Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to produce enzyme …….

(a) invertase
(b) pectinase
(c) lipase
(d) cellulase

2. Select the wrong statement.

(a) Maximum species diversity is associated with tropical rain forest.
(b) Only biotic factors affect the magnitude of primary productivity.
(c) Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional.
(d) GFC is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic Eco-system.

3. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:

(a) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem.
(b) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(c) Cambium is absent.
(d) There are no vessels with perforations.

4. Identify free living bacterial biofertlizer………

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Nostoc
(d)Bacillus thuringiensis

5. A template strand of DNA has base sequence CATGATTAC. New strand synthesized on it will be:

(a) GATCAUATG
(b) GТАСТААCG
(c) GAACTAATG
(d) GTACTAATG

6. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Zoological Nomenclature and correctly described?

a) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.
c) Felis tigris-The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests
d) coli – Full name Entamoeba coli a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.

7. After childbirth a woman is not able to release milk to feed her child. Which hormone could help in milk ejection?

(a) Prolactin
(b) Pitocin
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone

8. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of:

(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) tRNA
(d) hnRNA

9. Find the odd one out.

(a) Sea cucumber
(b) Sea urchin
(c) Sea anemone
(d) Sea lily

10. Neoplastic transformation may occur as a result of:

(a) Non-ionizing radiation like X-rays.
(b) Ionizing radiation like UV-rays.
(c) Non-ionizing gamma rays.
(d) Both ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.

11. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?

(a) Metagenesis
(b) Gastrovascular cavity
(c) Diploblastic
(d) Cnidoblast

12. Uricotelic mode of excreting nitrogenous wastes is found in:

(a) Reptiles and birds
(b) Birds and annelids
(c) Amphibians and reptile
(d) Insects and amphibians

13. Whose experiments cracked DNA and discovered triplet nature of genetic code?

(a) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) Hershey and Chase
(d) Morgan and Sturtevant

14. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD?

(a) Lippe’s loop
(b) Multiload-375
(c) LNG-20
(d) Progestasert

15. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.
(d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output

16. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to blood.

(a) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
(b) It consists of formed elements and plasma.
(c) Blood cells and plasma both are responsible for trans-portation of O₂ and CO₂
(d) Cells of blood form matrix and structural proteins like other connective tissues.

17. The most abundant protein in animals is ___ and most abundant protein on Earth is ____respectively.
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.

(a) RuBisCo and Elastin
(b) Collagen and Elastin
(c) RuBisCo and Collagen
(d) Collagen and RuBisCO

18. C-peptide of human insulin is

(a) a part of mature insulin molecule.
(b) responsible for its biological activity.
(c) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges.
(d) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin.

19. Select the Taxon mentioned which represent both marine and fresh water species.

(a) Echinoderms   
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) Cnidaria

20. The figure shows the schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option labelled with its functions.

(a) A – pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, pO₂ = 60 mm Hg
(b) B – pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, pO₂ = 90 mm Hg
(c) C – vena cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO₂ = 45 mm Hg
(d) D – dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to partsm pO₂ = 95 mm Hg

1. Match the following microbes with the Microbes Product:
A. Aspergillus niger                 i. Lactic acid
B. Acetobacter aceti                ii. Butyric acid
C. Clostridium butylicum      iii. Acetic acid
D. Lactobacillus                       iv. Citric acid

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

2. Which of the following is not true for an eukaryotic cell?

a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
b) 80S type of ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm.
c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA.
d) Membrane bound organelles are present.

3. What is the genotypic ratio in test cross for a dihybrid cross if two genes are completely linked?

(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 1:1
(c) 9:3:3:1
(d) 3:1

4. An organic non-protein substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is:

(a) Coenzyme
(b) Apoenzyme
(c) Holoenzyme
(d) Isoenzyme

5. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

(a) Mesophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Psammophytes
(d) Hydrophytes

6. In the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were present. The proportion of different bases were: Adenine 29%; Guanine = 17%; Cytosine = 32%, Thymine 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule, it can be concluded that:

(a) It is a single stranded linear RNA.
(b) It is single stranded linear DNA.
(c) It is a double stranded linear DNA.
(d) It is a double stranded circular DNA.

7. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used:

(a) As selectable markers,
(b) To select healthy vectors.
(c) As sequences from where replication starts.
(d) To keep the culture free of infection.

8. Which one of the following organisms is not a eukaryote?

(a) Paramecium caudatum
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Euglena viridis
(d) Amoeba proteus

9. The end products of fermentation is
(1) CO₂                          (2) Ethanol
(3) Oxygen             (4) Acetaldehyde

(a) (1) only
(b) (1) and (2) only
(c) (2) and (3) only
(d) (3) and (4) only

10. The osmotic expansion of a cells kept in water is chiefly regulated by:

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuoles 
(c) Plastids
(d) Ribosomes

11. Feedstock for biodiesel can primarily be obtained from

(a) Nymphaea
(b) Abelmoschus
(c) Triticum
(d) Jatropha

12. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having:

a) Spermatozoids
b) Conducting system
c) Separate gametophytes
d) Archegonia

13. There are three major types of RNAs present in bacteria and each of them has specific functions.
i) mRNA-Provides the template for translation.
(ii) tRNA-Brings polypeptide chain and reads the transcription unit.
(iii) rRNA – Plays structural and catalytic role during translation.
Identify the type(s) of RNA with its incorrect matching of function

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only (i)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) only (ii)

14. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) (i) and (ii)     
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

15. Which one of the following statements is correct about Bryophytes?

a) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent.
b) Sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte.
c) Gametophyte is dependent upon Sporophyte.
d) Inconspicuous gametophyté is present.

16. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

(a) Lenticels
(b) Complimentary cell
(c) Subsidiary cells
(d) Bulliform cells

17. Which type of diversity is in terms of shown by Rauwolfia vomitoria the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces?

(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity
(c) ecological diversity
(d) biodiversity

18. Which of the following component of phloem is made up of sclerenchymatous cells?

(a) Companion cells
(b) Bast fiber
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Xylem fiber

19. Which is the basic requirement for any type of ecosystem. to function and sustain?

(a) Constant output of solar energy
(b) Constant input of solar energy
(e) Organic substances
(d) Organic substances dissolved in water

20. Which is the basic requirement for any type of ecosystem to function and sustain?

(a) Constant output of solar energy
(b) Constant input of solar energy
(c) Organic substance
(d) Organic substances dissolved in water.

1. Which is less general in characters as compared to genus?

(a) Family
(b) Class
(c) Division
(d) Species

2. Which one is not a hot spot of India?

(a)Western Ghats
(b)Aravalli Hills
(c)Indo-Burma
(d)Himalaya

3. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is:

(a) Mesosome
(b) Lysosome
(c) Microsome
(d) Ribosome

4. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:

(a) Cucumber
(b) Guava
(c) Plum
(d) Brinjal

5. In which one of the following processes, carbon dioxide is not released?

(a) Aerobic respiration in animals
(b) Alcoholic fermentation
(c) Lactate fermentation
(d) Aerobic respiration in plants

6. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to:

(a) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(c) Action of gut microorganism
(d) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

7. Which of the given part of oxysome is a peripheral membrane protein and contains the site for ATP synthesis?

(a) Headpiece
(b) Base
(c) Stalk
(d) F₀– part

8. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is

(a) Albugo
(b) Ustilago
(c) Puccinia
(d)Colletotrichum

9. Chiasmata become clearly visible during …….. stage.

(a) diplotene
(b) metaphase-I
(c) anaphase-
(d) pachytene

10. Place the following event of translation in the correct sequence:
(i) Binding of met-tRNA to the start codon.
(ii) Covalent bonding between two amino acids.
(iii) Binding of second tRNA.
(iv) Joining of small and large ribosome subunits.

(a) iii, iv, i, ii
(b) i, iv, iii, ii
(c) iv, iii, ii, i
(d) ii, iii, iv, i

11. PGA as the first carbon dioxide fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of

(a) Gymnosperm
(b) Angiosperm
(c) Alga
(d) Bryophyte

12. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium:

(a) Penicillium roqueforti
(b) Penicillium camembertii
(c) Lactobacillus
(d)Propionibacterium sharmanii

13. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of:

(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Probes
(c) Selectable markers
(d) Ligases

14. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.

a) Chloroplast has 70S ribosomes.
b) Nucleolus is not bound by any membrane.
c) RER helps in synthesis of fats and proteins.
d) Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.

15. Which of the given character of pea plants is seen only in pure lines?

(a) Round seeds
(b) Yellow pods
(c) Full Pods
(d) Violet flowers

16. A pair of plants which can prevent both autogamy as well as geitonogamy is:

(a) Cucurbits and coconut
(b) Coconut and papaya
(c) Cucurbits and date palm
(d) Date palm and papaya

17. Read the following statements.
Statement A: In primary structure of a protein, the left end is represented by the first amino acid and the right. end by the last amino acid.
Statement B: In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called the non-reducing end.
Choose the correct option:

(a) Both the statements are correct
(b) Both the statements are incorrect
(c) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
(d) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

18. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify:

a) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.
c) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
d) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively super-coiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

19. The outermost layer of macromolecules in the prokaryotic cell envelope is………

(a) cell wall
(b) cell membrane
(c) glycocalyx
(d) peptidoglycan

20. A typical angiosperm anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?

(a) 200
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 600

1. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: SF₆ exists but SH₆ does not.
Statement II: dπ-pπ bonding cannot take place in SH₆
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
b) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

2. What is the correct IUPAC name of the following coordination compound.
[Cr(py)₃ Cl₃]

a) Trichlorotripyridinium chromium (III)
b) Tripyridiniumtrichloro chromium (III)
c) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (III)
d) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (II)

3. The incorrect statements among the following is:

a) Glucose on oxidation with Br₂ / H₂O gives gluconic acid.
b) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.
c) The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called furanose structure.
d) The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose are anomers of each other.

4. How many isomers are possible for coordination complex [Co(NH₃)₅ (NO₂)] (NO₃)₂.

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) 12

5. The numbers of mole of phenylhydrazine needed to form fructosazone when react with fructose is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

7. Statement I: Compounds containing -CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids.
      Statement II: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with Li A1H₄ .

a) Both statement I and II are correct.
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

8. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted in the given figure. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol^-1 is:

(a) 2/R
(b) 1/R                 
(c) R
(d) 2R

9. The incorrect statement is:

(a) Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral
(b) In manganate and permanganate ions, the -bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen and d- orbitals of manganese
(c) Manganate and permanganate ions are paramagnetic
(d) Manganate ion is green in colour and permanganate ion is purple in colour

1. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant, what volume will the oxygen occupy at 760 mm pressure?

(a) 365 ml
(b) 2 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 20 ml

2. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of 1-butyne

3.

Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?

(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (i)
(d) (1) and (ii)

4. Consider the following statements.
(1) XeF₄  is colourless crystalline solid and undergoes sub-limation.
(2) XeOF₂ is colourless volatile liquid.
(3) XeO₃ is colourless explosive solid.
The correct statements are:

(a) (1) and (2) only
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (1) and (3) only
(d) (1), (2) and (3)

5. A solution has 1: 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm of Hg for pentane and 120 mm of Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:

(a) 0.549
(b) 0.200
(c) 0.786
(d) 0.478

6. One mole of Al³⁺ discharged completely by using charge?

(a) 3Fmole of Al³⁺ 
(b) IF
(c) 0.3F
(d) 2F

7. In which of the following molecules/ions BF₃ NO^–₂, NH^–₂and H₂O, the central atom is sp” hybridised?

8. Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction?

9.

(a) CH₂ CH₂ O-CH₂-CH₃
(b) CH₂-CH₂-O-SO₃ H
(c) CH₃ CH₂ OH
(d) CH₂=CH₂

10. Which of the following is an ideal solution?

(a) Ethanol + water
(b) Ethanol + benzene
(c) Nitric acid + water
(d) Benzene + toluene

11. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by:

12. Which of the following will not show cis-trans isomerism ?

13. Among the following compuands, one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

(a) benzoic acid.
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) toluene.
(d) benzene.

14. At 25°C ,the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 1.0× 10^-12. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be:

(a) 2.0× 10^-6  molL^-1
(b) 1.0× 10^-5  molL^-1
(c) 1.0× 10^-6  molL^-1
(d) 1.0× 10^-7  molL^-1

15. If the enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol^-1 at 27 °C The entropy change for the process would be:

(a) 1.0 J mol^-1  K^-1       
(b) 0.1 J mol^-1  K^-1 
(c) 100 J mol^-1  K^-1

(d) 10 J mol^-1  K^-1

16. In which electrophilic substitution reaction slow step is breaking of C-H bond?

(a) Sulphonation of benzene
(b) Nitration of benzene
(c) Chlorination of benzene
(d) All of these

17. Acetone and ethanol can be chemically distinguished by:

(a) I₂/NaOH
(b) 2, 4 DNP
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) Both (a) and (b)

18. In which of the following reaction C-C bond formation does not take place?

(a) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(b) Étard reaction
(c) Benzoin condensation
(d) Swarts reaction

19. The value of H and S for the reaction,
C _(graphite) (s) + CO₂(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kj and 170 JK^-1 ,respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at:

(a) 710 K
(b) 910 K
(c) 1110 K
(d) 510 K

20. The experimental data for the reaction 2A + B₂→2AB is:

The rate equation for the above data is:

(a) rate = k[B₂]
(b) rate = k[B₂]²
(c) rate = k[A]² [B]²
(d) rate = k[A]² [B]

1. A mixture of gases contains and O₂ gases in the ratio of 1:4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

(a) 16:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1

2. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th excited state to 1^st excited state then total number of spectral lines, number of lines in Lyman series and Paschen series respectively are:

(a) 10,4,3
(b) 15, 0,4
(c) 15, 4,5
(d) 10,0,3

3. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to:

(a) 2√3 h
(b) h
(c) √(6h)
(d) √2h

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to -l effect of the substituents? [R- alkyl]

(a)-NH₂>-OR >-F
(b) -NR₂<-OR <-F
(c) -NH₂<-OR <-F
(d) -NR₂>-OR > -F

5. The species, having bond angles of 120 is:

(a) PH₃
(b) CIF₃
(c) NCI₃
(d) BCI₃

6. The species Ar, K⁺and Ca²⁺ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?

(a)  Ca²⁺< K⁺ < Ar
(b)  K⁺ < Ar <Ca²⁺
(c) Ar < K ⁺<Ca²⁺
(d) Ca²⁺< Ar <K ⁺

7. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 42 ×10^-3 gL^– at 298K. The value of solubility product K_sp) will be [Given molar mass of BaSO_4= 233 g mol^– ]

(a) 1.08 ×10 ^-10  mol² L^-2
(b) 1.08 ×10 ^-12  mol² L^-2
(c) 1.08 ×10 ^-14  mol² L^-2
(d) 1.08 ×10 ^-8  mol² L^-2

8. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol^-1  K^-1)

(a) 342 kj mol_–¹
(b) 269 kJ mol^-1
(c) 34.7 kJ mol^-1
(d) 15.1 kJ mol^-1

9. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
b) Li <Na <K <Rb (increasing metallic radius)
c) Al³⁺<Mg²⁺< Na⁺ < F^– (increasing ionic size)
d) B<C<N<O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)

10. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current?

(a) Hydrochloric acid, HCI
(b) Ammonia, NH₃
(c) Fructose, C₂ H₂ O₂
(d) Acetic acid, C₂ H₂ O₂

11. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 L^-1 s^-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L^-1 s^-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:

(a) 44.1 s
(b) 54.1 s
(c) 24.1 s  
(d) 34.1 s

12. In acidic medium, H₂O₂, changes Cr₂O₇^2-, to CrO₅ which (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ has two (0-0)1 is:

(a) +5
(b) + 3
(c) + 6
(d) -10

13. The reaction of H₂O, with hydrogen sulphide is an example of …………. reaction:

(a) addition
(b) oxidation
(c) reductio
(d) redox acidic

14. The enthalpy of vaporization of H₂O(1) is x kJ/mol and enthalpy of formation of water vapour y kJ/mol. Enthalpy of formation of H₂O(I), would be

(a) (y – x) kj mol^-1
(b) (x – y)kj mol^-1
(c) (x + y) kJ  mol^-1
(d) (2x – y) kj  mol^-1

15. Equal four acid 1, 2, 3 and 4 are mixed in a container. The concentration of hydrogen ion in the mixture of.

(a) 4.25 ×10^-4  M  
(b) 2.78 ×10^-2  M
(c) 2.30 × 10^-3 M
(d) 1.35 ×10^-2 M

16. A button cell used in watches functions as following:
Zn(s) + Ag₂ O(s) + H₂ O(l) 2 Ag(s)+Zn²⁺ (aq)+2OH^– (aq)
If half-cell potentials are:
Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Zn(s) E° = – 0.76V
Ag₂O(s) + H₂ O(l)+2e^–→2Ag(s)+20H_– (aq), E° = 0.34 V
The cell potential wil be:

(a) 1.10 V
(b) 0.42 V
(c) 0.84 V
(d) 1.34 V

17. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C-O, C-C and C =C is:

(a) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H
(b) C – O < C – H < C – C < c = C
(c) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C
(d) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

18. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?

(a) Br₂ > I₂  > F₂ > Cl₂
(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ >  I₂
(c) I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
(d) Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ >  I₂

19. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

(a) [Xe]  4f⁸  6s²
(b) [Xe]  4f¹  5s¹
(c) [Xe]  4f⁷ 5d¹  6s²    
(d) [Xe]  4f⁶ 5d²  6s²

20. Propionic acid with Bry/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:

1. The electric potential at a point on the axis of an electric dipole depends on the distance r of the point from the dipole as:

(a) ∝1/r
(b) ∝1/r²
(c) ∝r
(d) ∝1/r³

2. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of a turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of a turns will be:

(a) nB
(b) n² B
(c) 2nB
(d) 2n² B

3. From the graph between current i and voltage V shown. below, identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance:


(a) DE
(b) CD
(c) BC
(d) AB

4. Workdone in increasing the size of a soap bubble from radius of 3cm to 5cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03Nm ^-1 )

(a) 0.2π mj
(b) 2 π mj
(c) 0.4 π mj
(d) 4 π mj

5. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform velocity v₁. It is given an impulse such that its velocity becomes v₂ . The impulse is equal to:

6. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V₀ . If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 λ, the stopping potential is V₀. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is:

(a) λ / 4
(b) λ / 6
(c) 6λ
(d) 4λ

7. A sound of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enters into another medium where its speed is 2v m/s. Wavelength of the sound wave in the second medium is

(a) λ
(b) λ / 2
(c) 2λ
(d) 4 λ

8. A man is sitting with folded hands on a revolving table. Suddenly, he stretches his arms, Angular speed of the table would:

(a) Increase           
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Nothing can be said

9. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is . Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 101. The value of ‘n’ is:

(a) 20
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9

10. Water with a mass of 2.0 kg is held at constant volume in a container while 10.0 kJ of energy is slowly added by a flame. The container is not well insulated, and as a result temperature of water?

(a) 0.28℃
(b) 27℃
(c) 0.96℃
(d) 1.27℃

11. Which of the following statements is true about the indicator diagram of adiabatic and isothermal process?

a) The slope of isothermal is more than that of adiabatic.
b) The slope of adiabatic is more than that of isothermal.
c) Both are parallel straight lines.
d) Both are parallel curves

12. Statement I: A car is moving in a horizontal circular plane with varying speed, then the net frictional force is neither pointing towards the radial direction nor along the tangential direction.
Statement II: Components of the frictional force are providing the necessary tangential and centripetal acceleration, in the above situation.

(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(c) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

13. Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves:

(a) Interference
(b) Refraction
(c) Polarization
(d) Reflection

14. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating:

a) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
b) Affects only forward resistance
c) Affects only reverse resistance
d) Affects the overall V-I characteristics of P-N junction

15. A charged pendulum bob is oscillating in a region influenced by the gravitational and electrostatic field. The two fields are anti parallel to each other. The charge on the bob is negative. If the electric field is switched off the time period of small oscillations of the pendulum will:

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Depends on the magnitudes of the field

16. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m₁ and m₂ (vertically). If the acceleration of system is g/8 then the ratio of masses is:

(a) 8:1
(b) 9:7
(c) 4:3
(d) 5:3

17. If i₁=3 sin and i₂=4 cos ωt, than i₂ is:


a) 5 sin(ωt+53°)
b) 5 sin(ωt+37°)
c) 5 sin(ωt+45°)
d) 5 cos(ωt+53°)

18. A car of mass 1600 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 160 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45° , the speed of the car is:

(a) 45 m/s
(b) 40 m/s
(c) 20 m/s
(d) 80 m/s

19. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest without sliding is:

(a) √(10gh/7)
(b) √gh
(c) √(6gh/5)
(d) √(4gh/3)

20. A charge of 40 µC is given to a capacitor having capacitance C = 10μF. The stored energy in ergs is:

(a) 80 × 10^-6
(b) 800
(c) 80
(d) 8000

11. When does the Oxygen dissociation curve shift to the right?

(a) Decrease in acidity
(b) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration
(c) Decrease in temperature
(d) Decrease in pH