Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (21.06.2025)
Directions: In the following questions, some part of the sentence is highlighted in bold. Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then choose option E ‘No Improvement required’ as the answer.
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REASONING SECTION
13. How many meaningful English words can be formed by using letters of the word ‘ALEP’?
QUANTITATIVE SECTION
11. (119.99*3.99)/(240.07)+5.02=√(?)
Welcome to your NEET ROOT COURSE TEST (20.06.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
PHYSICS
2. The graphical representation of an electric field due to a charged carrying non-conducting solid sphere is
3. The approximate value of + sin is
a) 1b) 2c) 3 d) 4
4. The area under velocity time graph represents
a) Displacement b) Velocity c) Forced) Impulse
5. The value of is
a) 0.58 b) 1.58c) 2.58 d) 3.58
6. The value of is
a) 2√2b) √2c) 4√2 d) 8√2
7. The value of is
a) 1 b) -1c) 0 d) none
8.
11. For the acceleration versus time graph the corresponding velocity versus displacement graph is
12. The displacement of a particle at time t is given by s=2t3−5t2+4t−3. The time when the acceleration is 14ft/ sec2is
a) 1secb) 2secc) 3secd) 4sec
13. The displacement s of a particle at time t is given by s = αsinωt + β cosωt then acceleration at time t is
a) ω2sb) ωsc) -ω2s d) -ωs
14. The displacement of a particle in time t is given by s=2t2−3t+1. The acceleration is
a) 1b) 3c) 4 d) 5
15. The displacement-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion look like
a) Hyperbola b) Parabolac) Straight Line d) Ellipse
CHEMISTRY
a). [Xe] 5d16s2 b). [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2c). [Rn] 6d1 7s2 d). [Ar] 3d10 4s1
17. The number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 14, respectively, are
a) 2, 3 b) 4, 4c) 3, 4d) 3, 4
18. An element Mercury will be place in which group ?a) Group 5 b) Group 6c) Group 7 d) Group 12
19. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?a) ns2 np1b) ns2 np3c) ns2 np4 d) ns2 np 1-6
20. Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?A. [Ne]3s1B. [Ar]3d3 4s2C. [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p5D. [Ar]3d10 4s1E. [Rn] 5f0 6d2 7s2Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a) B and E only b) A and C onlyc) D and E only d) A, C and D only
21. The answer of the calculation 2.568 × 5.8 ÷ 4.168 in significant figures will be?
a). 3.573 b). 3.57 c). 3.6 d). 3.78
22. In the formation of SO2 and SO3, the ratio of the weight of oxygen which combines with 10 kg of sulphur is?
a). 1 : 1 b) 2 : 3 c) 3 : 2 d) 3 : 4
23. Express 53 = 125 in logarithmic form
a) Log5125 = 3 b) Log53 = 125 c) Log35 = 125 d) Log1253 = 5
24. Find the value of ‘x’ in log x = – 17.52
a) 1016 × 2 b) 10-17× 3 c) 10-18× 3 d) 1018 x 6
25. One mole of a noble gas at 1 bar and 273 K occupies 22.7 litres. These experimental results was deduced from
a) Law of gaseous volumesb) Dalton’s atomic theoryc) Law of constant proportions d) None of these
26. The IUPAC name for the structural formula:a) 3, 4-dimethylhexaneb) 2, 3-diethylbutanec) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentaned) Heptane
27. Among the following, the one having longest chain is:a) neopentaneb) isopentanec) 2-methylpentaned) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
28. The IUPAC name of the compound:
29. Name of the compound given below is
30. The common name for a compound C6H5–CHO is
a) Benzophenoneb) Benzaldehydec) Benzoic acidd) Benzocarbaldehyde
BIOLOGY
32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codesA. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d)-(iv)B. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)C. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)D. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
33. Assertion: During mitotic anaphase, centromere of each chromosome splits and chromatids separate. Reason: During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite poles.a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.c) Assertion is true but reason is false.d) Both assertion and reason are false.
34. This option gives the correct sequence of events during mitosisa) condensation→nuclear membrane disassembly→crossing over→segregation→telophaseb) Condensation→arrangementat equator→centromere division→segregation→telophasec) Condensation→crossing over→nuclear membrane disassembly→segregation telophased) condensation→nuclear membrane disassembly→arrangement at equator→centromere division→segregation→telophase
34. When a cell has a stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
a) G2/M b) G1/Mc) G1/S d) M/G1
36. Animals in which anus is formed by blastopore are
a) Protostomes b) Deuterostomesc) Blastostomes d) Both A and B
37. The basic fundamental feature that is used to classify animal kingdom isa) Level of organizationb) Symmetryc) Segmentationd) All of these
38. The middle layer in the body wall of sponges is called
a) Mesogleab) Mesodermc) Blastocoel d) Endoderm
39. Which of the following phylum have tissue level of organization?
a) Porifera b) Aschelminthesc) Ctenophorad) Annelida
40. Select the wrong statement regarding notochord in chordatesa) It is mesodermally derivedb) It is a rod-like structurec) It is formed on the ventral side during embryonic developmentd) None of these
41. Which of the following restriction endonuclease forms sticky end?
a) Hind IIb) EcoRIc) EcoRVd) HaeIII
42. Match the following:a) I-d, ii-a,iii-b,iv-cb) I-a, ii-d,iii-b,iv-cc) I-c,ii-a,iii-d,iv-bd) I-b,ii-c,iii-a,iv-d
43. Select the wrong statement/s.A. Steps involved in PCR technique are denaturation, annealing, fixationB. In gel electrophoresis, DNA sample are stained with ethidium dibromideC. Bioreactor is used to convert raw materials biologically into specific productsOptions:
a) I and IIb) II and IIIc) III only d) I and III
44. Which of the following is not requirements of PCR?a) Enzymesb) DNA templatec) UV lightd) Primer
45. Select the correct pair.a) Meloidogyne incognita – Coleopteransb) ADA gene – adenosine deaminec) Bacillus thuriengiensis – nematoded) Germline gene therapy – reproductive cells
Welcome to your ZZR BANKING WEEKLY TEST-2 (14.06.2025)
Directions (1-5): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts. One of these parts may have grammatical or idiomatic error in it. Choose the part containing error as your answer. If there is no error in the given sentence then choose option (e) as your answer.
1. India is all set to join (A)/ World Health Organization’s “solidarity trial” (B)/ aimed at rapid global search (C)/ for drugs to treat COVID-19 (E)/ No Error.
Directions (6-9): There are three sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the five options given below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (e) as your answer.
6. (i) In 2014, the RBI restored the long-standing prohibition on the entry of corporate houses into banking. (ii) Ramesh admits he done a mistake by failing to report at least a half dozen stock sales he made after being elected. (iii) Many Adivasi families are unlikely to benefit from the implementation of the Forest Rights Act in J&K.
Direction (10): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., “No Correction required” as your answer.
10. (I)/cooperation and compassion, respect for all human beings and indeed all forms of life (II)/that manifest in deep commitment to peace and non- violence in both action and thought. (III)(I) essentials of an ethical value system(II) at all human beings in all forms of life(III) which manifests in deep commitment
Directions (11-15): In the following questions five statements are given which are further divided into five parts. Use these statements to answer the questions followed.
(I) In the on-going debates around the three new pieces of agricultural (A)/ legislation and the farmers’ demand for continuation of minimum support prices (MSP),(B)/ questions have often been raised whether the government (C)/ should be using the taxpayers’ money to provide subsidies (D)/ to the farm community in this country. (E)(II) Leader of the Opposition in the Haryana Assembly (A)/ said on Thursday that in the last two months, (B)/ the central government has suffered two major setbacks,(C)/ making it evident that (D) / it have lost the trust of the people.(E)(III) The air quality of December this year was better (A)/ then last year in terms of the number of days (B)/ of “severe” air pollution and average daily air quality index (AQI),(C)/ according to an analysis (D)/ of theCentral Pollution Control Committee (CPCB) data.(E)(IV) The Delhi High Court has direct the (A)/ Medical Superintendent of All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) (B)/ to constitute a medical board to examine (C)/ the condition of a 25-week pregnant woman, (D)/ whose foetus is suffering from serious abnormalities.(E)(V) Under this, companies are allowed (A)/ to market the vaccine even (B)/ if they haven’t furnished (C)/ all the evident required to establish (D)/ the product’s safety and efficacy.(E)
11. In which part of the statement (II) has a grammatical error?
13. In which part of the statement (I) has a grammatical error?
1. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for(a) replication of RNA (b) formation of peptide bond (c) splicing (d) elongation of transcription
2. The transgenic plant ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato carries an artificial gene for(a) delayed ripening process (b) longer shelf life (c) enhanced flavour (d) all of these
3. The transgenic plant shows improvement in(a) yield (c) disease resistance (b) quality (d) all of these.
4. A nemotote Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of(a) tobacco (b) cotton (c) pea (d) flax
5. Golden rice should be included in the diet of a person suffering from(a) diabetes (b) night blindness (c) anaemia (d) beri beri.
6. During the processing of the prohormone “proinsulin” into the mature “insulin”(a) C-peptide is added to proinsulin (b) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin (c) B-peptide is added to proinsulin (d) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin.
7. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are(a) testis-androgen binding protein (b) epididymis-inhibin (c) testis-testosterone (d) seminal vesicle-LH.
8. ______is a small erectile organ lying at the upper junction of the labia minora.(a) Labia majora(b) Clitoris(c) Mons pubis (d) Vulva
9. Which of the following is the function of ovary?(a) Production of ovum (b) Production of hormones (c) Development of secondary sexual characters (d) All of these
10. Polar bodies are produced during the formation of(a) spermatocytes (b) oogonium (c) primary oocyte (d) secondary oocyte.
11. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 1
12. Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?(a) Spermatogonial cells (b) Germinal epithelial cells (c) Secondary spermatocytes (d) Primary spermatocytes
13. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH(a) after completing meiosis II and before polar bodies are released (b) after completing meiosis I and before release of polar bodies (c) after completing mitosis (d) after completing meiosis I and after release of polar bodies.
14. Site of fertilisation in humans is(a) ampulla isthmus junction of oviduct (b) isthmus uterine part (c) infundibulum ampulla junction of fallopian tube (d) ovary
15. Hormone that prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy is produced by(a) corpus albicans (b) corpus luteum (c) Graafian follicle (d) corpora cardiaca.
16. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.(a) (i) equally, (ii) more (b) (i) less, (ii) more (c) (i) more, (ii) less (d) (i) more, (ii) equally
17. Who among the following performed experiment on Vicia faba?(a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Beadle and Tatum (c) Taylor (d) Nirenberg and Ochoa
18. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a(a) simple protein(b) RNA (c) ribonucleoprotein (d) repetitive DNA
19. During replication of DNA(a) the two daughter molecules develop from both the parental strand (b) RNA functions as template (c) one strand is from parent and one strand is freshly formed in the two daughter molecules (d) one daughter receives both the parental strands while the other daughter receives newly formed strands.
20. Identify the incorrect statement from the following options.(a) The trophoblast layer gets attached to the cervix and leads to implantation. (b) The chorionic villi and uterine become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (fetus) and maternal body called placenta. (c) The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord. (d) Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens, etc.
2. Which of the following heavy/radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labelling based studies?
(a) 3H(b) 32p(c) 15N (d) 35S
3. A molecule to act as genetic material has the following properties (i) Should be able to replicate (ii) Structurally more stable (iii) Should be more reactive and labile (iv) Should provide scope for slow changes Choose the correct option.(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) only (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages. It resulted in radioactive(a) viral proteins (b) viral DNA (c) plasma membrane of bacteria (d) bacterial capsule.
5. Transformation experiments in bacteria were first performed by(a) MacLeod(b) Griffith (c) Pasteur (d) Meselson and Stahl.
6. Griffith’s effect is called(a) transduction (b) transformation (c) translocation (d) all of these.
7. DNA replication is semiconservative as(a) only non-parent strand acts as template (b) both strands of new molecule are synthesised de novo (c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental and the other is new (d) daughter strands are dispersive.
8. In DNA replication, the leading strand is the one which replicates in(a) 5’3′ direction continuously (b) 3’5′ direction continuously (c) 5’3′ direction discontinuously (d) 3’5′ direction discontinuously
9. Gel electrophoresis is a(a) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field (b) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores made due to electrical impulses (c) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agarose gel under the influence of electric field (d) none of these.
10. In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet”) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?(a) HindIII (b) BamHI (c) EcoRI (d) Pstl
11. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of(a) pentose sugar and phosphate (b) hexose sugar and phosphate (c) purine and pyrimidine (d) triose sugar and phosphate
12. On an average, how many nitrogenous bases are present in one turn of DNA?(a) Four (b) Five (c) Ten (d) Eighteen
13. Central dogma of molecular biology was modified with the discovery of(a) ligase (b) RNA polymerase (c) DNA polymerase (d) reverse transcriptase
14. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in(a) Chromatography (b) tissue culture (c) PCR (d) reverse transcriptase
15. PBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. These are against(a) chloramphenicol and tetracycline (b) kanamycin and chloramphenicol (c) ampicillin and tetracycline (d) ampicillin and kanamycin.
16. The first step in recombinant DNA technology is(a) isolation of DNA (b) insertion of DNA (c) joining of sticky ends of DNA with its complementary DNA fragment (d) multiplication of DNA.
17. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to DNA site(a) regulator (b) promoter (c) enhancer (d) receptor
18. In eukaryotes, RNA polymersa III catalyses the synthesis(a)18 S rRNA(b) tRNA (c)mRNA (d)5.8 rRNA
19. Intron is part of RNA which(a) codes for protein synthesis (b) helps in joining pieces of DNA (c) does not code for protein synthesis (d) initiates transcription
20. tRNA attaches to mRNA and amino acid respectively at(a) anticodon loop and -CCA end (b) -CCA end and anticodon loop (c) anticodon loop and DHU loop (d) DHU loop and -CCA end.
1. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 32, respectively, are
(a) 11, 2, 3(b) 14, 4, 4(c) 12, 3, 4 (d) 13, 3, 4
(a) Unp – Db (b) Uuu – Rg(c) Uuo – Ts (d) Unn – Fm
(a) 0.5(b) 0.32(c) 0.15 (d) 0.24
(a) 1.25 g cm3 (b) 0.125 g L-1(c) 2.55 g cm3 (d) unpredictable.
(a) 5.85 g(b) 0.585 g (c) 0.0585 g(d) 0.0855 gDeselect Answer
20. The freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of A is equal to the freezing point of 10% aqueous solution of B. If the molecular mass of A is 60, then the molecular mass of B will be(a) 160 (b) 90(c) 45(d) 180Deselect Answer
(a) G2/M (b) G1/M(c)G1/S(d)M/G1
(a)G2 and M(b)Only G2(c)G1 and S(d)G0 and G1
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase(c) Anaphase(d) Telophase
(a) Metaphase(b) Anaphase(c) Interphase(d) Telophase
(a) 32(b) 16(c) 5(d) 10
(a) prophase(b) telophase(c) anaphase(d) metaphase.
(a) M phase(b) G1 phase(c) S phase(d) G2 phase.
(a) G1 S G2 M(b) M G1 G2 S(c) G1 G2 S M(d) S G1 G2 M
(a) Telophase(b) Metaphase(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
(a) telophase(b) prophase(c) metaphase(d) anaphase.
1. In Drosophila, sex determination mechanism is
(a) XX-XO(b) ZZ-ZW(c) XX-XY(d) XY-XO
(a) ZW-ZZ (b) ZZ-WW(c) XX-XY (d) XO-XX.
(a) grasshopper (b) hen(c) Drosophila (d) honey bee.
(a) AA, aa(b) aa, AA(c) aa, Aa(d) Aa, Aa
(a) recombination(b) linkage(c) mutation(d) both (a) and (c).
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome(b) Down’s syndrome(c) Turner’s syndrome(d) Thalassemia.
(a) Sickle cell anaemia(b) Haemophilia(c) Colour blindness(d) Down’s syndrome
(a) human beings(b) birds(c) honey bees(d) all of these.
(a) 46(b) 45(c) 44(d) 42.
(a) recessive autosomal genes(b) dominant autosomal genes(c) dominant sex genes(d) recessive sex genes.
(a) The female parent is heterozygous.(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.(c) The trait under study could not be colour blind.(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant
(a) Dwarf, white flower at terminal position(b) Dwarf, white flower at axial position(c) Dwarf, violet colour of flower(d) Round and yellow seeds, terminal flowers
(a) 180 round and 300 wrinkled(b) 305 round and 301 wrinkled(c) 301 round and 1000 wrinkled(d) 400 round and 300 wrinkled
(a) 3 (b) 8(c) 27(d) 64
(a) genetic composition of many organisms(b) genetic composition of plastids(c) genetic composition of germ cells(d) genetic composition of an individual.
(a) pod length (b) seed shape(c) flower position(d) seed colour.
(a) by measuring length of plant(b) by spraying gibberellins(c) if all plants are tall after self-pollination(d) if all plants are dwarf after self-pollination
(a) C6 H5-CH2(b) CH3-CH2(c) C6 H5-CH2-CH2(d) C6 CH5-CH-C6 H5
(a) inductive effect (b) resonance stabilisation(c) electromeric effect (d) electronegativity
(a) BCI3(b) CH3 OH(c) NH3(d) AICI4–
(a) aniline(b) glycine(c) hydrazine(d) urea
(a) vacuum distillation (b) steam distillation(c) fractional distillation (d) none of these
(a) 8 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair(b) 9 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 2 lone pair(c) 9 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair(d) 10 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(a) anisole(b) benzaldehyde(c) salicylaldehyde(d) none of these
(a) pyramidal(b) plana(c) tetrahedral(d) linear
(a) filtration(b) sublimation(c) crystallization(d) evaporation
(a) distillation (b) fractional distillation(c) crystallizatio(d) fractional crystallization
18. Identify the reagent from the following lish which can easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne.
(a) Bromine, CCI4 (b) , Lindlar catalyst(c) Dilute H2 SO4, HgSO4(d) Ammoniacal solution
19. Which of the following species is aromatic?
(a) CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH+O2(b) CH3 CH2 COOH(c) CH3 CH2 COOH+CO2(d) CH3 CH2 COCH3+HCOOH
1. Two elements X (at. mass 16) and Y (at. mass = 14) combine to form compounds A, B and C. The ratio of different masses of Y which combines with a fixed mass of X in A, B and C is 1:3: 5. If 32 parts by mass of X combines with 84 parts by mass of Y in B, then in C, 16 parts by mass of X will combine with
(a) 28 parts by mass of Y(b) 70 parts by mass of Y(c) 32 parts by mass of Y(d) 56 parts by mass of Y
(a) 36 g(b) 3.6 g(c) 3.4 g(d) 6.2 g
(a) 1.568 x 104 amu (b) 1.568 x 107 amu(c) 1.568 x 103 amu(d) 1.568 x 106 amu
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at S.T.P.(b) 5 L of N2 gas at S.T.P.(c) 0.5 g of H2 gas(d) 10 g of O2 gas
(a) 6.1 x 10-4(b) 2.8 x 10-3(c) 2.28 x 10-3(d) 1.36 x 10-2
(a) 50%(b) 60%(c) 70%(d) 80%
(a) A2B > AB > A2B3 (b) A2B3 > AB > A2B(c) AB > A2B > A2B3 (d) A2B3 > A2B > AB
(a) 40,30(b) 60, 40(c) 20,30 (d) 30, 20
(a) 6.023 x 1021(b) 6.023 x 1023(c) 6.023 x 1020(d) 6.023 x 109
(a) aluminium and silicon(b) gallium and germanium(c) arsenic and antimony(d) molybdenum and tungsten.
(a) v = a(z – b)(b) v2 = a(z – b)2(c) v = a2(z – b)2(d) v2 = a2(z – b)2
(a) Phosphorus(b) Antimony(c) Nitrogen(d) Bismuth
(a) electronegative element(b) an element from 18th group(c) 4th period and 5th group(d) none of these.
(a) F+ and Ne(b) Li+ and He–(c) Na and K(d) Cl– and Ar
(a) nuclear charge (Z)(b) interelectronic repulsion in the valence shell(c) valence principal quantum number (n)(d) none of these factors.
(a) Bi2O3 (b) SeO2(c) Al2O3 (d) Sb2O3
(a) NO2(b) NO(c) N2O(d) N2O3
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p³(b) 1s2 2s2 2p5(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p³