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Welcome to your JEE FULL TEST (30.08.2025)
1) 9×4 V 2) 18×104 V3) 36×104 V 4) 36×10-4 V
1) 120 V2) Zero3) 12 V4) 1200 V
1). mg(1+π) 2). mg(1-π)3). mg/π 4). None of these
1). n³2). √n 3). n4). n²
1) 1 km2) 2 km3) 3 km4) 4 km
1) Decreases2). Increases3) May increase or decrease 4) Conserved
1) 12) 2 3) 1/24) 2/1
CHEMISTRY
26. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are1) 2, 02) 2,1 3) 2 4) 1
1) 1.46 X 10 5 J/mol 2) 9.1 X 10 5 J/mol3) 9.85 X 10 5 J/mol 4) 1. 57 X 10 6 J/mol
1) 1.25 X 10-34 m 2) 3.01 X 10-34 m3) 5.27 x 10-30 m 4) 5.27 x 10-20 m
1) 5 2) 43) 14) 3
1) 82) 103) 184) 32
1) 1.1 X 10 -31 meters2) 1.1 X 10 -30 meters3) 1.1 X 10 -28 meters 4) 1.1 X 10 -33 meters
1) n=4, l= 3, m=0 2) n=4, l= 2, m= 13) n= 4, l= 4, m=1 4) n=4, l=0, m= 0
1) P2 > P3 > P1 2) P3 > P1 > P23) P2 > P1 > P3 4) P1 > P2 > P3
1) 336 mm of Hg 2) 350 mm of Hg3) 160 mm of Hg 4) 168 mm of Hg
1) 0.40K2) 0.60K3) 0.20K 4) 0.80K
1) 103oC 2) 101oC3) 100oC 4) 102oC
1) 1712) 205.23) 5704) 150
1) 12.9 g2) 9.6 g3) 8.5 g 4) 6.7 g
1) 2.24 L 2) 1.12 L3) 0.84 L4) 0.56 L
1) HF 2) H2F23) H3F3 4) H4F4
1) 28 2) 703) 354) 50
1) Phenol 2) aniline 3) cyclohexane4) Ethene
1) N2 2) NO3) NH3 4) NO2
MATHEMATICS
(Attempt only 25 questions)
51. f:R →R is defined by f(x) = x2 – 2x + 1. Find f(f(x))
1) x4 + 4x3 – 4x2 2) x4 – 4x3 + 4x23) x4 + 4x3 + 4x2 4) x4 – 4x3 – 4x2
Deselect Answer
53. Let ω1 be a point obtained by the rotation of z1=5+4i about the origin through a right angle in the anticlockwise direction, and ω2 be the point through a right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument ω1-ω2 is equal toDeselect Answer
54. A set S contains 3 elements, the number of which of the following sets is 256
1) S2) P(S)3) P(P(S)) 4) P(P(P(S)))
55. The value of for which the system of equations 2x-y+2z=2, x-2y+z=-4, x+y+λz=4 has no solution is
1) 0 2) 23) 4 4) 5
56. Let n(U)=700, n(A)=200, n(B)=300, n(A∩B)=100, then n(A’∩B’) is equal to
1) 400 2) 6003) 300 4) None of these
57. Let A={1,2,3} and let R={(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(1,3),(3,2),(1,2)}. Then R is
1) reflexive and symmetric but not reflexive2) reflexive and transitive but not symmetric3) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive4) an equivalence relation
1) (-1,1)2) {-1,1}3) (-∞,-1)4) (1,∞)
60. Let S={1,2,3}. The function f:S→S defined as below have inverse for
1) f={(1,2),(2,2),(3,3)}2) f={(1,2),(2,1),(3,1)}3) f={(1,3),(3,2),(2,1)}4) f={(1,3),(2,3),(2,1)}
61. The system of equations, +y+z=6, x+2y+3z=14, x+3y+5z=20 has
1) infinitely many solutions2) a unique solution3) only finitely many solutions4) no solution
62. Consider the following statements:
I: If A = {x: x is an even natural number} and B = {y: y is a natural number}, A subset B.II: Number of subsets for the given set A = {5, 6, 7, 8) is 15.III: Number of proper subsets for the given set A = {5, 6, 7, 8) is 15.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?1) I and II2) I and III3) II and III 4) None of the above
63. The region represented by {z=xiy∈C:|z|-Re(z)≤1} is also given by the inequality
1) y2≥2(x+1)2) y2≤2x+13) y2≤(x+1/2) 4) y2≥x+1
64. Let A = {1, 2, 3, …, 50} and R be the relation “is square of” on 𝐴. Then 𝑅 as a subset of A×A is written as:1) {(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(4,4),(5,5),(6,6), (7, 7)} 2) {(1, 1), (2, 5), (3, 9), (4, 15) (5, 25), (6, 36), (7, 49)} 3) {(1, 1), (4, 4), (9, 9), (16, 16) (25, 25), (36, 36), (49, 49)} 4) {(1, 1), (4, 2), (9, 3), (16, 4) (25, 5), (36, 6), (49, 7)}Deselect Answer
65. If f(0)=0, f(1)=1, f(2)=2 and f(x)=f(x-2)+f(x-3) for x=3, 4, 5, &.., then f(9)=
1) 122) 133) 14 4) 10
66. If A and B are two sets, then A∩(B-A) is:
1) A 2) ϕ3) B4) None of these
67. If A={1, 2, 3}, and B={3, 6} then the number of relations from A to B is
1) 322) 233) 244) 26
1) 52) 63) 84) 7
1) A∪P(A)=P(A) 2) A∩P(A)=A3) A-P(A)=A 4) P(A)-{A}=P(A)
72. The equation |z-i|=|z-1|, represents
1) a circle of radius 1/22) a circle of radius 13) the line through the origin with slope 14) none of these
1) identity matrix2) symmetric matrix3) skew symmetric matrix 4) none of these
78. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. Then the number of subsets of A containing exactly two elements is
1) 452) 203) 35 4) 40
79. The smallest positive integer for which is is
1) n=8 2) n=163) n=124) n=4
1) k=72) k=-73) k=0 4) none of these
Drawing Test (For B. Achitecture students only)Answer any two.
1. You are a bird and you are flying above a city. Draw the view.2. Imagine you are inside a pencil box. Draw the view3. Imagine and draw a scene from a local cultural festival or fair4. Draw from memory your grandparents’ face
Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 2 (30.08.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
PHYSICS
2. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f (f is the focal length). The image will be at,
1) 5f 2) −1.5f3) 3f4) −3f
1) 180° 2) 0°3) Equal to angle of incidence 4) 90°
1) 6°2) 83) 10°4) 4°
1) 20°2) 2°3) 30°4) 3°
1) 5 cm2) 10 cm3) 8 cm4) 4 cm
1) 1.52) 1.663) 1.33 4) 3
1) 75°2) 90°3) 105°4) 120°
1) 5.25cm2) 21.0cm3) 10.5cm 4) 42cm
1) its angular velocity2) rotating air3) its inertia 4) momentum
1) 102) 203) 10√2 4) 2√10
1) 100 m 2) 200 m3) 150 m 4) 125 m
1) 32 N2) 35 N3) 20 N4) 37 N
1) 39 N 2) 25 N3) 12 N 4) 35 N
1) 2 m/s22) 7 m/s23) 6 m/s24) 0
1) 0 m/s2) 3.2 m/s3) 4 m/s4) 8 m/s
1) fs R 2) -fs R3) 0 4) cannot be determined
1) 72 KV2) 58 KV3) 7.2 KV4) 5.8 KV
1) increases2) Decreases3) remains the same4) Becomes zero
1) 120 V 2) Zero3) 12 V4) 1200 V
1) (a) and (b) only2) (a), (b) and (d) only3) (a), (b) and (c) only 4) (b) and (c) only
1) 2.452) 3.453) 4.25 4) 5.25
1) 1 km 2) 2 km3) 3 km4) 4 km
1) Decreases 2) Increases3) May increase or decrease 4) Conserved
1) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A3) If A is true but R is false4) If A is false but R is true
1) R/42) R/2 3) R/64) 4R
1) 16:92) 16:273) 1:4 4) 4:1
1) – 2%2) + 2%3) – 1% 4) + 1%
1) 4:2√22) 1: 2 3) 2:14) 8:9
1) 5/22) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/2
1) 2, 02) 2,13) 24) 1
1) Infrared2) Visible3) Microwaves4) Ultra Violet
1) 52) 43) 1 4) 3
1) 8 2) 103) 184) 32
1) dxy, dyz2) dyz,dx2– y23) dz2, dx2-y2 4) dz2, dzx
1) 22) 63) 104) 14
1) 02) 13) 2 4) 3
1) P2 > P3 > P1 2) P3 > P1 > P23) P2 > P1 > P34) P1 > P2 > P3
1) 336 mm of Hg 2) 350 mm of Hg3) 160 mm of Hg4) 168 mm of Hg
1) 0.40K 2) 0.60K3) 0.20K4) 0.80K
1) 103oC2) 101oC3) 100oC4) 102oC
1) Al2(SO4)32) K2SO43) KCl 4) C2H12O6
1) 171 2) 205.23) 5704) 150
1) 0.242) 0.33) 0.754) 0.4
1) 12.9 g2) 9.6 g3) 8.5 g4) 6.7 g
1) 2.24 L2) 1.12 L3) 0.84 L 4) 0.56 L
1) HF2) H2F23) H3F34) H4F4
1) 0.1 mole2) 0.2 mole3) 0.5 mole4) 0.3 mole
1) 28 2) 703) 35 4) 50
77. 1 litre of mixture of CO and CO2is passed through red hot charcoal in tube. The new volume becomes 1.4 litre. Find out % composition of mixture by volume. All measurements are made at same P and T.1) 50% CO, 50% CO22) 40% CO, 60% CO23) 60% CO, 40% CO24) 10% CO, 90% CO2 \Deselect Answer
78. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is
1) 10 2) 203) 30 4) 40
79. When 22.4L of H2( g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl2 (g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to
1) 2 moles2) 0.5 moles3) 1.5 moles4) 1 mole
80. Given below are two statements:Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting point due to hydrogen bonding.In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true4) Statement I is false but Statement II is trueDeselect Answer
81. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
82. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?Deselect Answer
83. Which of the following conformation is most stable?Deselect Answer
84. A compound which decomposes before its boiling point can be purified by the method of1) simple distillation2) fractional distillation3) distillation under reduced pressure4) steam distillation.Deselect Answer
85. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen present is estimated as
86. The number of sigma and pi-bonds present in 1, 3-butadiene are respectively
1) 9 and 22) 8 and 2 3) 9 and 34) 9 and 1
87. The correct stability order for the following species is :1) (II)> (IV)> (I)> (III)2) (I)> (III)> (II) >(IV)3) (I) >(II) >(III)> (IV)4) (II) > (I)> (IV) >(III)Deselect Answer
88. The I.U.P.A.C. name of1) 3–Methyl cyclohexene2) 1–methyl cylohex–2–ene.3) 6–methyl cyclohexene4) 1–methyl cyclohex5–eneDeselect Answer
89. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?
1) Sulphur compound2) Quinoline3) Both4) None
90. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is
1) P > Q > R > S 2) Q > R > S > P3) S > Q > R > P 4) S > R > Q > P
BOTANY
91. Backbone of DNA is made of1) Nitrogen base, phosphate and deoxyribose sugar 2) Alternate nitrogen base and phosphate 3) Alternate nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar 4) Alternate phosphate and deoxyribose sugar
92. Which of the following statements about histones is wrong?1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules. 2) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine. 3) Histones carry a positive charge in their side chains. 4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
93. If the distance between consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs is 6.6 × 10⁹, then the length of DNA is approximately1) 1.1 meters 3) 3.4 meters 2) 2.2 meters 4) 6.6 meters
94. Taylor’s experiment on semi-conservative mode of chromosome replication was done on1) Vicia faba 2) E. coli 3) Drosophila 4) Tobacco
95. Association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates1) DNA is condensed into chromatin Fiber 2) DNA is denatured 3) Transcription is occurring 4) Translation is occurring
96. The final proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of:1) Griffith 2) Hershey and Chase3) Watson and Crick 4) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
97. The transforming principle in Griffith’s experiment was identified as DNA by:a) Hershey and Chase b) Watson and Crick c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty d) Meselson and Stahl
98. In Hershey and Chase’s experiment using bacteriophages, ³²P was used to label:1) Proteins 2) DNA 3) RNA 4) Lipids
99. The semi-conservative model of DNA replication was demonstrated by:1) Messelson and Stahl 2) Hershey and Chase 3) Watson and Crick 4) Franklin and Wilkins
100. Solenoid model of chromatin packaging represents:1) 10 nm “beads-on-string” fibre 2) 30 nm chromatin fibre 3) 300 nm looped domains 4) 700 nm chromatid
102. Which of the following is not true for heterochromatin?1) Densely packed2) Transcriptionally inactive 3) Stains light 4) Found at centromeres and telomeres
103. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty concluded DNA was the genetic material because:1) DNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, but protein- and RNA digesting enzymes did not 2) RNA-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not3) Protein-digesting enzymes destroyed transformation, DNA did not 4) Both DNA and protein were equally effective
104 If Hershey and Chase had used radioactive hydrogen to label nucleotides in phage DNA, after infection the radioactivity would be1) Found only in protein coat 2) Found only inside bacteria 3) Found in both coat and bacteria equally 4) Lost after blending
105. Semi-conservative replication proved that:1) Each daughter DNA has one new and one parental strand 2) Both daughter DNAs have two parental strands 3) Both daughter DNAs have two new strands 4) DNA replication is error-free
106. The average length of DNA per nucleosome repeat is about:1) 146 bp 2) 160 bp 3) 200 bp 4) 300 bp
107. Assertion (A): Histone proteins are positively charged. Reason (R): They are rich in basic amino acids like lysine and arginine.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
108. Assertion (A): Nucleosomes are the fundamental unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes. Reason (R): Each nucleosome core contains DNA wrapped around a tetramer of histone H1.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) Both A and R are false
109. In a eukaryotic cell, the linker histone H1 is absent due to a mutation. What would be the most likely consequence for chromatin structure?1) Complete loss of nucleosome formation 2) Looser chromatin compaction, affecting higher-order structure 3) No effect on chromatin structure 4) Increased DNA methylation and gene silencing
110. Assertion (A): In semiconservative DNA replication, after two generations in a ¹⁴N medium starting from fully ¹⁵N-labeled DNA, half of the DNA molecules will have intermediate density. Reason (R): Each round of semiconservative replication produces DNA molecules with one parental (¹⁵N) and one newly synthesized (¹⁴N) strand.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
111. Assertion (A): DNA replication on the lagging strand is discontinuous, resulting in Okazaki fragments. Reason (R): The lagging strand is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direction, opposite to the movement of the replication fork, requiring multiple RNA primers.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is false
112. Why are Okazaki fragments formed during DNA replication?1) Because DNA polymerase can only synthesize in the 3’ to 5’ direction 2) Because the leading strand is synthesized faster than the lagging strand 3) Because the lagging strand is synthesized in short segments due to its 5’ to 3’ template orientation 4) Because RNA primers are not required for the leading strand
113. What feature of DNA polymerase contributes to the high fidelity of DNA replication?1) 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity 2) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity3) Ability to bind RNA primers 4) Interaction with single-strand binding proteins
114. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial chromosome.1) They are metacentric chromosome. 2) The centromere is present at the centre. 3) During anaphase, these chromosomes are divided into two equal arms. 4) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.Deselect Answer
115. Mannitol is stored food in:1) Porphyra 2) Fucus 3) Gracilaria 4) CharaDeselect Answer
ZOOLOGY
136. According to MTP (Amendment) Act 2017, pregnancy may be terminated on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner within1) 12 weeks 2) 24 weeks 3) Beyond 24 weeks 4) Second trimester
137. Which of the following STD is not completely curable?1) Gonorrhoea 2) Syphilis 3) Genital herpes 4) Genital warts
138. Which of the following IUDs will prevent ovulation?1) Cu7 2) LNG-20 3) Lippes loop 4) Multiload 375
139. The most widely used contraceptive is1) Condom 2) Hormone injection 3) Coitus interruptus 4) IUCD
140. Infertile couples can be assisted to have children through which technique?1) PID 2) VD 3) IUD 4) ART
141. How many of the following are indicators of improved reproductive health of society? (a) More couples with larger families (b) Better detection and cure of STIs (c) Better post-natal care (d) Increased number of medically assisted deliveries (e) Increased IMRChoose the correct option from the following1) One 3) Four 2) Three 4) Five
142. Read the following statements carefully: Statement I: Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural, and social. Statement II: USA was the first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at the national level towards attaining a reproductively healthy society Choose the option which correctly describes the above-given statements:1) Both statements I and Il are correct. 2) Both statements | and Il are incorrect. 3) Only statement I is correct. 4) Only statement Il is correct
143. Match the following:1) A−(iii),B −(i),C−(iv),D−(ii) 2) A−(i),B−(iii),C−(ii),D − (iv) 3) A−(iv),B−(iii),C−(i),D−(ii) 4) A−(ii),B−(iv),C −(i),D −(iii)
144. Assertion(A): In intrauterine transfer (IUT) embryos, more than 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube. Reason(R): IUT has poor success rate.1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
145. Choose the right one among the statements given below:1) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself. 2) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus. 3) lUDs suppress gametogenesis. 4) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
146. Emergency pills should be used after 72 hours of1) Coitus 2) Ovulation 3) Menstruation 4) Gastrulation
147. Select the odd one out from the following STDs1) Chlamydia 2) Genital herpes 3) Hepatitis-B 4) Trichomoniasis
148. The method of injecting sperm inside the cytoplasm of an ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called1) GIFT 2) ICSI 3) ET 4) ZIFT
149. In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the following is observed:1) Most of the major organ systems are formed 2) The body is covered with fine hair 3) Movement of the foetus 4) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
150. The function of oral contraceptive pills in birth control is1) To inhibit sperm mobility 2) To inhibit ovulation 3) To inhibit oogenesis 4) To inhibit implantation
151. Transfer of donor’s semen into the uterus of female is called1) IUI 2) IUT 3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
152. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
153. Chances of ovulation is very low during intense lactation because1) Suppression of gonadotropins 2) Increase secretion of gonadotropins 3) Suppression of fertilization 4) Increase secretion of oxytocin
154. Select the incorrect pair from the following1) Periodic abstinence – Natural contraceptive 2) Progestesert – Hormone releasing IUD 3) Saheli – Steroidal pills 4) Embryo more than 8 blastomeres – IUT
155. Which of the following statements are correct regarding oral contraceptive pills (i) They inhibit ovulation and implantation(ii) They alter the quality of fallopian mucus to prevent fertilization (iii) They inhibit sperm mobility1) (i) only 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
156. Misuse of amniocentesis can lead to1) STD 2) MTP 3) RTI 4) ART
157. In which technique of ART, fertilization takes place in fallopian tube?1) GIFT and ZIFT 2) ZIFT and AI 3) GIFT and AI 4) ZIFT and IUT
158. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT procedure1) Ova collected from female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation in the recipient 2) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube of recipient 3) Zygote is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient 4) Ova is collected from female donor and transferred to the uterus of recipient
159. In rDNA technology, primers are1) Chemically synthesised, autonomously replicating circular DNA molecules 2) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA 3) Specific sequences present on rDNA 4) Required to identify transformants from non-transformants
160. Select the odd one out.1) Denaturation, annealing, extension 2) Recognition site, Origin of replication, Selectable marker 3) Exonuclease, Ligases, Polymerase 4) Electrophoresis, ELISA, bioreactor
161. pBR322, commonly used vector is1) Original bacterial plasmid 2) Original yeast plasmid 3) Artificial bacterial plasmid 4) Viral vector
162. Sequence of vector mediated gene transfer involves1) Treatment with divalent cations—> placing on ice —> heat shock —> incubation of cells with rDNA on ice 2) Treatment with calcium chloride —> pores made by electrical impulse —> DNA molecules incorporated into cells3) DNA coated with gold pellet —> embedded on plastic disc —> bombarded with high velocity to target cell 4) Micropipette filled with DNA—> inserted into nucleus of cell—> pressure applied—>DNA injected into cells
163. Which of the following is correctly matched?1) Separation of raw materials– Culturing 2) Primer extension in PCR – Reverse transcriptase 3) dNTPs – Deoxyribonucleotide diphosphates 4) Bacteriophage– Cloning vector
164. Regarding Sparged stirred tank bioreactor, select the correct statements. i. Sparger is responsible for proper aeration ii. Surface area for oxygen is increasediii. Air inlet is at the bottom, materials can be introduced through itiv. Fermentation process is anaerobic1) I and II 2) II and III 3) III and IV 4) I and IV
165. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is a1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
166. Identify A and B from the given diagram.1) Pvu I and Sal I 2) Bam HI and Sal I 3) Bam HI and Pst I 4) Pvu II and Pst I
167. When linear and circular DNA are cut at four recognition sites, number of fragments produced are1) 3 and 4 2) 4 and 4 3) 5 and 4 4) 3 and 3
168. Assertion: Continuous culturing maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log or exponential phase Reason: Continuous culturing of cells involve passing out of medium from one side and addition of fresh medium from the other side1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2) is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
169. Which of the following is endonuclease?1) Protease 2) Hind III 3) RNase 4) DNase I
170. Polyethylene glycol method is used for/as1) Gene transfer without a vector 2) Isolation of DNA 3) Composition of bioreactor 4) Production of plasmids
171. Statement I: Commonly used vector contains multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease Statement II: Presence of multiple recognition site for specific restriction endonuclease results in multiple fragments1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct 3) Both Statement I and II are correct 4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
172. Who is the father of Indian Biotechnology?1) Birbal Sahni 2) Prof VL Chopra 3) Prof AK Chopra 4) Dr Lalji Singh
173. Match the following:1) 1− iv,2− ii,3− i,4− iii 2) 1− iii,2− i,3− ii,4− iv 3) 1− iv,2− iv,3− iii,4− i 4) 1− ii,2− iv,3− i,4− iii
174. EFB stands for1) European Federation for Biology 2) Europe Federation for Biotechnology 3) European Federation of Biotechnology 4) East Asia Federation of Biotechnology
175. Assertion: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of a divalent cation Reason: Divalent cations decrease the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall1) A is correct and R is the correct explanation A 2) A is correct but R is the correct explanation of A 3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
176. The minimum heat range in PCR is observed in which step?1) Denaturation 2) Extension 3) Annealing 4) Elongation
177. Select the correct option. 1. rDNA is formed by joining together DNA from two different sources. 2. Endonuclease remove nucleotides from the end of DNA. 3. Sticky ends are named so because they form hydrogen bond with their complementary cut counter parts1) 1 only 2) 1 and 2 3) 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
178. Foreign DNA was inserted into a cloning vector at the ampicillin resistance gene. Non-recombinants would survive on medium containing:1) Both tetracycline and ampicillin 2) Neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 3) Ampicillin but not tetracycline 4) Tetracycline but not ampicillin
179. Which of the following is not tool for rDNA technology?1) Restriction enzyme 2) DNA fingerprinting 3) Cloning vector 4) PCR
180. A mixture contains DNA fragments p,q,r,s with differing sizes, where, p + q = r, p > q, s > r was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. The positions of these fragments from anode to cathode sides of the gel would be1) q, r, p, s 2) r, p, q, s 3) q, p, r, s 4) s, r, p, q
Welcome to your JEE WEEKLY TEST MATHEMATICS (23.08.2025)
1) -2-2i 2) -2+2i3) i-14) 2+2i
3. Express the given complex number i9+i19 in the form a+ib
1) 0 2) 1+i3) -1+i4) 2+0i
5. If (1+i)(x+iy)=2+4i then “5x” is
1) 11 2) 133) 14 4) 15
6. Find the conjugate of (1+i)3
1) -2+2i 2) -2-2i3) 1-i 4) 1-3i
9. If the area of the triangle on the complex plane formed by the points z, iz and z+iz is square units, then |z| is
1) 5 2) 203) 15 4) none of these
10. Find the argument of z=1+i
1) -π/42) π3) π/4 4) π/6
11. If z1=2+i, z2=1+3i, then Re(z1-z2 )=
1) i2) 13) 2i 4) 2
1) -i 2)13) i4) -1
13. i2+i4+i6+… up to 2k+1 terms, for all k belongs to natural numbers N equals-
1) 12) -13) 04) none of these
14. If (x+iy)(3-4i)=(5+12i), then
1) 5/132) 13/53) 164) 65
15. If |z+4|≤3, then the maximum value of |z+1| is
1) 62) 03) 4 4)10
1) n=8 2) n=163) n=12 4) n=4
1) 2i 2) 23) √24) 2√2
1. a=25, b=-82. a=25,b=83. a=5,b=44. none of theseDeselect Answer
22. Which of the following is correct for any two complex numbers z1 and z2?Deselect Answer
23. The point represented by the complex number 2-i is rotated about origin through an angle π/2 in the clockwise direction, the new position of point is
1) 1+2i 2) -1-2i3) 2+i4) -1+2i
24. If for z=α+iβ, |z+2|=z+4(1+i , then α+β and αβ are the roots of the equation
1) 12) 123) 94) -9
1) line, y=-x 2) imaginary axis3) line, y=x4) real axis
28. Let z be a complex number such that |z|+z=3+i. Then |z| is equal to
1) 3/5 2) 5/33) 5/44) 4/5
29. The equation |z-i|=|z-1| represents
30. Let ω1 be a point obtained by the rotation of z1=5+4i about the origin through a right angle in the anticlockwise direction, and ω2 be the point through a right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument ω1-ω2 is equal to
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (23.08.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.BIOLOGY1. The hormone responsible for the release of ovum from the mature follicle is:
2. Assertion (A): LH surge induces ovulation. Reason (R): LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle.1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.3. A is true, but R is false.4. A is false, but R is true.Deselect Answer
3. Which of the following layers in a graafian follicle is acellular?1. Zona pellucida2. Theca interna3. Granulosa 4. Theca externaDeselect Answer
4. Which of the following is not a function of placenta?1. Secretion of oxytocin during parturition2. Supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo3. Removal of CO₂ and excretory waste materials from embryo4. Production of hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogens, and progesteroneDeselect Answer
5. The correct sequence of the various phases in menstrual cycle is:1. Menstrual – Follicular – Secretory – Ovulatory2. Ovulatory – Follicular – Secretory – Menstrual3. Menstrual – Follicular – Ovulatory – Secretory4. Menstrual – Secretory – Follicular – OvulatoryDeselect Answer
6. Follicular atresia is:1. Formation of corpus luteum2. Increase in number of follicles3. Formation of graafian follicles4. Degeneration of folliclesDeselect Answer
7. Select the correct match from the events of menstrual cycle:1. Ovulation – LH and FSH attain peak level and a sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone2. Proliferative phase – Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of graafian follicles3. Development of corpus luteum – Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone4. Menstruation – Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not getting fertilizedDeselect Answer
8. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is1. Formation of first polar body2. Formation of second polar body3. First meiosis completes4. Second meiosis startsDeselect Answer
9. How many X chromosomes are present in first polar body?1. 0 2. 13. 2 4. 23Deselect Answer
10. Which of the following is responsible for formation of axial filament in sperms?1. Ring centriole2. Nebenkern3. Distal centriole4. Naked filamentDeselect Answer
11. The blastocyst in human females1. Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast cells2. Forms placenta before implantation3. Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation4. Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantationDeselect Answer
12. Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometriumConsidering the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:1. A is false but R is true2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A4. A is true but R is falseDeselect Answer
13. Recognize the given figure and find the correct matching1. A-cells of corona radiata, B-perivitelline space, C-zona pellucida2. C-zona pellucida, A-cells of corona radiata, B-perivitelline space3. B-cells of corona radiata, A-zona pellucida, C-perivitelline space4. B-perivitelline space, C-zona pellucida, A-cells of corona radiataDeselect Answer
14. Which of the following is correctly matched in a normal menstrual cycle?1. Endometrium regenerates – 5th to 10th days2. Release of egg – 5th day3. Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation – 11th to 18th days4. Rise in progesterone level – 1st to 15th dayDeselect Answer
15. First resting phase in oogenesis occurs in1. Prophase2. Metaphase3. Anaphase 4. TelophaseDeselect Answer
16. Assertion (A): Myometrium is important component of uterus Reason (R): Myometrium produces strong contractions during parturition1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A3. A is true but R is false4. A is false but R is trueDeselect Answer
17. In human adult females, oxytocin:1. Is secreted by anterior pituitary.2. Stimulates growth of mammary glands.3. Relaxes the cervix during parturition4. Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.Deselect Answer
18. Which of the following undergoes the meiosis -I division?1. Secondary spermatocytes2. Primary spermatocytes3. Spermatids4. SpermatogoniaDeselect Answer
Time’s up
Time is Up!
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (09.08.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
1. Which is not true for a unit vector?
1. A proton 2. A neutron3. A neutrino4. An electron
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (09.08.2025)
CHEMISTRY TESTIMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
2. 10g of Hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be1. 3 mol 2. 4 mol3. 1 mol 4. 2 molDeselect Answer
1. Molarity2. Mole fraction3. Weight percentage4. Molality
1. 500mL of solvent2. 500 g of solvent3. 100mL of solvent4. 1000 g of solvent
1. acetamide2. urea3. diazo compounds4. thiourea.
1.. 4 2. 73. 8 4. 6
Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (02.08.2025)
ENGLISH SECTION(Direction 1- 30) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the five alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
11. Success cannot be achieved without hard work and sincerity.
12. The ticket will be sent to you by the airlines on e-mail.
13. The light was switched off by her before sleeping.
16. We expect good news about the corona vaccine.
25. Police caught the thief.
26. Who broke the wall painting?
27. We shall talk to Sumit.
28. That girl will write an application.
29. The singer was singing an old melody.
30. Shalini will submit the work at evening.
REASONING SECTION
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:A number arrangement machine when given an input of words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.Input: above has worked but as Marketing officer
Step I: above as has worked but Marketing officer Step II: above as but has worked Marketing officer Step III: above as but has Marketing worked officer Step IV: above as but has Marketing officer worked This is the final arrangement and step IV is the last step for this input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.Input: changed pattern based on the new syllabus
1. Which of the following steps will be the last but one for the above input?
Directions (6-10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
Input: cat bat stick trumpet meet mobile mat bottle
Step I: bat cat stick trumpet meet mobile mat bottleStep II: bat cat mat stick trumpet meet mobile bottle Step III: bat cat mat meet stick trumpet mobile bottleStep IV: bat cat mat meet stick bottle trumpet mobile Step V: bat cat mat meet stick bottle mobile trumpet
And Step V is the last step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.Input: January February march april may june july
6. How many steps can the output be obtained for the above input?
“may july January February march april june”
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:Input: 93 Bamboo 99 Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 Demand York
Step I: Bamboo 93 Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 Demand York 99 Step II: Demand Bamboo Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 York 99 93 Step III: Marathon Demand Bamboo 56 Passion 24 York 99 93 89 Step IV: Passion Marathon Demand Bamboo 24 York 99 93 89 56 Step V: York Passion Marathon Demand Bamboo 99 93 89 56 24 This is the final arrangement and step V is the last step for this input.Input: Liquid 21 57 Harmony 34 Tiffin 78 92 Demon Applied
13. ‘Liquid Harmony Demon Applied Tiffin 92 78 57 34 21’ is in which of the following step?
Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Input: 24 black 43 blue 38 yellow green 85 pink 67
Step I: yellow black 43 blue 38 green 85 pink 67 42 Step II: pink yellow black 43 blue green 85 67 42 83 Step III: green pink yellow black blue 85 67 42 83 34Step IV: blue green pink yellow black 85 42 83 34 76 Step V: black blue green pink yellow 42 83 34 76 58 Step VI: black blue green pink yellow 34 42 58 76 83
And step VI is the last step of the arrangement.
Input: 97 horse balloon 45 hyena 72 leopard 12 33 sheep
16. How many numbers are greater than the average of all numbers in step IV?
Directions (21-25): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight people – S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z- are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between them.
Some of them are facing the centre while others are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). Z is sitting third to the left of Y. Both Y and Z are facing outside. V is not an immediate neighbour of Y and Z. X faces the just opposite direction of V (V is facing towards the centre, X would face outside the centre or vice versa). X is sitting second to the left of V. Both the immediate neighbours of U face just opposite direction of U. S is an immediate neighbour of Y. Both the immediate neighbour of V face just opposite direction of V. S faces towards the centre and she is an immediate neighbour of both Y and W. W faces towards the centre.
23. What is the position of W with respect to Y?
Directions (26-30) : Answer the questions based on the information given below
8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside. U sits second to the right of V. T does not sit at any of the corners of the table. Only 3 people sit between U and Y. Only 1 person sits between Y and X. S sits second to the left of Z. Z is neither an immediate neighbour of X nor Y. Only 3 people sit between S and T.
26. Who sits to the immediate right of Y?
QUANTITATIVE SECTION
(1-5) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series :
Q1. 7, 10, 16, 28, 52, ?
2) 121, 100, 81, 64, 49, ?
3) 2, 4, 12, 48, ?, 1440
4) 90, 89, 85, 76, 60, ?
5) 7, 8, 16, 43, 107, ?
(6-10) Find the wrong term in the following series
6) 3, 12, 36, 108, 324, 972
7) 2, 8, 26, 80, 240, 728
8) 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 12.5, 40.5, 121.5
9) 625, 125, 25, 6, 1, 0.2
10) 10, 11, 24, 75, 303
(11-15) Find the wrong term in each of the following series
11) 1, 4, 10, 16, 25, 36, 49
12) 3, 10, 31, 94, 283, 847
13) 2, 3, 5, 9, 12, 17
14) 98, 89, 79, 70, 60, 50, 41
15) 5, 11, 23, 47, 94, 191
16. A man and a woman, working together can do a work in 66 days. The ratio of their working efficiencies is 3:2. In how many days 6 men and 2 women working together can do the same work
17. A and B can do a certain work in 18 days and 30 days respectively. They work together for 5 days. C alone completes the remaining work in 15 days. A and C together can complete 5/6 th of the same work in:
18. A can complete a work in 11 1/2 days. B is 25% more efficient than A and C is 50% less efficient than B. Working together A,B and C will complete the same work in?
19. To do a certain work, efficiencies of A and B are in the ratio 7:5. Working together, they can complete the work in 17 days. In how many days , will B alone complete 50% of the same work?
20. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 22 days. In how many days will A alone finish the same work?
22. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days. B and C together in 24 days. If A is twice as good a workman as C, then in how many days can B alone complete the work?
22. 10 men working 5 hours/day earn Rs 300. How much money will 15 men working 10 hours/day earn?
23. A and B working together can do 30% of the work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 25 days. How long will A alone take to complete the same work
24. P can work thrice as fast as Q. Working independently, Q can complere a TASK in 24 days. In how many days can P and Q together finish the task?
25) 25 men can complete a task in 16 days. Four days after they started working, 5 more men, with equal workmanship , joined them. How many days will be needed by all to complete the remaining task.
26. Smith and Ajit can complete a task in 12 days and 18 days respectively. If they work together on the task for 4 days, then the fraction of the task that will be left is
27. P and Q can finish a work in 10 days and 5 days respectively. Q worked for 2 days and left the job. In how many days can P alone finish the remaining work?
28. X and Y together can finish a piece of work in 15 days while Y alone finish it in 40 days. X alone can finish the work in
29. Raju can finish a piece of work in 20 days. He worked at it for 5 days and the Jacob alone finished the remaining work in 15 days. In how many days can both finish it together?
30. A and B separately can build a wall in 12 and 16 days, respectively. If they work for 1 day alternatively, starting with A, in how many days will the wall be built?
Welcome to your JEE FULL TEST (02.08.2025)
Choose the correct option:1. I, II and III are all true2. Only I and II are false3. Only II is true4. Only II and III are true
1. ab and 0 2. 0 and ab3. both 0 4. Both ab Deselect Answer
47. Which of the following order is wrong?1. Li+ < Na + < K+ < Cs + (ionic radius)2. Li < B < Be < N (Ionization enthalpy)3. Al2O3 < Mg2O < Na2O < K2O (Basicity)4. NH3 < PH3 > AsH3 (acidity)Deselect Answer
d > f
List 1 List 2
(Attempt 25 out of 30 questions)
91. Let R1 and R2 be two relations defined on R by a R1b ⇔ ab ≥ 0 and aR2b ⇔ a ≥ b. Then,
92. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and B={3,6,7,9}. Then the number of elements in the set {C ⊆ A : C ∩ B ≠ ϕ} is
93. A=Set of all triangles B=Set of all right triangles.Then, A-B=?
94. A set S contains 3 elements, the number of which of the following sets is 256
95. Let f : Q → Q be a function given by f (x) + x2, then f-1 9=
96. The domain of the function is
97.
98. A function from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by
99. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. Then the number of subsets of containing exactly two elements is
100. All the employees of Company X were appraised at the year end. 40% of the employees got a promotion, 50% of the employees got a salry hike and 30% of the employees neither got a promotion nor got a salary hike. If there were 40 employees who got both the promotion and the salary hike, what was the number of employees in the company.
101. If A={-1,1,2}, then n {A×A×A}=
102. If A={a,b}, B={c,d}, C={d,e}, then {(a,c),(a,d),(a,e),(b,c),(b,c),(b,d),(b,e)} is equal to
103. A) (0,1)B) [0,1]C) [0,1)D) (0,1]Deselect Answer
104. The value of λ for which the system of equations 2x-y+2z=2, x-2y+z=-4, x+y+λz=4 has no solution is
105. Value of k, for which is a singular matrix is
106. Given that A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A|=-4, then |adjA| is equal to
107. The matrix is a
108. A) -6,-12,-18B) -6,-4,-9C) -6,4,9D)-6,12,18Deselect Answer
109. If , then for all natural numbers n, An is equal toDeselect Answer
110. The system of equations, x+y+z=1, 3x+6y+z=8, ax+2y+3z=1 has a unique solution for
111. The system of equations, +y+z=6, x+2y+3z=14, x+3y+5z=20 has
112. If a square matrix A has two identical rows or columns, then detA is:
113. For a non-trivial solution |A| is
114. Solve the system of equations, x+y+z=6 2x+3y-z=5 6x-2y-3z=-7A) x=1, y=3, z=2B) x=3, y=2, z=1C) x=1, y=2, z=3D) x=2, y=3, z=1Deselect Answer
115. Deselect Answer
116. Deselect Answer
117. Which of the following property of matrix multiplication is correct:
A) multiplication is not commutative in generalB) multiplication is associativeC) multiplication is distributive over additionD) All of the mentioned
118. A) 12B) 14C) 19D) 10Deselect Answer
119. A) 5B) 6C) 2D) 4Deselect Answer
120. Deselect Answer
Drawing Test (For B. Architecture only)
Attempt any two.
Q1. Draw a street scene in two-point perspective showing the following elements:
Q2. Draw the interior of a modern library in one-point perspective. Your drawing must include:
Q3. Imagine and draw a scene from a local cultural festival or fair, including:
Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 1 (02.08.2025)
1. Oxidoreductases2. Transferases3. Hydrolases4. Lyases
1. apoenzyme and co factor2. co enzyme and co factor3. both as co enzyme4. apoenzyme and holoenzyme
1.vitamin 2. nucleotide3. nucleoside 4. nucleic acid
Choose the correct answer:1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Options:1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.3. A is true, but R is false.4. A is false, but R is true.
1.Triglycerides 2. Phospholipids3.Steroids 4. Waxes
Options:1. I, II, III2. II, III, IV3. I and III4. II and IV
