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NEET TEST SERIES 107 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be directly utilized by humans for energy production?

(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Sucrose
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In a T.S. (transverse section) of a young dicot root, the protoxylem is located towards the periphery, and the metaxylem is towards the center. This condition is described as:

(a) Exarch
(b) Endarch
(c) Mesarch
(d) Polyarch
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm together constitute:

a) Periderm
b) Secondary xylem
c) Secondary phloem
d) Vascular cambium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A tissue in the stem of a flowering plant shows living cells with thickened corners due to pectin deposition and is involved in providing flexibility. This tissue is

(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma

(c) Parenchyma

(d) Xylem fibers
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. In an isobilateral leaf, the mesophyll is:

a) Differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
b) Undifferentiated and uniform
c) Absent due to the presence of sclerenchyma
d) Replaced by aerenchyma
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The plant body of Funaria is

a) completely sporophyte
b) predominantly gametophyte sporophyte
c) completely gametophyte with
d) predominantly gametophyte
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

(a) has unlimited growth
(b) bears a solitary flower
(c) has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
(d) terminates in a flower
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Hypanthodium is a specialised type of

(a) fruit
(b) inflorescence
(c) thalamus
(d) ovary.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from

(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(c) complete inflorescence
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following statements with respect to endoplasmic reticulum is incorrect?

(a) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(b) SER is devoid of ribosomes
(c) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(d) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for

(a) protein synthesis
(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
(c) breakdown of macromolecules
(d) oxidation-reduction reaction
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The pyrenoids are made up of

(a) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(b) core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
(c) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
(d) core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

(a) Diplontic life cycle
(b) Members of Kingdom Plantae
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Multiplication by fragmentation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
b) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
c) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is

(a) marginal
(b) free central
(c) basal
(d) axile
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The floral formula is that of

(a) soybean
(b) sunhemp
(c) tobacco
(d) tulip.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

(a) Glycolipids
(b) Proline
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Microtubules are the constituents of

(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cili(a)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Meiosis II performs

(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromere
(c) separation of homologous chromosomes
(d) separation of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 106 BIOLOGY
Name

Email

1. The double-helical structure of DNA was proposed by:
(a) Watson and Crick
(c) Frederick Sanger
(d) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Linus PaulingDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Assertion: Enzymes are highly specific in their action.
Reason: Enzymes have an active site that binds to a specific substrate.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Assertion: RNA is more reactive than DNA.
Reason: RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following is a fibrous protein?

(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Keratin
(c) Insulin
(d) MyoglobinDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following is a storage polysaccharide in animals?

(a) Cellulose
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) ChitinDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In a typical angiosperm, the mature embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleate. If the polar nuclei fail to fuse before fertilization, what would be the ploidy level of the endosperm in the resulting fertilization?

(a) Haploid (n)

(b) Diploid (2n)

(c) Triploid (3n)

(d) Tetraploid (4n)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A plant exhibits cleistogamy and produces only self-pollinated seeds. Which of the following features is most likely absent in such a plant?

(a) Nectar production
(b) Micropyle plant?
(c) Synergids
(d) Endosperm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. During pollen grain development, the generative cell divides to form two male gametes. If a mutation causes the generative cell to divide into three cells instead of two, what would be the most likely consequence during fertilization?

a) Formation of twin embryos
b) Failure of double fertilization
c) Production of a tetraploid endosperm
d) No effect on seed development
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In some angiosperms, apomixis mimics sexual reproduction. Which of the following best explains why apomictic seeds are genetically identical to the parent plant?

a) Meiosis is followed by fusion of gametes
b) Embryo develops from a diploid cell without fertilization
c) Endosperm formation involves triple, fusion
d) Pollen grains undergo mitotic division
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A flower is pollinated by wind, and its pollen grains lack exine. Which of the following adaptations is most likely present to ensure successful pollination?

a) Sticky pollen grains
b) Feathery stigma
c) Brightly colored petals
d) Nectar guides
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an experiment, the stigma of a flower is removed before pollination. Which of the following processes will be directly affected?

a) Formation of the pollen tube
b) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
c) Development of the endosperm
d) Maturation of the ovule
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The phenomenon of polyembryony is observed in certain plants. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding polyembryony?

a) It always results from the fertilization of multiple egg cells
b) It can occur due to the cleavage of a single zygote or development of additional embryos from nucellar cells
c) It leads to the formation of genetically diverse embryos in a single seed
d) It is exclusive to plants exhibiting apomixis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In a species of flowering plant, the pollen grains are viable for only 30 minutes after release. What type of pollination mechanism is this plant most likely adapted to?

a) Entomophily (insect pollination)
b) Anemophily (wind pollination)
c) Hydrophily (water pollination)
d) Autogamy (self-pollination)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following structures in an angiosperm ovule directly provides nourishment to the developing embryo?

a) Integuments
b) Endosperm
c) Nucellus
d) Funicle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A plant breeder observes that a certain variety of angiosperm produces seeds without fertilization of the egg cell but requires pollination for endosperm development. This phenomenon is best described as:

(a) Parthenocarpy
(b) Apomixis
(c) Pseudogamy
(d) Polyembryony
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The primary structure of a protein is stabilized by:

(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Peptide bonds
(c) Disulfide bridges
(d) Ionic bonds
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A certain biomolecule exhibits the following properties:

It is insoluble in water.

It contains long hydrocarbon chains.

It yields glycerol and fatty acids upon hydrolysis.

What is the biomolecule?

(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) Nucleic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In the competitive inhibition of an enzyme, the inhibitor:

a) Binds irreversibly to the active site
b) Increases the Km value without affecting Vmax
c) Decreases both Km and Vmax
d) Binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The denaturation of a protein involves:

a) Breaking of peptide bonds
b) Loss of primary structure
c) Disruption of secondary and tertiary structures
d) Formation of new hydrogen bonds
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. An amino acid with a hydrophobic side chain is most likely to be found:

a) On the surface of a globular protein
b) In the interior of a globular protein
c) In the active site of an enzyme
d) In the peptide backbone
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None
May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 105 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, k = Ae−^Ea/RT. Activation energy (E_a) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. At 25⁰C, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 0×10⁻¹². The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the base would be:

a) 1.0×10⁶mol L⁻¹
b) 1.0×10⁻⁷mol L⁻¹
c) 2.0×10⁻⁶ mol L⁻¹
d) 1.0×10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. One mole of an ideal mono-atomic gas is caused to go through the cycle shown in the figure below. Then the change in the internal energy in expanding the gas from ato c along the path abc is:

a) 3P₀V₀ b) 6 RT₀
c) 4.5 RT₀
d) 10.5 RT₀
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A reaction occurs spontaneously if:

a) TΔS =ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
b) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
c) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
d) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A schematic plot of ln K_eqversus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below: The reaction must be:

a) Highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
b) One with negligible enthalpy change
c) endothermic
d) exothermic
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. If the mass of neutron is assumed to half of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to be twice of its original value, then the atomic mass of ¹⁴C will be

a) Same
b) 14.28 % less
c) 14.28 % more
d) 28.56 % more
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The △G⁰for the reaction = + 57 kJ
MX_(s)⇔M⁺_(aq)+ X⁻_(aq)Hence K_sp for the reaction is

a) 10⁻⁵
b) 10⁻⁶c) 10⁻¹⁰
d) 10⁻¹⁶
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For the observations given, the correct rate law expression is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Cu⁺((aq))is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction, according to the reaction 2Cu⁺(aq) ⇌ Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
Choose E⁰ for the above reaction if

a) − 0.38 V
b) + 0.49 V
c) + 0.38 V
d) + 0.19 V
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following statement is false?

a) Raoult’s law is obeyed only when solution is very dilute
b) Both Raoult’s law and Henry’s law law says that P α X
c) Increase in temperature decreases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction
d) Increase in temperature increases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. On reductive ozonolysis of yields

a) 6-oxoheptanoic acid
b) 6-oxoheptanal
c) 6-hydroxyheptanal
d) 3-hydroxypentanal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) CH₃CHO
b) CH₃CH₂NHOH
c) CH₃CH₂COOH
d) CH₃COOHDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

the product E is
a) salicylic acid
b) anthranilic acid
c) benzoic acid
d) o-nitrobenzoic acid.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which gives iodoform test?

a) Hexan-3-one
b) Pentan-3-one
c) Pentan-2-one
d) PentanalDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) mesityl oxide
b) 2-butene
c) 2-Hydroxybutanal
d) 3-hydroxybutanalDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. An organic aromatic compound having molecular formula C₂H₂O does not give characteristic colour with neutral FeCl3 but bubbles of hydrogen gas are formed when it is treated with metallic sodium. The compound is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Tertiary butyl halide on boiling with water gives tertiary butyl alcohol. The reaction follows

a) 2 mechanism
b) N1 mechanism
c) E1 mechanism
d) none of theseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The products obtained when anisole is heated in a sealed tube with HI are

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) phenol
b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Aniline
d) BenzaldehydeDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 104 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following ion is the smallest in size ?
a) Na+
b) Mg²⁺
c) Al³⁺
d) N^3-
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

a) Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
b) Both A and B are alkali metals
c) A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
d) B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metals
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In octahedral structure (all are bond pair with no lone pair) MX₆, the number of X-M-X bonds at is :

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A sigma bonded molecule MX₄ is See Saw shape. The number of non – bonding pairs of electron is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. In BrF₃ molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize

a) Lp- lp repulsion only
b) Lp- bp repulsion only
c) Lp- lp repulsion and Lp-bp repulsion
d) Bp – Bp repulsion only
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to

a) The p- bonding involves overlap of p- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese
b) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with p – orbitals of manganese
c) There is no p- bonding
d) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Choose the incorrect statement

a) Na₂Cr₂O₇ is preferred over K₂Cr₂O₇ in volumetric analysis.
b) K₂Cr₂O₇solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
c) KMnO₄ Titrations are carried out only in the presence of dil.H₂SO₄
d) Cr (V) undergoes disproportionation in acidic medium to Cr (VI) and Cr (III)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following Lanthanoid ions is Diamagnetic ?

a) Ce²⁺
b) Yb²⁺
c) Eu²⁺
d) Gd²⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

a) n=5 to n=3
b) n=5 to n=4
c) n=6 to n=1
d) n=6 to n=5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be ( kg /s)

a) 1. 25 X 10^-34 m
b) 3. 01 10^-34 m
c) 5.27 x 10^-30 m
d) 5.27 x 10^-20 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because

a) Al has high IE
b) Cannot form a trimer
c) Al can have higher coordination number
d) Both belongs to p- block
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Borax is prepared by treating boric acid with

a) NaCl
b) NaNO₂
c) Na₂CO₃
d) NaHCO₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following ion undergo Self oxidation and reduction

a) Al³⁺ and Na⁺
b) Al³⁺ and Ga⁺
c) Ga⁺ and In⁺
d) In⁺ and Tl⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the statements about denaturation given below are correct ?
1. Denaturation of protein affects primary structure.
2. Denaturation of protein causes loss of secondary and tertiary structure.
3. Denaturation of protein leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.

a) All are correct
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin E
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Decomposition of H₂O₂ follows a first order reaction. In 50 min the concentrations of H₂O₂decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H₂O₂ reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O₂ will be?

a) 6.93×10⁻⁴ mol min⁻¹
b) 2.66L min⁻¹at STP
c) 1.34×10⁻² mol min⁻¹
d) 6.93×10⁻² mol min⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Al₂O₃is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high current. If 0×10⁴ amperes of current is passed through molten Al₂O₃ for 6 hours, what mass of aluminum is produced? (Assume 100 % current efficiency, At. mass of Al = 27u)

a) A. 1.3×10⁴ g
b) 2.4×10⁵ g
c) 8.1×10⁴ g
d) 9.0×10³g
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. When 4 Lof H₂(g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl₂(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to?

a) 1 mole of HCl (g)
b) 2 moles of HCl (g)
c) 0.5 mole of HCl (g)
d) 1.5 mole of HCl (g)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. 5 g of an impure sample of sodium sulphate dissolved in water was treated with excess of barium chloride solution when 1.74 g of BaSO₄was obtained as dry precipitate. Calculate the percentage purity of the sample.

a) 60.4 2
b) 70.67
c) 84.16
d) 90.32
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A ( 150 torr) and 2 mol B ( 240 torr) is 200 torr. In this case :

a) there is a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
b) there is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) there is no deviation from Raoults law
d) cannot be decided
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 103 PHYSICS

Name

Email

a) 3/2
b) 1
c) 2/3
d) 1/2Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. An object covers (16±0.4) m distance in (4±.02) Find out its speed in m/s with absolute error limits.

a) (4±0.3)
b) (4±0.4)
c) (3±0.3)
d) (3±0.4)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237g and 2.5 cm respectively. The density of the material of the body (in g/cm³) in correct significant figure is

a) 1.6048

b) 1.69

c) 1.695

d) 1.7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower, one after the other with an interval of one second. The first one reaches the ground after 4 second. When the first one reaches the ground, the distances between the first and second, the second and third and the third and fourth will be, respectively

a) 35 m, 25 m and 15 m
b) 30 m, 25 m and 10 m
c) 35 m, 20 m and 15 m
d) 30 m, 20 m and 10 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A particle is moving in a straight line and its acceleration-time graph is shown below. At t = 0 the particle has velocity (–10 m/s). Find the velocity of the particle at t = 8 s

a) 20 m/s
b) 30 m/s
c) 40 m/s
d) 50 m/s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A point mass moves along a circle of radius R with a constant angular acceleration α. How much time is needed after motion begins for the radial acceleration of the point mass to be equal to its tangential acceleration?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A string of length 10 cm breaks if its tension exceeds 10 N. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string, is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be

a) 20 rad/s
b) 10 rad/s
c) 30 rad/s
d) 50 rad/s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A body of mass 10 kg is released from a tower of height 20 m and body acquires a velocity of 10 m/s after falling through the distance 20 m. The work done by the push of the air on the body is (Take g = 10 m/s)

a) 1500 J
b) 1800 J
c) -1500 J
d) -1800 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is at αR distance from the centre of the bigger disc. The value of α is

a) 1/2
b) 1/6
c) 2/3
d) 1/3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A 90 kg body placed at 2R distance from surface of earth experiences gravitational pull of: (take R = Radius of earth, g = 10 ms^-2)

a) 400 N
b) 100 N
c) 900 N
d) 200 N
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by △x on applying force 1/3 newton, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 9
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water in the capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be

a) 2M
b) M
c) M2
d) 4M

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from 4 cm to 5 cm is Joule (given surface tension of soap water to be 25×10⁻³N/m)

a) 0.5657×10⁻³
b) 5.657×10⁻³
c) 56.5×10⁻³
d) 565×10⁻³
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is

a) 2(√3) cm
b) 2(√5) cm
c) √5cm
d)√3cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by x=5[cosπt + sinπt] where x is in metre. The amplitude of motion of the particle is given by

a) 8 m
b) 10 m
c) 5√2m
d) 10√2m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 kHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, the wavelengths of the reflected and transmitted sound are (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s⁻¹and in water = 1500 m s⁻¹)

a) 3.4mm,30mm
b) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
c) 3.4 mm, 15 mm
d) 6.8 mm, 30 mm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50cm, the length of closed pipe is

a) 25cm
b) 12.5cm
c) 100cm
d) 200cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A long, thick straight conductor of radius R carries current I uniformly distributed in its cross-section area. The ratio of energy density of the magnetic field at distance R/2 from surface inside the conductor and outside the conductor is:

a) 1:16
b) 1:1
c) 1:4
d) 9/16
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A particle having charge 100 times that of an electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8m with one rotation per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre is

a) 10⁻⁷/μ₀
b) 10⁻¹⁷μ₀
c) 10⁻⁶μ₀
d) 10⁻¹⁵/μ₀
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250×10⁻¹⁰ The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536×10⁻¹⁰m is
(Given h=4.14×10⁶ms⁻¹eVs and c=3×10⁸ms⁻¹)

a) ≈6×10⁵ms⁻¹
b) ≈0.6×10⁶ms⁻¹
c) ≈61×10³ms⁻¹
d) ≈0.3×10⁶ms⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 101 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81:1. What is the ratio of amplitudes of light waves coming from them?

a) 3:1
b) 3:2
c) 9:1
d) 6:1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The specific charge of a proton is 9.6×107C kg⁻¹. The specific charge of an alpha particle will be

a) 9.6×10⁷C kg⁻¹
b) 19.2×10⁷C kg⁻¹
c) 4.8×10⁷C kg⁻¹
d) 2.4×10⁷C kg⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A small angled prism (μ=1.62) gives a deviation of 4.8. Calculate the angle of prism.

a) 5°
b) 6.36°
c) 3°
d) 7.74°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2×10⁴turns per meter. At centre of the solenoid is 100 turns coil of radius 0.01 m placed with its axis coinciding with solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π²Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

a) 32π μC
b) 16 μC
c) 32 μC
d) 16 πμC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. An inductor 20mH, a capacitor 100μF and a resistor 50Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V=10sin314t. The power loss in the circuit is

a) 0.67W
b) 0.76W
c) 0.89W
d) 0.51W
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80V,40V and 100V respectively in an L−C−R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 1.0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). the angel of minimum deviation is

a) 180°−3A
b) 180°−2A
c) 90°−A
d) 180°+2A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular path of radius 0.8 m with an angular velocity 44 rad/sec. If radius of path becomes 1 m then value of angular velocity will be

(a) 35.28 rad/sec
(b) 14.08 rad/sec
(c) 28.16 rad/sec
(d) 24.08 rad/sec

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of waler in 5 minutes. A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in

(a) 5 minutes
(b) 8 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 20 minutes

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance

(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
(d) increases K^-1 times

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new momentum will be

(a) same as initial value
(b) twice the initial value
(c) thrice the initial value
(d) four times the initial value

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of L i2 are

(a) [ML²T^-2]
(b) [MLT^-2]
(c) [M²L²T^-2]
(d) Not expressible in M,L,T

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm, and its spring constant is 4000 N/m. A mass of 20 kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is, (Take g =8 m/s²)

(a) 4.9 cm
(b) 0.49 cm
(c) 9.4 cm
(d) 0.94 cm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates through an angle q₁ in first one second and through an additional angle q₂ in the next one secon(d) The ratio between the angles is

(a) 3
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 2/3

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The moment of inertia of HCl molecule (in kg m²) about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the H⁺ and Cl^– ions will be, if the interatomic distance is 1 Å (mass of H atom = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg, mass of Cl atom = 5.89 x 10^-26 kg)

(a) 0.162×10^-47
(b) 1.62×10^-47(c) 16.2×10^-47
(d)162×10^-47

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The earth of mass 6 x 10²⁴ kg revolves round the sun with angular velocity 2 x 10^-7 rad/s, in a circular orbit of radius 1.5 x 10⁸ The force exerted by the sun on the earth in newtons is

(a) 36×10³¹(b) 3.6×10³¹(c) 0.36×10³⁰
(d) 36×10³⁰

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The depth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity is g/4 is (R is radius of earth)

(a) R/4
(b) 3R/4
(c) 4R/3
(d) R/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 100 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
d) 0.61 × 10⁹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a point A to point B, then

a) V_A-V_B= +ve
b) V_A-V_B = 0
c) V_A-V_B=-ve
d) it is stationary
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect to distance (s) from centre as

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Three capacitors are connected in the arms of a triangle ABC as shown in figure 5 V is applied between A and B. The voltage between B and C is

a) 2 V
b) 1 V
c) 3 V
d) 1.5 V
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The voltage V and current I graphs for a conductor at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ are shown in the figure. The relation between T₁ and T₂ is

a) T₁ > T₂
b) T₁ < T₂
c) T₁ = T₂
a) T₁ > 1/T₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed

a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the ground state
b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited states and the first excited state
c) in any transition in a H-atom
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Currents flowing in each of the circuits A and B respectively are

a) 1 A, 2A
b) 2A, 1A
c) 4A, 2A
d) 2A, 4A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

28. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.

Output is:

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents
a) NOR gate
b) AND gate
c) NAND gate
d) OR gate
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels

a) remain the same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. For a constant force the work done in stretching if spring constant k1>k2 then energy stored in two wire related as

a) ω1>ω2
b) ω1=ω2
c) ω1<ω2
d) ω2=2ω1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The displacement of an elastic wave is given by the function y=3sinωt+4cosωt. where y is in cm and t is in second. Calculate the resultant amplitude.

a) 3 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 7 cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the capillary.

a) the surface tension of the liquid must be zero
b) the contact angle must be 90∘
c) the surface tension may be zero
d) the contact angle may be 90∘
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A load of 3kg produces an extension of 1.5mm in a wire of length 3m and diameter 2mm. Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is

a) 1.87×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
b) 3.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
c) 15×10¹⁰Nm⁻²d) 2.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found than 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Two similar thin Equi-convex lenses, of focal f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1, When the space between the two lens is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index μ=1.5 as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2, the ratio F1:F2 will be

a) 3:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 2:3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A 2.5 m long straight wire having mass of 500 g is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. If a current of 4 A is passing through the wire, then the magnitude of the field is (Take g 10ms−2)

a) 0.5T
b) 0.6T
c) 0.25T
d) 0.8T
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A current-carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without touching it. The correct statement(s) is (are)

a) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant.
b) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant.
c) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate.
d) The emf induction in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) infinity
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is.

a) blue
b) green
c) violet
d) red
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 98 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Pacemaker is placed on/in

a) Interauricular septum
b) Interventricular septum
c) Wall of left atrium
d) Wall of right atrium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following decreases in size with increasing age?

a) Pituitary
b) Thymus
c) Adrenal
d) Thyroid
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Thyroid is derived from which of the following?

a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Intake of ORS causes secretion of

a) Oxytocin
b) Melatonin
c) Epinephrine
d) Vasopressin
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Match the following:
1. Testis – i) Two pairs
2. Thymus – ii) one pair
3. Adrenal – iii) unpaired
4. Parathyroid
5. Thyroid

Options:
a) i – 4, ii- 3, ii- 2, iii- 1, iii- 5
b) i – 5, i- 1, ii- 4, iii- 2, iii- 3
c) i – 4, ii – 1, ii- 3, iii- 2, iii-5
d) i – 4, i – 1, ii- 5, iii- 2, iii-3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Assertion(A): Hormones are similar to enzymes in their action and chemical nature.
Reason ( R): Hormones and enzymes cannot speed accelerate a specific reactions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) Both A and R are false
d) A is true but R is false
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In frog, columnae carneae is present on

a) Inner surface of ventricle
b) Outer surface of ventricle
c) Inner surface of auricle
d) Outer surface of auricle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Select the incorrect pair

a) Lymph vessel – simple squamous epithelium
b) Choroid and iris of eye – simple columnar epithelium
c) Salivary and pancreatic ducts – simple cuboidal epithelium
d) Ventricles of brain – simple ciliated epithelium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In a food chain, maximum energy is stored in

a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Producer
d) Decomposer
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Movement of individuals from one place to another, which add new alleles to local gene pool

a) Gene recombination
b) Hybridisation
c) Gene flow
d) Genetic drift
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Nematocysts take part in

a) Anchorage
b) Offence and defense
c) Food capture
d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. All chordates at one or another stage, possess

a) Two pairs of pentadactyl limbs
b) Movable jaw
c) Vertebral column
d) Pharyngeal gill slits

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The given pie chart represents the diversity exhibited by different taxonomic groups of invertebrates. Identify A and B.

a) A – annelids B – molluscs
b) A – crustaceans B – echinoderms
c) A – crustaceans B – molluscs
d) A – echinoderms B – annelids

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:

a) Estrogen only
b) Progesterone
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Relaxin only

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In human adult females, oxytocin:

a) Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.
b) Is secreted by anterior pituitary.
c) Stimulates growth of mammary glands.
d) Relaxes the cervix during parturition

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

a) Spermatid
b) Spermatogonia
c) Second polar body
d) Secondary oocyte

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZW-ZZ
(b) ZZ-WW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XO-XX

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Select the wrongly matched pair

a) Lactobacillus – Curd formation
b) A. Fleming – Antibiotic
c) Cyclosporin A – Bioactive molecule
d) Brewer’s yeast – Saccharomyces boulardii

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Bottled fruit juice available in the market are clear as they are clarified using

a) Lipase and pectinase
b) Streptokinase and proteases
c) Proteases and pectinase
d) Pectinase and amylase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Select the mismatched pair

a) Swiss cheese – Propionibacterium
b) Symbiotic nitrogen fixing – Azospirillum
c) Activated sludge – Secondary sewage treatment
d) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 97 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which part of the kidney is impermeable to electrolytes?

a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule
c) Ascending loop of Henle
d) Descending loop of Henle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Ilium is a part of

a) Pelvic girdle
b) Pectoral girdle
c) Skull
d) Sternum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Acidic pH of muscles is due to

a) Lactic acid
b) Ketone
c) O₂
d) Argine
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sponges?

a) Diploblastic
b) Aquatic
c) Connecting link between living and non-living
d) Body has pores
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following helps Taenia solium in osmoregulation?

a) Comb plates
b) Parapodia
c) Flame cells
d) Nephridia

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a) Cnidoblasts – Coelenterates
b) Gastro vascular cavity – Echinoderms
c) Parapodia – Annelids
d) Metameric segmentation – Arthropods
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Omnis cellula-e cellula was given by

a) Lamarck
b) Dutrochet
c) Leeuwenhoek
d) Virchow
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In which type of culture, the nutrients and microbes are added in closed chamber and not replaced continuously?

a) Batch culture
b) Continuous culture
c) Full culture
d) Period culture
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Match the following:
1. Extension – i) 95⁰C
2. Denaturation – ii) 50⁰C
3. Annealing – iii) 72⁰C

Options:
a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-I
b) 1-iii, 2- i, 3-ii
c) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-I
d) 1-ii, 2-i, 3- iii
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is able to deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal plant cell. Here, a piece of DNA is

a) R-DNA
b) Z-DNA
c) T-DNA
d) Ti-DNA
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. If a plasmid vector is digested with EcoR1 at a single site, then

a) Four sticky ends will be produced
b) One sticky ends will be produced
c) Two sticky ends will be produced
d) One blunt end will be produced
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Bt corn has been made resistant from corn borer disease by introduction of the gene

a) cryIIA
b) cryIAc
c) cryIIAc
d) cryIAb
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. RNA interference involves

a) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
b) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
c) Silencing of tRNA due to complementary RNA
d) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following are GMO?
I. Golden rice II. Flavr savr
III. Bell peppers IV. Poplar trees

Options:
a) I, II , III
b) IV only
c) I, II, IV
d) II, III, IV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Select the correct option for the production of Humulin.
i. Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli
ii. Artificial synthesis of human insulin gene
iii. Purification of Humulin
iv. Culturing recombinant E.coli
v. Extraction of recombinant gene product from E.coli
vi. Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid

Options:
a) II, VI, I, IV, V, III
b) I, IV, V, III, II, VI
c) II, IV, VI, I, III, V
d) I, V, VI, III, II, IV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following is used as bioweapon?

a) Escherichia coli
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which is not chief objectives of transgenic cattle production?

a) Increased meat or milk production
b) Molecular farming
c) Improved coat quality
d) Regulate milk content
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Select the correct match.

a) Primata- Order
b) musca- species
c) Tigris- Genus
d) Arthropoda- Class
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid is by

a) NArterioles
b) Capillaries
c) Veins
d) Arteries
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Pulmonary artery is different from pulmonary vein in

a) Presence of valves
b) Absence of endothelium
c) Its broad lumen
d) Its thick wall
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 96 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The term ‘precursor of auxin’ refers to

a) A a compound that activates auxin’s biological function
b) a raw material converted into auxin through biochemical processes
c) a chemical that inhibits auxin’s action in plants
d) the final active molecule produced after auxin synthesis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Given below are a few floral diagrams of some well known plants. Choose floral formula from these diagrams.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Assertion: Trachea is the common passage for food and air.
Reason: Cartilaginous ring of trachea prevents its collapse during breathing.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The alveolar epithelium in the lung is

a) Non-ciliated columnar
b) Non- ciliated squamous
c) Ciliated columnar
d) Ciliated squamous
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Reduction in pH of blood will

a) Decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
b) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
c) reduce the rate of heartbeat
d) reduce the blood supply to the brain
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Assertion (A): In barrier method, ovum and sperms are prevented from physical meetings
Reason (R): Barrier methods are used during coitus, to prevent the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The following figure shows the stage of an embryo formed from IVF. Identify the stage and the procedure which is used to transfer this stage to carry out the further process of in vitro fertilization.

a) Stage: Morula; Procedure: IUI
b) Stage: Gastrula; Procedure: ZIFT
c) Stage: Blastocyst; Procedure: IUT
d) Stage: Secondary oocyte; Procedure: ICSI

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The maximum number of species among vertebrates are

a) Amphibians
b) Fishes
c) Reptiles
d) Mammals

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Respiratory track is an example of

a) Cellular barrier
b) Cytokine barrier
c) Physical barrier
d) Physiological barrier
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A patient suffers rejection after receiving donor’s kidney. Which of the following is responsible for this

a) T_H cells
b) Memory cells
c) Plasma cells
d) T_K cells
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Identify the given diagram and its effect

a) Cannabinoid – Hallucination
b) Morphine – Painkiller
c) Cocaine – Analgesic
d) Smack – CNS depressant
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Drugs like griseofulvin and miconazole are used in the treatment of

a) Ascariasis
b) Hansen’s disease
c) Ringworm
d) Poliomyelitis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Coenocytic mycelium is seen in

a) Deuteromycetes
b) Phycomycetes
c) Ascomycetes
d) Basidiomycetes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Study the given pedigree chart and select the mode of inheritance

a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) Y-link recessive
d) X-link dominant
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Male is haploid in

a) Honeybee
b) Cockroach
c) Drosophila
d) Grasshopper
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Select the homologous pair from the following

a) Scrotum and labia majora
b) Glans penis and labia minora
c) Penis shaft and mons pubis
d) Testis and clitoris
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The characteristic feature of luteal phase of menstrual cycle is

a) Endometrium breaks down
b) FSH and estrogen secretion increases
c) Both LH and FSH attain peak level
d) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Solid ball of 8-16 cells formed by cleavage

a) Blastula
b) Morula
c) Gastrula
d) Blastomere
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Assertion (A): Myometrium is important component of uterus
Reason (R): Myometrium produces strong contractions during parturition

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one

a) Both fat and fascia help to protect the kidney
b) A kidney has about 10 lakh nephrons
c) The concave side of each kidney faces outwards and convex side inwards
d) Male urethra opens out at the tip of the penis by urinogenital aperture
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025

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