NEET MID TERM EXAM 1 (08.10.2025)

Welcome to your NEET MID TERM EXAM 1 (08.10.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

Important Instruction

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

1. In a region, electric field intensity E is given by E=100/x²where x is in metre. The potential difference between the point x=10 m and x=20 m is

1) 1 V
2) -2 V
3) -5 V
4) 10 V

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2. An electron at rest has a charge of 1.6×10-¹⁹ C It starts moving with a velocity v=c/2, where c is the speed of light, then the new charge on it is

None

3. Which of the following figures represents the variation of the particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

None

4. The number of photo-electrons emitted per second from a metal surface increases when:

1) The energy of incident photons increases.
2) The frequency of incident light increases.
3) The wavelength of the incident light increases.
4) The intensity of the incident light increases.

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5. An electron in Bohr’s hydrogen atom has angular momentum 2h/π .The energy of the electron is

1) -3.4 eV
2) -0.64 eV
3) -0.85 eV
4) -10.25 eV

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7. A point charge q is kept at the center of the circle formed by cutting a spherical shell by a plane as shown. The electric flux linked with the remaining surface of the shell is

None

8. A conducting body has a cavity in its as shown in the diagram below. A point charge q is held at the centre of the cavity. The electric flux linked with the closed surface S (shown dotted) is

None

9. In the circuit diagram shown in the adjoining figure, the resultant capacitance between P and Q is

1) 47 μF
2) 3 μF
3) 60 μF
4) 10 μF

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10. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown. Area of each plate is A metre² and the separation is d metre. The dielectric constants are k₁ and k₂ Its capacitance in farad will be:

None

11. The electric potential V as a function of distance x is given by V(x)=5x²+10x-9. The value of electric field at x=2 m is

1) -20 V/m
2) -30 V/m
3) -40 V/m
4) 21 V/m

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12. A cylindrical wire has a mass of (0.4±0.02)g, radius (0.2±0.004) mm, and length (6.25±0.25) cm, the relative percentage error in measuring its density is

1) 11%
2) 29%
3) 15%
4) 13%

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13. The quantity that has the same dimensional formula as longitudinal strain is

1) Pressure
2) Angle
3) Shear modulus
4) Angular speed

None

None

15. A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed of 10 m/s, at a height of 20 m from the ground. The velocity of impact in m/s is (use √5=2.23;g=10 m/s²)

1) 2.23
2) 4.46
3) 22.3
4) 44.6

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16. A man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hrs. He travelled partly on foot at 4 km/hr and partly on bicycle at 9 km/hr. The distance travelled on bicycle is

1) 40 km
2) 36 km
3) 30 km
4) 45 km

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17. If the centripetal force needed for the moon to revolve around a planet is 10×10²⁰ N and the distance between the planet and the moon is 2.4×10⁵ km, then the linear velocity of the moon in m/s around the planet is closest to (mass of moon=5×10²² kg)

1) 21.9×10²2) 2.19×10⁴3) 2.19×10²4) 21.9×10⁴

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18. A car of mass 1 ton is travelling along a bank curve road of radius 15 m. If the coefficient of friction on the road is √3/2. The maximum kinetic energy of the car in joules along the curve without slipping is (angle of banking is 30°)

1) 212005√3
2) 122500√3
3) 212005
4) 122500

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1) 13 N
2) 14 N
3) 6.5 N
4) 7 N

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20. The height of two cylindrical tanks on the same level ground are 100 m and 80 m respectively. The first tank is filled with water up to the brim while in the second tank, water is filled up to 70 m only. If the first cylinder has an orifice at a height of 30 m from the ground and the second tank, has it at a distance of 30 m from its top. Calculate the ratio of their horizontal distances covered respectively

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21. A normal stress is applied to a sphere which reduces its volume. If the fractional change in volume is 0.3/12, then the percentage of fractional change in radius is

1) 2.5%
2) 4%
3) 0.53%
4) 0.83%

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22. The stress vs strain graph for two materials P and Q are plotted. It is observed that the region of the graph in the proportionality limit is steeper for Q than for P, then choose the correct conclusion

1) P is more elastic than Q
2) P is less elastic than Q
3) Q has lower Young’s modulus value
4) P is stiffer than Q

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23. An ideal spring with spring constant k is hung from the ceiling, and a block of mass M is attached to its lower end. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. What is the maximum extension of the spring?

1) 4Mg/k
2) 2Mg/k
3) Mg/k
4) Mg/2k

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24. Ball A of mass m strikes a stationary ball B of mass M and undergoes an elastic collision. After collision ball A has a speed one third of its initial speed. The ratio of M/m is

1) 1/2
2) 1/4
3) 2
4) 3/4

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25. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed strikes a stationary particle of the same mass. If the final total kinetic energy is 50% greater than the original kinetic energy, the magnitude of the relative velocity between the two particles, after collision, is

None

26. Calculate the percentage decrease in the weight of a body when it is taken to a height of 16 km above the earth’s surface. Radius of earth = 6,400 km.

1) 0.15%
2) 1.5%
3) 2.5%
4) 0.5%

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27. The gravitational potential at some point above the surface of the earth is − 4.32 × 10⁷ J/kg and acceleration due to gravity at that point is 5.4 m/s². If the mean radius of earth is 6.37 × 10⁶ m, then find the height of this point from the earth’s surface.

1) 3200 km
2) 1600 km
3) 2430 km
4) 1630 km

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28. Two objects of mass and are separated by a distance r. The ratio of the magnitudes of gravitational force between them and the gravitational potential energy of any one object at that distance is

1) 2: r
2) 1: r
3) 3: r
4) 4: r

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29. Calculate the work done (in joule) by the force of gravity when a satellite (mass 6300 kg) moves in an orbit of radius 40,000 m around the earth. Take g = 10 N/kg.

1) 0 J
2) 20,000π² J
3) 2,650 J
4) 12,600π J

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30. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r carrying current I is B₁. The field at the centre of a solenoid carrying same current I is B₂. The ratio B₁/B₂ is proportional to:

1) 1/r²2) r
3) 1/r
4) r²

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31. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 10⁵ m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant

1) 4×10^-20 N
2) 8π×10^-20 N
3) 4π×10^-20N
4) 8×10^-20 N

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32. A wire carrying a current I along the positive x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic field

.The magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire is:

1) 3 IL
2) √5 IL
3) 5 IL
4) √3 IL

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33. The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is increased in order to increase current sensitivity by 75%. The percentage change in voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer will be:

1) 100 %
2) 75%
3) 50%
4) 0%

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34. A particle of mass 1 kg is kept at (1m,1m,1m). The moment of inertia of this particle about Z-axis would be

1) 1kg-m²2) 2kg-m²3) 3kg-m²4) None of these

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35. The position of the centre of mass of a cube of uniform mass density will be at

1) the centre of one face
2) the centre of the interaction of diagonals of one face.
3) the geometric centre of the cube
4) the edge of a cube

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36. Centre of mass of three particles of masses 1kg, 2kg and 3kg lies at the point (1,2,3) and centre of mass of another system of particles 3kg and 2kg lies at the point (−1, 3,−2). Where should we put a particle of mass 5kg so that the centre of mass of entire system lies at the centre of mass of first system?

1) (0, 0, 0)
2) (1, 3, 2)
3) (-1, 2, 3)
4) (3, 1, 8)

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1) x-axis
2) y-axis
3) z-axis
4) yz-plane

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38. The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration of the motor wheel is

1) 2πrads⁻²2) 4πrads⁻²3) 6πrads⁻²
4) 8πrads⁻²

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39. A ray of light strikes a transparent rectangular slab of refractive index √2at an angle of incidence of 45°. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays is

1) 75°
2) 90°
3) 105°
4) 120°

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40. A ray of light is incident at 60° on one face of a prism of angle 30° and the emergent ray makes 30° with the incident ray. The refractive index of the prism is

1) 1.7
2) 1.4
3) 1.5
4) 1.3

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41. The speed of light in media M1 and M2 are 1.5×10⁸m/s and 2.0×10⁸ m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle ‘I’. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value of ‘I’ is.

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42. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If the lenses are made of different material of refractive indices μ1 and μ2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then focal length of the combination is

None

43. Two slits are separated by distance of 0.5 and illuminate with light of λ=6000Å. If the screen is placed 2.5m from the slits. The distance of the third bright image from the centre will be

1) 1.5mm
2) 3mm
3) 6mm
4) 9mm

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44. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio 9n. In the interference pattern, the fringe visibility will be

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45. In a double-slit experiment, one of the slits is made twice as wide as the other instead of using slits of equal width. Then, the change in maximum and minimum intensities are

1) Maxima and Minima will increase
2) maxima and minima will decrease
3) increase in maxima and decrease in minima
4) decrease in maxima an increase in minima

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CHEMISTRY

46. If 11.2 L of a gaseous hydrocarbon (measured at STP) weighs 14 g, the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is:

1) C₂H₄
2) C₃H₄
3) C₂H₂
4) C₄H₈

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47. A 10 g sample of impure Na₂CO₃ was treated with excess HCl. The CO₂ evolved at STP measured 1.12 L. Calculate the % purity of Na₂CO₃ in the sample.
(Reaction: Na₂CO₃ + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H₂O + CO₂)

1) 42.43%
2) 53%
3) 56%
4) 53.98%

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48. A 2.00 g sample of an organic compound containing only C, H and O was completely burned. The combustion produced 5.50 g of CO₂ and 2.25 g of H₂O. The molar mass of the compound is 128 g·mol⁻¹. The molecular formula of the compound is:

1) C₈H₁₆O
2) C₄H₈O₂
3) C₆H₁₂O
4) C₂H₄O

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49. When 40.5 g of aluminium reacts with 48.0 g of oxygen, how many grams of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) are formed? (At. masses: Al = 27.0, O = 16.0)

1) 51.0 g
2) 68.0 g
3) 76.5 g
4) 102.0 g

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50. “Commercial” HCl is 37.0% w/w HCl with density 1.19 g·mL⁻¹. What volume of this acid is required to prepare 1 L of 0.100 M HCl?

1) 8.50 mL
2) 8.28 mL
3) 9.00 mL
4) 7.90 mL

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51. For a reaction at 298 K the standard enthalpy change ΔH° = +40 kJ mol⁻¹ and the standard entropy change ΔS° = +120 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. Which statement is correct at 298 K?

1) ΔG° < 0, reaction spontaneous.
2) ΔG° = 0, reaction at equilibrium.
3) ΔG° > 0, reaction non-spontaneous.
4) Spontaneity cannot be determined without K.

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52. The standard enthalpy of reaction at 298 K for: C(graphite) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g) is −393.5 kJ mol⁻¹. The heat capacities (assumed constant) are: Cp(CO₂) = 37.1 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, Cp(C) = 8.5 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, Cp(O₂) = 29.4 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. The standard enthalpy change for the reaction at 500 K (in kJ mol⁻¹) :

1) −393.6
2) −370.6
3) −353.6
4) −473.6

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53. A chemical reaction occurring in a bomb calorimeter releases 5 kJ of heat . This energy is entirely absorbed by 25.0 g of water initially at 20 °C. The final temperature of water (in °C) is closest to:
(Molar Heat Capacity of water is 75 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

1) 25.0 °C
2) 40.0 °C
3) 68.0 °C
4) 47.0 °C

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54. Calculate the enthalpy change (ΔH) for the reaction:
2C(s) + H₂(g) → C₂H₂(g)
Given:
C₂H₂(g) + 5/2O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g) + H₂O(l) ΔH = −1300 kJ
C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g) ΔH = −394 kJ
H₂(g) + ½O₂(g) → H₂O(l) ΔH = −286 kJ

1) +226 kJ
2) +210 kJ
3) −117 kJ
4) −74 kJ

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55. Estimate the enthalpy change (ΔH°) for the reaction at 298 K: 2 CH₄₍g)⟶C₂H₆(g)+H₂(g) Use the following average bond energies (in kJ·mol⁻¹) :
C–H = 412, C–C = 348, H–H = 436.

1) – 40 kJ·mol⁻¹
2) + 40 kJ·mol⁻¹
3) +160 kJ·mol⁻¹
4) −160 kJ·mol⁻¹

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56. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following:
(i) Benzene
(iii) Chlorobenzene
(ii) Toluene
(iv) Phenol
Would be :

1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
2) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
4) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)

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57. The monochlorinated products (excluding stereo isomers) obtained from the reaction

1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7

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58. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

1)

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59. Which of the following is not chiral?

1) 2-butanol
2) 2,3-dibromopentane
3) 3-bromopentane
4) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

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60. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

1) 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol
2) 3-methylpent-3-en-2-ol
3) 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol
4) 2,3-dimethyl-3-pentenol

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61. The compounds 1-butyne and 2-butyne can be distinguished by using

1) Bromine water
2) KMnO4 solution
3) Tollen’s reagent
4) Chlorine gas

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62. A mixture of benzene and chloroform is separated by

1) sublimation
2) separation funnel
3) crystallization
4) distillation.

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63. Which of the following compounds are aromatic?

1) A,B
2) A,B,C
3) B,C
4) B,C,D

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64. A compound known as ZELA on ozonolysis gives Acetone and Formaldehyde. The compound ZELA is

1) 2-methyl butene
2) 2-methyl propene
3) 3-methyl propene
4) 2-methyl propyne.

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65. Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling points.
(I) 3-methylpentane
(II) 3-chloropentane
(III) 3-bromopentane
(IV) 3,3-dichloropentane

1) IV < III < II < I
2) I < II < IV < III
3) I < II < III < IV
4) II < I < IV < III

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66. The number of sigma and pi bond in the product P is?

1) 18 & 3
2) 21 & 3
3) 21 & 4
4) 18 & 4

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67. Which of the following reactions would give isopropyl benzene as the major product?

1) I and IV only
2) II and III only
3) II, III, IV only
4) All of the above

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68. Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC official name
A. Unnilunium i. Mendelevium
B. Unniltrium ii. Lawrencium
C. Unnilhexium iii. Roentgenium
D. Unnilseptium iv. Bohrium

1) (B)-II
2) (D)- (IV)
3) (C) -III
4) (A) – I

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69. Which of the following oxides is most basic?

1) Cl₂O₇2) SeO₂3) Bi₂O₃4) Sb₂O₃

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70. The first four IE values of an element are 520, 578, 8868 and 3250 kcal. The number of valence electrons in the element is

1) 4
2) 3
3) 2
4) 1

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71. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

1) Li⁺ < Na⁺ < K⁺ < Rb⁺ (increasing Ionic mobility)
2) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3) Mg > Mg⁺ > Mg²⁺ (Decreasing ionic size)
4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (increasing atomic size)

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72. In case of alkali metals, the covalent character increases in the order

1) MF < MCl < MI < MBr
2) MF < MCl < MBr < MI
3) MF > MBr > MCl > MI
4) MCl > MF > MBr > MI

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73. The geometry of [PCl₆]^– is

1) Tetrahedral
2) Octahedral
3) Trigonal Bipyramidal
4) Square pyramidal

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74. The shape and geometrical arrangement of I₃^– are respectively

1) Linear shape, Trigonal bipyramidal geometry
2) Pyramidal shape and trigonal planar
3) T- shape, octahedral
4) Linear shape, Octahedral

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75. In the molecular orbital diagram for N₂– ion, the HOMO is

1) σ MO orbital
2) σ* MO orbital
3) π* MO orbital
4) π MO orbital

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76. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to photoelectric effect

1) When light with a specific frequency hits a metal surface, it can eject electrons from the metal.
2) Threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light needed to eject the electrons.
3) The KE of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
4) The number of electrons ejected per second from the metal surface depends upon its frequency

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77. Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of an α-particle emitted from Barium having an energy of 7.6896 x 10^-6 ergGiven: Mass of α-particle = 6.6 x 10^-24 g
h= 6.626 x 10^-27 erg sec

1) 6.98 X 10^-122) 0.62 X 10^-133) 6.58 X 10^-134) 5. 26 X 10^-12

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78. What is the energy required per mole to excite an electron from the third to fifth Bohr orbit in Hydrogen?

1) 2.45 X 10^-8 J
2) 7.12 X 10⁴3) 9.34 X 10⁴J
4) 1 X 10^-8 J

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79. The oxidation state of Oxygen in KO₂ is

1) -1
2) +1
3) -1/2
4) -2

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80. Assertion(A): Vapour pressure of solvent A increases when a more volatile solvent B is added
Reason (R): B is more volatile therefore vapour pressure of B is greater than that of A

1) Both assertion and reason are ture and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

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81. Molecules of benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH) dimerise in benzene, ‘w’ g of the acid dissolved in 30g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2K. If the percentage association of the acid to form dimer in the solution is 80, then w is (Given that K_f = 5Kkgmol^-1, Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122gmol^-1)

1) 2.4g
2) 1.8g
3) 1.0g
4) 1.5g

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82. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law is

1) ethanol + acetone
2) Benzene + toluene
3) Acetone + chloroform
4) Chloroethane + bromoethane

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83. The outer shell of an egg was dissolved in hydrochloric acid and then placed in concentrated NaCl solution. Which one of the following will happen?

1) The egg will swell
2) The egg will shrink
3) Nothing will happen to the egg
4) The inside of the egg will become saltish

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84. Henry’s law constant for molarity of methane in benzene at 298K is 4.27 x 10⁵The mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298K under 760 mmHg is

1) 1.78 x 10^-3
2) 17.43
3) 0.114
4) 2.814

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85. For the reaction,
2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇋2SO_3(g), ΔH = -57.2 kJmol^-1 and K_c = 1.7 x 10¹⁶Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increases
2) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant
3) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required.
4) The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases.

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86. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction:
Sucrose + H₂O ⇋Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (K_c) is 2 x 10¹³at 300K, the value of Δ_rG^o at the same temperature will be

1) -8.314 Jmol^-1K^-1 x 300K x In (2 x 10¹³)
2) 8.314 Jmol^-1K^-1 x 300K x In (2 x 10¹³)
3) 8.314 Jmol^-1K^-1 x 300K x In (3 x 10¹³)
4) -8.314 Jmol^-1K^-1 x 300K x In (4 x 10¹³)

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87. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte (Keq = equilibrium constant) A₂B₃ of concentration ‘c’ the degree of dissociation ‘’ is

1) (K_eq/ 25c²)^1/5
2) (K_eq/ 108c⁴)^1/53) (K_eq/ 6c⁵)^1/5
4) (K_eq/ 5c⁴)^1/5

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88. Which of the following has maximum solubility at low pH?

1) NH₄Cl
2) NaCl
3) Na₃PO₄4) Sr (OH)₂

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89. One mole of SO₃ was placed in a two litre vessel at a certain temperature. The following equilibrium was established in the vessel, 2SO_3(g) ⇋2SO_2(g) + O_2(g)The equilibrium mixture reacts with 0.2 mole KMnO₄in acidic medium. Hence K_cis

1) 0.50
2) 0.25
3) 0.125
4) 0.05

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90. The vapour pressure of a solvent is 20 torr whereas that of its diluted solution is 17 torr. The mole fraction of the solvent is

1) 0.6
2) 0.4
3) 0.85
4) 0.15

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BOTANY

91. Which one of these statements is incorrect?

1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
3) Most enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

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92. The number of substrate level phosphorylation in one turn of citric acid cycle is

1) One
3) Three
2) Two
4) Zero

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93. Where is respiratory Electron Transport System (ETS) located in plants?

1) Mitochondrial matrix
2) Outer mitochondrial membrane
3) Inner mitochondrial membrane
4) Intermembrane space

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94. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

1) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
2) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space
3) a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane
4) there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)

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95. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in matrix in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

1) lactate dehydrogenase
2) isocitrare dehydrogenase
3) malate dehydrogenase
4) succinate dehydrogenase

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96. NADPH is generated through

1) photosystem II
2) photosystem I
3) glycolysis
4) anaerobic respiration

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97. Plants that sustain high photosynthetic rates even in hot conditions, show reduced losses from photorespiration, better efficiency in using water and more effective use of nitrogen. Which photosynthetic pathway or physiological type best describes this plant?

1) C3
2) CAM
3) C4
4) Nitrogen fixer

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98. The respiratory quotient (RQ) for a fat with formula C₅₇H₁₁₀O₆ is approximately:

1) 0.7
2) 1.0
3) 0.9
4) 4.0

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99. If cyanide (CN⁻) is added to actively respiring mitochondria, which of the following is directly inhibited?

1) Glycolysis
2) TCA cycle
3) Electron transport at Complex IV
4) ATP synthase

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100. At a temperature above 35°c

1) Rate of respiration will decline earlier than that of photosynthesis
2) There is no fixed pattern
3) Rate of photosynthesis will decline earlier than that of respiration
4) Both declines simultaneously

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101. PGA as the first CO₂ fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of

1) Bryophyte
2) Alga
3) Angiosperm
4) Gymnosperm

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102. C4 plants experience less restriction in their photosynthetic process due to low atmospheric CO₂concentrations primarily because:

1) effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells
2) RuBisCO in C4-plants has higher affinity for CO₂
3) four carbon acids are the primary initial CO₂-fixation products
4) the primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase

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103. In C₃-plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is

1) malic acid
2) oxaloacetic acid
3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
4) Phosphoglyceraldehyde

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104. In C₄-plants, Calvin cycle operates in

1) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
2) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast
3) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts
4) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts

None

105. A very efficient converter of solar energy with net productivity of 2 to 4 kg/m2 or more is the crop of

1) Wheat
2) Rice
3) Sugarcane
4) bajra

None

106. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic pathway in

1) PS-I
2) light reaction
3) PS-II
4) dark reaction

None

107. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: In C₂ plants, some O2 binds to RuBisCO, hence CO₂ fixation is decreased.
Statement II: In C4 plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration, while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false, but Statement Il is true

None

108. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of

1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound

None

109. The process which makes major difference between C₃ and C₄-plants is

1) Glycolysis
2) Calvin cycle
3) Photorespiration
4) Respiration

None

110. In eukaryotes, mRNA processing includes all except:

1) Capping at 5′ end
2) Polyadenylation at 3′ end
3) Splicing
4) Addition of Shine–Dalgarno sequence

None

111. Which of the following is true for introns?

1) Present in mature mRNA
2) Removed during splicing
3) Code for functional proteins
4) Found only in prokaryotic genes

None

112. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotes is important for:

1) Termination of translation
2) Initiation of transcription
3) Ribosome binding to mRNA
4) Introns removal

None

113. Assertion (A): In mitosis, equational division occurs, while in meiosis I, reductional division occurs.
Reason (R): In mitosis, homologous chromosomes separate, whereas in meiosis I, sister chromatids separate.

1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, but R is false.
4) Both A and R are false.

None

114. If colchicine is added to a cell at metaphase, which of the following will be observed?

1) Chromosomes will fail to condense
2) Chromosomes will remain at metaphase plate without segregation
3) Nuclear envelope will reform immediately
4) DNA replication will be inhibited

None

115. If the diploid chromosome number of maize root tip cell is 20, how many chromosomes will be found in: Male gametophyte, Female gametophyte, Endosperm, Embryo?

1) 10, 20, 30, 40
2) 10, 40, 20, 30
3) 10, 10, 20, 30
4) 10, 10, 30, 20

None

116. Arrange the following in correct sequence:
A. Fusion of gametes
B. Formation of sporangia in sporophyte
C. Germination of spore to form prothallus
D. Archegonia and antheridia formation
E. Meiosis in spore mother cell

1) E, C, D, A, B
2) B, E, C, D, A
3) E, C, D, B, A
4) E, B, D, C, A

None

117. In a gymnosperm like Pinus, a microspore mother cell undergoes development to form a mature male gametophyte. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required to produce two functional male gametes?

1) 1 Meiosis and 1 Mitosis
2) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
3) 2Meiosis and 1 Mitosis
4) 2 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

None

118. A diploid animal cell has 8 pg of DNA in G1. It undergoes two rounds of mitosis without cytokinesis. What is the DNA content per nucleus at the end?

1) 8
2) 16
3) 32
4) 64

None

119. Select the odd one out regarding flower symmetry:

1) Solanaceae – actinomorphic
2) Fabaceae – zygomorphic
3) Brassicaceae – actinomorphic
4) Malvaceae – zygomorphic

None

120. Which family shows tetradynamous stamens (4 long + 2 short), cruciform corolla, and schizocarp fruit?

1) Solanaceae
2) Fabaceae
3) Brassicaceae
4) Malvaceae

None

121. Hypanthodium is a specialised type of

1) fruit
2) inflorescence
3) thalamus
4) ovary.

None

122. The floral formula is

that of

1) soybean
2) sunhemp
3) tobacco
4) tulip.

None

123. Consider the following Venn diagram related to gametes.

Which of the following term best suited for the A.

1) Anisogamous
2) Isogamous
3) Oogamous
4) Zoospores

None

124. Which one of the following events does not occur during zygotene?

1) Formation of synaptonemal complex
2) Pairing of chromosomes
3) Appearance of bivalents
4) Involvement of recombinase

None

125. The graph given below shows the changes in the quantity of DNA present in the cell cycle at different stages. What stage takes place at a point labelled as ‘X’?

1) Anaphase
2) Interphase
3) Metaphase
4) Cytokinesis

None

126. While experimenting, Augustine observed that the sperm of a given animal consists of 10 chromosomes. Identify the correct conclusion based on his observation.

1) The animal’s cells normally contain 10 homologous chromosome pairs. Flagellated and similar in size Non-Flagellated and similar in size A
2) Each sperm cell of that animal contains 10 sister chromatids.
3) There are 20 sister chromatids per cell in its G2 phase.
4) The body cell of an animal normally has 10 chromosomes in its G1 phase therefore in the G2 phase the number of chromatids per cell doubles.

None

127.

the formula of

1) Sesbania
2) Petunia
3) cabbage
4) potato

None

128. In China rose, the flower is _______ symmetrical, the ovary is ________, and the corolla shows _______ aestivation.

1) zygomorphic, superior, valvate
2) actinomorphic, inferior, imbricate
3) actinomorphic, superior, twisted
4) zygomorphic, inferior, twisted

None

129. Which of the following floral features is unique to the family Brassicaceae?

1) Diadelphous stamens
2) Monadelphous stamens
3) Didynamous stamens
4) Tetradynamous stamens

None

130. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i. In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii. The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii. The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv. These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of correct statement(s) from the following options.

1) i and ii
2) ii, iii and iv
3) i, ii and iii
4) i only

None

131. Which of the following does not lead to genetic variability?

1) Random fertilization
2) Exchange of segments between sister chromatids.
3) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis
4) Crossing over during meiosis

None

132. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?

1) Sargassum
2) Ectocarpus
3) Ulothrix
4) Spirogyra

None

133. If the leaf of Funaria has 5 chromosomes, the primary protonema will have

1) 10 chromosomes
2) 5 chromosomes
3) 15 chromosomes
4) 20 chromosomes

None

134. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of _________and an outer layer of _________

1) Cellulose, starch
2) Pectose, cellulose
3) Pectose, algin
4) Cellulose, pectose

None

135. Below the diagram, the labelling ‘C’ is

1) Root
2) Modified leaf root
3) Holdfast
4) Rhizoid

None

ZOOLOGY

136. Which structures are directly involved in pulmonary circulation?

1) Right atrium, Pulmonary artery, right ventricle
2) Left atrium , aorta, right ventricle
3) Vena cava, right ventricle, left ventricle
4) Pulmonary vein, left atrium, right ventricle

None

137. Choose the correct pair from the following.

1) Ligases – Bam HI
2) Nucleases – Eco RI
3) Polymerase – Sal I
4) Lyases – Hind II

None

138. When homozygous short red flowering plant was crossed with heterozygous tall red flowering plants, there are 52 tall progenies. What will be the expected number of short progenies?

1) 50
2) 42
3) 60
4) 104

None

139. Select the correct statements regarding morphology of frog.

1) Frog has Copulatory pads on 2nd digit of forelimbs
2) Skin is moist with scales
3) Number of internal nares is two
4) Adult frog is omnivores

None

140. In terms of ascending order of percentage, select which one is correct?

1) Neutrophils-‐> lymphocytes—> monocytes—>basophils
2) Basophils-‐> lymphocytes—> monocytes—>lymphocytes
3) Basophils-‐>eosinophils—> monocytes—> lymphocytes
4) Neutrophils-‐> eosinophils—> monocytes—>basophils

None

141. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in

1) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
2) Bile duct and bronchioles
3) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
4) Eustachian tube and salivary duct.

None

142. Crossing between RRSs and rrSs yields RrSS: RrSs:Rrss:rrss offsprings in the ratio

1) 1:1:1:1
2) 1:2:1:1
3) 1:2:1:0
4) 9:3:3:1

None

143. Select the correct statement for first gene therapy trial.
i. The first gene therapy trial was performed on several combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
ii. ADA deficient patient do not have functional monocytes
iii. The vector used for introduction of functional ADA cDNA is retroviral vector
Options:

1) i and ii
2) ii and iii
3) i only
4) iii only

None

144. Select the correct pair.

1) Ventricular systole- closure of semilunar valves
2) Atrial systole – 0.1 sec
3) Dub- end of atrial systole
4) Cardiac output – 20L/min

None

145. Select the correct criterion for amplification of DNA.

1) Denaturation should be done at 72⁰C.
2) Number of primer required is two
3) Type of polymerase used is RNA polymerase
4) Extension can be done along with annealing

None

146. Consider a dihybrid cross, what is the probability of the progeny being heterozygous at both the alleles?

1) 1/16
2) 4/16
3) 7/16
4) 9/16

None

147. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs.

1) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
2) Testes → Vasa efferentia→ Bidder’s canal → Ureter → Cloaca
3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder’s canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
4) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

None

148. Identify the incorrect statement related to gel electrophoresis.

1) Separated DNA fragments can be directly seen under UV radiation.
2) Separated DNA can be extracted from gel piece
3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode
4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in separation of DNA fragments

None

149. Statement I: The ground substance of bone is solid, pliable and resists compression.
Statement II: The bone marrow of all bones is the site of production of blood cells.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

None

150. Match the following:

Options:

1) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
2) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
3) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b
4) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c

None

151. Identify the incorrect statement.

1) Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete
2) Segregation of allele is random process
3) Gamete will always be pure for the trait
4) Dwarf plant produced gametes by mitosis

None

152. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322.

1) Pst I
2) Pvu II
3) Sal I
4) Eco RI

None

153. What will happen if the strength of ventricular contraction increase?

1) Increase in heart beat
2) Increase in cardiac output
3) Reduced oxygen supply
4) Decrease in heart beat

None

154. Among the characters of pea plant studied by Mendel, the number of traits related to seed, pod and flower were

1) 2,2,2
2) 2,2,1
3) 1,1,1
4) 1,2,2

None

155. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is:

1) Thyroxine
2) Insulin
3) Estrogen
4) Testosterone

None

156. A doctor was examining his patient by listening to his heart sounds and told him to perform test on his hearts activity.
Select the correct instruments used.

1) Sphygmomanometer, Electrocardiograph
2) Electrocardiogram, Electrocardiograph
3) Stethoscope, Electrocardiogram
4) Stethoscope, Electrocardiograph

None

157. Polyethylene glycol method is used for :

1) Gene transfer using vector
2) Vector less transfer
3) Monoclonal antibody production
4) Recombinant vaccine production

None

158. Assertion: Persons with O blood group are universal donors
Reason: Persons with O blood group lack any antigen in their RBC surface

1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is not correct
4) A is not correct but R is correct

None

159. Select the odd one out from the given options

1) Cu7
2) CuT
3) LNG-20
4) Multiload 375

None

160. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in:

1) Digestion
2) Locomotion
3) Reproduction
4) Excretion

None

161. Observe the given figure and label the parts

1) A – Medullary interstitium, B – Renal pelvis, C – Hilum, D – Calyx
2) A – Medullary pyramid, B – Calyx, C- Renal pelvis, D – Column of Bertini
3) A – Medullary pyramid, B – Renal column, C – Renal pelvis, D – Calyx
4) A – Cortex, B – Medullary pyramid, C – Hilum, D – Column of Bertini

None

162. Statement 1: Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception where couples abstain from coitus.
Statement 2: Coitus should be avoided from days 5 – 10 because this is the time of ovulation

1) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
2) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
3) Both Statements are correct
4) Both Statements are incorrect

None

163. Match the following phylum with their characteristic feature

1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

None

164. Which of the following statements regarding transport of carbon dioxide in the blood is correct?

1) 23% of CO2 is transported as dissolved state in plasma
2) Majority of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
3) Haemoglobin carries CO2 as carbonic acid
4) Both A and B

None

165. The morula is characterized by:

1) A fluid-filled cavity
2) 16–32 blastomeres
3) Inner cell mass and trophoblast
4) Implantation in the uterus

None

166. Assertion (A): When the filtrate moves through the descending limb of Loop of Henle, it becomes hypertonic and as it passes through the ascending limb of Loop of Henle, it becomes hypotonic.
Reason (R): The descending limb of Loop of Henle is permeable to water, and the ascending limb of Loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.

1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false

None

167. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of

1) Oxytocin
2) Estrogen
3) Progesterone
4) FSH

None

168. The superclass of Gnathostomata are divided on which basis

1) Presence of fins or limbs
2) Presence or absence of notochord
3) Presence or absence of jaws
4) Presence or absence of scales

None

169. The given figure shows a region where external respiration takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?

1) B: Red blood cell – Transport of CO₂mainly
2) C: Arterial capillary – Passes oxygen to tissues
3) A: Alveolar cavity – Main site of exchange of respiratory gases
4) D: Capillary wall – Exchange of O₂ and CO₂ takes place here

None

170. A woman is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked. What ART can help her to conceive a child?

1) ZIFT
2) IVF
3) IUI
4) GIFT

None

171. Choose the wrong statements from the given list
I. The number of autosomes in 1st and 2nd spermatocytes are equal
II. Number of spermatogonium allosomes and in primary spermatocytes is equal
III. Number of autosomes in spermatid and sperm is not equal
IV. Number of autosomes in secondary spermatocyte and sperm is equal
V. Number of pairs of autosomes in secondary spermatocyte is equal to that in primary spermatocyte

1) I and II
2) II, III and IV
3) I, II and IV
4) I, III and V

None

172. The process of breathing is primarily driven by

1) Active transport of gases
2) Diffusion of gases
3) Osmosis between alveoli and blood vessels
4) Pressure gradient between lungs and atmosphere

None

173. Mouth and anus are present on which side of echinoderms (respectively)

1) Lower end, ventral side
2) Ventral side, upper end
3) Ventral side, dorsal side
4) Mouth is present on ventral side, but anus is absent

None

174. Match the following

1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-I
2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-V
3) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I
4) A-V, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-II

None

175. Assertion (A): Spermatogenesis results in the formation of four functional sperms from one primary spermatocyte.
Reason (R): Oogenesis results in the formation of one functional ovum and three polar bodies from one primary oocyte.

1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, but R is false.
4) A is false, but R is true.

None

176. Read the following statements and choose how many of them are correct:
(i) A shift towards left in the oxygen dissociation curve shows decrease in percentage saturation
(ii) Glomerulonephritis is due to inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
(iii) Collecting duct of nephron maintain pH and ionic balance of blood by selective secretion of H+ and Na+
(iv) Exchange of gases between alveoli and blood vessels occurs by the process of diffusion
(v) Conversion of carbonic acid to bicarbonate is facilitated by the enzyme bicarbonate anhydrase
(vi) The urine formed after going through different phases of reabsorption and secretion is four times more concentrated than the original glomerular filtrate

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

None

177. Air bladder is present in which of the following aquatic organisms

1) Clarias
2) Scoliodon
3) Pristis
4) Trygon

None

178. Which of the following is the most effective method of contraception?

1) Condoms
2) Oral contraceptives
3) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
4) Tubectomy/Vasectomy

None

179. Observe the given flowchart and identify the hormones a and b

1) a – FSH, b – LH
2) a – Progesterone, b – Estrogen
3) a – GnRH, b – Gonadotropin
4) a – FSH, b – Estrogen

None

180. Statement 1: A minute network of vessel runs parallel to Henle’s loop forming a C shaped vasa recta
Statement 2: Vasa recta are well developed and highly coiled in cortical nephron

1) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
2) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
3) Both Statements are correct
4) Both Statements are incorrect

None

NEET MID TERM EXAM 1 (08.10.2025)

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