Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

ENGLISH SECTION

Directions: In the following questions, some part of the sentence is highlighted  in bold. Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part  printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is  correct as it is given then choose option E ‘No Improvement required’ as the  answer.

13. The book reflects the wide range of concerns and the multitude of ways in which the United Nations touch the lives of people everywhere.

15. In which part of the statement (IV) has a grammatical error?

REASONING SECTION

1. If in the number ‘73548961’ all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

2. If in the number ‘68715492’ all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

3. How many such digits are there in the number ‘56298732’ each of which as far away from the beginning of the numbers as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

4. If the letters of the word ‘ADITYA’ is arranged alphabetically from right to left. How many letters will remain unchanged?​

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GOLDEN’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERFECTION’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MISUNDERSTANDING’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet?

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

9. If the letters at odd positions in the word “PARAMETER” starting from ​left are changed to their next letter according to the English alphabet, ​then how many vowels are there after rearrangement?

10. If each vowel in the word ‘ASSESSMENT’ is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the succeeding letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be 7th from the right?​

11. If it is possible to make only one 7-letter meaningful English word from the 2nd, the 3rd, the 4th, 6th, 8th, 9th and the 11th letters of the word “TRANSPARENT, using each letter only once, the last letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made mark ‘X’ as your answer, and if more than one such word can be formed mark ‘Y’ as your answer.

12. If a five-letter meaningful word can be formed by using the first, third, fifth, sixth and eighth letters from the word “HALLOWEEN”, then ​what is the last letter of the newly formed word?​ Mark X as your answer if more than one word is formed. Mark Z if no ​meaningful word can be formed.

14. If each vowel in the word ‘HABITUAL’ is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be fourth from the left?​

15. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 1st, 4th, 7th and 11th letters from the word ‘INTERPRETATION’, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer.​

16. In a code language if a ‘rat’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is ‘mongoose’, ‘mongoose’ is​ ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is ‘snake’ and ‘snake’ is ‘elephant’, then, which will be a domestic​ animal?​

17. If ‘cat’ is called ‘horse’, ‘horse’ is called ‘mouse’, ‘mouse’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘lion’ and ‘lion’ is called ‘ant’, then which animal barks?​

18. If ‘bear’ is called ‘fish’, ‘fish’ is called ‘crow’, ‘crow’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘elephant’ and ‘elephant’ is called ‘ass’, then who cannot remain alive in other place than water?​

19. If ‘room’ is called ‘bed’, ‘bed’ is called ‘window’, ‘window’ is called ‘flower’,​’flower’ is called ‘cooler’, on what would a man sleep?

20. In a certain code ‘ORANGE’ is written as ‘EGNARO’. How is ‘PAPAYA’ written in that code?​

21. If ‘BLUE’ is written as ‘EUBL’, then ‘BULB’ is written as

22. In a certain code ‘MISSIONS’ is written as ‘MSIISNOS’.​
How is ‘ONLINE’ written in that code?​

23. In a certain code ‘GIGANTIC’ is written as ‘GIGTANCI’. How is ‘MIRACLES’ written in that code?​

24. If in a certain code, ‘RESPONSES’ is written as ‘ESRONPESS’, then how can ‘SIGNATURE’ be written in that​ code?​

25. In a certain language, ‘CHAMPION’ is coded as ‘HCMAIPNO’, how is ‘NEGATIVE’ coded in that code?​

26. If in a certain language, ‘GAMBLE’ is coded as ‘FBLCKF’,​ how is ‘FLOWER’ coded in that code?​

27. If ‘JDINHPE’ codes for ‘MINIMAL’, what is the possible code for ‘PATTERN’?

28. If ‘ENTRY’ is coded as ‘12345’ and ‘STEADY’ is coded as​ ‘931785’, then what is the correct code for ‘NEATNESS’?

29. If CAT=12 and GIRL=23, then RABBIT=?

30. If ‘APPLE’ codes for ‘ZKKOV’, then what is the possible code for ‘GRAPE’?

QUANTITATIVE SECTION

1. I) 6x + 5y = 8
   II) 3x + 2y = 3

2. I) x²+13x+42=0
   II) y²+ 23y+132=0

3. I) x²-15x+56=0
   II) y²-11y+30=0

4. I) x²-10x+24=0
   II) y₂-14y+48=0

5. I) 5x+2y=32
   II) 5y+x=34

6. I) x²+11x+30=0
   II) y²+16y+63=0

7. I) x²-5x-24=0
   II) y²-17y+72=0

8. I) x²-16x+60=0
   II) y²-11y+30=0

9. I) x²-5x+6=0
   II) y²-12y+27=0

10. I) x²-9x+20=0
     II) y²-7y+12=0

11. (119.99*3.99)/(240.07)+5.02=√(?)

16. If ratio of salary of A to that of B is 1:3 and each spends 15% of  his  salary  on  house  rent.  Find  the  house  rent paid by A if remaining amount with A and B together is Rs 42500.

17. If we  add  4  to  the  numerator  of  the  fraction  and increases  denominator  by  50%  then  both  become equal. And when the numerator is increased by 5 and denominator  is  doubled  then  it  becomes  equal  to  the original   fraction.   What   will   be   two   times   of   that fraction?

18. In a village-X, a total of 6000 registered voters (male + female) had  cast  their  votes  in  which70%  of  total registered  male  voters  and  45%  of  total  registered female voters had voted. If total registered male voters are  2000  more  than  total  registered  female  voters, then  find  the  total  number  of  registered  voters  in village-X.

19. When digits  of  the  two digits  number  are  reversed, number  obtained  is  9  less  than  twice  of  the  original number. Also, the new number obtained is 175% of the original  number.  Find  the  sum  of  the  digits  of  the number?

20. The population of a village is decreased by 10% in the first year  and  then  increased  by  20%  in  the  second year. Find the population of the village at the end of the second year if two years ago it was 15,000?

21. There are 75% boys out of total students (boys + girls) in a school and 39% of the total students of the school went on  a  picnic.  If  32%  of  the  total  boys  went  on  a picnic,  then  find  what  percent  of  total  girls went  on  a picnic?

22. A and  B  both  spend  30%  of  their  income  together which is equal to Rs. 26400. If income of A is 20% more than that of B, then find the income of B (in Rs.)?

23. Sonal spent  Rs.  45760  on  the  interior  decoration  for her home, Rs. 27896 on buying air conditioner and the remaining  28%  of  the  total  amount  she  had  as  cash with her. What was the total amount?

24. Rajesh spent  Rs.  44620  on  Deepawali  shopping,  Rs. 32764 on buying computer and the remaining 32% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

25. Harjeet spends   50%   of   his   monthly   income   on household    items,  20%  of  his  monthly  income  on buying    clothes,    5%    of    his    monthly    income    on medicines  and the  remaining  amount  of  Rs.  11250  he saves. What is Harjeet’s monthly income?

26. Mr. Giridhar  spends  50%  of  his  monthly  income  on household  items  and  out  of  the  remaining  he  spends 50%  on  transport,  25%  on  entertainment,  10%  on sports and remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved. What is Mr. Giridhar’s monthly income?

27. Shruti decided  to  donate  12%  of  her  salary  to  an orphanage.  On  the  day  of donation,  she  changed  her mind  and  donated  Rs.  3150  which  was  75%  of  what she had decided earlier. How much is Shruti’s salary?

28. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income, 120%  of  Maya’s monthly income. What  is Maya’s monthly income, if Deepak’s monthly income is Rs. 78000?

29. A sum of Rs. 2236 is divided among A, B and C such that A receives  25%  more  than  C  and C  receives  25%  less than B. What is A’s share in the amount?

30. Pooja invests 13% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs. 8554 in Mediclaim  Policies.  Later  she  invest  23%  of  her montly  salary  on  Child  Education  Policies,  she  also invests  another  8%  of  her  monthly  salary  on  Mutual Funds.  What  is  the  total  annual  amount  invested  by Pooja?

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 180.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator are not allowed.

PHYSICS

1. The variation of kinetic energy of electron with respect to frequency of light is

ENGLISH SECTION

Directions (1-5): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts. One of these parts may have grammatical or idiomatic error in it. Choose the part containing error as your answer. If there is no error in the given sentence then choose option (e) as your answer.

1. India is all set to join (A)/ World Health Organization’s “solidarity trial” (B)/ aimed at rapid global search (C)/ for drugs to treat COVID-19 (E)/ No Error.

2. The Union Health Ministry announced (A)/ that it was scaling up measures to combat (B)/the virus by bring in (C)/40,000 more ventilators in the next three months (D)/ No Error.

3. India will setting up an electronic platform (A)/ to help member-countries of the (B)/South Asian Association for Regional (C)/ Cooperation fight the COVID-19 pandemic (D)/ No Error.

4. The Union government has asked (A)/ all the States and Union Territories to (B)/ensure that caregivers of persons with (C)/disabilities was able to reach them during the lockdown (D)/ No Error.

5. British Prime Minister Boris Johnson said (A)/ he has tested positive for the coronavirus, (B)/ while the number of infection in (C)/ the U.S. surged to the most in the world (D)/ No Error.

Directions (6-9): There are three sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the five options given below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (e) as your answer.

6. (i) In 2014, the RBI restored the long-standing prohibition on the entry of corporate houses into banking.
    (ii) Ramesh admits he done a mistake by failing to report at least a half dozen stock sales he made after being elected.
    (iii) Many Adivasi families are unlikely to benefit from the implementation of the Forest Rights Act in J&K.

7. (i) India is not the only country to have witnessed lockdown-related governance failures.
   (ii) India did well to highlight the terror threat from Pakistan amid steps along the borde
  (iii) Industrial houses should not have access to household savings through their own banks

8. (i) The advent of antibiotics ignited the hope of elimination of infectious diseases in humans and animal
   (ii) The Battle of Plassey of 1757 was lead by the Nawab of Bengal against the British East India Company.
  (iii) Kerala disregarded settled law while issuing an ordinance to curb abusive content

9. (i) Ravi’s nephew, who lives in Delhi, is eager to travel to Mohali in the summer to have a glimpse of the city.
    (ii) Mohan was angry with the treatment during the party in Shipra Marriage Hall.
   (iii) The world must force Pakistan to take tangible steps against terror networks.

Direction (10): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., “No Correction required” as your answer.

10. (I)/cooperation and compassion, respect for all human beings and indeed all forms of life (II)/that manifest in deep commitment to peace and non- violence in both action and thought. (III)
(I) essentials of an ethical value system
(II) at all human beings in all forms of life
(III) which manifests in deep commitment

Directions (11-15): In the following questions five statements are given which are further divided into five parts. Use these statements to answer the questions followed.

(I) In the on-going debates around the three new pieces of agricultural (A)/ legislation and the farmers’ demand for continuation of minimum support prices (MSP),(B)/ questions have often been raised whether the government (C)/ should be using the taxpayers’ money to provide subsidies (D)/ to the farm community in this country. (E)
(II) Leader of the Opposition in the Haryana Assembly (A)/ said on Thursday that in the last two months, (B)/ the central government has suffered two major setbacks,(C)/ making it evident that (D) / it have lost the trust of the people.(E)
(III) The air quality of December this year was better (A)/ then last year in terms of the number of days (B)/ of “severe” air pollution and average daily air quality index (AQI),(C)/ according to an analysis (D)/ of the
Central Pollution Control Committee (CPCB) data.(E)
(IV) The Delhi High Court has direct the (A)/ Medical Superintendent of All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) (B)/ to constitute a medical board to examine (C)/ the condition of a 25-week pregnant woman, (D)/ whose foetus is suffering from serious abnormalities.(E)
(V) Under this, companies are allowed (A)/ to market the vaccine even (B)/ if they haven’t furnished (C)/ all the evident required to establish (D)/ the product’s safety and efficacy.(E)

11. In which part of the statement (II) has a grammatical error?

12. In which part of the statement (III) has a grammatical error?

14. In which part of the statement (V) has a grammatical error?

15. In which part of the statement (IV) has a grammatical error?

REASONING SECTION

1. If in the number ‘73548961’ all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

2. If in the number ‘68715492’ all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

3. How many such digits are there in the number ‘56298732’ each of which as far away from the beginning of the numbers as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

4. If the letters of the word ‘ADITYA’ is arranged alphabetically from right to left. How many letters will remain unchanged?​

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GOLDEN’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERFECTION’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MISUNDERSTANDING’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet?

8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

9. If the letters at odd positions in the word “PARAMETER” starting from ​left are changed to their next letter according to the English alphabet, ​then how many vowels are there after rearrangement?

10. If each vowel in the word ‘ASSESSMENT’ is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the succeeding letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be 7th from the right?​

11. If it is possible to make only one 7-letter meaningful English word from the 2nd, the 3rd, the 4th, 6th, 8th, 9th and the 11th letters of the word “TRANSPARENT, using each letter only once, the last letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made mark ‘X’ as your answer, and if more than one such word can be formed mark ‘Y’ as your answer.

12. If a five-letter meaningful word can be formed by using the first, third, fifth, sixth and eighth letters from the word “HALLOWEEN”, then ​what is the last letter of the newly formed word?​ Mark X as your answer if more than one word is formed. Mark Z if no ​meaningful word can be formed.

14. If each vowel in the word ‘HABITUAL’ is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be fourth from the left?​

15. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 1st, 4th, 7th and 11th letters from the word ‘INTERPRETATION’, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer.​

16. In a code language if a ‘rat’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is ‘mongoose’, ‘mongoose’ is​ ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is ‘snake’ and ‘snake’ is ‘elephant’, then, which will be a domestic​ animal?​

17. If ‘cat’ is called ‘horse’, ‘horse’ is called ‘mouse’, ‘mouse’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘lion’ and ‘lion’ is called ‘ant’, then which animal barks?​

18. If ‘bear’ is called ‘fish’, ‘fish’ is called ‘crow’, ‘crow’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘elephant’ and ‘elephant’ is called ‘ass’, then who cannot remain alive in other place than water?​

19. If ‘room’ is called ‘bed’, ‘bed’ is called ‘window’, ‘window’ is called ‘flower’,​’flower’ is called ‘cooler’, on what would a man sleep?

20. In a certain code ‘ORANGE’ is written as ‘EGNARO’. How is ‘PAPAYA’ written in that code?​

21. If ‘BLUE’ is written as ‘EUBL’, then ‘BULB’ is written as

22. In a certain code ‘MISSIONS’ is written as ‘MSIISNOS’.​
How is ‘ONLINE’ written in that code?​

23. In a certain code ‘GIGANTIC’ is written as ‘GIGTANCI’. How is ‘MIRACLES’ written in that code?​

24. If in a certain code, ‘RESPONSES’ is written as ‘ESRONPESS’, then how can ‘SIGNATURE’ be written in that​ code?​

25. In a certain language, ‘CHAMPION’ is coded as ‘HCMAIPNO’, how is ‘NEGATIVE’ coded in that code?​

26. If in a certain language, ‘GAMBLE’ is coded as ‘FBLCKF’,​ how is ‘FLOWER’ coded in that code?​

27. If ‘JDINHPE’ codes for ‘MINIMAL’, what is the possible code for ‘PATTERN’?

28. If ‘ENTRY’ is coded as ‘12345’ and ‘STEADY’ is coded as​ ‘931785’, then what is the correct code for ‘NEATNESS’?

29. If CAT=12 and GIRL=23, then RABBIT=?

30. If ‘APPLE’ codes for ‘ZKKOV’, then what is the possible code for ‘GRAPE’?

QUANTITATIVE SECTION

1. I) 6x + 5y = 8
   II) 3x + 2y = 3

2. I) x²+13x+42=0
   II) y²+ 23y+132=0

3. I) x²-15x+56=0
   II) y²-11y+30=0

4. I) x²-10x+24=0
   II) y₂-14y+48=0

5. I) 5x+2y=32
   II) 5y+x=34

6. I) x²+11x+30=0
   II) y²+16y+63=0

7. I) x²-5x-24=0
   II) y²-17y+72=0

8. I) x²-16x+60=0
   II) y²-11y+30=0

9. I) x²-5x+6=0
   II) y²-12y+27=0

10. I) x²-9x+20=0
     II) y²-7y+12=0

11. (119.99*3.99)/(240.07)+5.02=√(?)

16. If ratio of salary of A to that of B is 1:3 and each spends 15% of  his  salary  on  house  rent.  Find  the  house  rent paid by A if remaining amount with A and B together is Rs 42500.

17. If we  add  4  to  the  numerator  of  the  fraction  and increases  denominator  by  50%  then  both  become equal. And when the numerator is increased by 5 and denominator  is  doubled  then  it  becomes  equal  to  the original   fraction.   What   will   be   two   times   of   that fraction?

18. In a village-X, a total of 6000 registered voters (male + female) had  cast  their  votes  in  which70%  of  total registered  male  voters  and  45%  of  total  registered female voters had voted. If total registered male voters are  2000  more  than  total  registered  female  voters, then  find  the  total  number  of  registered  voters  in village-X.

19. When digits  of  the  two digits  number  are  reversed, number  obtained  is  9  less  than  twice  of  the  original number. Also, the new number obtained is 175% of the original  number.  Find  the  sum  of  the  digits  of  the number?

20. The population of a village is decreased by 10% in the first year  and  then  increased  by  20%  in  the  second year. Find the population of the village at the end of the second year if two years ago it was 15,000?

21. There are 75% boys out of total students (boys + girls) in a school and 39% of the total students of the school went on  a  picnic.  If  32%  of  the  total  boys  went  on  a picnic,  then  find  what  percent  of  total  girls went  on  a picnic?

22. A and  B  both  spend  30%  of  their  income  together which is equal to Rs. 26400. If income of A is 20% more than that of B, then find the income of B (in Rs.)?

23. Sonal spent  Rs.  45760  on  the  interior  decoration  for her home, Rs. 27896 on buying air conditioner and the remaining  28%  of  the  total  amount  she  had  as  cash with her. What was the total amount?

24. Rajesh spent  Rs.  44620  on  Deepawali  shopping,  Rs. 32764 on buying computer and the remaining 32% of the total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount?

25. Harjeet spends   50%   of   his   monthly   income   on household    items,  20%  of  his  monthly  income  on buying    clothes,    5%    of    his    monthly    income    on medicines  and the  remaining  amount  of  Rs.  11250  he saves. What is Harjeet’s monthly income?

26. Mr. Giridhar  spends  50%  of  his  monthly  income  on household  items  and  out  of  the  remaining  he  spends 50%  on  transport,  25%  on  entertainment,  10%  on sports and remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved. What is Mr. Giridhar’s monthly income?

27. Shruti decided  to  donate  12%  of  her  salary  to  an orphanage.  On  the  day  of donation,  she  changed  her mind  and  donated  Rs.  3150  which  was  75%  of  what she had decided earlier. How much is Shruti’s salary?

28. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income, 120%  of  Maya’s monthly income. What  is Maya’s monthly income, if Deepak’s monthly income is Rs. 78000?

29. A sum of Rs. 2236 is divided among A, B and C such that A receives  25%  more  than  C  and C  receives  25%  less than B. What is A’s share in the amount?

30. Pooja invests 13% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs. 8554 in Mediclaim  Policies.  Later  she  invest  23%  of  her montly  salary  on  Child  Education  Policies,  she  also invests  another  8%  of  her  monthly  salary  on  Mutual Funds.  What  is  the  total  annual  amount  invested  by Pooja?

1. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for

(a) replication of RNA
(b) formation of peptide bond
(c) splicing
(d) elongation of transcription

2. The transgenic plant ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato carries an artificial gene for

(a) delayed ripening process
(b) longer shelf life
(c) enhanced flavour
(d) all of these

3. The transgenic plant shows improvement in

(a) yield
(c) disease resistance
(b) quality
(d) all of these.

4. A nemotote Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of

(a) tobacco
(b) cotton
(c) pea
(d) flax

5. Golden rice should be included in the diet of a person suffering from

(a) diabetes
(b) night blindness
(c) anaemia
(d) beri beri.

6. During the processing of the prohormone “proinsulin” into the mature “insulin”

(a) C-peptide is added to proinsulin
(b) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin
(c) B-peptide is added to proinsulin
(d) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin.

7. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are

(a) testis-androgen binding protein
(b) epididymis-inhibin
(c) testis-testosterone
(d) seminal vesicle-LH.

8. ______is a small erectile organ lying at the upper junction of the labia minora.

(a) Labia majora
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons pubis
(d) Vulva

9. Which of the following is the function of ovary?

(a) Production of ovum
(b) Production of hormones
(c) Development of secondary sexual characters
(d) All of these

10. Polar bodies are produced during the formation of

(a) spermatocytes
(b) oogonium
(c) primary oocyte
(d) secondary oocyte.

11. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1

12. Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?

(a) Spermatogonial cells
(b) Germinal epithelial cells
(c) Secondary spermatocytes
(d) Primary spermatocytes

13. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH

(a) after completing meiosis II and before polar bodies are released
(b) after completing meiosis I and before release of polar bodies
(c) after completing mitosis
(d) after completing meiosis I and after release of polar bodies.

14. Site of fertilisation in humans is

(a) ampulla isthmus junction of oviduct
(b) isthmus uterine part
(c) infundibulum ampulla junction of fallopian tube
(d) ovary

15. Hormone that prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy is produced by

(a) corpus albicans
(b) corpus luteum
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) corpora cardiaca.

16. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.

(a) (i) equally, (ii) more
(b) (i) less, (ii) more
(c) (i) more, (ii) less
(d) (i) more, (ii) equally

17. Who among the following performed experiment on Vicia faba?

(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) Taylor
(d) Nirenberg and Ochoa

18. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(a) simple protein
(b) RNA
(c) ribonucleoprotein
(d) repetitive DNA

19. During replication of DNA

(a) the two daughter molecules develop from both the parental strand
(b) RNA functions as template
(c) one strand is from parent and one strand is freshly formed in the two daughter molecules
(d) one daughter receives both the parental strands while the other daughter receives newly formed strands.

20. Identify the incorrect statement from the following options.

(a) The trophoblast layer gets attached to the cervix and leads to implantation.
(b) The chorionic villi and uterine become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (fetus) and maternal body called placenta.
(c) The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord.
(d) Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens, etc.

1. Number of histone molecules in each nucleosome core is 

(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 8

2. Which of the following heavy/radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labelling based studies?

(a) ³H
(b) ³²p
(c) ¹⁵N
(d) ³⁵S

3. A molecule to act as genetic material has the following properties
(i) Should be able to replicate
(ii) Structurally more stable
(iii) Should be more reactive and labile
(iv) Should provide scope for slow changes
Choose the correct option.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

4. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages. It resulted in radioactive

(a) viral proteins
(b) viral DNA
(c) plasma membrane of bacteria
(d) bacterial capsule.

5. Transformation experiments in bacteria were first performed by

(a) MacLeod
(b) Griffith
(c) Pasteur
(d) Meselson and Stahl.

6. Griffith’s effect is called

(a) transduction
(b) transformation
(c) translocation
(d) all of these.

7. DNA replication is semiconservative as

(a) only non-parent strand acts as template
(b) both strands of new molecule are synthesised de novo
(c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental and the other is new
(d) daughter strands are dispersive.

8. In DNA replication, the leading strand is the one which replicates in

(a) 5’3′ direction continuously
(b) 3’5′ direction continuously
(c) 5’3′ direction discontinuously
(d) 3’5′ direction discontinuously

9. Gel electrophoresis is a

(a) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field
(b) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores made due to electrical impulses
(c) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agarose gel under the influence of electric field
(d) none of these.

10. In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet”) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?

(a) HindIII
(b) BamHI
(c) EcoRI
(d) Pstl

11. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of

(a) pentose sugar and phosphate
(b) hexose sugar and phosphate
(c) purine and pyrimidine
(d) triose sugar and phosphate

12. On an average, how many nitrogenous bases are present in one turn of DNA?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Eighteen

13. Central dogma of molecular biology was modified with the discovery of

(a) ligase
(b) RNA polymerase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) reverse transcriptase

14. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

(a) Chromatography
(b) tissue culture
(c) PCR
(d) reverse transcriptase

15. PBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. These are against

(a) chloramphenicol and tetracycline
(b) kanamycin and chloramphenicol
(c) ampicillin and tetracycline
(d) ampicillin and kanamycin.

16. The first step in recombinant DNA technology is

(a) isolation of DNA
(b) insertion of DNA
(c) joining of sticky ends of DNA with its complementary DNA fragment
(d) multiplication of DNA.

17. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to DNA site

(a) regulator
(b) promoter
(c) enhancer
(d) receptor

18. In eukaryotes, RNA polymersa III catalyses the synthesis

(a)18 S rRNA
(b) tRNA
(c)mRNA
(d)5.8 rRNA

19. Intron is part of RNA which

(a) codes for protein synthesis
(b) helps in joining pieces of DNA
(c) does not code for protein synthesis
(d) initiates transcription

20. tRNA attaches to mRNA and amino acid respectively at

(a) anticodon loop and -CCA end
(b) -CCA end and anticodon loop
(c) anticodon loop and DHU loop
(d) DHU loop and -CCA end.

1. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 32, respectively, are

(a) 11, 2, 3
(b) 14, 4, 4
(c) 12, 3, 4
(d) 13, 3, 4

2. Which of the following is incorrect from the following

(a) Unp – Db               
(b) Uuu – Rg
(c) Uuo – Ts    
(d) Unn – Fm

3. The correct order of ionic radius are

a) K⁺ > Na > Mg ²⁺
b) Na > Na⁺ > Ca ²⁺
c) O^– < O ^2- < O
d) N^3- > F^– < F

4. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not iso-electronics ?

a) Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺
b) Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
c) He, H^–, Li ⁺
d) K⁺, Ca²⁺, Ne

5. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

(a) B < C O (Ionization Enthalpy)
(b) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic Character)
(c) O < O- < O2- (Ionic Size)
(d) F < Cl < Br < I (Electron Gain Enthalpy)

6. Assertion : Mendeleev’s left the gap under aluminium and silicon and called these Eka aluminium and Eka – silicon, respectively.
     Reason : Dobereiner arranged elements on the basis of increasing atomic number.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

7. The IUPAC symbol for the element Nobelium is

a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unb
d) Uns

8. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

9. Which one of the following processes proceeds with the absorption of energy ?

a) Cl + e^– → Cl-
b) F + e^– → F-
c) O^– + e^– → O^2-
d)  O + e^– → O-

10. Which of the following statements are not correct ?

a) Gallium wes earlier called eka –aluminium
b) 4^th period begins with Rubidium
c) 14 elements of 6^th period are called Lanthanoids
d) Henry Moseley discovered the relationship between X-ray spectra and atomic number of the elements.

11. At 25 ºC the vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 96.0 torr. What is the mole fraction of CH₃OH in a solution in which the partial vapour pressure of CH₃OH is 23.0 torr at 25 ºC!

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.32
(c) 0.15 
(d) 0.24

12. The vapour pressures of ethanol and methanol are 44.5 mm and 88.7 mm Hg respectively. An ideal solution is formed at the same temperature by mixing 60 g of ethanol with 40 g of methanol Calculate the mole fraction of methanol in the vapour.

(a) 0.55
(b) 0.65
(c) 0.35
(d) 0.25

13. A solution of sulphuric acid in water exhibits

(a) negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(c) ideal properties
(d) the applicability of Henry’s law.

14. 15 g of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 g of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%

15. The molarity of 20% (w/w) solution of sulphuric acid is 2.55 M. The density of the solution is

(a) 1.25 g cm³ 
(b) 0.125 g L^-1
(c) 2.55 g cm³
(d) unpredictable.

16. Solubility curve of Na₂SO₄10H₂O in water with temperature is given as in the figure, we can say that


a) solution process is exothermic
b) solution process is exothermic till 34 d ºC and endothermic after 34 ºC
c) solution process is endothermic till 34 ºC and exothermic thereafter
d) solution process is endothermic.

17. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A at 310°C is 120 torr. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is 72 torr. Calculate the mole fraction of A in solution if the mixture obeys Raoult’s law.

(a) 0.06
(b) 0.9
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.6

18. The diagram given below is a vapour pressure composition diagram for a binary solution of A and B.


In the solution, A – B interactions are
(a) similar to A – A and B – B interactions
(b) greater than A – A and B – B interactions
(c) smaller than A – A and B – B interactions
(d) unpredictable.

1. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.


A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d)-(iv)
B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
D) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

2.  Assertion: During mitotic anaphase, centromere of each chromosome splits and chromatids separate.
       Reason: During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite poles.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.

3. Identify the given mitotic phases of cell cycle


A) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Prophase
B) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Telophase
C) (a)-Telophase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Anaphase
D) (a)-Metaphase, (b)-Prophase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Anaphase

4. When a cell has a stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

(a) G₂/M
(b) G₁/M
(c)G₁/S
(d)M/G₁

5. During which phase(s) of the cell cycle, the amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

(a)G₂ and M
(b)Only G₂
(c)G₁ and S
(d)G₀ and G₁

6. _________________is the best stage to observe the shape, size, and number of chromosomes

(a) Prophase   
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

7. In which of the following stages, a chromosome is minimum coiled?

(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Interphase
(d) Telophase

8. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: At the end of prophase, cell do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus.
Statement II: The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the end of first phase of mitosis.

a) Both statements I and II are correct.
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
c) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

9. How many mitotic divisions must have a cell undergo to produce 32 cells?

(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 5
(d) 10

10. Syncytium formation occurs if

a) No karyokinesis takes place
b) Both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are prevented
c) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
d) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

11. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes in

(a) prophase
(b) telophase
(c) anaphase
(d) metaphase.

12. As the prophase comes to an end, which of the following can be seen in the cell?

a) Nucleolus
b) Formation of spindle fibres
c) ER and Golgi complex
d) Nuclear membrane

13. Mitosis occurs in

a) haploid individuals
b) diploid individuals
c) both (A) and (B)
d) in bacteria only.

14. Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

a) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
b) Reorganisation of all cellular components takes place.
c) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
d) Nuclear division takes place.

15. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This process occurs at the end of

(a) M phase
(b) G₁ phase
(c) S phase
(d) G₂ phase.

16. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(a) G₁ S G₂ M
(b) M  G₁ G₂ S
(c) G₁  G₂ S M
(d) S G₁ G₂ M

17. There are 14 chromosomes in each cell and 2C DNA after M-phase in a plant. Find out the correct match in the following table.


A) (a) and (c) are correct.
B) (a) and (b) are correct.
C) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
D) (b), (c) and (d) are correct