Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 133 PHYSICS

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1. A body falls freely from the top of a tower. It covers 36% of total height in the last second before striking the ground. Find height of the tower.

(a) 50 m
(b) 250 m
(c) 75 m
(d) 125 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The equation of motion of a projectile is

What is the range of projectile?

(a) 12 m
(b) 16 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 24 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A body is moving in a circle of radius 80 m with a speed of 20 m/s which is decreasing at a rate of 5 m/s² at an instant. The angle made by its acceleration with its velocity is

(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 135°
(d) 0°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. If all the polar ice on Earth melts then how will it affect the duration of a day? The duration of a day:

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) Data insufficient
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. An S.H.M is given by y = 5[sin(3πt) + √3cos(3πt)] What is the amplitude of motion?

(a) 5
(b) 2.5
(c) 20
(d) 10
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A car moving at a speed of 72 km/hr can be stopped in a distance of 40 m after brakes are pressed. If the same car is moving at a speed of 144 km/hr then after how much distance it will stop after braking?

(a) 80 m
(b) 160 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 240 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. If two balls are projeted at angles of 45 deg and 60 deg and the maximum heights reached are same, what is the ratio of initial velocities?

(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) √2:√3
(d) √3:√2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In which of the following cases the potential energy is defined

(a) non-conservative forces only
(b) conservative forces only
(c) both conservative and non-conservative forces
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A current of 4 × 10^-3 A is flowing in a long straight conductor. The value of line integral of magnetic field around the closed path enclosing the straight conductor will be

(a) 1.6 π× 10⁹ Wbm^-2
(b) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm^-2(c) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm²
(d) 1.6 π× 10^-7 Wbm^-2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10 Ω is given by 10t² – 8t + 6 Wb. How much current is induced in the loop after 2s?

(a) 3.2 A
(b) 2.2 A
(c) 4.2 A
(d) 1.2 A

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement.

(a) The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous.
(b) A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non- uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it.
(c) A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines of force, the path of the particle is a circle.
(d) There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns and 4 cm² face area is placed with its axis parallel to a magnetic field which decreases by 10 ^-2Wbm^-2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:

(a) 400Mv
(b) 200mV(c) 4mV
(d) 0.4mV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In a Young’s double slit experiment, light of 500 nm is used to produce an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the distance screen is close to:

(a) 0.17°
(b) 0.57°
(c) 1.7°
(d) 0.07°

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from air to glass is , then Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is π/2 – θ_BStatement II: The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan^-1 (μ_g) where μ_g is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed u such that it hits the target on the ground at a distance R from it. If t₁ and t₂are the values of the time taken by it to hit the target in two possible ways, the product is t₁t₂

(a) R/4g
(b) R/g
(c) R/2g
(d) 2R/g

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 132 PHYSICS

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1.

(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) May be positive or negative
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If the acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the Earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of Earth, then

(a) d = 2 km
(b) d = 1/2 km
(c) d = 1 km
(d) d = 3/2 km
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. From the following quantities, which one has dimension different from the remaining three?

a) Energy per unit volume
b) Force per unit area
c) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
d) Angular momentum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The coordinates of centre of mass of the following quarter circular arc is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° deg to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole experiences:

a) a torque as well as a translational force.
b) a torque only.
c) a translational force only in the direction of field.
d) a translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. An aeroplane moves 400 m towards north, 300 m towards west and then 1200 m vertically upwards. Then its displacement from the initial position is

(a) 1300 m
(b) 1400 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 1600 m

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. If Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are the three fundamental constants. Which of the following combina-tions of these has the dimension of length?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A small ball of density p is dropped from a height h into a liquid of density σ(σ > ρ) . Neglecting damping forces, the maximum depth to which the body sinks is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. If charge of 10 C and -2µC are given to two plates of a capacitor are connected across a battery of 12 V, then find the capacitance of the capacitor.

(a) 0.33 µF
(b) 0.5 µF
(c) 0.41 µF
(d) 0.66 µF
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A ruby laser produces radiations of wavelengths, 662.6 nm in pulses whose durations are 10^-9 If the laser produces 0.39 J of energy per pulse, how many photons are produced in each pulse?

(a) 1.3 × 10⁹(b) 1.3 × 10¹⁸(c) 1.3 × 10²⁷(d) 3.9 × 10¹⁸

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Two specific heats of a perfect gas are related by:

(a) C_p – C_v=R/J
(b) C_p – C_v=J
(c) Cp – C_v=RJ
(d) C_p+1/C_v=2.4 cal

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. When a particle is moving in a vertical circle,

a) its radial and tangential acceleration both are constant.
b) its radial and tangential acceleration both are varying.
c) its radial acceleration is constant but tangential acceleration is varying.
d) its radial acceleration is varying but tangential acceleration is constant.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The shortest wavelength of the Brackett series of a hydrogen like atom (atomic number = Z) is the same as the shortest wavelength of the Balmar series of hydrogen atom. The value of Z is:

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following is the correct statement about an object immersed in a liquid at rest and left free to move?

a) Buoyancy force is equal to the weight of the object.
b) Centre of buoyancy coincides with the centre of mass of the object.
c) If the density of the object is equal to the density of the liquid then the object moves in the liquid with con-stant velocity.
d) If the object sinks, then the weight of the displaced fluid is less than the force of buoyancy.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. According to de-Broglie’s hypothesis, particles can be associated with waves. Consider a double slit experiment with mono energetic electrons. Instead of screen, optical detectors are used. If the speed of the electrons is increased,

a) the interference pattern vanishes.
b) the distance between consecutive fringes increases.
c) the distance between consecutive fringes decreases.
d) the interference pattern is unaffected.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points where:

a) minimum displacement and minimum pressure change occur.
b) minimum displacement and maximum pressure change occur.
c) maximum displacement and maximum pressure change occur.
d) maximum displacement and minimum pressure change occur.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The angle of incidence of a ray of light at a reflecting surface of an equilateral prism is 50°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively are (sin 50° = 0.7660)

(a) 40°, 1.5
(b) 30°, 1.5
(c) 40°, 1.6
(d) 30°, 1.6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The displacement of a particle, moving in a straight line, is given by s = 2t² + 2t + 4 where s is in metres and in seconds. The acceleration of the particle is:

(a) 2 m/s²
(b) 4 m/s²
(c) 6 m/s²
(d) 8 m/s²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. 22 g of CO₂ at 27°C is mixed with 16 g of O₂ at 37°C. The temperature of the mixture is:

(a) 32°C
(b) 27°C
(c) 37°C
(d) 30.5°C
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Velocity of light in glass whose refractive index with respect to air is 1.5 is 2 × 10⁸ m/s and in certain liquid the velocity of light is found to be 5 × 10⁸ m/s. The refractive index of the liquid with respect to air is

(a) 0.64
(b) 0.80
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.44
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 130 PHYSICS

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Email

1. Density of the nucleus depends upon

a) Mass number
b) Atomic number
c) Number of neutronsd
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ₀. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ₀
b) λ≤λ₀
c) λ≥2λ₀
d) λ=4λ₀
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film are due to

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Dispersion
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Which phenomenon leads us to the conclusion that light is transverse in nature?

a) refraction of light
b) diffraction of light
c) dispersion of light
d) polarization of light.
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum

a) power
b) wavelength
c) intensity
d) frequency
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The threshold frequency of a certain metal is 3.3×10¹⁴ If light of frequency 8.2×10¹⁴Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cut off voltage for photoelectric emission. Given Planck’s constant, h=6.62×10^-34Js.

a) 2 V
b) 4 V
c) 6 V
d) 8 V
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7.

a) only (i) is correct
b) only (ii) is correct
c) both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) both (i) and (ii) are wrongDeselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Electric charges of 1μC, -1μC and 2μC are placed in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force on the charge at C is

a) 0.9 N
b) 1.8 N

c) 2.7 N
d) 3.6 N
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The potential due to an electric dipole varies as

a) r
b) 1/r
c) 1/r²
d) 1/r³
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Two equal charges each are placed at a distance of 2a and a third charge -2q is placed at the mid-point. The potential energy of the system is

Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. The capacitance of arrangement of four plates of area A at a distance shown in figure is

Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. At what angle of incidence will the light reflected from glass(μ=1.5) be completely polarised

a) 72.8°
b) 51.6°
c) 40.3°
d) 56.3°
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Light is incident on a glass surface at polarising angle of 57.5°. Then the angle between the incident ray and the refracted ray is

a) 57.5°
b) 115°
c) 205°
d) 145°
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be

a) Pt>Al>K
b) Al>Pt>K
c) K>Al>Pt
d) Al>K>Pt
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The linear momentum of a 3 MeV photon is

a) 0.01eVsm⁻¹
b) 0.02eVsm⁻¹c) 0.03eVsm⁻¹
d) 0.04eVsm⁻¹
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. In an interference experiment, the ratio of the intensities of the bright and dark fringes is 16:1. The ratio of the amplitudes due to the two slits is

a) 3:1
b) 4:1
c) 5:1
d) 5:3
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. How many 10 μF capacitor must be connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of 100 V across the capacitors ?

a) 0.001 J
b) 0.01 J
c) 0.1 J
d) 1 J
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. How many 10 μF capacitor must be connected in parallel to store a charge of 1 C with a potential of 100 V across the capacitors ?

a) 100
b) 1000
c) 10000
d) 10
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The effective capacitance between P and Q will be

a) 10 μF
b) 5 μF
c) 2 μF
d) 7.5 μF
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. If the circumference of a sphere is 2 m, then the capacitance of the sphere in water would be (K_water=80)

a) 2700 pF
b) 2600 pF
c) 1800 pF
d) 2830 pF
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

May 12, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 128 BIOLOGY

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1. The enzyme used in laundry to clear oil stains is

(a) Lactase
(c) Pectinase
(b) Streptokinase
(d) Lipase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Methanogens are mostly present in

a) Anaerobic sludge of sewage and rumen of cattle
b) Primary sludge
c) The fermentation of toddy
d) Swiss cheese
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon become extinct due to

a) Alien species invasion
b) Co-extinction
c) Habitat loss and fragmentation
d) Over exploitation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Major cause of cancer is

a) Polyploidy
b) Chromosomal aberration
c) Frame-shift mutation
d) Aneuploidy
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in

a) Single gene
b) Two genes
c) Half of the chromosomes
d) Entire chromosome
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. When the volume of body fluid falls below normal, the ADH will

a) Decrease the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
b) Increases the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
c) Has nothing to do with permeability of convoluted tubule
d) Decreases permeability of proximal convoluted tubule
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which one of the following is a vasoconstrictor?

(a) Angiotensin II
(c) ANF
(b) Renin
(d) Histamine
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Assertion (A): Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints
Reason (R): Synovial fluid is present here

a) Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (a) is true but (R) is false
d) (a) is false but (R) is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In the exponential growth equation, N1=N0 ert, e represents

a) The base of geometric logarithms
b) The base of exponential logarithms
c) The base of natural logarithms
d) The base of number logarithms
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Identify the incorrect statements about frog.
i. Oesophagus is short tube
ii. Tadpole is carnivorous
iii. Dorsal side of body is olive greenish in colour
iv. Hind brain consist of cerebellum and medulla oblongata

(a) II only
(b) I and iii
(c) I, ii and iii
(d) I, ii and iv
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Assertion(A): Competitive Exclusion principle applies to those species who compete for the same resources for their survival
Reason (R): Competition result in extinction if one species

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A Is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Choose the correct statements.
i. Exponential growth occurs when resources are abundant
ii. Logistic growth results in J-shaped curve
iii. Carrying capacity is the maximum limit beyond which no further growth is possible.
iv. Logistic growth model is considered more realistic than exponential growth

(a) i, iii and iv
(c) iii only
(b) i, ii and iii
(d) i and ivDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Ciliated epithelial cells are mainly present in

a) Bile duct and bronchioles
b) Fallopian tube and pancreatic duct
c) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
d) Salivary duct and pancreatic ductDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In adipocytes, nucleus and cytoplasm are at

(a) Terminal
(b) Centre
(c) Periphery
(d) All of aboveDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following are directly involved in systemic circulation?

a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle, left ventricle
b) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle
c) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
d) Left ventricle, aorta, inferior vena cavaDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(a) Ecdysone
(b) Estriol
(c) Epinephrine
(d) EstradiolDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Select the correct pair.

a) Corpus luteum – temporary endocrine gland
b) Thyroid – thymosins
c) Epiphysis cerebri – pituitary gland
d) Thymus gland – Collip’s hormoneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Statement I: Interferons are proteins produced by infected cells in response to viral infections
Statement II: Interferons are members of large group of proteins called cytokines.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II are correctDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A cross was performed between individuals with AABB and aabb genotypes. The F1 progeny were self-fertilise(d) What is the probability that the F2 progeny will have the same phenotype as their parents?

(a) 1/16

(c) 6/16

(b) 3/16

(d) 9/16
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The DNA that is isolated from desired organism and transferred from that organism to another by combining with vehicle DNA is

(a) Carrier DNA
(b) Amplified DNA
(c) Transform DNA
(d) Passenger DNA
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 127 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Shedding of leaves, flowers and fruits due to change in hormone balance in plants is:

(a) Senescence
(b) Abscission
(c) Photorespiration
(d) RipeningDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Assertion (A): The Cycas have pinnate leaves for a few years, while in Conifers, the leaves have a needle like structure with reduced surface are (A)
Reason (R): The leaves have a sunken stoma, which reduces water loss from the surface of the leaves.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Read the following five statements and select the option with all correct statements:
(I) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise bare rock.
(II) Selaginella pteridophyte. is a homosporous
(III) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(IV) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(V) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on the sporophyte

(a) (II), (III), and (IV)
(b) (I), (IV), and (V)
(c) (II), (III), and (V)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem and then come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoot. These branches are called:

(a) Stolon

(b) Sucker

(c) Runner

(d) Offset
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Consider the following set of plants: Funaria, Selaginella, Cycas, Marchantia, Riccia, Azolla, Salvinia, Polytrichum, Psilotum Anthoceros, How many of the above plants are heterosporous?

(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Two
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rasping organ for feeding called radula is present in the phylum

a) Echinodermata
b) Arthropoda
c) Mollusca
d) Chordata
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following characteristic distinguish arthropoda from annelids and molluscs?

a) An external skeleton made of chitin (a polysaccharide) and protein rather than a shell made chiefly of mineral salts
b) Subdivision of the legs into movable segments
c) Distinct group of muscles, derived from many body segments that move the separate part of the exoskeleton
d) All of the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system
b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex
c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworm and leeches are dioecious
d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following undergoes the meiosis -I division?

a) Primary spermatocytes
b) Secondary spermatocytes
c) Spermatids
d) Spermatogonia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Menstrual cycle is divided into different phases in which follicular phase is also known as

a) Secretory phase
b) Luteal phase
c) Proliferative phase
d) Menstrual phase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following is a finger-like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening

(a) Oviduct
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons pubis
(d) Chorionic villi
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Sex of the unborn child
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which method is used to have a child through GIFT?

a) Transfer of embryo with upto 8 blastomeres in fallopian tube
b) Transfer of sperm and unfertilized oocyte in fallopian tube
c) Insertion of sperm into cytoplasm of oocyte through zona pellucida
d) Introduction of sperm into uterus
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Select the incorrect statement regarding health

a) Health can be defined as absence of disease
b) Healthy people are more efficient at work
c) Health increases productivity
d) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Choose the incorrect statement from the given options

a) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic system
b) The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a healthy person through houseflies
c) Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm
d) Amoebiasis is a protozoan disease
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Match the following

a) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(i)
b) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(iii)
c) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(i)
d) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Our immune system plays an important role in

a) Allergic reactions
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Organ transplantation
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Assertion (A): X-rays and γ-rays are called carcinogens
Reason (R): Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Phytoplankton belongs to the kingdom

(a) Plantae
(b) Protista
(c) Monera
(d) Fungi
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Alexander Fleming noticed the chemical produced by a mould could check the growth of bacterium on which he worke(d) The bacterium mentioned was

(a) Streptococcus
(b) Streptobacillus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Streptomyces
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 126 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In the majority of higher animals and plants, and are mutually exclusive events.

(a) growth; nutrition
(b) nutrition; consciousness
(c) growth; reproduction
(d) reproduction; consciousness
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Colchicine interferes with the cell because of;

(a) splitting of chromosomes
(b) non-pairing of chromosomes
(c) double replication of chromosomes
(d) non-formation of spindle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Match the following column:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(b) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(c) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(a) Phaeophyceae only
(b) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(d) Rhodophyceae only
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(a) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields.
(b) speed up the malting process.
(c) promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface.
(d) help overcome apical dominance
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Match the following columns:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(b) (1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(v); (4)-(iii)
(d) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iii)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In plant, development refers to the formation of specialised tissues and organs from undifferentiated cells.

(a) germination
(b) morphogenesis
(c) differentiation
(d) senescence
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of:

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Mycorrhizae
(c) Bacteria
(d) Light
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which feature is NOT related to vacuole in plant cells?

(a) Its cell sap is hypertoni(c)
(b) Its membrane is called tonoplast.
(c) It is not an endomembrane system.
(d) It can occupy upto 90 the percent of the volume of the cell.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Assertion (A): Growth in living organism refers to increase in body mass, increase in size and increase in number of cells.
Reason (R): Growth in living organism occurs by accumulation of material by external agency.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of (a)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (a)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Assertion (A): Dispersal is the spreading or dissemination of fruits and seeds from the parent plants to various distances.
Reason (R): Dispersal is important to prevent overcrowding and decrease competition for nutrients.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Zaminkand – Corn
(b) Replum – Mustard
(c) Twisted Aestivation – China rose
(d) Phyllode – Acacia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called as amphibian of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): The plant body is haplontic

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R explanation of (A) are true and R is the correct
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Nissl’s granules are irregular masses of ribosomes and:

(a) SER
(b) RER
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Cytoplasm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Plant growth regulators are organic compounds synthesized in minute quantities.
Statement II: PGRs are simple, small molecules having composition. diverse chemical
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given options:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Chromosomes are long, thin and slender and chromatin network exposes and threads appear clear in which stage?

(a) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(d) Diplotene
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Characteristics of Mitosis-l stages are given:
(I) Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.
(II) Fully condensed chromosomes.
(III) Spindle is assemble(d)
(IV) Nucleolus and NM breaks down.
Above characterisitics belong to:

(a) Zygotene
(b) Diakinesis
(c) Diplotene
(d) Metaphase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Axile placentation – Tomato
(b) Jasmine, colocasia – Runner
(c) Mango fruit – Mesocarp is edible
(d) Scutellum – Shield shape cotyledon in seed of grassDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A proton and an α – particle have kinetic energy in the ratio 16:1. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated with them is.

(a) 4:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 7:2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted? e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹(c)

(a) 2.4 eV
(b) 1.5 eV
(c) 3.1 eV
(d) 4.5 eV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A ray of light when falls on a liquid A-air interface at angle 45°, it just gets total reflection. When a ray of light falls on liquid B -air interface at angle 30°, it does not emerge out. We can infer that

(a) μ_A>μ_B
(b) μ_A<μ_B(c) μ_A=μ_B
(d) can’t be inferred

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In going from a rarer to a denser medium, light loses some spee(d) What happens to energy carried by light waves?

a) Greater in rarer medium
b) Greater in denser medium
c) equal in both mediums
d) cannot be said
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(a) I₁+I₂(b) (√I₁+√I₂)²(c) (√I₁−√I₂)²(d) 2(I₁+I₂)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm×2cm) to (5cm×4×cm). If the work done is 3×10⁻⁴J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250Nm⁻¹
(b) 0.125Nm⁻¹(c) 0.2Nm⁻¹
(d) 8.0Nm⁻¹

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. When two displacements represented by y₁=asin (ωt) and y₂=bcos (ωt) are superimposed, the motion is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In an SHM, x is the displacement and a is the acceleration at time t. the plot of a against x for one complete oscillation will be

(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a sinusoidal curve
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following statements are true wave motion?

a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through all mediums
b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through solids only
d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. To determine Young’s modulus of the material of a wire,

a) two wires of same length and radius are taken.
b) Single straight wire of uniform cross section is taken.
c) three wires of different lengths but of same material are taken.
d) two springs of same length but different materials are taken.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V= (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) (a) The value of the resistance is:

(a) (10±0.5)Ω
(b) (10±0.3)Ω
(c) (10±0.4)Ω
(d) (10±0.1)Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 12 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed in rad/s is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.8
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal groun(d) The magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force F_c=-k/r² , the total energy is

(a) -k/r
(b) k/r
(c) -k/2r
(d) k/2r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 40s
(b) 80s
(c) 20s
(d) 50sDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A 60 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body in m/s2 is

(a) 5.2

(b) 2.5

(c) 4.3

(d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A body of 10 kg is acted by a force of 129.4 N. If g =8 m/s². The acceleration of the block is 10 m/s². What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?

(a) 0.03
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum p. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road be m, then the stopping distance is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally opposite point. The work done in this case is

(a) 0
(b) mgh
(c) -mgh
(d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The force constants of two springs are k₁ and k₂ respectively. Both are stretched till their potential energies are equal. The forces f₁ and f₂ applied on them are in the ratio

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 125 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. In maize seed, the layer separating the endosperm from the embryo is rich in
(a) proteins
(b) carbohydrates
(c) hormones
(d) enzymes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The function of the cambium in a plant is:

(a) water absorption
(b) lateral growth
(c) food storage
(d) photosynthesis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?

(a) Ribosome
(b) Mesosome
(c) Lysosome
(d) Microsome

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

a) reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane.
b) breakdown of proton gradient.
c) breakdown of electron gradient.
d) movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following is the process of respiration that involves the breakdown of fatty acids to generate ATP?

(a) Glycolysis
(b) B-oxidation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Kreb’s cycle

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

a) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity.
b) To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway.
c) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle.
d) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. What is a fat molecule made of

a) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
b) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
c) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
d) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecules

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Phosphoglyceride is made up of

a) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
b) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
c) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which fatty acid can detect spoilage of oil

(a) Oleic acid
(b) Linoleic acid
(c) Erucic acid
(d) Linolenic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: A protein can be visualized as a line, with the left end representing the first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end representing the last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin is composed of four subunits: two alpha (α) subunits and two beta (β) subunits
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) Both statement I and statement II are false
b) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
c) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilising the three-dimensional folding of most proteins

(a) Ester bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Electrostatic interaction
(d) Hydrophobic interaction

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which two functional groups are typical of sugars?

(a) Carbonyl and phosphate
(b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Hydroxyl and methyl
(d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of

a) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
b) D-glucosamine
c) N-acetyl glucosamine
d) lipoglycans

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(a) NAD⁺(b) ATP
(c) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
(d) Molecular oxygen

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. During the light dependent reactions, water is split into oxygen, protons, and electrons. What is the fate of the electrons?

(a) Used to reduce CO2
(b) Used to generate ATP
(c) Release of O
(d) Transferred to chlorophyll
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires

(a) calcium
(b) iron
(c) cobalt
(d) magnesium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which one of these statements is incorrect?

a) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
c) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial
d) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in matrix in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

a) lactate dehydrogenase
b) isocitrare dehydrogenase
c) malate dehydrogenase
d) succinate dehydrogenase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 124 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. pK_a for NH₄⁺ion is 8.24 at 100 ⁰(c) A solution of 0.2M NH₄OH and a solution of 0.1M HCI are mixed together in equivolume proportion. The pH of the resulting mixture at
100 ⁰C (K_w = 10⁻¹²) will be
(a) 8.24
(b) 10.24
(c) 3.76
(d) 77

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A solution contains Pb²⁺ and Fe²⁺ ions. To it some quantity of Fe and Pb is added Then

a) concentration of Pb2+ ions will remain unaffected
b) concentration of Pb2+ ions will increase
c) concentration of Fe2+ ions will increase
d) concentration of Fe2+ ions will decrease.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of reactantsDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. According of Kohlrausch’s law, the limiting value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte A₂B is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen.

(a) 44.8 L

(b) 22.4 L

(c) 89.6 L

(d) 67.2 L
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Identify the product, P for the following reaction

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Statement I: Among halogens, Iodine is the best oxidant.
Statement II: Iodine is the least electronegative atom among halogens.
Choose the correct answer from the given options.

a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
b) Both statement I and statement II are true.
c) Both statement I and statement II are false.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4 kg/mol. The depression in the freezing point of solvent for 0.03 mol/kg solution of will be:

(a) 0.24 K
(b) 0.36 K
(c) 0.18 K
(d) 0.12 K

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 Sm^-1. The resistance of 0.5M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.5M solution of the electrolyte is Sm² mol^-1.

(a) 5 × 10^-3(b) 5 × 10²(c) 5 × 10³(d) 5 × 10^-4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answer from the given options.
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

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May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 123 CHEMISTRY

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Email

1. Statement I : Osmium exhibits a maximum oxidation state of +6
Statement II : Osmium is a 4d block element.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
c) Statement I is true but Statement II are False
d) Statement I is False but Statement II are TrueDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The correct order of increasing bond length is

a) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ < F₂
b) O₂ > N₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
c) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ > F₂
d) N₂ < O₂ < F₂ < Cl₂Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which one is the most Acidic among the following oxide

(a) MgO
(b) P₄O₁₀(c) Tl₂O₃(d) SO₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
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4. Uuu

(a) Copernicium
(b) Meitnerium
(c) Darmstadium
(d) RontgeniumDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Zero electron gain enthalpy is shown by

(a) B, N and O
(b) Na, Mg and Al
(c) H, He and Ne
(d) Be, Mg and PDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which Hybridisation is not match with the following compound?

(a) SF₄ – sp³d
(b) NH₃ – sp³(c) BrF₅ – sp³d³(d) SF₆ – sp³d²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
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7. The geometry of XeOF₂ is

(a) Octahedral
(b) T-shape
(c) Square Planar
(d) Tetrahedral
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a)

b)

c)

d)
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8. Magnesium reacts with an elements X to form an ionic compoun(d) If the ground state electronic configuration of X is 1s² 2s² 2p³ , the simplest formula for this compound is

(a) Mg₂X₃(b) MgX₂(c) Mg₂X
(d) Mg₃X₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following ion has the maximum polarizing power ?

(a) Na⁺(b) Mg²⁺(c) Ca²⁺
(d) Al³⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
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10. Dinitrogen is relatively inactive because

a) It has high Electronegativity
b) It has high bond dissociation enthalpy
c) High Melting and Boiling point
d) Stable electronic configurationDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction are 30.5 and 45.5 KJ/mol, respectively . The reaction is?

(a) exothermic

(b) endothermic

(c) neither exothermic

(d) independent of temperature
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a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 0.9555 M and 1.910 M
(b) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
(c) 1.90 M and 1.090 M
(d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The freezing point of 4% aqueous solution of ‘A’ is equal to the freezing point 10% aqueous solution of ‘B’. If the molecules mass of ‘A’ is

(a) 160

(b) 90

(c) 45

(d) 180
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A milli molar solution of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is 70% dissociate(d) Find out the osmotic pressure of the solution at 27⁰C

(a) 0.076 atm
(b) 2.76 atm
(c) 3.67 atm
(d) 9.67 atm
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a)

b)

c)

d)
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(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) -1/2
(d) 3/2
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a)

b)

c)

d)
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16. 15 grams of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 grams of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. What is the final temperature of 0.10 mole monoatomic ideal gas that performs 75 cal of work adiabatically if the initial temperature is 227 ⁰C? (use R = 2 cal/K mol)

(a) 250 K

(b) 300 K

(c) 350 K

(d) 750 K
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following half cells are given as
Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ Zn(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.762 V
Cr³⁺(aq) + 3e⁻⇢ Cr(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.740 V
2H⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ H₂(g) ; E⁰ = 0.000 V
Fe³⁺(aq) + e⁻⇢ Fe²⁺(aq) ; E⁰ = – 0.770 V
The strongest reducing agent is?

(a) Zn(s)
(b) Cr(s)
(c) H₂(s)
(d) Fe²⁺(aq)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. For an ideal gas, consider only P−V work in going from an initial state X to the final state Z. The final state Z can be reached by either of the two paths shown in the figure. Which of the following choice(s) is (are) correct? [Take ΔS as change in entropy and w as work done]


Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. In the dissociation of PCl₅, as PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) if the degree of dissociation is α at equilibrium pressure P, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025

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