Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 122 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The suitable indicator for the titration of weak acid and strong base should have a pH range between :
(a) 3-5
(b) 7-11
(c) 4-6
(d) 2-3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentane-3-one. The alkene ‘A’ is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. An organic compound having molecular formula CHO, gives silver mirror test with tollen’s reagent and shows 2,4-DNP test. Compound is. D) Both b and c

a)
b)
c)
d) Both b and c
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following reagents will convert A to B?

a) PCC
b) Ozonolysis
c) BH₃ ; H₂O₂/OH followed by PCC oxidation.
d) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K₂Cr₂O₇
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their basic strength :-
(I) C6H5NH2 (II) C2H5NH2
(III) (C2H5)2NH2 (IV)NH3

(a) II > III > IV > I
(b) III > II > IV > I
(c) III > IV > II > I
(d) II > IV > III > I
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points :-
(i) CH3CHO (II) CH3CH3–OH
(III) CH3O–CH3 (IV) CH3CH2CH3

(a) II > IV > I > III
(b) II > III > I > IV
(c) II > I > III > IV
(d) I > II > III > IV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Complex [Co(NH3)5(NO2)2]Cl2 can show :

a) Only ionisation isomerism
b) Only linkage isomerism
c) Both linkage and ionisation isomerism
d) Linkage and coordination isomerism
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Assertion (A) :- [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagneti(c)
Reason (R) :- In presence of strong field ligand H2O, electrons get paired in [Fe(H2O)6] while in weak field ligand CN- , electrons don’t pair up.

a) (a) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
b) (a) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
c) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
d) Both (a) and (R) correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Assertion (A) :- Benzaldehyde is more reactive than propanal for NAR. (Nucleophilic addition reaction)
Reason (R) :- The carbon atom of carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophillic than carbon atom of carbonyl group present in propanal.

a) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
d) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which statement is NOT correct for benzene sulphonyl chloride?

a) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
b) It is used to distinguish, primary and secondary amines
c) On treatment with secondary amine it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali.
d) It doesn’t react with tertiary amine.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

In the above reaction compound C is

a) CH₃–COOH, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
b) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–CN
c) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
d) CH₃–CH₂–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NCDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?

(a) Sulphur compound
(b) Quinoline
(c) Both
(d) NoneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. IUPAC name of aspirin is :

a) 2-Ethanoyloxy benzoic acid
b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Aspirin
d) 2-methoxy carboxyl benzoic acidDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following nitrogen containing compound does not give Lassaigne’s test ?

(a) Phenyl hydrazine
(b) Glycine
(c) Urea
(d) HydrazineDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Choose the correct order of atomic size ?

a) Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
b) Lu > Yb > La > Lr
c) Ce > Pm > Yb > Lu
d) Lu > Yb > Ce > LaDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Electron gain enthalpy is the amount of energy released when an electron is _____ to the outermost shell of an elements in its _____ state. It becomes more _____ across a period and less ____ down a group.

a) Added, gaseous, negative, negative
b) Remove, liquid, positive, negative
c) Added, liquid, negative, positive
d) Removed, gaseous, positive, positiveDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Identify the one which reduced Tollen’s reagent ?

(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Maltose
(d) SucroseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The correct Lewis acid order for boron halide is

a) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃
b) BF₃ < BCl₃ < BBr₃ < BI₃
c) BF₃ > BI₃ > BBr₃ > BCl₃
d) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Catalyst used in contact process is is

(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) V₂O₅(c) Cr₂O₃
(d) CrO₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 121 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A proton and an α – particle have kinetic energy in the ratio 16:1. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated with them is.

(a) 4:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 7:2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted? e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹(c)

(a) 2.4 eV
(b) 1.5 eV
(c) 3.1 eV
(d) 4.5 eV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A ray of light when falls on a liquid A-air interface at angle 45°, it just gets total reflection. When a ray of light falls on liquid B -air interface at angle 30°, it does not emerge out. We can infer that

(a) μ_A>μ_B
(b) μ_A<μ_B(c) μ_A=μ_B
(d) can’t be inferred

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In going from a rarer to a denser medium, light loses some spee(d) What happens to energy carried by light waves?

a) Greater in rarer medium
b) Greater in denser medium
c) equal in both mediums
d) cannot be said
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(a) I₁+I₂(b) (√I₁+√I₂)²(c) (√I₁−√I₂)²(d) 2(I₁+I₂)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm×2cm) to (5cm×4×cm). If the work done is 3×10⁻⁴J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250Nm⁻¹
(b) 0.125Nm⁻¹(c) 0.2Nm⁻¹
(d) 8.0Nm⁻¹

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. When two displacements represented by y₁=asin (ωt) and y₂=bcos (ωt) are superimposed, the motion is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In an SHM, x is the displacement and a is the acceleration at time t. the plot of a against x for one complete oscillation will be

(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a sinusoidal curve
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following statements are true wave motion?

a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through all mediums
b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through solids only
d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. To determine Young’s modulus of the material of a wire,

a) two wires of same length and radius are taken.
b) Single straight wire of uniform cross section is taken.
c) three wires of different lengths but of same material are taken.
d) two springs of same length but different materials are taken.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V= (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) (a) The value of the resistance is:

(a) (10±0.5)Ω
(b) (10±0.3)Ω
(c) (10±0.4)Ω
(d) (10±0.1)Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 12 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed in rad/s is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.8
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal groun(d) The magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force F_c=-k/r² , the total energy is

(a) -k/r
(b) k/r
(c) -k/2r
(d) k/2r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 40s
(b) 80s
(c) 20s
(d) 50sDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A 60 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body in m/s2 is

(a) 5.2

(b) 2.5

(c) 4.3

(d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A body of 10 kg is acted by a force of 129.4 N. If g =8 m/s². The acceleration of the block is 10 m/s². What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?

(a) 0.03
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum p. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road be m, then the stopping distance is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally opposite point. The work done in this case is

(a) 0
(b) mgh
(c) -mgh
(d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The force constants of two springs are k₁ and k₂ respectively. Both are stretched till their potential energies are equal. The forces f₁ and f₂ applied on them are in the ratio

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 119 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers – Initiation of the heart beat

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using which of the following?
1. dNTPs 2. Mg²+
3. dATPs 4. Ca²+

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) Transformation is the procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into host bacterium.
b) If many copies of target DNA are to be achieved, then it should be cloned in vector with high copy number.
c) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to ampicillin is transferred into E.coli cells, then the host cells become transformed into any antibiotic resistant cells.
d) Presence of many recognition sites in the vector will generate several DNA fragments which may complicate gene cloning

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Multiple alleles are present

a) on different chromosomes
b) at the same locus of the chromosome
c) at different loci on the same chromosome
d) on non-sister chromatids

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. An individual with XxYy genotype is producing four types of gametes as XY, Xy, xY, xy by meiosis. If the frequency of these gametes is 25% each, then, it explains

a) Mutations
b) Independent assortment
c) Incomplete linkage
d) Complete linkage

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In a fish, gold skin colour (G) is dominant to black skin colour (g) and split tail fin (S) is dominant to single tail fin (s). A breeder crosses a male fish having GgSs genotype with a female fish having ggSs genotype. Determine the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny.

(a) 3:1
(b) 9:7
(c) 3:1:3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Whale, seal and shark show which of the following?

a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Natural selection
d) Hybridisation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding genetic drift?

a) Mechanism for evolution of new species
b) Founder effect is a special case
c) Random change in allele frequency in a population
d) Significant only in large population

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Organic compounds required for origin of life were

a) Urea and amino acids
b) Proteins and amino acids
c) Urea and nucleic acids
d) Proteins and nucleic acids

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. At a particular locus, frequency of allele ‘A’ is 0.7 and that of allele ‘a’ is 0.3. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

(a) 0.42
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.49
(d) 0.9

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicates that

a) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
b) Frogs will have gills in the future
c) Frogs uses gills for respiration
d) Frogs evolved from Piscean ancestor

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 118 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the synovial joint causes:

(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Paralysis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Statement I: Malarial parasite requires two hosts humans and mosquitoes to complete its life cycle.
Statement II: Haemozoin is a toxic substance produced by the rupturing of liver cells during malarial infection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by

(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared.
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

(a) biotechnology
(b) biomonitoring
(c) bioinformatics
(d) biosystematics

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(a) diaphragm
(b) ribs
(c) pleura
(d) lungs

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Eustachian lube connects

(a) External ear with middle ear
(b) External ear with internal ear
(c) Middle ear with pharynx
(d) Internal pharynx

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) cAMP
(d) cGMP

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is:

(a) Escherischia coll
(b) Bacillus subtil is
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Carcinoma refers to

(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
Statement II: Cancer arising from epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. the number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 2 pairs

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(d ) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 117 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Statement I: The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of redox potential scale in electron transport chain
Statement II: The electrons are used up as they pass through the electron transport chain. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Conservation of biodiversity due to services like provision of pollinators and climate regulation is an example of

(a). Narrowly utilitarian
(b). Broadly utilitarian
(c). Ethical utilitarian
(d). None of these133.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A man having a genotype WwXxYxZz can produce a number of genetically different sperms and a women of genotype PpQQRrSS can generate B number of genetically different eggs. Determine the value of A and B.

(a) A=8, B=4
(b) A=16, B=4
(c) A=32, B=8
(d) A=4, B=8

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Plasmid has been used as vector because to

(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Statement I: Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular organs.
Statement II: About 80% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection:

(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissues and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukemia.

(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope by the pathologist.

(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect physiological changes in living tissues.

(v) Early detection of cancer is essential as it allow the disease to be treated successfully.

Which of the following statement are incorrect?

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Assertion (A): STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse
Reason (R): STDs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Statement I: Increased permeability of Na⁺ ions due to the rise in stimulus is short lived.
Statement II: The resting membrane potential of membrane at the site of excitation is restored by Na* and Ci~ ions.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Match the items given in column-l with those in column-ll and select the correct option given below.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

(a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(b) Canola
(c) Golden rice
(d) Bt-Brinjal

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?

(a) Compound eyes
(b) Poison gland
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Metamorphosis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Mark the unmatched one

(a) Neutrophils – Phagocytic
(b) Basophils – Secrete histamine
(c) Acidophils – Secrete heparin
(d) Lymphocytes – Secrete antibodies

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. If for some reason, the vasa efterentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Nephron
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 116 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which organelle is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Coconut milk (coconut waler) is widely used in tissue culture because it contains

(a) auxins
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellins

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The Okazaki fragments in ON A chain growth

(a) polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(b) proves semi-conservative nature of ON A replication
(c) polymerize in the 5′ – to – 3* direction and explain 3′ – to – 5′ DNA replication
(d) result in transcription

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?

(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?

(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO₂ concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In down’s syndrome of a male chi Id, the sex complement is

(a) XO
(b) 45 XY
(c) 45 XX
(d) XXY

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Pick out the correct statements
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i),(iii) and (lv) are correct
(d) (i). (ii) and (iii) are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The first step of photosynthesis is

(a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO₂ to 5 carbon sugar
(d) ionisation of water

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) ABA
(b) 2,4-D
(c) 1AA
(d) GA

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which one of the following grow th regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?

(a) Abscissic acid
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA₃
(d) Indole acetic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(a) China rose and citrus
(b) China rose
(c) Citrus
(d) Pea

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Statement I: Biooontrol refers to the useofbiokigical methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures with greatly reduced our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type A : 1 type B?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The given figures (A and B) show the modification of roots. Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow’ in sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reducat ion reactions produce proton gradi ent in respiration
(b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of N ADH + FT gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 115 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which organelle is surrounded by a double phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?

(a) Nucleus
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Mitochondrion

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Coconut milk (coconut waler) is widely used in tissue culture because it contains

(a) auxins
(b) ethylene
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellins

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The Okazaki fragments in ON A chain growth

(a) polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(b) proves semi-conservative nature of ON A replication
(c) polymerize in the 5′ – to – 3* direction and explain 3′ – to – 5′ DNA replication
(d) result in transcription

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?

(a) Methanogens
(b) Nitrifying bacteria
(c) Ammonifying bacteria
(d) Denitrifying bacteria

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The reactions of Calvin cycle not directly dependent on light, but they usually do not occur at night. Why?

(a) Night is often too cold for these reactions to occur.
(b) CO₂ concentration in night is too high for these reactions to occur.
(c) Plants usually open their stomata at night.
(d) Calvin cycle is dependent on the products of light reaction.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In down’s syndrome of a male chi Id, the sex complement is

(a) XO
(b) 45 XY
(c) 45 XX
(d) XXY

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to

(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Pick out the correct statements
(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
(a) (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i),(iii) and (lv) are correct
(d) (i). (ii) and (iii) are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The first step of photosynthesis is

(a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light
(b) formation of ATP
(c) attachment of CO₂ to 5 carbon sugar
(d) ionisation of water

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of these statements is incorrect?

(a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(d) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) ABA
(b) 2,4-D
(c) 1AA
(d) GA

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which one of the following grow th regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?

(a) Abscissic acid
(b) Ethylene
(c) GA₃
(d) Indole acetic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Diadelphous stamens are found in

(a) China rose and citrus
(b) China rose
(c) Citrus
(d) Pea

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Statement I: Biooontrol refers to the useofbiokigical methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures with greatly reduced our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Statement I: Frame-shift mutation arise due to change in single base pair of DNA.
Statement II: Point-mutation is due to insertion and deletion of base pair.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type A : 1 type B?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The given figures (A and B) show the modification of roots. Which of the following statements regarding the figures is correct?

(a) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(b) Pneumatophores conducts water, minerals & photosynthesis
(c) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow’ in sandy soil.
(d) Turnip & carrot shows adventitious roots and sweet potato shows tap root.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following statements of incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reducat ion reactions produce proton gradi ent in respiration
(b) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of N ADH + FT gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

131. Statement I: The movement of electrons is downhill, in terms of redox potential scale in electron transport chain
Statement II: The electrons are used up as they pass through the electron transport chain. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

132. Conservation of biodiversity due to services like provision of pollinators and climate regulation is an example of

(a). Narrowly utilitarian
(b). Broadly utilitarian
(c). Ethical utilitarian
(d). None of these133.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

133. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

134. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

135. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

136. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

(a) intraspecific variations
(b) intraspecific competition
(c) interspecific competition
(d) origin of Species by natural selection

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

137. A man having a genotype WwXxYxZz can produce a number of genetically different sperms and a women of genotype PpQQRrSS can generate B number of genetically different eggs. Determine the value of A and B.

(a) A=8, B=4
(b) A=16, B=4
(c) A=32, B=8
(d) A=4, B=8

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

138. Plasmid has been used as vector because to

(a) both its ends show replication.
(b) it can move between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(c) It transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
(d) it has antibiotic resistance gene
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

139. Statement I: Ciliary movements are observed in internal tubular organs.
Statement II: About 80% of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrec
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

140. Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection:

(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissues and the blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukemia.

(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope by the pathologist.

(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.

(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect physiological changes in living tissues.

(v) Early detection of cancer is essential as it allow the disease to be treated successfully.

Which of the following statement are incorrect?

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

141. Assertion (A): STDs are transmitted through sexual intercourse
Reason (R): STDs can be prevented by using barrier contraceptives like condoms.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

142. Statement I: Increased permeability of Na⁺ ions due to the rise in stimulus is short lived.
Statement II: The resting membrane potential of membrane at the site of excitation is restored by Na* and Ci~ ions.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

143. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Chitin is a homopolymer.
(b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
(c) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(d) In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a phosphodiester bond.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

144. Match the column-l with column-ll and choose the correct option.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

145. Match the items given in column-l with those in column-ll and select the correct option given below.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

146. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?

(a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(b) Canola
(c) Golden rice
(d) Bt-Brinjal

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

147. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?

(a) Compound eyes
(b) Poison gland
(c) Jointed legs
(d) Metamorphosis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

148. Mark the unmatched one

(a) Neutrophils – Phagocytic
(b) Basophils – Secrete histamine
(c) Acidophils – Secrete heparin
(d) Lymphocytes – Secrete antibodies

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

149. If for some reason, the vasa efterentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from

(a) testes to epididymis
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) vagina to uterus

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

150. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of

(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Nephron
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

151. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the synovial joint causes:

(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Gout
(d) Paralysis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

152. Statement I: Malarial parasite requires two hosts humans and mosquitoes to complete its life cycle.
Statement II: Haemozoin is a toxic substance produced by the rupturing of liver cells during malarial infection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement 11 are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

153. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by

(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared.
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

154. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of:

(a) biotechnology
(b) biomonitoring
(c) bioinformatics
(d) biosystematics

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

155. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

156. Assertion: Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
Reason: It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

157. Intercostal muscles are found attached with

(a) diaphragm
(b) ribs
(c) pleura
(d) lungs

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

158. Eustachian lube connects

(a) External ear with middle ear
(b) External ear with internal ear
(c) Middle ear with pharynx
(d) Internal pharynx

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

159. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

160. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium
(b) Sodium
(c) cAMP
(d) cGMP

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

161. A genetically engineered bacteria used for clearing oil spills is:

(a) Escherischia coll
(b) Bacillus subtil is
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

162. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in thyroid
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

163. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes

(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of calmness
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain
(d) stimulates the nervous system and increases alterness and activity.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

164. Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated) and choose the correct option.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

165. Carcinoma refers to

(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

166. Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined to their original location, do not spread to other body parts and cause less damage.
Statement II: Cancer arising from epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred to as sarcoma. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

167. the number of floating ribs, in the human body, is

(a) 6 pairs
(b) 5 pairs
(c) 3 pairs
(d) 2 pairs

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

168. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(d ) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

169. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Tidal Volume
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(d) Residual Volume

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

170. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

171. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

172. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

173. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

174. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.
(a) (i)and(ii)
(b) (ii)and(iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

175. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers – Initiation of the heart beat

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

176. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

177. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

178. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

179. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

180. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

107. What is the end product of glycolysis of a glucose molecule?

(a) Fructose 1,6- diphosphate
(b) Pyruvate and ATP
(c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(d) Lactic acid and ATP

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 114 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Assertion (A): If pollen mother cells have 42 chromosomes, the pollen has only 21 chromosomes.
Reason (R): Pollens are formed after meiosis from pollen mother cell.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Identify the kind of phyllotaxy shown in the given figures A, B, and C.

(a) A-Alternate, B – Opposite, C – Whorled
(b) A- Whorled, B – Opposite, C -Alternate
(c) A-Allemate, B – Whorled, C – Opposite
(d) A-Whorled, B-Alternate, C-Opposite
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Assertion (A): Viruses are not considered as organism.
Reason (R): Viruses are nucleoproteins and lack cell organelle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to:

(a) explain the origin of living organsims.
(b) trace the evolution of living organsims.
(c) name the living organisms.
(d) facilitate grouping of anything based on some easily observable characteristics.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct?
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs of a flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(d) (iv),(v) and (i)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. One of the primary functions of the ground tissue in a plant is

(a) photosynthesis.
(b) to protect the plant.
(c) to anchor the plant.
(d) water and sugar conduction.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A pleiotropic gene

(a) Controls multiple traits in an individual.
(b) Is expressed only in primitive plants.
(c) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene.
(d) Controls a trait only in combination with another gene.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the correct match from the option given below:

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii). D-(i)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following pair has haploid structures?

(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(b) Antipodal cells and egg cell
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell
(d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Double fertilization is fusion of

(a) two eggs
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with synergid
(d) one male gamete with egg and other with secondary nucleus
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Assertion (A): Chlorella could be utilised to keep the air pure in space vehicles.

Reason (R): The space travellers teed on Chlorella soup. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Carbon dioxide labelled with ¹⁴C has been used to identify the intermediate compounds in the Calvin cycle, the light independent stage in photosynthesis. Which compound would be the first to contain the ¹⁴C?

(a) glucose
(b) starch
(c) GP(PGA)
(d) triose phosphate

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The dihybrid ratio in F₂ – generation is

(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 2:1:2:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Reverse transcriptase is

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Identify the correct statements for ATP synthase:
(i) This enzyme consists of two parts: hydrophobic membrane bound portion called F₀ & a portion that sticks out into stroma called F₁(ii) F₀ appears to form a channel across the membrane through which proton can pass.
(iii) The conformational change in the Fj portion of the complex synthesizes ATP.
(iv) The proton motive force that drives the synthesis of ATP is associated with this enzyme.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Match the following and choose the correct option:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. What is the end product of glycolysis of a glucose molecule?

(a) Fructose 1,6- diphosphate
(b) Pyruvate and ATP
(c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(d) Lactic acid and ATP

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18 In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R. Q. is zero because

(a) CO₂ is released without any absorption of O₂(b) O₂ is absorbed but CO₂is not released
(c) There is often compensation point in these plants due to thick phylloclades
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Electrons are picked up by an electron acceptor which passes them to an electron transport system consisting of

(a) phytochromes
(b) cytochromes
(c) Z-scheme
(d) redox potential scale

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

(a) endangered species found in the region.
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(c) genetic diversity presents in the dominant species of the region.
(d) species endemic to the region.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 113 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried out easily by using a solution of:

(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Sodium sulphate
(c) Calcium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which is major product formed when acetone is heated with iodine and potassium hydroxide?

(a) lodoacetone
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Iodoform
(d) Acetophenone
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Read the following statements regarding Fajan’s rule. The rate constant for a reaction is expressed as and select the correct option.

(l) The reduced the size of the cation and the larger the size of the anion, the larger the covalent character of an ionic bond.

(Il) The larger the charge on the cation, the larger the covalent character of the ionic bond.

Options:

(a) Only (1) is incorrect
(b) (1) and (Il) are correc
(c) (1) and (Il) are incorrect
(d) (l) is correct and (Il) is incorrect
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin B complex
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 112 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of H₂, electron density is increased between the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is , which shows destructive interference of the combining electron waves.

(a) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(c) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
(d) Assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. For silver, Cp(JK-1mol-1) =23+0.01T. lf the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of will be close to:

(a) 62 kJ
(b) 16 kJ
(c) 21 kJ
(d) 13
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A flask contains a mixture of isohexane and 3- methylpentane. One of the liquids boils at 63 °C while the other boils at 60 °C. What is the best way to separate the two liquids and which one will be distilled out first?

(a) fractional distillation, isohexane
(b) simple distillation, 3-methylpentane
(c) simple distillation, isohexane
(d) fractional distillation, 3-methylpentane

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoulfs law?

(a) Waler – nitric acid
(b) Benzene – methanol
(c) Water – hydrochloric acid
(d) Acetone – chloroform
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Sn in +2 oxidation state act as a good reducing agent while Pb in +4 oxidation state act as a good oxidising agent.

Reason (R): Due to inert pair effect Pb in +2 oxidation state is stable.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC₂O₄, Fe₂ (C₂O₄)₃, FeSO₄and Fe₂(SO₄ )₃ in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO₄ required is:

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 13

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. ∆_fG° 500 K for substance ‘S’ in liquid state and gaseous state are +100.7 kcal mol^-1 and + 103 kcal mol^-1respectively. Vapour pressure of liquid ‘S’ at 500K is approximately equal t0: (R=2 cal K^-1 mol^-1 ) .

(a) 100 atm
(b) l atm
(c) 10 atm
(d) 0.1 atm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”.
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of rc-donor character in addition to the cr-bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.
(a) A is correct but R is not correct
(b) A is not correct but R is correct
(c) Both A and R are correct but R is .NOT the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. According to molecular orbital theory, the species among the following that does not exist is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12 .If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is 1.73 B.M, it may be:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In Dumas method for the estimation of N„ the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:

(a) Ni
(b) Copper gauze
(c) Pd
(d) Copper oxide

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Hofmann degradation reaction, the migration of only an alkyl group takes place from carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom.
Statement II : The group is migrated in Hofmann degradation reaction to electron deficient atom. In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are correct.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In a compound C, 11 and N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is 108. Molecular formula of compound is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation is:

(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) V
(d) Zn

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025

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