Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (26.07.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
BIOLOGY
1) Glucose2) Ribose3) Fructose4) Galactose
2. Which of the following best describes the tertiary structure of a protein?1. Linear sequence of amino acids2. Repeated folding patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets3. Three-dimensional shape formed by interactions between side chains4. Multiple polypeptide chains arranged in a single complexDeselect Answer
3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cellulose?
1) Branched-chain polymer2) Straight-chain polymer3) Composed of α-glucose units4) Soluble in water
4. In the Benedict’s test, the formation of a red precipitate indicates the presence of:1. Non-reducing sugars2. Reducing sugars3. Polysaccharides4. LipidsDeselect Answer
5. Which of the following is not a chemically modified sugar’?1. Glucosamine2. N-acetyl galactosamine3. Galacturonic acid4. Di hydroxy acetoneDeselect Answer
6. Which of the following statements is false1. In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes2. Protein is a homopolymer3. Non-essential amino acids are synthesized by animals4. Dietary proteins are source of essential amino acidDeselect Answer
7. Find out incorrect1. a polysaccharide is obtained from the roots of Dahlia.2. GLUT-4 protein enables glucose transport into3. Ribose sugar is present in RNA and ATP4. Sucrose is a dipeptide commonly known as AspartameDeselect Answer
1) haemoglobin2) histone3) globulin4) elastin
1) Arginine2) Lysine3) Cysteine 4) Alanine
1) GLUT I2) GLUT II3) GLUT III 4) GLUT IV
1) Alanine 2) Glutamic acid3) Valine 4) Tyrosine
1) >12000 Da 2) < 6000 Da 3) < 12000 Da.4) 600-3000 Da.
1) Carbon 2) Oxygen3) Silicon 4) Nitrogen
1) Cellulose 2) Codeine3) Morphine4) Both (2) and (3)
1) Amino acids 2) Sugars3) Antibiotics 4) Nucleotides
1) Starch2) Cellulose3) Glycogen4) Chitin
1) Carbon 2) Nitrogen3) Sulphur4) Phosphorus
1) 30 minutes 2) 45 minutes3) 20 minutes4) 59 minutes
1) leptotene2) zygotene3) pachytene 4) diakinesis
1) S phase 2) Prophase3) Interphase4) Metaphase
A B C D
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
1) 32 x 1062) 16 x 1063) 8 x 1064) 64 x 106
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene3) Pachytene 4) Diplotene
1) 20 pg 2) 40 pg3) 60 pg 4) 80 pg
1) Telophase2) Cytokinesis3) Metaphase 4) Anaphase
1) C-karyokinesis 2) D- G1 phase3) A- cytokinesis 4) B- Anaphase
1) Prophase2) Metaphase3) Anaphase 4) Telophase
1) 1200 2) 2003) 300 4) 150
ZOOLOGY
47. Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates1. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion3. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion4. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correctDeselect Answer
48. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are1. Malpighian tubules2. Protonephridia3. Green glands4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer
49. Match the following and select the correct option1. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)2. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)3. (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)4. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)Deselect Answer
50. Body cavity not lined by mesoderm and directly connected to archenteron occurs in
1) Platyhelminthes 2)Annelida3) Aschelminthes4) Echinoderms
51. Notochord arises from
1) Endoderm 2) Mesoderm3) Ectoderm 4) None of these
52. Which of the following group of animals have a unique property of possessing mammary glands, hair and pinnae?1. Elephas, Corvus, Neophron2. Chelone, Panthera, Vipera3. Balaenoptera, Pterophus, Delphinus4. Betta, Hyla, CanisDeselect Answer
53. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of which phylum?1. Porifera2. Ctenophora3. Echinodermata4. ChordataDeselect Answer
54. Consider the following features and select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.A. Bilateral symmetryB. Organ-system level of organizationC. Proper circulatory and respiratory system1. Mollusca, Hemichordata, Echinodermata2. Annelida, Aschelminthes, Chordata3. Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Porifera4. Arthropoda, Cnidaria, PlatyhelminthesDeselect Answer
55. Hooks and suckers are the characteristic feature of which phylum?1. Platyhelminthes2. Aschelminthes3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2Deselect Answer
56. The excretory structure of arthropods is1. Malpighian tubules2. Green glands3. Protonephridia4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer
57. Match the following1. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)2. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)3. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)4. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)Deselect Answer
58. Read the following statements with respect to Cyclostomes and select the incorrect ones.A. They lack scales and paired finsB. They have circular mouth with jawsC. They bear 6-15 pairs of gillsD. They migrate to deep sea for spawning
1) A and D only 2) A and B only3) B and C only 4) B and D only
59. Pinctada are characterized by1. Presence of notochord in early stage of life2. Presence of operculum3. Presence of visceral hump4. BioluminescenceDeselect Answer
60. Superclass Tetrapoda is further classified into how many classes
1) 2 2) 33) 44) 5
61. Which of the following is a unique feature of mammals?1. Four chambered heart2. Presence of diaphragm3. Homeothermy4. Rib-cageDeselect Answer
62. In which phylum the body can be divided into two identical left and right halves in only one plane?
1) Coelenterata 2) Ctenophora3) Porifera 4) Annelida
63. Which of the following cells in sponges help in trapping food?
1) Pinacocytes 2) Porocytes3) Choanocytes4) Ostia
64. Female Ascaris can be differentiated from male by1. Presence of female gonapophysis2. Presence of setae3. Shorter length4. Longer lengthDeselect Answer
65. Which of the following does not belong to phylum Echinodermata?1. Sea lily (Antedon)2. Sea hare (Aplysia)3. Sea urchin (Echinus)4. Sea cucumber (Cucumaria)Deselect Answer
66. Choose the incorrect vertebrate character1. Ventral muscular heart2. Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation3. Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs4. None of the aboveDeselect Answer
67. Which of the following group does not represent a class?
1) Amphibia 2) Cyclostomata3) Osteichthyes 4) Pisces
68. Assertion: Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. Reason: Larvae of cyclostome is metamorphosed in fresh water.1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion3. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct4. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correctDeselect Answer
69. Which of the following are characteristics of morphology of frog?I. Exoskeleton and tympanumII. Immovable lower eyelid and vocal sacIII. Nictitating membrane and protruding eyeIV. Pair of hind legs and vascularised skin
Options:
1) I, II and III 2) II and III only3) III and IV only 4) I, III and IV
70. Pulmonary respiration occurs by A while cutaneous respiration occurs through B.1. A- Lungs, B- Mouth2. A- Skin, B- Mouth3. A- Skin, B- Lungs4. A- Lungs, B- SkinDeselect Answer
71. Select the correct statements.I. In frog, RBC are nucleated, do not contain haemoglobinII. Lymph do not contain RBCIII. Sinus venosus receives blood through vena cavaIV. Heart is covered by pericardium
1) I, II, IV2) II, III, IV3) I, III, IV4) II and IV only
72. Which of the following receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juice from pancreas?
1) Stomach2) Ileum3) Rectum 4) Duodenum
73. Which of the following shows sexual dimorphism in frog?1. Slender body and darker color2. Tympanum and dermal plicae3. Dermal plicae and vocal sac4. Copulatory pad and nictitating membraneDeselect Answer
74. Prominent endocrine glands found in frog areI. Gonads and adrenalsII. Hypothalamus and pituitaryIII. Pineal body and thyroid
1) I and II2) II and III3) I and III 4) I, II, III
75. Assertion : Final digestion and absorption take place in the small intestine. Reason: The intestine of frog possesses villi and microvilli1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3. A is correct but R is not correct4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer
76. Which of the following is responsible for control and coordination of involuntary activities of visceral organs?
1) CNS2) PNS3) ANS4) All of above
77. Regarding brain of frog, olfactory lobe, cerebral hemisphere, diencephalon are found in
1) Forebrain2) Midbrain3) Hindbrain4) None of above
78. Assertion (A): Frogs maintain ecological balance Reason (R): Frogs serve as important link of food chain and food web in ecosystem
Options:1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3. A is correct but R is incorrect4. A is incorrect but R is correct
79. Statement I: Frogs are poikilothermic meaning they have constant body temperature. Statement II: Body of frog is divided into head, thorax and trunk1. Both statement I and II are correct2. Both statement I and II are incorrect3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correctDeselect Answer
80. The alimentary canal of frog is short because they are
1) Herbivores2) Omnivores3) Carnivores 4) None of above
81. Assertion: Frog can respire on land and in water. Reason: The vascular system of frog is under developed.1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A3. A is correct but R is not correct4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer
82. Select the false statement from the following:1. Frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect themselves from extreme heat known as aestivation2. Body is streamlined to help them move on land3. Frogs never drinks water but absorb it through skin4. Vocal sac act as resonators to intensify sound of croakingDeselect Answer
83. Match the following:1. Spinal nerves – a) 10-122. Vasa efferentia – b) 1 pair3. Oviduct – c)10 pairs4. Cranial nerves – d) 9 pairs
Options:1. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a2. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c3. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-c4. 1-a, 2-d, 3- c, 4-b
84. Frogs camouflage while on land but mimicry while in water. Select the correct option.1. True for camouflage but false for mimicry2. True for both3. False for both4. False for camouflage but true for mimicryDeselect Answer
85. In which organ do ventricle open on the ventral side of heart?1. Sinus venosus2. Truncus arteriosus3. Conus arteriosus4. Right auricleDeselect Answer
86. Regarding eye of frog, select the correct statement.1. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane2. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane3. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membrane4. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membraneDeselect Answer
87. Select the correct option for the given diagram:1. A-seminiferous tubule, B- Bidder’s canal, C-urinogenital duct, D- cloacal aperture2. A- vasa efferentia, B- adrenal gland, C- urinogenital duct, D- cloaca3. A- vasa efferentia, B- Bidder’s canal, C- cloaca, D- cloacal aperture4. A- seminiferous tubules, B-adrenal gland, C- vasa efferentia, D- cloacaDeselect Answer
88. In frog, ova passed from ovarian funnel to ovisac by
1) Ureter 2) Urinogenital duct3) Oviduct4) Ovarian follicles
89. Select the correct statement regarding frog.1. Egg is centrolecithal2. Nymphal stage is tadpole3. Mature female can lay 2000 to 3500 ova at a time4. Iodine is useful for metamorphosis of tadpole to adultDeselect Answer
90. During summer sleep, gaseous exchange takes place through which organ.
1) Skin2) Lungs3) Buccopharyngeal4) All of above
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (19.07.2025)
CHEMISTRY
2. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not isoelectronics ?1. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+2. Ne, Na+, Al3+3. He, H–, Li +4. K+, Ca2+, NeDeselect Answer
3. Screening effect is not observed in1. He+ 2. Be3+3. Li2+ 4. All of the aboveDeselect Answer
4. Choose the correct order of atomic size ?1. Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb2. Lu > Yb > La > Lr3. Ce > Pm > Yb > Lu4. Lu > Yb > Ce > LaDeselect Answer
5. An element Niobium will be place in which group ?1. Group 7 2. Group 63. Group 5 4. Group 12Deselect Answer
6. Ionic radii are1. Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge2. Inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge3. Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge4. Directly proportional to square of effective nuclear chargeDeselect Answer
7. The correct order of ionic radius are1. K+ > K > Mg 2+2. Na > Na+ > Ca 2+3. O– < O 2- < O4. N3- > F– < FDeselect Answer
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Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (21.06.2025)
Directions: In the following questions, some part of the sentence is highlighted in bold. Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part printed in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given then choose option E ‘No Improvement required’ as the answer.
.
REASONING SECTION
13. How many meaningful English words can be formed by using letters of the word ‘ALEP’?
QUANTITATIVE SECTION
11. (119.99*3.99)/(240.07)+5.02=√(?)
Welcome to your NEET ROOT COURSE TEST (20.06.2025)
PHYSICS
2. The graphical representation of an electric field due to a charged carrying non-conducting solid sphere is
3. The approximate value of + sin is
a) 1b) 2c) 3 d) 4
4. The area under velocity time graph represents
a) Displacement b) Velocity c) Forced) Impulse
5. The value of is
a) 0.58 b) 1.58c) 2.58 d) 3.58
6. The value of is
a) 2√2b) √2c) 4√2 d) 8√2
7. The value of is
a) 1 b) -1c) 0 d) none
8.
11. For the acceleration versus time graph the corresponding velocity versus displacement graph is
12. The displacement of a particle at time t is given by s=2t3−5t2+4t−3. The time when the acceleration is 14ft/ sec2is
a) 1secb) 2secc) 3secd) 4sec
13. The displacement s of a particle at time t is given by s = αsinωt + β cosωt then acceleration at time t is
a) ω2sb) ωsc) -ω2s d) -ωs
14. The displacement of a particle in time t is given by s=2t2−3t+1. The acceleration is
a) 1b) 3c) 4 d) 5
15. The displacement-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion look like
a) Hyperbola b) Parabolac) Straight Line d) Ellipse
a). [Xe] 5d16s2 b). [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2c). [Rn] 6d1 7s2 d). [Ar] 3d10 4s1
17. The number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 14, respectively, are
a) 2, 3 b) 4, 4c) 3, 4d) 3, 4
18. An element Mercury will be place in which group ?a) Group 5 b) Group 6c) Group 7 d) Group 12
19. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?a) ns2 np1b) ns2 np3c) ns2 np4 d) ns2 np 1-6
20. Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?A. [Ne]3s1B. [Ar]3d3 4s2C. [Kr]4d10 5s2 5p5D. [Ar]3d10 4s1E. [Rn] 5f0 6d2 7s2Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a) B and E only b) A and C onlyc) D and E only d) A, C and D only
21. The answer of the calculation 2.568 × 5.8 ÷ 4.168 in significant figures will be?
a). 3.573 b). 3.57 c). 3.6 d). 3.78
22. In the formation of SO2 and SO3, the ratio of the weight of oxygen which combines with 10 kg of sulphur is?
a). 1 : 1 b) 2 : 3 c) 3 : 2 d) 3 : 4
23. Express 53 = 125 in logarithmic form
a) Log5125 = 3 b) Log53 = 125 c) Log35 = 125 d) Log1253 = 5
24. Find the value of ‘x’ in log x = – 17.52
a) 1016 × 2 b) 10-17× 3 c) 10-18× 3 d) 1018 x 6
25. One mole of a noble gas at 1 bar and 273 K occupies 22.7 litres. These experimental results was deduced from
a) Law of gaseous volumesb) Dalton’s atomic theoryc) Law of constant proportions d) None of these
26. The IUPAC name for the structural formula:a) 3, 4-dimethylhexaneb) 2, 3-diethylbutanec) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentaned) Heptane
27. Among the following, the one having longest chain is:a) neopentaneb) isopentanec) 2-methylpentaned) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
28. The IUPAC name of the compound:
29. Name of the compound given below is
30. The common name for a compound C6H5–CHO is
a) Benzophenoneb) Benzaldehydec) Benzoic acidd) Benzocarbaldehyde
32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codesA. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d)-(iv)B. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)C. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)D. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
33. Assertion: During mitotic anaphase, centromere of each chromosome splits and chromatids separate. Reason: During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite poles.a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.c) Assertion is true but reason is false.d) Both assertion and reason are false.
34. This option gives the correct sequence of events during mitosisa) condensation→nuclear membrane disassembly→crossing over→segregation→telophaseb) Condensation→arrangementat equator→centromere division→segregation→telophasec) Condensation→crossing over→nuclear membrane disassembly→segregation telophased) condensation→nuclear membrane disassembly→arrangement at equator→centromere division→segregation→telophase
34. When a cell has a stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
a) G2/M b) G1/Mc) G1/S d) M/G1
36. Animals in which anus is formed by blastopore are
a) Protostomes b) Deuterostomesc) Blastostomes d) Both A and B
37. The basic fundamental feature that is used to classify animal kingdom isa) Level of organizationb) Symmetryc) Segmentationd) All of these
38. The middle layer in the body wall of sponges is called
a) Mesogleab) Mesodermc) Blastocoel d) Endoderm
39. Which of the following phylum have tissue level of organization?
a) Porifera b) Aschelminthesc) Ctenophorad) Annelida
40. Select the wrong statement regarding notochord in chordatesa) It is mesodermally derivedb) It is a rod-like structurec) It is formed on the ventral side during embryonic developmentd) None of these
41. Which of the following restriction endonuclease forms sticky end?
a) Hind IIb) EcoRIc) EcoRVd) HaeIII
42. Match the following:a) I-d, ii-a,iii-b,iv-cb) I-a, ii-d,iii-b,iv-cc) I-c,ii-a,iii-d,iv-bd) I-b,ii-c,iii-a,iv-d
43. Select the wrong statement/s.A. Steps involved in PCR technique are denaturation, annealing, fixationB. In gel electrophoresis, DNA sample are stained with ethidium dibromideC. Bioreactor is used to convert raw materials biologically into specific productsOptions:
a) I and IIb) II and IIIc) III only d) I and III
44. Which of the following is not requirements of PCR?a) Enzymesb) DNA templatec) UV lightd) Primer
45. Select the correct pair.a) Meloidogyne incognita – Coleopteransb) ADA gene – adenosine deaminec) Bacillus thuriengiensis – nematoded) Germline gene therapy – reproductive cells
Welcome to your ZZR BANKING WEEKLY TEST-2 (14.06.2025)
Directions (1-5): In the following questions, a sentence is divided into four parts. One of these parts may have grammatical or idiomatic error in it. Choose the part containing error as your answer. If there is no error in the given sentence then choose option (e) as your answer.
1. India is all set to join (A)/ World Health Organization’s “solidarity trial” (B)/ aimed at rapid global search (C)/ for drugs to treat COVID-19 (E)/ No Error.
Directions (6-9): There are three sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the five options given below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (e) as your answer.
6. (i) In 2014, the RBI restored the long-standing prohibition on the entry of corporate houses into banking. (ii) Ramesh admits he done a mistake by failing to report at least a half dozen stock sales he made after being elected. (iii) Many Adivasi families are unlikely to benefit from the implementation of the Forest Rights Act in J&K.
Direction (10): The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part. If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e), i.e., “No Correction required” as your answer.
10. (I)/cooperation and compassion, respect for all human beings and indeed all forms of life (II)/that manifest in deep commitment to peace and non- violence in both action and thought. (III)(I) essentials of an ethical value system(II) at all human beings in all forms of life(III) which manifests in deep commitment
Directions (11-15): In the following questions five statements are given which are further divided into five parts. Use these statements to answer the questions followed.
(I) In the on-going debates around the three new pieces of agricultural (A)/ legislation and the farmers’ demand for continuation of minimum support prices (MSP),(B)/ questions have often been raised whether the government (C)/ should be using the taxpayers’ money to provide subsidies (D)/ to the farm community in this country. (E)(II) Leader of the Opposition in the Haryana Assembly (A)/ said on Thursday that in the last two months, (B)/ the central government has suffered two major setbacks,(C)/ making it evident that (D) / it have lost the trust of the people.(E)(III) The air quality of December this year was better (A)/ then last year in terms of the number of days (B)/ of “severe” air pollution and average daily air quality index (AQI),(C)/ according to an analysis (D)/ of theCentral Pollution Control Committee (CPCB) data.(E)(IV) The Delhi High Court has direct the (A)/ Medical Superintendent of All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) (B)/ to constitute a medical board to examine (C)/ the condition of a 25-week pregnant woman, (D)/ whose foetus is suffering from serious abnormalities.(E)(V) Under this, companies are allowed (A)/ to market the vaccine even (B)/ if they haven’t furnished (C)/ all the evident required to establish (D)/ the product’s safety and efficacy.(E)
11. In which part of the statement (II) has a grammatical error?
13. In which part of the statement (I) has a grammatical error?
1. Aminoacylation of tRNA is essential for(a) replication of RNA (b) formation of peptide bond (c) splicing (d) elongation of transcription
2. The transgenic plant ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato carries an artificial gene for(a) delayed ripening process (b) longer shelf life (c) enhanced flavour (d) all of these
3. The transgenic plant shows improvement in(a) yield (c) disease resistance (b) quality (d) all of these.
4. A nemotote Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of(a) tobacco (b) cotton (c) pea (d) flax
5. Golden rice should be included in the diet of a person suffering from(a) diabetes (b) night blindness (c) anaemia (d) beri beri.
6. During the processing of the prohormone “proinsulin” into the mature “insulin”(a) C-peptide is added to proinsulin (b) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin (c) B-peptide is added to proinsulin (d) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin.
7. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are(a) testis-androgen binding protein (b) epididymis-inhibin (c) testis-testosterone (d) seminal vesicle-LH.
8. ______is a small erectile organ lying at the upper junction of the labia minora.(a) Labia majora(b) Clitoris(c) Mons pubis (d) Vulva
9. Which of the following is the function of ovary?(a) Production of ovum (b) Production of hormones (c) Development of secondary sexual characters (d) All of these
10. Polar bodies are produced during the formation of(a) spermatocytes (b) oogonium (c) primary oocyte (d) secondary oocyte.
11. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 1
12. Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?(a) Spermatogonial cells (b) Germinal epithelial cells (c) Secondary spermatocytes (d) Primary spermatocytes
13. An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH(a) after completing meiosis II and before polar bodies are released (b) after completing meiosis I and before release of polar bodies (c) after completing mitosis (d) after completing meiosis I and after release of polar bodies.
14. Site of fertilisation in humans is(a) ampulla isthmus junction of oviduct (b) isthmus uterine part (c) infundibulum ampulla junction of fallopian tube (d) ovary
15. Hormone that prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy is produced by(a) corpus albicans (b) corpus luteum (c) Graafian follicle (d) corpora cardiaca.
16. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.(a) (i) equally, (ii) more (b) (i) less, (ii) more (c) (i) more, (ii) less (d) (i) more, (ii) equally
17. Who among the following performed experiment on Vicia faba?(a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Beadle and Tatum (c) Taylor (d) Nirenberg and Ochoa
18. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a(a) simple protein(b) RNA (c) ribonucleoprotein (d) repetitive DNA
19. During replication of DNA(a) the two daughter molecules develop from both the parental strand (b) RNA functions as template (c) one strand is from parent and one strand is freshly formed in the two daughter molecules (d) one daughter receives both the parental strands while the other daughter receives newly formed strands.
20. Identify the incorrect statement from the following options.(a) The trophoblast layer gets attached to the cervix and leads to implantation. (b) The chorionic villi and uterine become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (fetus) and maternal body called placenta. (c) The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord. (d) Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens, etc.
2. Which of the following heavy/radioisotopes is not suitable for DNA labelling based studies?
(a) 3H(b) 32p(c) 15N (d) 35S
3. A molecule to act as genetic material has the following properties (i) Should be able to replicate (ii) Structurally more stable (iii) Should be more reactive and labile (iv) Should provide scope for slow changes Choose the correct option.(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) only (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. In Hershey and Chase experiments, radioactive 32P was used to culture bacteriophages. It resulted in radioactive(a) viral proteins (b) viral DNA (c) plasma membrane of bacteria (d) bacterial capsule.
5. Transformation experiments in bacteria were first performed by(a) MacLeod(b) Griffith (c) Pasteur (d) Meselson and Stahl.
6. Griffith’s effect is called(a) transduction (b) transformation (c) translocation (d) all of these.
7. DNA replication is semiconservative as(a) only non-parent strand acts as template (b) both strands of new molecule are synthesised de novo (c) one of the strand in each new molecule is parental and the other is new (d) daughter strands are dispersive.
8. In DNA replication, the leading strand is the one which replicates in(a) 5’3′ direction continuously (b) 3’5′ direction continuously (c) 5’3′ direction discontinuously (d) 3’5′ direction discontinuously
9. Gel electrophoresis is a(a) technique of separation of charged molecules under the influence of magnetic field (b) technique of incorporation of DNA molecules into the cell through transient pores made due to electrical impulses (c) technique of separation of DNA fragments through the pores of agarose gel under the influence of electric field (d) none of these.
10. In pBR322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet”) has recognition site for which of the following restriction endonuclease?(a) HindIII (b) BamHI (c) EcoRI (d) Pstl
11. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of(a) pentose sugar and phosphate (b) hexose sugar and phosphate (c) purine and pyrimidine (d) triose sugar and phosphate
12. On an average, how many nitrogenous bases are present in one turn of DNA?(a) Four (b) Five (c) Ten (d) Eighteen
13. Central dogma of molecular biology was modified with the discovery of(a) ligase (b) RNA polymerase (c) DNA polymerase (d) reverse transcriptase
14. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in(a) Chromatography (b) tissue culture (c) PCR (d) reverse transcriptase
15. PBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. These are against(a) chloramphenicol and tetracycline (b) kanamycin and chloramphenicol (c) ampicillin and tetracycline (d) ampicillin and kanamycin.
16. The first step in recombinant DNA technology is(a) isolation of DNA (b) insertion of DNA (c) joining of sticky ends of DNA with its complementary DNA fragment (d) multiplication of DNA.
17. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to DNA site(a) regulator (b) promoter (c) enhancer (d) receptor
18. In eukaryotes, RNA polymersa III catalyses the synthesis(a)18 S rRNA(b) tRNA (c)mRNA (d)5.8 rRNA
19. Intron is part of RNA which(a) codes for protein synthesis (b) helps in joining pieces of DNA (c) does not code for protein synthesis (d) initiates transcription
20. tRNA attaches to mRNA and amino acid respectively at(a) anticodon loop and -CCA end (b) -CCA end and anticodon loop (c) anticodon loop and DHU loop (d) DHU loop and -CCA end.
1. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 32, respectively, are
(a) 11, 2, 3(b) 14, 4, 4(c) 12, 3, 4 (d) 13, 3, 4
(a) Unp – Db (b) Uuu – Rg(c) Uuo – Ts (d) Unn – Fm
(a) 0.5(b) 0.32(c) 0.15 (d) 0.24
(a) 1.25 g cm3 (b) 0.125 g L-1(c) 2.55 g cm3 (d) unpredictable.
(a) 5.85 g(b) 0.585 g (c) 0.0585 g(d) 0.0855 gDeselect Answer
20. The freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of A is equal to the freezing point of 10% aqueous solution of B. If the molecular mass of A is 60, then the molecular mass of B will be(a) 160 (b) 90(c) 45(d) 180Deselect Answer
(a) G2/M (b) G1/M(c)G1/S(d)M/G1
(a)G2 and M(b)Only G2(c)G1 and S(d)G0 and G1
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase(c) Anaphase(d) Telophase
(a) Metaphase(b) Anaphase(c) Interphase(d) Telophase
(a) 32(b) 16(c) 5(d) 10
(a) prophase(b) telophase(c) anaphase(d) metaphase.
(a) M phase(b) G1 phase(c) S phase(d) G2 phase.
(a) G1 S G2 M(b) M G1 G2 S(c) G1 G2 S M(d) S G1 G2 M
(a) Telophase(b) Metaphase(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
(a) telophase(b) prophase(c) metaphase(d) anaphase.