Which of the following graph is the correct representation between atomic number (Z) and magnetic moment of d-block elements?
[Outer electronic configuration: (n-1) d^X ns^{1 or 2}]

91. When a neuron is in resting state i.c., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is:

1. equally permeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
2. impermeable to both Na⁺ and K⁺ ions
3. comparatively more permeable to K⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to Na⁺ ions
4. comparatively more permeable to Na⁺ ions and nearly impermeable to K⁺

92. The number of correct statements from the given statements is:

I: In a typical dicotyledonous embryo, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
II: In a typical dicotyledonous embryo, the cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl, and it terminates at its lower end in the radicle or root tip.
III: In the grass family, the cotyledon is called the scutellum, which is situated towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis.
IV: At its lower end, the embryonal axis in enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called coleorhiza.
V: In monocots, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the epicotyl.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

93. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Insulin lowers blood glucose levels.
Reason (R): Insulin promotes the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

94. A patient suffering from hyperparathyroidism may have:
I: increased bone deposition
II: increased risk of fractures

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither 1 nor II

95. The descending limb of Henle’s loop:

1. Is permeable to water but impermeable to salts.
2. Is impermeable to water but permeable to salts…
3. Actively secretes sodium into the filtrate.
4. Actively reabsorbs glucose and amino acid

96. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Amoeba and Paramoecium are included in Kingdom Protista and not in Kingdom Animalia.
Reason (R): Unlike animals, a cell wall is present in these organisms.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False

97. Rates of physical and chemical processes are influenced by temperature among other factors. A general rule of thumb is that rate:

1. doubles by half for every 10°C change in either direction
2. decreases by half for every 10°C change in either direction
3. doubles or decreases by half for every 10°C change in either direction
4. doubles or decreases by half for every 5°C change in either direction

98. The ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equal one for a:

1. ss RNA
2. dsRNA
3. dsDNA
4. ssDNA

99. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Detritus food chain (DFC) may be connected with the grazing food chain (GFC) at some levels.
Reason (R): Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some animals are omnivores.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

100. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory structures in Aschelminthes.
Statement II: Reptiles, birds, land snails, and insects are uricotelic animals.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

101. Trachea divides into a right and left primary bronchi at the level of:

1. 7th cervical vertebra
2. 2nd thoracic vertebra
3. 5th thoracic vertebra
4. 12th thoracic vertebra

102. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): Foreign and vector DNA must be cleaved with the same restriction enzyme when making recombinant DNA
Reason (R): Each restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a specific cleavage site.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

103. What is the precise role of the synaptonemal complex during prophase 1 of meiosis?

1. It aligns sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes to facilitate centromere separation.
2. It stabilizes homologous chromosome pairing and facilitates genetic recombination.
3. It assists in terminalization of chiasmata and separation of chromatids during metaphase I.
4. It enables the dissolution of recombination nodules before metaphase I.

104. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: During menstrual cycle, LH is at peak just before ovulation.
Statement II: During menstrual cycle, FSH is at peak just before ovulation.

1. Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

105. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Growth, at a cellular level, is measured by a variety of parameters such as increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area, volume and cell number.
Reason (R): Such parameters are more or less proportional to the increase in protoplasm which is primarily responsible for growth at cellular level.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

106. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?

1. Cryopreservation
2. In vitro fertilization
3. National Parks
4. Micropropagation

107. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease urine output.
Statement II: A person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will have a higher than normal solute concentration in the urine.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

108. Assertion (A): Co-enzymes are inorganic compounds that bind tightly with the apoenzyme to form a holoenzyme.
Reason (R): Co-enzymes and prosthetic groups are cofactors.

1. (A) is False but (R) is Truc.
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

109. Regarding the primary structure of a protein:
I: The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional information in a protein is called the primary structure of a protein.
II: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by the first amino acid and the right end represented by the last amino acid.
III: The first amino acid is also called as C terminal amino acid and the last amino acid is called the N-terminal amino acid

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

110. Niche of an organism includes:
I: range of conditions that it can tolerate
II: diversity in the resources it utilises
III: its distinct functional role in the ecological system

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. I. II and III

111. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Rana tigrina is cold-blooded or poikilotherm.
Reason (R): Its body temperature varies with the temperature of the environment.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

112. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells:
I: male germ cells which undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation
II: Sertoli cells that secrete the androgens

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

113. All the following criteria are used for the classification of fungi into related classes except:

1. the morphology of the mycelium
2. mode of spore formation
3. type of photosynthetic pigment
4. fruiting bodies

114. How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?


1.1
2.2
3.3
4.4

115. In order to produce concentrated urine, a large amount of water could be reabsorbed in the human kidney from:

1. PCT
2. Henle’s loop
3. DCT
4. Collecting duct

116. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of oxygen to the tissue under normal physiological conditions.
2. Oxygen gas has most potent effect on the central chemoreceptors and plays most vital role in regulation of respiration
3. Nearly 70 percent of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate in the blood.
4. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers about 4 ml of carbon dioxide to the alveoli. 

117. How many of the given pairs are correctly matched?
I: Perigynous flower: Rose
Π: Imbricate aestivation: Gulmohur
III: Polyadelphous stamens: Citrus

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

118. Identify the correct statements:
I: Arteries take blood away from the heart.
II: Veins carry blood towards the heart.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

119. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

1. 5S rRNA
2. 18S TRNA
3. 23S rRNA
4. 5.8S rRNA

120. Which of the following is a correct application of the rules of binomial nomenclature for living organisms?

1. Both generic name and the specific epithet can be abbreviated.
2. The species name is written first, followed by the genus.
3. The first letter of the genus name is capitalized and the species name is in lowercase.
4. Both the genus and species names are always written in italics or underlined together.

121. Proteins encoded by which of the following genes in Bacillus thuringiensis control cotton bollworms?
A: cryIAb B: cryIAc C: cryIIAb

1. Only A and B
2. Only A
3. Only B and C
4. Only C

122. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:

1. Decomposition
2. Catabolism
3. Fragmentation
4. Humification

123. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The normal blood pressure of a healthy adult is approximately 120/80 mm Hg.
Statement II: The systolic pressure is the pressure during the relaxation of the heart.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

124. How does water limitation indirectly affect photosynthesis in a plant under normal light and CO₂ conditions?
 
1. Water stress directly impacts the chlorophyll molecule, reducing its light absorption.
2. It limits the plant’s ability to carry out the Calvin cycle by decreasing ATP production.
3. Water stress causes stomatal closure, limiting CO, uptake and lowering photosynthetic rates.
4. Reduced water decreases light intensity, impacting light reactions.

125. Baculoviruses can play a crucial role in ecologically sensitive area primarily because:

1. They are inexpensive to produce
2. They are narrow spectrum, species specific insecticides
3. They are non-specific insecticides for broad spectrum applications
4. They do not work in ecologically stable areas

126. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged to provide right information to young individuals.
Reason (R): Proper sex education helps in discouraging children from believing in myths and having misconceptions about sex related aspects.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

127. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle.
Statement II: Acetyl-CoA may also be obtained from the oxidation of fatty acids.

1. Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

128. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Lichens can be used as industrial pollution indicators.
Reason (R): Lichens grow profusely in polluted areas.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

129. What makes Red Algae different from Green Algae and Brown Algae?

1. Unlike Green Algae and Brown Algae, Red Algae do not have chlorophyll a.
2. Unlike Green Algae and Brown Algae, Red Algae have no differentiated cells.
3. Unlike Green Algae and Brown Algae, Red Algae are not photosynthetic.
4. Unlike Green Algae and Brown Algae, Red Algae do not have any flagellated stages in their life cycles.

130. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: Lichens consist of a fungal partner and an algal partner in symbiotic association.
Statement II: The fungal partner in lichens provides organic food through photosynthesis, while the algal partner absorbs nutrients from the soil.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

131. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the use of RNAi for creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita:

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to transform the plant cells
2. Double-stranded RNA was introduced into the plant cells
3. A specific mRNA of the nematode was silenced with the help of dsRNA
4. Double-stranded RNA was formed in the plant cells that initiated RNA

132. Which of the following causes malignant malaria?

1. Plasmodium falciparum
2. Plasmodium vivax.
3. Plasmodium malariae
4. Plasmodium ovale

133. Mango and wheat belong to the same:
I. Division II. Class III. Order

1. Only I
2. Both I and II
3. Only III
4. I, II, and III

134. Given below are two statements
Statement I: The rate of decomposition is not related to chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
Statement II: In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is faster if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True

135. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322?

1. PsTI
2. Pvu I
3. EcoR I
4. BamH I

136. Mesosomes in a bacterial cell:
I: are formed by the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell.
II: help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells.
III: contain pigments in cyanobacteria.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

137. Consider the given two statements:
I: Dryopithecus was more man-like, and Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
II: Homo habilis probably did not eat meat, while Homo erectus probably ate meat.

1. Only 1 is correct.
2. Only II is correct.
3. Both I and II are correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

138. The number of ova that can be laid by a mature female frog at a time varies between:

1. 100 to 200
2. 750 to 1250
3. 2500 to 3000
4. 8000 to 10000

139. During the elongation step of bacterial translation peptide bond formation, is catalyzed by a ribozyme which is:

1. the 23S ribosomal RNA in the 50S ribosomal subunit
2. the 23S ribosomal RNA in the 30S ribosomal subunit
3. the 16S ribosomal RNA in the 50S ribosomal subunit
4. the 16S ribosomal RNA in the 30S ribosomal subunit

140. The karyotype of a person suffering from Down’s syndrome will show:

1. 44 Autosomes + XXY
2. 44 Autosomes + XO
3. 45 Autosomes [trisomy #21] + XY
4. 43 Autosomes [monosomy #21] + XY

141. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of Golgi apparatus?
A. It is the important site for the formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids
B. It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP
C. It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER
D. It facilitates the transport of ions
E. It provides mechanical support
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (B) and (C) only.
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (D) and (E) only

142. Where are the carriers for the mitochondrial electron transport system located?

1. within the cytoplasm of a cell
2. on the cristae of mitochondria
3. within the matrix of mitochondria
4. on the outer membrane

143. In a cross WwYy X WWyy [assuming independent assortment], what proportion of the progeny will be WWyy?

1. 1 /4
2. 1 /2
3. 3 /4
4. 0

144. Following compatible pollination:
I: the pollen germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores present in the pollen intine.
II: the contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube.
III: pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
IV: if pollen grains are shed at two-celled condition the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma.

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

145. Which of the following statements about RNA interference (RNAi) is correct?

1. RNAi is a method used by porkaryotic organisms for cellular defense.
2. RNAi is a process that allows the translation of mRNA to proceed in the presence of complementary RNA
3. RNAi works by enhancing the replication of viral RNA genomes in host cells.
4. RNAi involves the silencing of a specific mRNA by complementary double stranded RNA (dsRNA).

146. Which of the following pairs is not an example of analogous organs?

1. The wings of a bat and the wings of a butterfly.
2. The forelimbs of humans and the forelimbs of whales.
3. The flippers of penguins and the flippers of dolphins.
4. The thorns of a rose and the spines of a cactus.

147. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Pest species evolve pesticide resistance via natural selection.
Reason (R): After exposure to pesticides, some pests develop mutations that enable them to survive and leave progeny.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

148. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.
Reason (R): Cells in Go stage no longer remain metabolically active and no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

1. (A) is True; (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4. (A) is False; (R) is True 

149. Match each item in Column-I with one item in Column-II and select the best match from the codes given:


Codes:
       A       B       C       D
1.    R       S       Q       P
2.   P        R       Q       S
3.   R        P       Q       S
4.   P        Q       S        R

150. Match each item in Column-1 with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
       A       B       C       D
1.    P        Q       S        R
2.   Q        R       S        P
3.   R        S       P        Q
4.   S        P       Q       R

151. During Mendel’s investigations into inheritance patterns, it was for the first time that:
I: artificial hybridisation experiments were carried out.
II: statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

152. Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason (R): Juxta medullary nephrons have short-loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) is False, (R) is True.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is True, (R) is False.

153. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In the five kingdom classification of Whittaker, there is no mention of lichens, viruses, viroids and prions.
Statement II: Lichens, viruses, viroids and prions are all acellular organisms.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

154. A continuous culture system method usually produces a larger biomass mainly because:

1. the environmental conditions for the growth of the microbes are very easily maintained in such a system
2. such a system keeps most of the cells in their active/log exponential phase
3. it is very cheap with respect to other systems and hence cost of production is low
4. such a system uses larger sized bioreactors than other systems

155. What is the primary function of the cytoskeleton in a cell?

1. Transporting genetic material between the nucleus and cytoplasm
2. Providing mechanical support, motility, and maintaining the shape of the cell
3. Synthesizing proteins and lipids
4. Connecting the cell to its neighbouring cells

156. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): At birth, human babies have high levels of antibodies, with the same range of antigen specificities as their mother.
Reason (R): This is passive immunity because the fetus does not actually make any memory cells or antibodies.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not correctly explain (A).

157. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:

I: It is racemose inflorescence.
II: A is older flower and B is younger flower.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

158. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The fore limbs in frogs end in five digits and they are larger and muscular than hind limbs that end in four digits.
Statement II: Feet in frogs have webbed digits that help in swimming.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

159. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:

1. only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
2. a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
3. a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
4. only a saturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

160. The difference in gram ⊕ and gram Θ bacteria is due to:

1. Cell wall
2. Cell membrane
3. Ribosome
4. Cytoplasm

161. Symptoms indicative of pneumonia include:

1. Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
2. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
3. Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation, headache
4. High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation

162. Cirrhosis of liver is a complication most frequently associated with chronic abuse of:

1. Cocaine
2. Atropine
3.Wine
4. Nicotine

163. The binding of oxygen with hemoglobin is primarily related to:

1. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
2. Partial pressure of oxygen
3. H ion concentration in body fluids
4. Presence of 2,3-DPG in erythrocytes

164. During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, significant hormonal and physiological changes occur in the ovary and uterus. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this phase?

1. The primary follicles undergo maturation, eventually developing into a fully grown Graafian follicle.
2. Rising oestrogen levels stimulate the regeneration and proliferation of the uterine endometrium.
3. The changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of\ pituitary and ovarian hormones.
4. Progesterone levels peak during the follicular phase, ensuring that the endometrial lining is maintained

165. MTPs are considered relatively safe:

1. during the first trimester
2. during the second trimester
3. during the third trimester
4. any time during pregnancy

166. How many of the given statements regarding the epidermal tissue system in flowering plants are correct?
A: Epidermis is the outermost layer of the primary plant body.
B: Epidermis is usually single-layered,
C: Cuticle is absent in the roots.
D: Guard cells possess chloroplasts.
E: Root hairs are unicellular elongations of the epidermal cells.
F: Trichomes are multicellular in structure.

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

167. Which of the following diseases is/are correctly matched with their modes of transmission?


Options:
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

168. The nerve fibres of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) are of two types:
I: Afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses from tissues/organs to the central nervous system (CNS)
II: Efferent fibres transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned peripheral tissues/organs

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

169. Select the correct statement:

1. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
2. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
3. The leave of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
4. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

170. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Monoecy prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.
Statement II: Dioecy prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement 1 is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

171. Assertion (A): Simple squamous epithelium lines the diffusion membranes in human body.
        Reason (R): Simple squamous epithelium is dorso-ventrally flattened and very thin.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

172. HIV:
I: uses phagocytic neutrophils as factory to produce more virus particles.
II: destroys B lymphocytes selectively.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

173. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with the barrier contraceptives.
Reason (R): Barrier contraceptives do not have a very high efficiency when compared to IUDs or OCPs.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False

174. Conditions of a karyotype 2n +1. 2n-1 and 2n+2, 2n-2 are called:

1. Aneuploidy
2. Polyploidy
3. Allopolyploidy
4. Monosomy

175. Which of the following organizations played a major role in developing biogas production technology in India?

1. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
2. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
3. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI)
4. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

176. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The effect of water as a factor is more indirect rather than direct on photosynthesis.
Reason (R): Water is one of the reactants in the light reaction.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

177. In plants:
I: Growth is open
II: Differentiation is open

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

178. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to:

1. Novel DNA sequence
2. Genes expressed as RNA
3. Polypeptide expression
4. DNA polymorphism

179. Match each item in Column-1 with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

       A         B           C         
1.    Q         R           P
2.    Q        P            R
3.    P         Q           R
4.    R         Q           P

180. Hormones stored and released from neurohypophysis are:

1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and Oxytocin
2. Oxytocin and Vasopressin
3. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
4. Prolactin and Vasopressin

1. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, light of wavelength, ʎ=600nmis used and the first minimum is observed at an angle, θ=30°.The width of the slit (a) is:

3. A ball with mass m, radius r, and density p is dropped into a liquid with density p₀. After a period of motion, the speed of the ball becomes constant, equal to v₀. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid

5. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and momentum of an object are 1% and 2% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of kinetic energy of the object will be:

1. 1%
2. 3%
3. 4%
4. 5%

6. Select the correct option based on the statements:
Statement I: The magnetic field of a circular loop at very far away point on the axial line varies with distance as like that of a magnetic dipole.
Statement II: The magnetic field due to magnetic dipole varies inversely with the square of the distance from the centre on the axial line.

1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

7. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

1. adiabatic
2. isochoric
3. isobaric
4. isothermal

8. A 200g ball is thrown upward by applying constant upward force (F) over a distance of 50 cm and then releasing it; the ball ascends to a height of 10m after it is released. The work done by the applied force F is: (take g=10m/s²

1. 20 J
2. 19 J
3. 21 J
4. 42 J

9. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index = 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of a refractive index of 1.7. The focal length of the combination is:

1. -20 cm
2. -25 cm         
3. -50 cm
4. 50 cm

10. What tension must a rope exert to support a precious painting with a mass, mon a smooth, frictionless surface inclined at an angle, θ with respect to the horizontal ground?

1. mg
2. mg sinθ
3. mg cosθ
4. mg tanθ

The wave is travelling along:

1. the positive -axis
2. the negative -axis
3. the positive -axis
4. the negative -axis

12. A transformer has an efficiency of 90% working on 200V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil, respectively, are:

1. 300 V, 15 A
2. 450, 15 A  
3. 450 V, 13.5 A
4. 600 V, 15 A

13. The magnetic field due to a current carrying loop of radius 3 cm at a point on its axis at a distance 4 cm from the center is 54 𝜇 What will be its value at the centre of the loop?

1. 250 𝜇T
2. 150 𝜇T
3. 125 𝜇T
4. 75 𝜇T

14. A particle of mass m undergoes SHM given by: x=A sinωtwhere the symbols used are in their standard notation. The kinetic energy (K)is given by the expression:
(K₀,K₁  are positive constants)

1. K₀+ K₁  cos2ωt
2. K₀– K₁  cos2ωt
3. K₀+ K₁  sin2ωt
4. K₀– K₁  sin2ωt

15. Consider the following statements:
a. The universal law of gravitation is an assumption or hypothesis.
b. The universal law of gravitation can be proved.
c. The universal law of gravitation can be verified.
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (b) and (c) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (c) only

16. During a β-decay, fast electrons are found to have been emitted. These electrons come from: 

1. the outermost atomic shell
2. the innermost atomic shell
3. the conduction band
4. the nucleus

17. A point charge qis placed on the x-axis at x=a; an identical charge is placed on the y-axis at y=a. At the origin is placed a charge (-2q). The dipole moment of the charge distribution is:

18. The speed of sound in a gas at temperature T is v_s, while the RMS speed of its molecules is v_r. The ratio of specific heats (C_p/C_v)is equal to:

 

19. For which one of the following Bohr models is not valid?

1. Singly ionised helium atom (He⁺)
2. Deuteron atom.
3. Singly ionised neon atom (Ne⁺)
4. Hydrogen atom.

20. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of charge, q and energy stored, U in a capacitor?

21. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current I will be:


1. 0.75 A ;
2. 1 A            
3. 1.5 A
4. 0.5 A

22. Two particles are projected in the air at the same speed uat an angle θ₁and θ₂ (θ₁ and θ2  are acute angles) to the horizontal, respectively. If the maximum height reached by the first particle is greater than that of the second, then which of the following is correct?                     
(T₁ and T₂ are the times of flight of the two particles respectively)               
   
1. θ₁>θ₂
2. θ₁=θ₂  
3. T₁<T₂
4. T₁=T₂

23. The ratio of the longest wavelengths corresponding to the Lyman and Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum is:

1. 3/23
2. 7/29
3. 9/31
4. 5/27

24. Identical diodes D₁,D₂ are connected in parallel with resistances as shown in the figure.

Here V_A>V_B , and the resistance R₁>R₂
As the voltage V_AB is increased:

1. i₁=i₂
2. i₁>i₂
3. i₁<i₂
4. i₁=0, i₂ = 0

25. In a double-slit experiment, when the light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (μ_water=4/3)

1. 0.1°
2. 0.266°            
3. 0.15°
4. 0.05°

26. Which, of the following solid substances, will most likely show the photoelectric effect easily?

1. Potassium
2. Rubber  
3. Plastic
4. Solid hydrogen

27. The capacitors are initially uncharged. The three points A, B, C are maintained at potentials V_A=4V, V_B=1V and V_C=1V. The potential at X,V_X=


1. 2 V
2. 1.5 V  
3. 3 V
4. 0.5 V

28. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field. After passing through a layer of lead, it loses half of its kinetic energy. How does the radius of its curvature change?             
    
1. It becomes twice the original radius.
2. It becomes √2 times the original radius.
3. It becomes half the original radius.
4. It becomes 1/√2 times the original radius.

29. In a region, the potential is represented by V=(x,y,z)=6x-8xy-8y+6yz, where V is in volts and 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at a point (1,1,1) is:       
                                       
1. 6√5 N
2. 30N
3. 24N
4. 4√35 N

30. Two cars A & B move from town X to town Y: both accelerating uniformly from rest to a maximum speed of 40 km/h and immediately, decelerating uniformly to a stop at Y. The distance between X & Y is 120 km. For car A, the acceleration & deceleration have the same magnitude; for car B, the acceleration is twice the deceleration. The times taken by A & B are t_A & t_B. Then:

1. t_A=2t_B
2. t_B=2t_A            
3. 3t_A=2t_B
4. t_A=t_B

31. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 10²² free electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for free electrons when 10 A current flows through the wire will be: (Given, charge on electron = 1.6×10^-19 C)

32. A steel wire of length 10.0 m is stretched by 1.0 mm. The cross-sectional area of the wire is 4mm², and Young’s modulus of the wire is 2.0×10¹¹ N/m². The energy density of the wire is:

1. 2×10³ J/m³
2. 5×10³ J/m³
3. 10³ J/m³
4. 5×10² J/m³

33. Light, having a wavelength equal to the first line of the Balmer series, is incident onto a metal of work-function 2eV. The kinetic energy of the ejected electron is:

1. 1.4 eV
2. 0.5 eV
3. 0.1 eV
4. No electrons are ejected

34. A block is suspended from a spring and causes an extension of 2 cm. It is now imparted a kinetic energy E so that the block rises up by exactly 2 cm. If the block were to be given the same kinetic energy upward, without being attached to a spring, it would rise up by:  
   
1. 1 cm
2. 2 cm
3. 4 cm
4. 8 cm

35. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by the equation x=8+12t-t³ where 𝑥 is in meter and 𝑡 in seconds. The retardation of the particle, when its velocity becomes zero, is:

1. 24 ms^-2
2. Zero
3. 6 ms^-2
4. 12 ms^-2

36. Point masses m₁ and m₂, are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length 𝐿 and negligible mass. The rod is set into rotation about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of a point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity ω₀is minimum is given by:

37. Two spherical bodies of masses 𝑀 and 5𝑀 and radii 𝑅 and 2𝑅 are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12𝑅. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before the collision is:

1. 2.5 R
2. 4.5 R  
3. 7.5R
4. 1.5 R

38. In an experiment, four quantities 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 and 𝑑 are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows:

Percentage error in P is:                 

1. 10%
2. 7% 
3. 4%
4. 14%

39. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, a straight line of length 𝐿 is drawn on the inside part of the objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is 𝑙. The magnification of the telescope is:

40. An inductor (L) and a resistor (R) are connected in series and a battery is connected, as shown in the figure. Once the current becomes steady, the power in the resistance is P_R and the energy stored in the inductor is U_L. The switch is suddenly (and smoothly) toggled to the position B allowing the inductor to discharge. The time in which the energy stored becomes 1/2 its initial value is:

41. A 20 cm-long capillary tube is dipped in water, causing the water to rise to a height of 8 cm within the tube. If this setup is then placed inside an elevator that is in free fall, what will be the new height of the water column in the capillary tube?  

1. 8 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 4 cm
4. 20 cm

42. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is:

1. <2.8×10^-10 m
2. <2.8×10^-9 m
3. ≥2.8×10^-9 m
4. ≥2.8×10^-12 m

43. Assume that the rope and pulley are ideal, and that the system is frictionless. For what value of 𝑚 will the 4 kg remain at rest?


1. 4 kg
2. 8 kg
3. 2 kg
4. 1 kg

44. The charge flowing through a resistance 𝑅 varies with time 𝑡 as Q=at-bt², where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are positive constants. The total heat produced in 𝑅 is:

45. The root mean square speed of molecules of a given mass of a gas at 27°C and 1 atm is 200 m/s. The root mean square speed of molecules of the gas at 127°Cand 2 atm will be: 

CHEMISTRY

46. 16 g of an organic substance was heated in a carius tube and the sulphuric acid formed was precipitated as- BaSO₄ with BaCl₂. The weight of the dry BaSO₄ was 0.35 g. What is the % of sulphur in the compound?
                      
1. 36.11
2. 30.04
3. 25.12
4. 42.12

47. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane reacts with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether?

48. A metal M forms a compound M₂HPO₄. The formula of the metal sulphate is:

1. M₂SO₄
2. MSO₄
3. M(SO₄)₂
4. M₂(SO₄)₃

49. Match the following reactions in Column-I to the correct enthalpy associated with them given in Column-II:

Choose the correct option from the following:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

50. What is the oxidation state of a phosphorus atom in hypophosphoric acid?

1. +3
2. +4
3. +5
4. +3

51. The structure of compound B in the following reaction is:

52. A monochromatic infrared range finder of power 1 milli watt emits photons with wavelength 1000 nm in 0.1 second. The number of photons emitted in 0.1 second is:

53. Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

54. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): An atomic orbital is monocentric, whereas a molecular orbital is polycentric.
Reason (R): An electron in an atomic orbital is influenced by one nucleus whereas in a molecular orbital, it is influenced by two or more nuclei depending upon the number of atoms in a molecule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

55. What is the molecular mass of ‘X’, if its 2% (w/v) solution exhibits the same osmotic pressure as a 4% (w/v) solution of sucrose?

1. 570 g/mol
2. 205.2 g/mol
3. 171 g/mol
4. None of these

56. A carbonyl compound reacts with HCN followed by hydrolysis to give lactic acid. The carbonyl compound is:

1. HCHO
2. CH₃ CHO
3. CH₃ COCH₃
4. CH₃ CH₂ CHO

57. Consider the following reaction:
The number of sp² hybridized carbons in the compound ‘B’ are:


1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 5

58. Which of the following representations of ethane depicts its non-staggered conformation?

59. The vapour pressure of a solution is 2% less than the vapour pressure of pure water. The molality of the solution is approximately

1. 0.92
2. 1.11
3. 1.26
4. 1.52

60. Consider the following graph:

The point that represents the most probable kinetic energy is:

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. None of the above

61. Identify the incorrect statements regarding the importance of coordination compounds in biological systems.

1. Vitamin B-12 used to prevent anaemia, is a complex compound of zinc.
2. Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron.
3. Chlorophyll is the green pigment of plants and contains magnesium.
4. All of the above are correct.

64. Match the coordination complexes in List-I with their corresponding hybridisation in List-II and mark the correct option:


1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

66. Determine the cell constant of a conductivity cell containing a 0.01 M KCl solution at 298 K. The given data includes a resistance of 1750 Ω and a conductivity of 0.152 ×10^-3 S cm^-1

67. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
2. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
3. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
4. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colourless in the solid-state.

68. Which of the following options has the lowest degree of ionisation?

1. 0.0001 M CH₃ COOH
2. 0.001 M CH₃ COOH
3. 0.01 M CH₃ COOH
4. 0.1 M CH₃ COOH

69. The compound A can be exclusively oxidized into B by:

The compound A can be exclusively oxidized into B by:

1. NaCN, followed by hydrolysis
2. NaOI, followed by H₃O⁺
3. KMnO₄ (hot), followed by hydrolysis
4. K₂ Cr₂ O₇, followed by H₃ O⁺

70. Total number of primary and secondary amines possible with the molecular formula C₄ H₁₁ N, respectively, are:

1. 4 and 2
2. 4 and 3
3. 3 and 3
4. 5 and 3

71. ˄°m for NaCl, HCl and CH₃ COONa are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.05 S cm² moI^-1 If the conductivity of 0.001028 mol L^-1 acetic acid solution is 4.95×10^-5S cm^-1, the degree of dissociation of the acetic acid solution is:

1. 0.01233
2. 1.00
3. 0.1233
4. 1.233