Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 5 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. In Drosophila, sex determination mechanism is

(a) XX-XO
(b) ZZ-ZW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XY-XO

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZW-ZZ
(b) ZZ-WW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XO-XX.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Haplo-diploid sex determination is observed in

(a) grasshopper
(b) hen
(c) Drosophila
(d) honey bee.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal recessive gene. What is the genotype of given parents?

(a) AA, aa
(b) aa, AA
(c) aa, Aa
(d) Aa, Aa

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Process that leads to variation in DNA is/are

(a) recombination
(b) linkage
(c) mutation
(d) both (a) and (c).

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A person with karyotype of XXY is affected by

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Thalassemia.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. _________is a point mutation.

(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Down’s syndrome

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans and Drosophila is similar because

a) females are heterozygous
b) males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes
c) all males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species
d) the ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Sex chromosomes of female is heteromorphic and male is homomorphic in

(a) human beings
(b) birds
(c) honey bees
(d) all of these.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which is incorrect about colour blindness?

a) This is due to defect in either red or green cone of eye resulting in failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
b) A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless her mother is a carrier and her father is colour blind.
c) If female has X^CX, then it is called carrier but when male has X^CY then it will be colour blind.
d) Out of total population of son of carrier woman, 25% have chances of being colour blind.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. For a haemophilic boy, the chromosome number will be

(a) 46
(b) 45
(c) 44
(d) 42.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Thalassemia and phenylketonuria are disorders due to

(a) recessive autosomal genes
(b) dominant autosomal genes
(c) dominant sex genes
(d) recessive sex genes.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

(a) The female parent is heterozygous.
(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.
(c) The trait under study could not be colour blind.
(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of female heterogamety and is found in
Reason: Male heterogamy is seen in moths where males produce two different types of gametes.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Among the given groups of characters, identify the group with recessive characters only?

(a) Dwarf, white flower at terminal position
(b) Dwarf, white flower at axial position
(c) Dwarf, violet colour of flower
(d) Round and yellow seeds, terminal flowers

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A plant heterozygous dominant for round seeds was crossed with a plant of wrinkled seeds. Which of the progenies agree with the expected result?

(a) 180 round and 300 wrinkled
(b) 305 round and 301 wrinkled
(c) 301 round and 1000 wrinkled
(d) 400 round and 300 wrinkled

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. How many types of gametes are found in F₁ progeny of cross between AABBCC and aabbcc?

(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 27
(d) 64

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Genotype is

(a) genetic composition of many organisms
(b) genetic composition of plastids
(c) genetic composition of germ cells
(d) genetic composition of an individual.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

(a) pod length
(b) seed shape
(c) flower position
(d) seed colour.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A pure tall plant can be differentiated from a hybrid tall plant

(a) by measuring length of plant
(b) by spraying gibberellins
(c) if all plants are tall after self-pollination
(d) if all plants are dwarf after self-pollination

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 4 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following is the most stable carbonium ion?

(a) C₆H₅-CH₂(b) CH₃-CH₂(c) C₆ H₅-CH₂-CH₂
(d) C₆ CH₅-CH-C₆ H₅

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂=CH-CI is due to

(a) inductive effect
(b) resonance stabilisation
(c) electromeric effect
(d) electronegativity

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(a) BCI₃(b) CH₃ OH
(c) NH₃(d) AICI₄^–

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The compound that does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is

(a) aniline
(b) glycine
(c) hydrazine
(d) urea

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by

(a) vacuum distillation
(b) steam distillation
(c) fractional distillation
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The enolic form of a acetone contains

(a) 8 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(b) 9 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 2 lone pair
(c) 9 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(d) 10 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 1 lone pair

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Common name of the compound C₆ H₅ CHO is

(a) anisole
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) salicylaldehyde
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Geometry of methyl free radical is

(a) pyramidal
(b) plana
(c) tetrahedral
(d) linear

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The purification of naphthalene can be done by

(a) filtration
(b) sublimation
(c) crystallization
(d) evaporation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Two substances having slightly different solubility can be separated by

(a) distillation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) crystallizatio
(d) fractional crystallization

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Geometry of methyl free radical is

(a) pyramidal
(b) planar
(c) tetrahedral
(d) linear
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The purification of naphthalene can be done by

(a) filtration
(b) sublimation
(c) crystallization
(d) evaporation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Two substances having slightly different solubility can be separated by

(a) distillation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) crystallization
(d) fractional crystallization
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Aniline is usually purified by

(a) chromatography technique
(b) by addition of oxalic acid
(c) fractional crystallization
(d) steam distillation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Wurtz reaction is

(a) 𝑅−𝐼>𝑅−𝐵𝑟>𝑅−𝐶𝐼
(b) 𝑅−𝐼<𝑅−𝐵𝑟<𝑅−𝐶𝐼
(c) 𝑅−𝐵𝑟>𝑅−𝐼=𝑅−𝐶𝐼
(d) 𝑅−𝐼>𝑅−𝐶𝐼>𝑅−𝐵𝑟
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following is not an aromatic compound?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Benzene is obtained when phenol is distilled with

(a) copper turning
(b) aluminium dust
(c) zinc dust
(d) pumice stone
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Identify the reagent from the following lish which can easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne.

(a) Bromine, CCI₄
(b) , Lindlar catalyst
(c) Dilute H₂ SO₄, HgSO₄(d) Ammoniacal solution

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which of the following species is aromatic?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) CH₃ CH₂ CH₂COOH+O₂(b) CH₃ CH₂ COOH
(c) CH₃ CH₂COOH+CO₂(d) CH₃ CH₂ COCH₃+HCOOH

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 3 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Two elements X (at. mass 16) and Y (at. mass = 14) combine to form compounds A, B and C. The ratio of different masses of Y which combines with a fixed mass of X in A, B and C is 1:3: 5. If 32 parts by mass of X combines with 84 parts by mass of Y in B, then in C, 16 parts by mass of X will combine with

(a) 28 parts by mass of Y
(b) 70 parts by mass of Y
(c) 32 parts by mass of Y
(d) 56 parts by mass of Y

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. 8 g of sodium chloride was allowed to react with 9.8 g of sulphuric acid. 12.0 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and gaseous hydrogen chloride were formed. Calculate the mass of the gas formed.

(a) 36 g
(b) 3.6 g
(c) 3.4 g
(d) 6.2 g

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5% by mass (atomic mass of Se = 78.4amu). Then, the minimum. molecular mass of enzyme which contains not more than one Se atom is

(a) 1.568 x 10⁴ amu
(b) 1.568 x 10⁷ amu
(c) 1.568 x 10³ amu
(d) 1.568 x 10⁶ amu

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The maximum number of molecules are present in

(a) 15 L of H₂ gas at S.T.P.
(b) 5 L of N₂ gas at S.T.P.
(c) 0.5 g of H₂ gas
(d) 10 g of O₂ gas

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. If 10²¹ molecules are removed from 100 mg CO₂, then number of moles of CO₂ left are

(a) 6.1 x 10^-4(b) 2.8 x 10^-3(c) 2.28 x 10^-3(d) 1.36 x 10^-2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. 6 g magnesite mineral on heating liberated carbon dioxide which measures 1.12 L at STP. What is the percentage purity of mineral?

(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Consider three hypothetical ionic compounds AB, A₂B and A₂B₃ where in all the compounds, B is in -2 oxidation state and A has a variable oxidation state. What is the correct order of lattice energy of these compounds?

(a) A₂B > AB > A₂B₃
(b) A₂B₃ > AB > A₂B
(c) AB > A₂B > A₂B₃
(d) A₂B₃ > A₂B > AB

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. If Avogadro number Na is changed from 6.022 x 10²³ mol^-l to 6.022 x 10²⁰ mol^-l, this would change

a) the mass of one mole of carbon
b) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
c) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
d) the definition of mass in units of grams.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂ When 0.1 mole of XY₂ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

(a) 40,30
(b) 60, 40
(c) 20,30
(d) 30, 20

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. An unknown chlorohydrocarbon has 3.55% of chlorine. If each molecule of the hydrocarbon has one chlorine atom only, chlorine atoms present in 1 g of chlorohydrocarbon are (Atomic wt. of Cl = 35.5 u; Avogadro constant = 6.023 x 10²³ mol^-l)
(a) 6.023 x 10²¹(b) 6.023 x 10²³(c) 6.023 x 10²⁰(d) 6.023 x 10⁹

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The places that were left empty by Mendeleev in his periodic table were for

(a) aluminium and silicon
(b) gallium and germanium
(c) arsenic and antimony
(d) molybdenum and tungsten.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following expressions is correct?

(a) v = a(z – b)
(b) v² = a(z – b)²(c) v = a²(z – b)²(d) v² = a²(z – b)²

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which one of the following is a metalloid?

(a) Phosphorus
(b) Antimony
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Bismuth

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵ represents

(a) electronegative element
(b) an element from 18^th group
(c) 4^th period and 5^th group
(d) none of these.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which one pair of atoms or ions will have same configuration?

(a) F⁺ and Ne
(b) Li⁺ and He^–(c) Na and K
(d) Cl^– and Ar

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The size of isoelectronic species F^–, Ne, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ is affected by

(a) nuclear charge (Z)
(b) interelectronic repulsion in the valence shell
(c) valence principal quantum number (n)
(d) none of these factors.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. In any period, the valency of an element with respect to hydrogen

a) increases one by one from IA to VIIA
b) decreases one by one from IA to VIIA
c) increases one by one from IA to IVA and then decreases from VA to VIIA one by one
d) decreases one by one from IA to IVA and then increases from VA to VIIA one by one.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which of the following oxides is most basic?

(a) Bi₂O₃
(b) SeO₂(c) Al₂O₃
(d) Sb₂O₃

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which oxide of N is isoelectronic with CO₂? 2

(a) NO₂(b) NO
(c) N₂O
(d) N₂O₃

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. From the following electronic configuration which will have the highest electron affinity?

(a) 1s² 2s² 2p³
(b) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵(c) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
(d) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

51. Which of the following is the most stable carbonium ion?

(a) C₆H₅-CH₂(b) CH₃-CH₂(c) C₆ H₅-CH₂-CH₂
(d) C₆ CH₅-CH-C₆ H₅

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

52. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂=CH-CI is due to

(a) inductive effect
(b) resonance stabilisation
(c) electromeric effect
(d) electronegativity

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

53. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(a) BCI₃(b) CH₃ OH
(c) NH₃(d) AICI₄^–

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

54. The compound that does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is

(a) aniline
(b) glycine
(c) hydrazine
(d) urea

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

55. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by

(a) vacuum distillation
(b) steam distillation
(c) fractional distillation
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

56. The enolic form of a acetone contains

(a) 8 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(b) 9 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 2 lone pair
(c) 9 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(d) 10 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 1 lone pair

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

57. Common name of the compound C₆ H₅ CHO is

(a) anisole
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) salicylaldehyde
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

58. Geometry of methyl free radical is

(a) pyramidal
(b) plana
(c) tetrahedral
(d) linear

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

59. The purification of naphthalene can be done by

(a) filtration
(b) sublimation
(c) crystallization
(d) evaporation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

60. Two substances having slightly different solubility can be separated by

(a) distillation
(b) fractional distillation
(c) crystallizatio
(d) fractional crystallization

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

BIOLOGY
61. In Drosophila, sex determination mechanism is

(a) XX-XO
(b) ZZ-ZW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XY-XO

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

62. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZW-ZZ
(b) ZZ-WW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XO-XX.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

63. Haplo-diploid sex determination is observed in

(a) grasshopper
(b) hen
(c) Drosophila
(d) honey bee.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

64. Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal recessive gene. What is the genotype of given parents?

(a) AA, aa
(b) aa, AA
(c) aa, Aa
(d) Aa, Aa

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

65. Process that leads to variation in DNA is/are

(a) recombination
(b) linkage
(c) mutation
(d) both (a) and (c).

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

66. A person with karyotype of XXY is affected by

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Thalassemia.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

67. _________is a point mutation.

(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Down’s syndrome

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

68. Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans and Drosophila is similar because

a) females are heterozygous
b) males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes
c) all males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species
d) the ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

69. Sex chromosomes of female is heteromorphic and male is homomorphic in

(a) human beings
(b) birds
(c) honey bees
(d) all of these.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

70. Which is incorrect about colour blindness?

a) This is due to defect in either red or green cone of eye resulting in failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
b) A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless her mother is a carrier and her father is colour blind.
c) If female has X^CX, then it is called carrier but when male has X^CY then it will be colour blind.
d) Out of total population of son of carrier woman, 25% have chances of being colour blind.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

71. For a haemophilic boy, the chromosome number will be

(a) 46
(b) 45
(c) 44
(d) 42.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

72. Thalassemia and phenylketonuria are disorders due to

(a) recessive autosomal genes
(b) dominant autosomal genes
(c) dominant sex genes
(d) recessive sex genes.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

73. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

(a) The female parent is heterozygous.
(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.
(c) The trait under study could not be colour blind.
(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

74. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of female heterogamety and is found in
Reason: Male heterogamy is seen in moths where males produce two different types of gametes.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

75. Among the given groups of characters, identify the group with recessive characters only?

(a) Dwarf, white flower at terminal position
(b) Dwarf, white flower at axial position
(c) Dwarf, violet colour of flower
(d) Round and yellow seeds, terminal flowers

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

76. A plant heterozygous dominant for round seeds was crossed with a plant of wrinkled seeds. Which of the progenies agree with the expected result?

(a) 180 round and 300 wrinkled
(b) 305 round and 301 wrinkled
(c) 301 round and 1000 wrinkled
(d) 400 round and 300 wrinkled

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

77. How many types of gametes are found in F₁ progeny of cross between AABBCC and aabbcc?

(a) 3
(b) 8
(c) 27
(d) 64

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

78. Genotype is

(a) genetic composition of many organisms
(b) genetic composition of plastids
(c) genetic composition of germ cells
(d) genetic composition of an individual.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

79. In classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

(a) pod length
(b) seed shape
(c) flower position
(d) seed colour.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

80. A pure tall plant can be differentiated from a hybrid tall plant

(a) by measuring length of plant
(b) by spraying gibberellins
(c) if all plants are tall after self-pollination
(d) if all plants are dwarf after self-pollination

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

81. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.

A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d)-(iv)
B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
D) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

82. Assertion: During mitotic anaphase, centromere of each chromosome splits and chromatids separate.
Reason: During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite poles.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

83. Identify the given mitotic phases of cell cycle

A) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Prophase
B) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Telophase
C) (a)-Telophase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Anaphase
D) (a)-Metaphase, (b)-Prophase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Anaphase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

84. When a cell has a stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

(a) G₂/M
(b) G₁/M
(c)G₁/S
(d)M/G₁

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

85. During which phase(s) of the cell cycle, the amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

(a)G₂ and M
(b)Only G₂(c)G₁ and S
(d)G₀ and G₁

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

86. _________________is the best stage to observe the shape, size, and number of chromosomes

(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

87. In which of the following stages, a chromosome is minimum coiled?

(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Interphase
(d) Telophase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

88. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: At the end of prophase, cell do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus.
Statement II: The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the end of first phase of mitosis.

a) Both statements I and II are correct.
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
c) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

89. How many mitotic divisions must have a cell undergo to produce 32 cells?

(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 5
(d) 10

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

90. Syncytium formation occurs if

a) No karyokinesis takes place
b) Both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are prevented
c) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
d) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

91. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes in

(a) prophase
(b) telophase
(c) anaphase
(d) metaphase.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

92. As the prophase comes to an end, which of the following can be seen in the cell?

a) Nucleolus
b) Formation of spindle fibres
c) ER and Golgi complex
d) Nuclear membrane
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

93. Mitosis occurs in

a) haploid individuals
b) diploid individuals
c) both (A) and (B)
d) in bacteria only.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

94. Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

a) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
b) Reorganisation of all cellular components takes place.
c) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
d) Nuclear division takes place.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This process occurs at the end of

(a) M phase
(b) G₁ phase
(c) S phase
(d) G₂ phase.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

96. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(a) G₁ S G₂ M
(b) M G₁ G₂ S
(c) G₁ G₂ S M
(d) S G₁ G₂ M

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

97. There are 14 chromosomes in each cell and 2C DNA after M-phase in a plant. Find out the correct match in the following table.

A) (a) and (c) are correct.
B) (a) and (b) are correct.
C) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
D) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

98. In cell cycle, during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

(a) Telophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

99. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases or stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

a) C-karyokinesis
b) D- synthetic phase
c) A- cytokinesis
d) B- metaphase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

100. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane reappears in

(a) telophase
(b) prophase
(c) metaphase
(d) anaphase.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 2 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A ring of mass m and radius R has four particles attached to the ring as shown in the figure. The centre of the ring is at origin. Find the CM of the system.

(a) (0, R)
(b) (R, 0)
(c) (0,0)
(d) (R√2, 0)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are placed touching each other with their centres on a straight line. Their centre are marked P, Q and R The distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The centre of mass of three bodies each of mass 1 kg located at the points (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) in the XY plane is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The maximum velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 7 mm is 4.4 m s^-1 .The period of oscillation is

(a) 100 s
(b) 0.01 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 0.1 s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. When the particle is at a distance of 1 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then, its time period in second is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. There is a simple pendulum hanging from the ceiling of lift. When the lift is standing still, the time period of pendulum is T. If the resultant acceleration becomes g/4, then the new time period of the pendulum is

(a) 0.8 T
(b) 0.25 T
(c) 2 T
(d) 4T
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A body starts from rest from the origin with an acceleration of 3 m/s² along the -axis and 4 m/s² along the -axis. Its distance from the origin after 2 will be

(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. particle moving with a velocity equal to 0.4 m/s is subjected to an acceleration of 15 m/s² for 2 in a direction at the right angle to its direction of motion. The resultant velocity is

(a) 0.7 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s
(c) 0.1 m/s
(d) 0.7 – 0.1 m/s

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A woman presses against a wall with a force of 10 N for 10 min. The work she does is

(a) 0
(b) 200 J
(c) 1224 J
(d) 12 kJ

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following units is the unit for measuring work done?

(a) Joule
(b) Watt
(c) Newton
(d) Volt

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A box of mass 2 kg is moving at a constant speed of 3 m s^-1 What is the kinetic energy of the box?

(a) 2 J
(b) 3 J
(c) 9 J
(d) 18 J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A 50 kg mass has a P.E. of 4.9 kJ relative to the ground. The height of the mass above the ground is

(a) 10 m
(b) 98 m
(c) 960 m
(d) 245 km

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A 1000 kg motor car travels at a constant speed of 30 m s^-1 along a road with a frictional force of 100 N. What is the power generated by the motorcar? (g = 10 m s¯²)

(a) 3000 W
(b) 4500 W
(c) 300 000 W
(d) 450 000 W

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A spring 40 mm long is stretched by the application of a force. If 10 N force required to stretch the spring through 1 mm, then work done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is

(a) 84 J
(b) 68 J
(c) 23 J
(d) 8J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm, and its spring constant is 4000 N/m. A mass of 20 kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is, (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)

(a) 4.9 cm
(b) 0.49 cm
(c) 9.4 cm
(d) 0.94 cm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 163 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Withdrawal of which hormone is the cause of menstruation?

(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) LH
(d) FSH
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(i) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
(ii) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline, and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of bacteria) infection.
(iii) Several genes (called cellular oncogenes) have been identified in normal cells which when activated under certain conditions, could transformation of the cells.
(iv) The vaccine also generates memory – B and T cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
(v) HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes.
(a) (i) and (v)
(b) (ii) any
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Assertion : Interspecific competition is the only potent force in organic evolution.
Reason: Unexceptionally two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Select the correct matching of a hormone,its function.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the given statements (i-iv) are correct about bioreactor?
(i) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for obtaining the desired product.
(ii) Raw materials are biological which are converted into specific products.
(iii) Slirred-tank reactor is horizontal in shape.
(iv) Large volume of culture cannot be processed.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation?

(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen
(b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
(c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Assertion: Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful.
Reason: Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and ® is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
b) A-(i), B(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(a) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
(b) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
(c) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.
(d) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Read the following (i to v) statements and select the one option that contains both correct statements
(i) Z-line is present in the centre of the light band .
(ii) Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line
(iii) The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band
(iv) Light band contains only thin filaments
(v) Actin filaments are thicker as compared to the myosin filaments.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (v) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii)and(iv)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 162 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Change over time within an evolutionary lineage (phyletic change).

a) is the only important evolutionary- process.
b) rarely occurs without geographic separation of populations.
c) is the main means by which new species arise.
d) cannot account for the proliferation of species.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Read the following statements.
(i) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(ii) Echinoderms are triploblaslic and coelomale animals.
(iii) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(iv) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(v) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (ii).(iii) and (v) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) and (v)are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i). (iv) and (v) are correct
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(a) Partial pressure of CO₂ can interfere with O₂ binding with haemoglobin
(b) Higher H⁺ cone, in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Low Pco₂ in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(d) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Arrange the following human ancestors in ascending order, from earliest to latest:
A. Homo erectus
B Australopithecus
C Homo hahilis
D. Homo neanderthelensis

(a) A-B-C-D
(b) B-A-C-D
(c) (c) B-C-A-D
(d) D-C-A-B
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. When CO7 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following is a single U shaped bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull?

(a) Hyoid
(b) Malleus
(c) Sacrum
(d) Scapula
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which endocrine gland plays important role in immunity?

(a) Spleen
(b) Thymus
(c) Pineal
(d) Adrenal medulla

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is false?

(a) It is secreted by -cells of Langerhans.
(b) It acts antagonistically to insulin.
(c) It decreases blood sugar level.
(d) The gland responsible for its secretion is heterocrine gland.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Select the correct match of the types of organs given in column I with their role in excretion given in column II.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineered living organism?

(a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Statement 1: Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level to prolactin.
Statement II: Prolactin stimulates the release of gonadotrophins. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. What is mode of bacterial resistance against antibiotics?

(a) Development of thick mucilaginous layer
(b) Alteration of cell membrane
(c) Mutation in bacteria
(d) All the above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements
(i) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal.
(ii) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.
(iii) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.
(iv) Pure DNA can be visualised directly by exposing to UV radiation. Choose correct answer from the options given below
(a) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from

(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) AV node
(c) chordae tendinae
(d) SA node
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(a) Lecithin – A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(c) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(d) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary bladder is

(a) polyurea
(b) micturition
(c) mellitus
(d) menstruation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?

(a) WBC and serum
(b) all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in:

(a) More concentrated urine
(b) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(c) No urine formation
(d) More diluted urine
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a) myofibril
(b) sarcomere
(c) Z-band
(d) cross bridges
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 161 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Assertion: Hybrid is formed by cross between two organisms that are different in one or more than one traits.

Reason: Mendel crossed two plants differing in one trait to obtain F₁ plants which is a monohybrid cross. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Statement I: DNA fingerprinting is very well known for its application in paternity testing in case of disputes.
Statement II: It employs the principle of DNA polymorphism. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Study the pedigree chart given below: What does it show?

(a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(c) Inheritance of a recessive sex – linked disease like haemophilia
(d) Inheritance of a sex -linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Assertion: CO₂ diffuses only from tissue to alveoli and not in reverse direction.

Reason: CO₂ is 10 times more soluble than O₂. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In which of the following option the partial pressure of oxygen or carbon-di-oxide is correctly described?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait:

(a) insect resistance
(b) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) high protein content
(d) high vitamin-A content

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for:

(a) Study of enzymes
(b) Genetic transformation
(c) DNA sequencing
(d) Genetic Fingerprinting

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

(a) amino groups on the amino acids
(b) R groups on the amino acids
(c) amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
(d) peptide bonds

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Members from how many given phylum possess external fertilization?
Hemichordata, Platyhelminthes, Ctenophora, Porifera, Echinodermata, Arthropoda

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Intercalated discs are the communication junctions between the cells of

(a) cardiac muscles
(b) striped muscles
(c) adipose tissue
(d) nerve and striated muscles

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like proboscis gland is present?

(a) Hemichordata
(b) Chordata
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Annelida

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Mesorchium in frogs is associated with:

(a) Testes
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Both(a)&(b)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are

(a) Disposable contraceptive devices
(b) Reusable contraceptives
(c) IUDs
(d) Implants

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Select the correct statements regarding oogenesis.
(i) It is initiated during the embryonic development stage when millions of oogonia are formed within each ovary.
(ii) Graafian follicle releases primary oocyte from the ovary by ovulation.
(iii) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
(iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicles grows in size and completes its second meiotic division.
(v) Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of zona pellucida.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) all the five statements

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Bulbourethral gland is present in

(a) Males and is another name for Uterus masculina
(b) Females and is another name for Bertholin’s gland
(c) Males and is another name for Cowper‘s gland
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Assertion: Prolactin is also called the ‘milk ejection hormone’.
Reason: Oxytocin stimulates the smooth muscle contractions of the mammary glands.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following is to be expected?

a) The urine will be more concentrated
b) The urine will be more dilute
c) There will be no urine formation
d) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formedDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 160 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA replication

(a) Leading strand is formed 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(b) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(c) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(d) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 3’⟶ 5’ direction
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The C₄ plants arc photosynthetically more efficient than C₃ plants because:

(a) the CO₂ compensation point is more
(b) CO₂ generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(c) the CO₂ efflux is not prevented
(d) they have more chloroplasts
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers is

(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) consumer food chain
(d) predator food chain
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Independent assortment of genes does not lake place when

(a) genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(b) genes are linked and located on same chromosomes
(c) genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
(d) All the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because

(a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A small segment of DNA contains the base sequence CGT. If an mRNA transcript is made that includes this DNA sequence, what will be the anticodon on the tRNA that will bind to the corresponding mRNA codon for this DNA triplet?

(a) CGT
(b) GCA
(c) CGU
(d) GCT
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Phosphofructokinase is inhibited by H⁺ ions and hence the rate of glycolysis:

(a) increases when pH falls
(b) decreases when pH falls significantly
(c) neither increase or decrease
(d) either increase or decrease

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which one of the following is incorrect about the activities associated with PS-I and PS-II in non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

a) Water is oxidised in PS -II, but not in PS -I.
b) Photons (light) are needed to activate both PS -I and PS-II
c) Photolysis of water, formation of ATP + NADPH + H occur.
d) Production of NADPH + H⁺is associated with PS – II, but not with PS -I. 5’⟶ 3’
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The C₄ plants arc photosynthetically more efficient than C₃ plants because:

(a) the CO₂ compensation point is more
(b) CO₂ generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(c) the CO₂ efflux is not prevented
(d) they have more chloroplasts

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which is the correct combination?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is not currently a major cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?

(a) Overexploitation
(b) Global warming
(c) Habitat destruction
(d) Introduction of foreign predators and disease
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. ABO blood group system is due to

(a) multifactor inheritance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) epistasis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

(a) Yeast – statins
(b) Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
(d) Aspergillus niger – citric acid
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer in number.

Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as food at the higher level.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote.
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while gymnospermic one is N.
(iii) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm.
(iv) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte.
(v) Endosperm develop at the chalazal end.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only(iii)
(c) (iv) and (v)
(d) only (ii)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 159 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

(a) Housefly
(b) Firefly
(c) Grasshopper
(d) Cockroach
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the leaf?
(i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the stem.
(ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
(iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for reproduction.
(v) A typical leaf consists of 4 main parts
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called

(a) Complementary cells
(b) Subsidiary cells
(c) Bulliform cells
(d) Lenticels
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Statement I: Synapsis of homologous chromosome occurs during prophase I.
Statement II: Nucleoli may reappear in telophase I.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced, this happens during.

(a) dark phase of photosynthesis
(b) light phase of photosynthesis
(c) Photorespiration
(d) Calvin cycle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Assertion : Mitosis division results in the production of diploid cells.
Reason : Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.

a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Filiform apparatus is found in

(a) synergids
(b) anther wall
(c) secondary nucleus
(d) egg cell
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Statement I: The events ’from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enters the ovule’ are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
Statement II: Pollen-pistil interaction is mediated by chemical components of the ovule.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correctDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development gynaecomastia, and is sterile?

(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Edward syndrome
(d) Down’s syndrome
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Statement I: Stop codons for tRNAs are UAA, UAG, UGA. Statement II: tRNAs are not specific for each amino acid.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correctDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Statement I: Genetic diversity comprises of different type of gene in different type species as well as same species.
Statement II: Amphibian species diversity is more in Eastern Ghats than the Western Ghat.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Assertion: After 24 hours, toddy becomes unpalatable.
Reason: The fermentation of toddy is continued by naturally occurring yeasts.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Organisms which are indicator of pollution of air are

(a) Mosses
(b) Lichens
(c) Mushrooms
(d) Puffballs
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Statement I: Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and tapetum.
Statement II: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correctDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Species interaction with negative influence on both is referred to as

(a) amensalism
(b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
(d) competition
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which of the following is a free living aerobic non- photosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Azospirillum
(d) Nostoc
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. C₄ acid, formed in the mesophyll of C₄ plants leaf during photosynthesis is

(a) OAA or malic acid or aspartic acid
(b) pyruvic acid
(c) succinic acid
(d) fumaric acid
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Azotobacter and Beijerinckia are the examples of

(a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(c) ammonifying bacteria
(d) disease causing bacteria
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 158 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. IUPAC name of is

a) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
b) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
c) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride
d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chlorideDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume and simultaneously heated to twice in initial temperature, the change in entropy (ΔS ) is

a) C_V In2

b) C_P In2

c) R In 2

d) (C_V -R) In 2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The geometry of and are Ni(CO)₄ and [Ni(PPh₃)₂ Cl₂] are

(a) both square planar
(b) tetrahedral and square planar
(c) both tetrahedral
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb calorimeter, and w corresponds to

(a) ΔU < 0, w = 0
(b) ΔU < 0, w < 0
(c) ΔU > 0, w = 0
(d) ΔU >0, w > 0

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to different carbon atoms in alkanes has the order

(a) Tertiary> Primary > Secondary
(b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In most cases, for a rise of 10 K temperature the rate constant is doubled to tripled. This is due to the reason that

(a) collision frequency increases by a factor of 2 to 3.
(b) fraction of molecules possessing threshold energy increases by a factor of 2 to 3.
(c) Activation energy is lowered by a factor of 2 to 3.
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following colligative property can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids) with greatest precision?

(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Elevation of boiling point
(c) Depression of freezing point
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of:

(a) Electrostatic attractions
(b) van der Waals forces
(c) Dipole – Dipole interactions
(d) Hydrogen bonding

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Assertion : Threshold frequency is the maximum frequency required for the ejection of electron from the metal surface.
Reason : Threshold frequency is characteristic of a metal.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
a) IF₇< IF₅ <CIF₃< XeF₂
b) IF₇< XeF₂ < CIF₂< IF₅
c) IF₇< CIF₃< XeF₂< IF₅
d) IF₇< XeF₂ < IF₅ < CIF₃Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. An open beaker of water in equilibrium with water vapour is in a sealed container. When a few grams of glucose are added to the beaker of water, the rate at which water molecules:

(a) leaves the vapour increases
(b) leaves the solution increases
(c) leaves the solution decreases
(d) leaves the vapour decreases
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

(a) Mercury
(b) Potassium
(c) Oxygen
(d) IodineDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Statement I: In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine.

Statement II: RNA molecules are of three types m-RNA, r-RNA and t-RNA and they all perform different functions.

(a) Both statement I and II are correct.
(b) Both statement 1 and II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 13, 2025

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