Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the synovial joint causes:

(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Paralysis

2.   Statement I: Malarial parasite requires two hosts humans and mosquitoes to complete its life cycle.
     Statement II: Haemozoin is a toxic substance produced by the rupturing of liver cells during malarial infection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct

3. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by

(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared.
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared.

4. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

(a) biotechnology
(b) biomonitoring
(c) bioinformatics
(d) biosystematics

5. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

6.     Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
       Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

7. Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(a) diaphragm
(b) ribs
(c) pleura
(d) lungs

8. Eustachian lube connects

(a) External ear with middle ear
(b) External ear with internal ear
(c) Middle ear with pharynx
(d) Internal pharynx

9. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

10. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) cAMP
(d) cGMP

11. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is:

(a) Escherischia coll
(b) Bacillus subtil is
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida

12. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

13. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.

14. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option.

15. Carcinoma refers to

(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon

16.  Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
       Statement II: Cancer arising from epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17. the number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 2 pairs

18. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(d ) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

19. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume

20. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

1.   Statement I: The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of redox potential scale in electron transport chain
     Statement II: The electrons are used up as they pass through the electron transport chain. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Conservation of biodiversity due to services like provision of pollinators and climate regulation is an example of

(a). Narrowly utilitarian
(b). Broadly utilitarian
(c). Ethical utilitarian
(d). None of these133.

3. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

4. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

5. Match the following and choose the correct option:

6. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection

7. A man having a genotype WwXxYxZz can produce a number of genetically different sperms and a women of genotype PpQQRrSS can generate B number of genetically different eggs. Determine the value of A and B.

(a) A=8, B=4
(b) A=16, B=4
(c) A=32, B=8
(d) A=4, B=8

8. Plasmid has been used as vector because to

(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene

9.   Statement I: Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular organs.
        Statement II: About 80% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

10. Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection:

(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissues and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukemia.

(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope by the pathologist.

(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect physiological changes in living tissues.

(v) Early detection of cancer is essential as it allow the disease to be treated successfully.

Which of the following statement are incorrect?

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)

11.  Assertion (A): STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse
        Reason (R): STDs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

12.  Statement I: Increased permeability of Na⁺ ions due to the rise in stimulus is short lived.
        Statement II: The resting membrane potential of membrane at the site of excitation is restored by Na* and Ci~ ions.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

13. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

14. Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.

15. Match the items given in column-l with those in column-ll and select the correct option given below.

16. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

(a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(b) Canola
(c) Golden rice
(d) Bt-Brinjal

17. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?

(a) Compound eyes
(b) Poison gland
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Metamorphosis

18. Mark the unmatched one

(a) Neutrophils – Phagocytic
(b) Basophils – Secrete histamine
(c) Acidophils – Secrete heparin
(d) Lymphocytes – Secrete antibodies

19. If for some reason, the vasa efterentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus

20. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Nephron
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens

1. Which organelle is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion

2. Coconut milk (coconut waler) is widely used in tissue culture because it contains

(a) auxins
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellins

3. The Okazaki fragments in ON A chain growth

(a) polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(b) proves semi-conservative nature of ON A replication
(c) polymerize in the 5′ – to – 3* direction and explain 3′ – to – 5′ DNA replication
(d) result in transcription

4. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?

(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria

5. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

6. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?

(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO₂ concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

7. In down’s syndrome of a male chi Id, the sex complement is

(a) XO
(b) 45 XY
(c) 45 XX
(d) XXY

8. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over

9. Pick out the correct statements
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i),(iii) and (lv) are correct
(d) (i). (ii) and (iii) are correct

10. The first step of photosynthesis is

(a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO₂ to 5 carbon sugar
(d) ionisation of water

11. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

12. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) ABA
(b) 2,4-D
(c) 1AA
(d) GA

13. Which one of the following grow th regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?

(a) Abscissic acid
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA₃
(d) Indole acetic acid

14. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(a) China rose and citrus
(b) China rose
(c) Citrus 
(d) Pea

15. Statement I: Biooontrol refers to the useofbiokigical methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
     Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures with greatly reduced our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

16. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
        Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type A : 1 type B?

18. The given figures (A and B) show the modification of roots. Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow’ in sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root.

19. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

20. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reducat ion reactions produce proton gradi ent in respiration
(b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of N ADH + FT gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

1. Which organelle is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion

2. Coconut milk (coconut waler) is widely used in tissue culture because it contains

(a) auxins
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellins

3. The Okazaki fragments in ON A chain growth

(a) polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(b) proves semi-conservative nature of ON A replication
(c) polymerize in the 5′ – to – 3* direction and explain 3′ – to – 5′ DNA replication
(d) result in transcription

4. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?

(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria

5. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

6. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?

(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO₂ concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

7. In down’s syndrome of a male chi Id, the sex complement is

(a) XO
(b) 45 XY
(c) 45 XX
(d) XXY

8. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over

9. Pick out the correct statements
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder

(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i),(iii) and (lv) are correct
(d) (i). (ii) and (iii) are correct

10. The first step of photosynthesis is

(a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO₂ to 5 carbon sugar
(d) ionisation of water

11. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

12. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) ABA
(b) 2,4-D
(c) 1AA
(d) GA

13. Which one of the following grow th regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?

(a) Abscissic acid
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA₃
(d) Indole acetic acid

14. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(a) China rose and citrus
(b) China rose
(c) Citrus 
(d) Pea

15. Statement I: Biooontrol refers to the useofbiokigical methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
     Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures with greatly reduced our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

16. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
        Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type A : 1 type B?

18. The given figures (A and B) show the modification of roots. Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow’ in sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root.

19. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

20. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reducat ion reactions produce proton gradi ent in respiration
(b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of N ADH + FT gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

131. Statement I: The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of redox potential scale in electron transport chain
     Statement II: The electrons are used up as they pass through the electron transport chain. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

132. Conservation of biodiversity due to services like provision of pollinators and climate regulation is an example of

(a). Narrowly utilitarian
(b). Broadly utilitarian
(c). Ethical utilitarian
(d). None of these133.

133. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

134. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

135. Match the following and choose the correct option:

136. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection

137. A man having a genotype WwXxYxZz can produce a number of genetically different sperms and a women of genotype PpQQRrSS can generate B number of genetically different eggs. Determine the value of A and B.

(a) A=8, B=4
(b) A=16, B=4
(c) A=32, B=8
(d) A=4, B=8

138. Plasmid has been used as vector because to

(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene

139. Statement I: Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular organs.
        Statement II: About 80% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrec
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

140. Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection:

(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissues and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukemia.

(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope by the pathologist.

(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect physiological changes in living tissues.

(v) Early detection of cancer is essential as it allow the disease to be treated successfully.

Which of the following statement are incorrect?

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)

141. Assertion (A): STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse
        Reason (R): STDs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

142. Statement I: Increased permeability of Na⁺ ions due to the rise in stimulus is short lived.
        Statement II: The resting membrane potential of membrane at the site of excitation is restored by Na* and Ci~ ions.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

143. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

144. Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.

145. Match the items given in column-l with those in column-ll and select the correct option given below.

146. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

(a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(b) Canola
(c) Golden rice
(d) Bt-Brinjal

147. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?

(a) Compound eyes
(b) Poison gland
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Metamorphosis

148. Mark the unmatched one

(a) Neutrophils – Phagocytic
(b) Basophils – Secrete histamine
(c) Acidophils – Secrete heparin
(d) Lymphocytes – Secrete antibodies

149. If for some reason, the vasa efterentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus

150. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Nephron
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens

151. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the synovial joint causes:

(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Paralysis

152. Statement I: Malarial parasite requires two hosts humans and mosquitoes to complete its life cycle.
       Statement II: Haemozoin is a toxic substance produced by the rupturing of liver cells during malarial infection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct

153. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by

(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared.
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared.

154. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

(a) biotechnology
(b) biomonitoring
(c) bioinformatics
(d) biosystematics

155. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

156. Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
       Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

157. Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(a) diaphragm
(b) ribs
(c) pleura
(d) lungs

158. Eustachian lube connects

(a) External ear with middle ear
(b) External ear with internal ear
(c) Middle ear with pharynx
(d) Internal pharynx

159. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

160. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) cAMP
(d) cGMP

161. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is:

(a) Escherischia coll
(b) Bacillus subtil is
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida

162. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

163. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.

164. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option.

165. Carcinoma refers to

(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon

166. Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
       Statement II: Cancer arising from epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

167. the number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 2 pairs

168. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(d ) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

169. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume

170. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

171. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

172. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

173. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

174. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.

(a) (i)and(ii)
(b) (ii)and(iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

175. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers – Initiation of the heart beat

176. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

177. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.

(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

178. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.

179. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

180. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

107. What is the end product of glycolysis of a glucose molecule?

(a) Fructose 1,6- diphosphate  
(b) Pyruvate and ATP
(c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde     
(d) Lactic acid and ATP

8. In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the correct match from the option given below:

11.  Assertion (A): Chlorella could be utilised to keep the air pure in space vehicles.

      Reason (R): The space travellers teed on Chlorella soup. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)

12. Carbon dioxide labelled with ¹⁴C has been used to identify the intermediate compounds in the Calvin cycle, the light independent stage in photosynthesis. Which compound would be the first to contain the ¹⁴C?

(a) glucose
(b) starch
(c) GP(PGA)
(d) triose phosphate

13. The dihybrid ratio in F₂ – generation is

(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 2:1:2:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

14. Reverse transcriptase is

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

15. Identify the correct statements for ATP synthase:
(i) This enzyme consists of two parts: hydrophobic membrane bound portion called F₀ & a portion that sticks out into stroma called F₁
(ii) F₀ appears to form a channel across the membrane through which proton can pass.
(iii) The conformational change in the Fj portion of the complex synthesizes ATP.
(iv) The proton motive force that drives the synthesis of ATP is associated with this enzyme.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All of these

16. Match the following and choose the correct option:

17. What is the end product of glycolysis of a glucose molecule?

(a) Fructose 1,6- diphosphate  
(b) Pyruvate and ATP
(c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde     
(d) Lactic acid and ATP

18 In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R. Q. is zero because

(a) CO₂ is released without any absorption of O₂
(b) O₂ is absorbed but CO₂ is not released
(c) There is often compensation point in these plants due to thick phylloclades
(d) None of these

19. Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor which passes them to an electron transport system consisting of

(a) phytochromes
(b) cytochromes
(c) Z-scheme
(d) redox potential scale

20. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

(a) endangered species found in the region.
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(c) genetic diversity presents in the dominant species of the region.
(d) species endemic to the region.

2. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of:

(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Calcium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate

17. Read the following statements regarding Fajan’s rule. The rate constant for a reaction is expressed as and select the correct option.

(l) The reduced the size of the cation and the larger the size of the anion, the larger the covalent character of an ionic bond.

(Il) The larger the charge on the cation, the larger the covalent character of the ionic bond.

Options:

(a) Only (1) is incorrect
(b) (1) and (Il) are correc
(c) (1) and (Il) are incorrect
(d) (l) is correct and (Il) is incorrect

1. After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of H₂, electron density is increased between the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is , which shows destructive interference of the combining electron waves.

(a) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(c) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
(d) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion

3. For silver, Cp(JK-1mol-1) =23+0.01T. lf the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of will be close to:

(a) 62 kJ
(b) 16 kJ
(c) 21 kJ
(d) 13

4. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3- methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63 °C while the other boils at 60 °C. What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be distilled out first?

(a) fractional distillation, isohexane
(b) simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
(c) simple distillation, isohexane
(d) fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane

7. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Sn in +2 oxidation state act as a good reducing agent while Pb in +4 oxidation state act as a good oxidising agent.

Reason (R): Due to inert pair effect Pb in +2 oxidation state is stable.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

8. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC₂O₄, Fe₂ (C₂O₄ )₃, FeSO₄ and Fe₂(SO₄ )₃ in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO₄ required is:

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 13

9. ∆_f G° 500 K for substance ‘S’ in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol^-1 and + 103 kcal mol^-1 respectively. Vapour pressure of liquid ‘S’ at 500K is approximately equal t0: (R=2 cal K^-1 mol^-1 ) .

(a) 100 atm
(b) l atm
(c) 10 atm
(d) 0.1 atm

10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”.
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of rc-donor character in addition to the cr-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

(a) A is correct but R is not correct
(b) A is not correct but R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is .NOT the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

11. According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is

12 .If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:

13. In Dumas method for the estimation of N„ the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:

(a) Ni
(b) Copper gauze
(c) Pd
(d) Copper oxide

14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Hofmann degradation reaction, the migration of only an alkyl group takes place from carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom.
Statement II : The group is migrated in Hofmann degradation reaction to electron deficient atom. In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

15. In a compound C, 11 and N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is 108. Molecular formula of compound is

16. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation is:

(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) V
(d) Zn

1. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction, with a velocity of 147 ms^-1. Then the lime after which inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is

a) 15 (√3-1) s
b) 15 (√3+1) s
c) 7.5 (√31-1) s
d) 7.5 (√31+1) s

2. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation

(a) PQ is horizontal
(b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal 
(d) any one will be horizontal

3. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius of 6.6 * IO-15 m. The potential on its surface will be (the charge on the proton = 1.6 x 10^-19 C)

(a) 1.1 x 10⁷V
(b) 21 x 10⁷V
(c) 3.1 x 10⁷V
(d) 0.15 x 10⁷V

5. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground stale inelastically. Energy of the colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector?

(a) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV
(b) 2 photon of energy 1.4 eV
(c) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of 1.4 eV

6. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency fin air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be

a) 3 f/2
b) 2 f
c) f
d) f/2

7. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is halved?

(a) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved
(b) Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled
(c) Inductive reactance will be halved and current 11 be doubled
(d) Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

8. The V-I characteristics shown in figure represents

(a) ohmic conductors
(b) non-ohmic conductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors

9. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C and then it is placed on a large block of ice at 0°C. If the specific heat capacity of copper is 400 J/kg°C and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5×10⁵ J/kg, the amount of ice that can melt is

(a) (7/8) kg
(b) (7/5) kg
(c) (8/7) kg
(d) (5/7) kg

10. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When she pulls her arms and legs in

(a) the angular velocity decreases
(b) the moment of inertia decreases
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases

11. A current of/ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle 0 at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is

12. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a monoatomic gas is

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 1

13. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ε_° and permeability μ_° is given by

14. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10is

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.8 
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.2 

15. Surface tension of a solution is 30 x 10^-2 N / m . The radius of the soap bubble is 5 cm. The surface energy of soap bubble is

16. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats/s. What is the frequency of fork A?

(a) 335 Hz
(b) 338 Hz
(c) 345 Hz
(d) 342 Hz

17. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy stale to 2nd energy stale. The energy released in this process, will be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV) Where R = Rydberg constant, c = Speed of light in vacuum, h = Planck’s constant

(a) 10.5eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c) 3.4eV
(d) 40.8eV

18. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19. An a-particle, a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the following is correct in case of their De-Broglie wavelength

20. If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the Young’s modules of the material of the wire will:

(a) Remains same 
(b) Become 8 times its initial value
(c) Become I/4th of its initial value
(d) Become 4 times its initial value

1. Frogs differ from humans in possessing

a) Nucleated red blood cell
b) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
c) Paired cerebral hemisphere
d) Hepatic portal system

2. Systemic heart refers to

a) Heart that contracts under stimulation from system
b) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
c) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
d) Two ventricles together in human being

3. Culture method where sterilized medium is continuously added and waste products are removed

(a) Closed culture
(b) Open culture
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

4. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when

(a) r − value approaches zero
(b) K=N
(c) K>N
(d) K<N

5. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

a) Progesterone
b) Cortisol
c) Testosterone
d) Glucagon

6. Select the correct sequence regarding stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart.
1. AV bundle
2. Purkinje fibres
3. AV node
4. Bundle branches
5. SA node

Options:
(a) 2-4-5-3-1
(b) 5-1-4-2-3
(c) 5-3-1-4-2
(d) 1-5-3-2-4

7. Select the correct pair.

a) Heart – involuntary, unstriated
b) Iris- smooth, involuntary
c) Biceps- smooth
d) Abdominal wall- smooth

8. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(a) Glial cell
(c) Cartilage
(b) Blood
(d) Adipose tissue

9. Saddle joint is present between

a) Humerus and pectoral girdle
b) Atlas and axis
c) Carpal and metacarpal
d) Carpals

10. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a) Locomotion
b) Storage of minerals
c) Production of body heat
d) Production of erythrocytes

11. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured using antibiotics?

(a) Pneumonia
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Typhoid

12. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

13. The antibody produced during allergic reaction is

(a) IgE
(c) IgG
(b) IgM
(d). Ig(d)

14. Assertion (A): Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
        Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory of the first encounter of the pathogen.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

15. Gullet or Cavity in cell which act as a mouth is present in which protozoan?

a) Flagellates
b) Ciliates
c) Amoeboids
d) Sporozoans

16. The given figure is


a) Implants
b) IUDs
c) Disposable contraceptive devices
d) Reusable contraceptive devices

17. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred into female gamete directly. Such technique is called

(a) IUI
(b) IUT
(c) ICSI
(d) GIFT

18. 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in:

a) Distal convoluted tubule
b) Proximal convoluted tubule
c) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
d) Descending limb of Loop of Henle

19. Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

(a) Alcohol
(b) Caffeine
(c) Renin
(d) Atrial-Natriuretic factor

20. Which of the following chordate character is found in adults of urochordates?

a) Pharyngeal gill clefts
b) Notochord
c) Post anal tail
d) All of these

1. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

(a) its growth stops
(b) leaves become yellow and fall down
(c) axillary buds are inactivated
(d) axillary buds are activated.

2. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

(a) IAA and gibberellin
(b) Auxin and cytokinin
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid
(d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid

3. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

(a) mosses
(b) algae
(c) ferns
(d) fungi.

4. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

a) gynoecium
b) androecium
c) corolla
d) calyx.

5. The movement of auxin is largely

(a) centripetal
(b) acropetal
(c) basipetal
(d) both (a) and (c)

6. Match the following:

Options:

a) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
b) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
c) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

7. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between ABab and abab?

(a) Aabb and aabb and aabb
(b) AABB
(c) AaBb and aabb
(d) AaBb and AaBb

8. A gene is said to be recessive if

a) It expressed its effect in the absence of dominant gene
b) It expressed only in heterozygous condition
c) It expressed both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
d) None of above

9. Evolutionary convergence is development of

a) Random mating
b) Common set of characters in closely related groups
c) Dissimilar characters in closely related groups
d) Common set of characters in group of different ancestry

10. Which experiment suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated from non-living matter?

a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
b) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
c) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
d) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

11. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates:

a) Microevolution
b) Macroevolution
c) Convergent evolution
d) Divergent evolution

12. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for B-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

a) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce B galactoside
b) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to host cell
c) It will lead to lysis of host cell
d) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability

13. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

a) Presence of origin of replication
b) Presence of a marker gene
c) Presence of two or more recognition site
d) Presence of single restriction enzyme site

14. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

a) It delivers T-DNA into plant cells
b) It is used to deliver gene of interest in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic host cells
c) It transform normal plant cell into tumour cell
d) It is not pathogenic to plant cell

15. Transgenic expression of transgene in target tissue is determine by

(a) Promoter
(b) Transgene
(c) Reporter
(d) Enhancer

16. Competition for light, nutrients and space is more severe between

a) Closely related organism growing in different niches
b) Closely related organism growing in same niche
c) Distantly related organism growing in different habitat
d) Distantly related organism growing in same niche

17. The dominant second trophic level in a lake ecosystem is

(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes

19. Which example shows Gause Exclusion Principle?

a) Resident fishes and visiting flamingoes in South American shallow lake
b) Abingdon tortoise and goat in Galapagos Island
c) Pisasters and mussels in rocky intertidal coast
d) Warbler species inhabiting the same tree

20. Which of the following will be easily cut by a specific restriction endonuclease?

a) 5’ GTATTC3’ ; 3’CATAAG5’
b) 5’GATACT3’ ; 3’CTATGA5’
c) 5’GAATTC3’ ; 3’CTTAAG5’
d) 5’CTCAGT3’ ; 3’GAGTCA5’