Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 142 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 141 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 140 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 139 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 138 PHYSICS

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 135 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is:

(a) ribose
(b) gene
(c) nucleoside
(d) nucleotide
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The electrode potentials for

Cu²⁺(aq)+ e^– Cu⁺ (aq) and Cu⁺(aq)+ e^– Cu(s) are + 0.15V and + 0.50V respectively. The value of E° Cu⁺²/Cu will be:

(a) 0.325V
(b) 0.650V
(c) 0.150V
(d) 0.500V
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The pair of species with the same bond order is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

a) Rusting of iron sheets.
b) Decolourization of blue CuSO₄ solution by iron.
c) Formation of Fe (CO)₅ from Fe.
d) Liberation of H₂ from steam by iron at a high temperature.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Consider the following reactions:

Enthalpy of formation of H₂O(l) is:

(a) -x₂ kJ mol^-1
(b) +x₃ kJ mol^-1(c) -x₄ kJ mol^-1(d) +x₁ kJ mol^-1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. will be shown by one among the following:

(a) [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺(b) [Ni(CN)₄]^2-(c) TiCl₄(d) [CoCl₆]^4-Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following acid does not exhibit optical isomerism

(a) Maleic acid
(b) α-amino acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acidDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?

(a) B₂H₆(b) C₂H₆(c) PH₃(d) SiH₄Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

(a) Be₂⁺(b) Be₂(c) B₂(d) Li₂Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10^-8 M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (K_w = 10^-14) is :

(a) 1.0 × 10^-6 M
(b) 1.0525 × 10^-7 M
(c) 9.525 × 10^-8 M
(d) 1.0 × 10^-8 MDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives:

(a) iso-propyl bromide
(b) 3-bromo propane
(c) allyl bromide
(d) n-propyl bromideDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In a first order reaction, A⟶B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reaction A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions. But chlorine of 2,4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced’

a) NO₂ donates electron at meta position

b) NO₂ withdraws electron from ortho/para positions

c) NO₂ make ring electron rich at ortho & para position

d) NO₂ withdraws electron from meta position
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The number of electrons in 1.6 g of CH₄ is approximately

(a) 25 × 10²⁴
(b) 1.5 × 10²⁴
(c) 6 × 10²⁴
(d) 3.0 × 10²⁴
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. pH of pure water at 50°C will be?

(a) pH = 7
(b) pH > 7
(c) pH ≥ 7
(d) pH < 7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which is the correct graphical representation based on photoelectric effect?

(a) I & II
(b) II & III
(c) III & IV
(d) II & IV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Second law of thermodynamics is based on?

a) Energy conservation
b) Entropy
c) Temperature
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 134 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following pair make fastest coupling reaction in acidic medium?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C [Given, vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8kPa , toluene = 3.85 kPa]

a) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
b) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
c) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
d) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Compound A, C₈H₁₀O is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4.

(a) sp, sp³ and sp²’
(b) sp², sp³ and sp
(c) sp, sp² and sp³
(d) sp², sp and sp³
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that:

a) A first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed.

b) The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]₀; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]₀.

c) The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.

d) The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction.

Intermediate ————> Product
(A) (B)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The bond dissociation energies of , and XY are in the ratio of 1: 0.5: 1. AH for the formation of XY is 200 kJ mol^-1. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be:

(a) 200 kJ mol^-1
(b) 100 kJ mol^-1
(c) 800 kJ mol^-1
(d) 400 kJ mol^-1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The temperature at which the given reaction is at equilibrium
Ag₂O(s) → 2Ag(s) + (1/2) O₂(g)
∆H = 30.5 kJ and AS = 0.066 kJ mol^-1(a) 462.12 K
(b) 362.12 K
(c) 262.12 K
(d) 562.12 K
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their:

a) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction.
b) Formation of carboxylate ion.
c) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding.
d) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10^-18 g cm s^-1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is:
[mass of an electron is 9 × 10^-28 g ]

a) 1 × 10⁹ cm s^-1b) 1 × 10⁶ cm s^-1c) 1 × 10⁵ cm s^-1d) 1 × 10¹¹ cm s^-1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C₃H₉N is:

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?

(a) NH₃(b) BF₃(c) OH^–(d) H₂ODeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the trans-isomer?

(a) MnO₂
(b) Aluminium isopropoxide
(c) Acetone
(d) OzoneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. 0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of oxygen in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? [At. weight of Mg = 24, O = 16

(a) Mg, 0.16 g

(b) O₂, 0.16 g

(c) Mg, 0.44 g

(d) O₂ , 0.28 g
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov’s rule to give a product 1-chloro-1 methyl cyclohexane. The possible alkene is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which of the following has longest C-O bond length?
[Free C-O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å].

(a) [Fe(CO)₄]^2-(b) [Mn(CO)₆]⁺(c) Ni(CO)₄(d) [Co(CO)₄]^–
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one may have the highest ionization energy?

(a) [Ne] 3s², 3p³(b) [Ne] 3s², 3p²(c) [Ar] 3d¹⁰, 4s², 4p³
(d) [Ne] 3s², 3p¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D.

The structure of D would be

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. In a set of reaction,ethyl benzene yields a product D.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 133 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A body falls freely from the top of a tower. It covers 36% of total height in the last second before striking the ground. Find height of the tower.

(a) 50 m
(b) 250 m
(c) 75 m
(d) 125 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The equation of motion of a projectile is

What is the range of projectile?

(a) 12 m
(b) 16 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 24 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A body is moving in a circle of radius 80 m with a speed of 20 m/s which is decreasing at a rate of 5 m/s² at an instant. The angle made by its acceleration with its velocity is

(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 135°
(d) 0°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. If all the polar ice on Earth melts then how will it affect the duration of a day? The duration of a day:

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) Data insufficient
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. An S.H.M is given by y = 5[sin(3πt) + √3cos(3πt)] What is the amplitude of motion?

(a) 5
(b) 2.5
(c) 20
(d) 10
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A car moving at a speed of 72 km/hr can be stopped in a distance of 40 m after brakes are pressed. If the same car is moving at a speed of 144 km/hr then after how much distance it will stop after braking?

(a) 80 m
(b) 160 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 240 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. If two balls are projeted at angles of 45 deg and 60 deg and the maximum heights reached are same, what is the ratio of initial velocities?

(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) √2:√3
(d) √3:√2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In which of the following cases the potential energy is defined

(a) non-conservative forces only
(b) conservative forces only
(c) both conservative and non-conservative forces
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A current of 4 × 10^-3 A is flowing in a long straight conductor. The value of line integral of magnetic field around the closed path enclosing the straight conductor will be

(a) 1.6 π× 10⁹ Wbm^-2
(b) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm^-2(c) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm²
(d) 1.6 π× 10^-7 Wbm^-2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10 Ω is given by 10t² – 8t + 6 Wb. How much current is induced in the loop after 2s?

(a) 3.2 A
(b) 2.2 A
(c) 4.2 A
(d) 1.2 A

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement.

(a) The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous.
(b) A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non- uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it.
(c) A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines of force, the path of the particle is a circle.
(d) There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns and 4 cm² face area is placed with its axis parallel to a magnetic field which decreases by 10 ^-2Wbm^-2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:

(a) 400Mv
(b) 200mV(c) 4mV
(d) 0.4mV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In a Young’s double slit experiment, light of 500 nm is used to produce an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the distance screen is close to:

(a) 0.17°
(b) 0.57°
(c) 1.7°
(d) 0.07°

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from air to glass is , then Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is π/2 – θ_BStatement II: The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan^-1 (μ_g) where μ_g is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed u such that it hits the target on the ground at a distance R from it. If t₁ and t₂are the values of the time taken by it to hit the target in two possible ways, the product is t₁t₂

(a) R/4g
(b) R/g
(c) R/2g
(d) 2R/g

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 132 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1.

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) May be positive or negative
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If the acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the Earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of Earth, then

(a) d = 2 km
(b) d = 1/2 km
(c) d = 1 km
(d) d = 3/2 km
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. From the following quantities, which one has dimension different from the remaining three?

a) Energy per unit volume
b) Force per unit area
c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
d) Angular momentum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The coordinates of centre of mass of the following quarter circular arc is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° deg to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole experiences:

a) a torque as well as a translational force.
b) a torque only.
c) a translational force only in the direction of field.
d) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. An aeroplane moves 400 m towards north, 300 m towards west and then 1200 m vertically upwards. Then its displacement from the initial position is

(a) 1300 m
(b) 1400 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 1600 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. If Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are the three fundamental constants. Which of the following combina-tions of these has the dimension of length?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A small ball of density p is dropped from a height h into a liquid of density σ(σ > ρ) . Neglecting damping forces, the maximum depth to which the body sinks is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. If charge of 10 C and -2µC are given to two plates of a capacitor are connected across a battery of 12 V, then find the capacitance of the capacitor.

(a) 0.33 µF
(b) 0.5 µF
(c) 0.41 µF
(d) 0.66 µF
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A ruby laser produces radiations of wavelengths, 662.6 nm in pulses whose durations are 10^-9 If the laser produces 0.39 J of energy per pulse, how many photons are produced in each pulse?

(a) 1.3 × 10⁹(b) 1.3 × 10¹⁸(c) 1.3 × 10²⁷(d) 3.9 × 10¹⁸

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Two specific heats of a perfect gas are related by:

(a) C_p – C_v=R/J
(b) C_p – C_v=J
(c) Cp – C_v=RJ
(d) C_p+1/C_v=2.4 cal

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. When a particle is moving in a vertical circle,

a) its radial and tangential acceleration both are constant.
b) its radial and tangential acceleration both are varying.
c) its radial acceleration is constant but tangential acceleration is varying.
d) its radial acceleration is varying but tangential acceleration is constant.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The shortest wavelength of the Brackett series of a hydrogen like atom (atomic number = Z) is the same as the shortest wavelength of the Balmar series of hydrogen atom. The value of Z is:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following is the correct statement about an object immersed in a liquid at rest and left free to move?

a) Buoyancy force is equal to the weight of the object.
b) Centre of buoyancy coincides with the centre of mass of the object.
c) If the density of the object is equal to the density of the liquid then the object moves in the liquid with con-stant velocity.
d) If the object sinks, then the weight of the displaced fluid is less than the force of buoyancy.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. According to de-Broglie’s hypothesis, particles can be associated with waves. Consider a double slit experiment with mono energetic electrons. Instead of screen, optical detectors are used. If the speed of the electrons is increased,

a) the interference pattern vanishes.
b) the distance between consecutive fringes increases.
c) the distance between consecutive fringes decreases.
d) the interference pattern is unaffected.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points where:

a) minimum displacement and minimum pressure change occur.
b) minimum displacement and maximum pressure change occur.
c) maximum displacement and maximum pressure change occur.
d) maximum displacement and minimum pressure change occur.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The angle of incidence of a ray of light at a reflecting surface of an equilateral prism is 50°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively are (sin 50° = 0.7660)

(a) 40°, 1.5
(b) 30°, 1.5
(c) 40°, 1.6
(d) 30°, 1.6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The displacement of a particle, moving in a straight line, is given by s = 2t² + 2t + 4 where s is in metres and in seconds. The acceleration of the particle is:

(a) 2 m/s²
(b) 4 m/s²
(c) 6 m/s²
(d) 8 m/s²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. 22 g of CO₂ at 27°C is mixed with 16 g of O₂ at 37°C. The temperature of the mixture is:

(a) 32°C
(b) 27°C
(c) 37°C
(d) 30.5°C
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Velocity of light in glass whose refractive index with respect to air is 1.5 is 2 × 10⁸ m/s and in certain liquid the velocity of light is found to be 5 × 10⁸ m/s. The refractive index of the liquid with respect to air is

(a) 0.64
(b) 0.80
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.44
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 130 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Density of the nucleus depends upon

a) Mass number
b) Atomic number
c) Number of neutronsd
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ₀. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ₀
b) λ≤λ₀
c) λ≥2λ₀
d) λ=4λ₀
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film are due to

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Dispersion
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Which phenomenon leads us to the conclusion that light is transverse in nature?

a) refraction of light
b) diffraction of light
c) dispersion of light
d) polarization of light.
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum

a) power
b) wavelength
c) intensity
d) frequency
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The threshold frequency of a certain metal is 3.3×10¹⁴ If light of frequency 8.2×10¹⁴Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut off voltage for photoelectric emission. Given Planck’s constant, h=6.62×10^-34Js.

a) 2 V
b) 4 V
c) 6 V
d) 8 V
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7.

a) only (i) is correct
b) only (ii) is correct
c) both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) both (i) and (ii) are wrongDeselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Electric charges of 1μC, -1μC and 2μC are placed in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force on the charge at C is

a) 0.9 N
b) 1.8 N

c) 2.7 N
d) 3.6 N
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The potential due to an electric dipole varies as

a) r
b) 1/r
c) 1/r²
d) 1/r³
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Two equal charges each are placed at a distance of 2a and a third charge -2q is placed at the mid-point. The potential energy of the system is

Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. The capacitance of arrangement of four plates of area A at a distance shown in figure is

Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. At what angle of incidence will the light reflected from glass(μ=1.5) be completely polarised

a) 72.8°
b) 51.6°
c) 40.3°
d) 56.3°
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Light is incident on a glass surface at polarising angle of 57.5°. Then the angle between the incident ray and the refracted ray is

a) 57.5°
b) 115°
c) 205°
d) 145°
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be

a) Pt>Al>K
b) Al>Pt>K
c) K>Al>Pt
d) Al>K>Pt
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The linear momentum of a 3 MeV photon is

a) 0.01eVsm⁻¹
b) 0.02eVsm⁻¹c) 0.03eVsm⁻¹
d) 0.04eVsm⁻¹
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. In an interference experiment, the ratio of the intensities of the bright and dark fringes is 16:1. The ratio of the amplitudes due to the two slits is

a) 3:1
b) 4:1
c) 5:1
d) 5:3
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. How many 10 μF capacitor must be connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of 100 V across the capacitors ?

a) 0.001 J
b) 0.01 J
c) 0.1 J
d) 1 J
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. How many 10 μF capacitor must be connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of 100 V across the capacitors ?

a) 100
b) 1000
c) 10000
d) 10
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The effective capacitance between P and Q will be

a) 10 μF
b) 5 μF
c) 2 μF
d) 7.5 μF
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. If the circumference of a sphere is 2 m, then the capacitance of the sphere in water would be (K_water=80)

a) 2700 pF
b) 2600 pF
c) 1800 pF
d) 2830 pF
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

May 12, 2025

error: Content is protected !!

Enable Notifications OK No thanks