Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 111 PHYSICS

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1. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction, with a velocity of 147 ms^-1. Then the lime after which inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is

a) 15 (√3-1) s
b) 15 (√3+1) s
c) 7.5 (√31-1) s
d) 7.5 (√31+1) s

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation

(a) PQ is horizontal
(b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal
(d) any one will be horizontal

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius of 6.6 * IO-15 m. The potential on its surface will be (the charge on the proton = 1.6 x 10^-19 C)

(a) 1.1 x 10⁷V
(b) 21 x 10⁷V
(c) 3.1 x 10⁷V
(d) 0.15 x 10⁷V

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground stale inelastically. Energy of the colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector?

(a) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV
(b) 2 photon of energy 1.4 eV
(c) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
(d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of 1.4 eV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency fin air. If half of the length is dipped vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air column will be

a) 3 f/2
b) 2 f
c) f
d) f/2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is halved?

(a) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved
(b) Both, inducting reactance and current will be doubled
(c) Inductive reactance will be halved and current 11 be doubled
(d) Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The V-I characteristics shown in figure represents

(a) ohmic conductors
(b) non-ohmic conductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C and then it is placed on a large block of ice at 0°C. If the specific heat capacity of copper is 400 J/kg°C and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5×10⁵ J/kg, the amount of ice that can melt is

(a) (7/8) kg
(b) (7/5) kg
(c) (8/7) kg
(d) (5/7) kg

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When she pulls her arms and legs in

(a) the angular velocity decreases
(b) the moment of inertia decreases
(c) the angular velocity stays constant
(d) the angular momentum increases

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A current of/ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of radius r metres subtending an angle 0 at the centre as shown. The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a monoatomic gas is

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ε_° and permeability μ_° is given by

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10is

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Surface tension of a solution is 30 x 10^-2 N / m . The radius of the soap bubble is 5 cm. The surface energy of soap bubble is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats/s with a fork of known frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats/s. What is the frequency of fork A?

(a) 335 Hz
(b) 338 Hz
(c) 345 Hz
(d) 342 Hz

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy stale to 2nd energy stale. The energy released in this process, will be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV) Where R = Rydberg constant, c = Speed of light in vacuum, h = Planck’s constant

(a) 10.5eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c) 3.4eV
(d) 40.8eV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(c) A is false but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. An a-particle, a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the following is correct in case of their De-Broglie wavelength

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of its respective values. Then, the Young’s modules of the material of the wire will:

(a) Remains same
(b) Become 8 times its initial value
(c) Become I/4th of its initial value
(d) Become 4 times its initial value
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 109 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Frogs differ from humans in possessing

a) Nucleated red blood cell
b) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
c) Paired cerebral hemisphere
d) Hepatic portal system
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Systemic heart refers to

a) Heart that contracts under stimulation from system
b) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
c) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
d) Two ventricles together in human being
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Culture method where sterilized medium is continuously added and waste products are removed

(a) Closed culture
(b) Open culture
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when

(a) r − value approaches zero
(b) K=N
(c) K>N
(d) K<N
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

a) Progesterone
b) Cortisol
c) Testosterone
d) Glucagon
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Select the correct sequence regarding stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart.
1. AV bundle
2. Purkinje fibres
3. AV node
4. Bundle branches
5. SA node

Options:
(a) 2-4-5-3-1
(b) 5-1-4-2-3
(c) 5-3-1-4-2
(d) 1-5-3-2-4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Select the correct pair.

a) Heart – involuntary, unstriated
b) Iris- smooth, involuntary
c) Biceps- smooth
d) Abdominal wall- smooth
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(a) Glial cell
(c) Cartilage
(b) Blood
(d) Adipose tissue
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Saddle joint is present between

a) Humerus and pectoral girdle
b) Atlas and axis
c) Carpal and metacarpal
d) Carpals
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a) Locomotion
b) Storage of minerals
c) Production of body heat
d) Production of erythrocytes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured using antibiotics?

(a) Pneumonia
(b) Cholera
(c) Common cold
(d) Typhoid
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The antibody produced during allergic reaction is

(a) IgE
(c) IgG
(b) IgM
(d). Ig(d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Assertion (A): Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory of the first encounter of the pathogen.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Gullet or Cavity in cell which act as a mouth is present in which protozoan?

a) Flagellates
b) Ciliates
c) Amoeboids
d) Sporozoans
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The given figure is

a) Implants
b) IUDs
c) Disposable contraceptive devices
d) Reusable contraceptive devices
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred into female gamete directly. Such technique is called

(a) IUI
(b) IUT
(c) ICSI
(d) GIFT
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in:

a) Distal convoluted tubule
b) Proximal convoluted tubule
c) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
d) Descending limb of Loop of Henle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

(a) Alcohol
(b) Caffeine
(c) Renin
(d) Atrial-Natriuretic factor
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following chordate character is found in adults of urochordates?

a) Pharyngeal gill clefts
b) Notochord
c) Post anal tail
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 108 BIOLOGY

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1. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

(a) its growth stops
(b) leaves become yellow and fall down
(c) axillary buds are inactivated
(d) axillary buds are activated.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

(a) IAA and gibberellin
(b) Auxin and cytokinin
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid
(d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

(a) mosses
(b) algae
(c) ferns
(d) fungi.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

a) gynoecium
b) androecium
c) corolla
d) calyx.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The movement of auxin is largely

(a) centripetal
(b) acropetal
(c) basipetal
(d) both (a) and (c)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Match the following:

Options:

a) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
b) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
c) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between ABab and abab?

(a) Aabb and aabb and aabb
(b) AABB
(c) AaBb and aabb
(d) AaBb and AaBb
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A gene is said to be recessive if

a) It expressed its effect in the absence of dominant gene
b) It expressed only in heterozygous condition
c) It expressed both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
d) None of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Evolutionary convergence is development of

a) Random mating
b) Common set of characters in closely related groups
c) Dissimilar characters in closely related groups
d) Common set of characters in group of different ancestry
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which experiment suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated from non-living matter?

a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
b) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
c) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
d) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates:

a) Microevolution
b) Macroevolution
c) Convergent evolution
d) Divergent evolution
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for B-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

a) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce B galactoside
b) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to host cell
c) It will lead to lysis of host cell
d) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

a) Presence of origin of replication
b) Presence of a marker gene
c) Presence of two or more recognition site
d) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

a) It delivers T-DNA into plant cells
b) It is used to deliver gene of interest in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic host cells
c) It transform normal plant cell into tumour cell
d) It is not pathogenic to plant cell
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Transgenic expression of transgene in target tissue is determine by

(a) Promoter
(b) Transgene
(c) Reporter
(d) Enhancer
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Competition for light, nutrients and space is more severe between

a) Closely related organism growing in different niches
b) Closely related organism growing in same niche
c) Distantly related organism growing in different habitat
d) Distantly related organism growing in same niche
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The dominant second trophic level in a lake ecosystem is

(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Biomass available for consumption by herbivores and decomposers is called

a) Secondary productivity
b) Tertiary production
c) Net primary production
d) Gross primary production

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which example shows Gause Exclusion Principle?

a) Resident fishes and visiting flamingoes in South American shallow lake
b) Abingdon tortoise and goat in Galapagos Island
c) Pisasters and mussels in rocky intertidal coast
d) Warbler species inhabiting the same tree
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following will be easily cut by a specific restriction endonuclease?

a) 5’ GTATTC3’ ; 3’CATAAG5’
b) 5’GATACT3’ ; 3’CTATGA5’
c) 5’GAATTC3’ ; 3’CTTAAG5’
d) 5’CTCAGT3’ ; 3’GAGTCA5’
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 107 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be directly utilized by humans for energy production?

(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Cellulose
(d) Sucrose
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In a T.S. (transverse section) of a young dicot root, the protoxylem is located towards the periphery, and the metaxylem is towards the center. This condition is described as:

(a) Exarch
(b) Endarch
(c) Mesarch
(d) Polyarch
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm together constitute:

a) Periderm
b) Secondary xylem
c) Secondary phloem
d) Vascular cambium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A tissue in the stem of a flowering plant shows living cells with thickened corners due to pectin deposition and is involved in providing flexibility. This tissue is

(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma

(c) Parenchyma

(d) Xylem fibers
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. In an isobilateral leaf, the mesophyll is:

a) Differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
b) Undifferentiated and uniform
c) Absent due to the presence of sclerenchyma
d) Replaced by aerenchyma
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The plant body of Funaria is

a) completely sporophyte
b) predominantly gametophyte sporophyte
c) completely gametophyte with
d) predominantly gametophyte
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

(a) has unlimited growth
(b) bears a solitary flower
(c) has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
(d) terminates in a flower
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Hypanthodium is a specialised type of

(a) fruit
(b) inflorescence
(c) thalamus
(d) ovary.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from

(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(c) complete inflorescence
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following statements with respect to endoplasmic reticulum is incorrect?

(a) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(b) SER is devoid of ribosomes
(c) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(d) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for

(a) protein synthesis
(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
(c) breakdown of macromolecules
(d) oxidation-reduction reaction
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The pyrenoids are made up of

(a) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(b) core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
(c) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
(d) core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

(a) Diplontic life cycle
(b) Members of Kingdom Plantae
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Multiplication by fragmentation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
b) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
c) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is

(a) marginal
(b) free central
(c) basal
(d) axile
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The floral formula is that of

(a) soybean
(b) sunhemp
(c) tobacco
(d) tulip.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

(a) Glycolipids
(b) Proline
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Microtubules are the constituents of

(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cili(a)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Meiosis II performs

(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromere
(c) separation of homologous chromosomes
(d) separation of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 106 BIOLOGY
Name

Email

1. The double-helical structure of DNA was proposed by:
(a) Watson and Crick
(c) Frederick Sanger
(d) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Linus PaulingDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Assertion: Enzymes are highly specific in their action.
Reason: Enzymes have an active site that binds to a specific substrate.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Assertion: RNA is more reactive than DNA.
Reason: RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following is a fibrous protein?

(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Keratin
(c) Insulin
(d) MyoglobinDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following is a storage polysaccharide in animals?

(a) Cellulose
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) ChitinDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In a typical angiosperm, the mature embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleate. If the polar nuclei fail to fuse before fertilization, what would be the ploidy level of the endosperm in the resulting fertilization?

(a) Haploid (n)

(b) Diploid (2n)

(c) Triploid (3n)

(d) Tetraploid (4n)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A plant exhibits cleistogamy and produces only self-pollinated seeds. Which of the following features is most likely absent in such a plant?

(a) Nectar production
(b) Micropyle plant?
(c) Synergids
(d) Endosperm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. During pollen grain development, the generative cell divides to form two male gametes. If a mutation causes the generative cell to divide into three cells instead of two, what would be the most likely consequence during fertilization?

a) Formation of twin embryos
b) Failure of double fertilization
c) Production of a tetraploid endosperm
d) No effect on seed development
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In some angiosperms, apomixis mimics sexual reproduction. Which of the following best explains why apomictic seeds are genetically identical to the parent plant?

a) Meiosis is followed by fusion of gametes
b) Embryo develops from a diploid cell without fertilization
c) Endosperm formation involves triple, fusion
d) Pollen grains undergo mitotic division
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A flower is pollinated by wind, and its pollen grains lack exine. Which of the following adaptations is most likely present to ensure successful pollination?

a) Sticky pollen grains
b) Feathery stigma
c) Brightly colored petals
d) Nectar guides
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an experiment, the stigma of a flower is removed before pollination. Which of the following processes will be directly affected?

a) Formation of the pollen tube
b) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
c) Development of the endosperm
d) Maturation of the ovule
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The phenomenon of polyembryony is observed in certain plants. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding polyembryony?

a) It always results from the fertilization of multiple egg cells
b) It can occur due to the cleavage of a single zygote or development of additional embryos from nucellar cells
c) It leads to the formation of genetically diverse embryos in a single seed
d) It is exclusive to plants exhibiting apomixis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In a species of flowering plant, the pollen grains are viable for only 30 minutes after release. What type of pollination mechanism is this plant most likely adapted to?

a) Entomophily (insect pollination)
b) Anemophily (wind pollination)
c) Hydrophily (water pollination)
d) Autogamy (self-pollination)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following structures in an angiosperm ovule directly provides nourishment to the developing embryo?

a) Integuments
b) Endosperm
c) Nucellus
d) Funicle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A plant breeder observes that a certain variety of angiosperm produces seeds without fertilization of the egg cell but requires pollination for endosperm development. This phenomenon is best described as:

(a) Parthenocarpy
(b) Apomixis
(c) Pseudogamy
(d) Polyembryony
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The primary structure of a protein is stabilized by:

(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Peptide bonds
(c) Disulfide bridges
(d) Ionic bonds
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A certain biomolecule exhibits the following properties:

It is insoluble in water.

It contains long hydrocarbon chains.

It yields glycerol and fatty acids upon hydrolysis.

What is the biomolecule?

(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) Nucleic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In the competitive inhibition of an enzyme, the inhibitor:

a) Binds irreversibly to the active site
b) Increases the Km value without affecting Vmax
c) Decreases both Km and Vmax
d) Binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The denaturation of a protein involves:

a) Breaking of peptide bonds
b) Loss of primary structure
c) Disruption of secondary and tertiary structures
d) Formation of new hydrogen bonds
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. An amino acid with a hydrophobic side chain is most likely to be found:

a) On the surface of a globular protein
b) In the interior of a globular protein
c) In the active site of an enzyme
d) In the peptide backbone
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None
May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 105 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, k = Ae−^Ea/RT. Activation energy (E_a) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. At 25⁰C, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 0×10⁻¹². The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the base would be:

a) 1.0×10⁶mol L⁻¹
b) 1.0×10⁻⁷mol L⁻¹
c) 2.0×10⁻⁶ mol L⁻¹
d) 1.0×10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. One mole of an ideal mono-atomic gas is caused to go through the cycle shown in the figure below. Then the change in the internal energy in expanding the gas from ato c along the path abc is:

a) 3P₀V₀ b) 6 RT₀
c) 4.5 RT₀
d) 10.5 RT₀
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A reaction occurs spontaneously if:

a) TΔS =ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
b) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
c) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
d) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A schematic plot of ln K_eqversus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below: The reaction must be:

a) Highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
b) One with negligible enthalpy change
c) endothermic
d) exothermic
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. If the mass of neutron is assumed to half of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to be twice of its original value, then the atomic mass of ¹⁴C will be

a) Same
b) 14.28 % less
c) 14.28 % more
d) 28.56 % more
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The △G⁰for the reaction = + 57 kJ
MX_(s)⇔M⁺_(aq)+ X⁻_(aq)Hence K_sp for the reaction is

a) 10⁻⁵
b) 10⁻⁶c) 10⁻¹⁰
d) 10⁻¹⁶
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For the observations given, the correct rate law expression is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Cu⁺((aq))is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction, according to the reaction 2Cu⁺(aq) ⇌ Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
Choose E⁰ for the above reaction if

a) − 0.38 V
b) + 0.49 V
c) + 0.38 V
d) + 0.19 V
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following statement is false?

a) Raoult’s law is obeyed only when solution is very dilute
b) Both Raoult’s law and Henry’s law law says that P α X
c) Increase in temperature decreases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction
d) Increase in temperature increases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. On reductive ozonolysis of yields

a) 6-oxoheptanoic acid
b) 6-oxoheptanal
c) 6-hydroxyheptanal
d) 3-hydroxypentanal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) CH₃CHO
b) CH₃CH₂NHOH
c) CH₃CH₂COOH
d) CH₃COOHDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

the product E is
a) salicylic acid
b) anthranilic acid
c) benzoic acid
d) o-nitrobenzoic acid.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which gives iodoform test?

a) Hexan-3-one
b) Pentan-3-one
c) Pentan-2-one
d) PentanalDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) mesityl oxide
b) 2-butene
c) 2-Hydroxybutanal
d) 3-hydroxybutanalDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. An organic aromatic compound having molecular formula C₂H₂O does not give characteristic colour with neutral FeCl3 but bubbles of hydrogen gas are formed when it is treated with metallic sodium. The compound is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Tertiary butyl halide on boiling with water gives tertiary butyl alcohol. The reaction follows

a) 2 mechanism
b) N1 mechanism
c) E1 mechanism
d) none of theseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The products obtained when anisole is heated in a sealed tube with HI are

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) phenol
b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Aniline
d) BenzaldehydeDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 104 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Which of the following ion is the smallest in size ?
a) Na+
b) Mg²⁺
c) Al³⁺
d) N^3-
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

a) Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
b) Both A and B are alkali metals
c) A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
d) B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metals
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In octahedral structure (all are bond pair with no lone pair) MX₆, the number of X-M-X bonds at is :

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A sigma bonded molecule MX₄ is See Saw shape. The number of non – bonding pairs of electron is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. In BrF₃ molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize

a) Lp- lp repulsion only
b) Lp- bp repulsion only
c) Lp- lp repulsion and Lp-bp repulsion
d) Bp – Bp repulsion only
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to

a) The p- bonding involves overlap of p- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese
b) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with p – orbitals of manganese
c) There is no p- bonding
d) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Choose the incorrect statement

a) Na₂Cr₂O₇ is preferred over K₂Cr₂O₇ in volumetric analysis.
b) K₂Cr₂O₇solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
c) KMnO₄ Titrations are carried out only in the presence of dil.H₂SO₄
d) Cr (V) undergoes disproportionation in acidic medium to Cr (VI) and Cr (III)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following Lanthanoid ions is Diamagnetic ?

a) Ce²⁺
b) Yb²⁺
c) Eu²⁺
d) Gd²⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

a) n=5 to n=3
b) n=5 to n=4
c) n=6 to n=1
d) n=6 to n=5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be ( kg /s)

a) 1. 25 X 10^-34 m
b) 3. 01 10^-34 m
c) 5.27 x 10^-30 m
d) 5.27 x 10^-20 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because

a) Al has high IE
b) Cannot form a trimer
c) Al can have higher coordination number
d) Both belongs to p- block
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Borax is prepared by treating boric acid with

a) NaCl
b) NaNO₂
c) Na₂CO₃
d) NaHCO₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following ion undergo Self oxidation and reduction

a) Al³⁺ and Na⁺
b) Al³⁺ and Ga⁺
c) Ga⁺ and In⁺
d) In⁺ and Tl⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the statements about denaturation given below are correct ?
1. Denaturation of protein affects primary structure.
2. Denaturation of protein causes loss of secondary and tertiary structure.
3. Denaturation of protein leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.

a) All are correct
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin E
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Decomposition of H₂O₂ follows a first order reaction. In 50 min the concentrations of H₂O₂decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H₂O₂ reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O₂ will be?

a) 6.93×10⁻⁴ mol min⁻¹
b) 2.66L min⁻¹at STP
c) 1.34×10⁻² mol min⁻¹
d) 6.93×10⁻² mol min⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Al₂O₃is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high current. If 0×10⁴ amperes of current is passed through molten Al₂O₃ for 6 hours, what mass of aluminum is produced? (Assume 100 % current efficiency, At. mass of Al = 27u)

a) A. 1.3×10⁴ g
b) 2.4×10⁵ g
c) 8.1×10⁴ g
d) 9.0×10³g
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. When 4 Lof H₂(g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl₂(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to?

a) 1 mole of HCl (g)
b) 2 moles of HCl (g)
c) 0.5 mole of HCl (g)
d) 1.5 mole of HCl (g)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. 5 g of an impure sample of sodium sulphate dissolved in water was treated with excess of barium chloride solution when 1.74 g of BaSO₄was obtained as dry precipitate. Calculate the percentage purity of the sample.

a) 60.4 2
b) 70.67
c) 84.16
d) 90.32
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A ( 150 torr) and 2 mol B ( 240 torr) is 200 torr. In this case :

a) there is a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
b) there is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) there is no deviation from Raoults law
d) cannot be decided
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 103 PHYSICS

Name

Email

a) 3/2
b) 1
c) 2/3
d) 1/2Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. An object covers (16±0.4) m distance in (4±.02) Find out its speed in m/s with absolute error limits.

a) (4±0.3)
b) (4±0.4)
c) (3±0.3)
d) (3±0.4)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237g and 2.5 cm respectively. The density of the material of the body (in g/cm³) in correct significant figure is

a) 1.6048

b) 1.69

c) 1.695

d) 1.7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower, one after the other with an interval of one second. The first one reaches the ground after 4 second. When the first one reaches the ground, the distances between the first and second, the second and third and the third and fourth will be, respectively

a) 35 m, 25 m and 15 m
b) 30 m, 25 m and 10 m
c) 35 m, 20 m and 15 m
d) 30 m, 20 m and 10 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A particle is moving in a straight line and its acceleration-time graph is shown below. At t = 0 the particle has velocity (–10 m/s). Find the velocity of the particle at t = 8 s

a) 20 m/s
b) 30 m/s
c) 40 m/s
d) 50 m/s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A point mass moves along a circle of radius R with a constant angular acceleration α. How much time is needed after motion begins for the radial acceleration of the point mass to be equal to its tangential acceleration?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A string of length 10 cm breaks if its tension exceeds 10 N. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string, is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be

a) 20 rad/s
b) 10 rad/s
c) 30 rad/s
d) 50 rad/s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A body of mass 10 kg is released from a tower of height 20 m and body acquires a velocity of 10 m/s after falling through the distance 20 m. The work done by the push of the air on the body is (Take g = 10 m/s)

a) 1500 J
b) 1800 J
c) -1500 J
d) -1800 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is at αR distance from the centre of the bigger disc. The value of α is

a) 1/2
b) 1/6
c) 2/3
d) 1/3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A 90 kg body placed at 2R distance from surface of earth experiences gravitational pull of: (take R = Radius of earth, g = 10 ms^-2)

a) 400 N
b) 100 N
c) 900 N
d) 200 N
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by △x on applying force 1/3 newton, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 9
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water in the capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be

a) 2M
b) M
c) M2
d) 4M

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from 4 cm to 5 cm is Joule (given surface tension of soap water to be 25×10⁻³N/m)

a) 0.5657×10⁻³
b) 5.657×10⁻³
c) 56.5×10⁻³
d) 565×10⁻³
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is

a) 2(√3) cm
b) 2(√5) cm
c) √5cm
d)√3cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by x=5[cosπt + sinπt] where x is in metre. The amplitude of motion of the particle is given by

a) 8 m
b) 10 m
c) 5√2m
d) 10√2m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 kHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, the wavelengths of the reflected and transmitted sound are (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s⁻¹and in water = 1500 m s⁻¹)

a) 3.4mm,30mm
b) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
c) 3.4 mm, 15 mm
d) 6.8 mm, 30 mm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50cm, the length of closed pipe is

a) 25cm
b) 12.5cm
c) 100cm
d) 200cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A long, thick straight conductor of radius R carries current I uniformly distributed in its cross-section area. The ratio of energy density of the magnetic field at distance R/2 from surface inside the conductor and outside the conductor is:

a) 1:16
b) 1:1
c) 1:4
d) 9/16
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A particle having charge 100 times that of an electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8m with one rotation per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre is

a) 10⁻⁷/μ₀
b) 10⁻¹⁷μ₀
c) 10⁻⁶μ₀
d) 10⁻¹⁵/μ₀
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250×10⁻¹⁰ The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536×10⁻¹⁰m is
(Given h=4.14×10⁶ms⁻¹eVs and c=3×10⁸ms⁻¹)

a) ≈6×10⁵ms⁻¹
b) ≈0.6×10⁶ms⁻¹
c) ≈61×10³ms⁻¹
d) ≈0.3×10⁶ms⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 101 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81:1. What is the ratio of amplitudes of light waves coming from them?

a) 3:1
b) 3:2
c) 9:1
d) 6:1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The specific charge of a proton is 9.6×107C kg⁻¹. The specific charge of an alpha particle will be

a) 9.6×10⁷C kg⁻¹
b) 19.2×10⁷C kg⁻¹
c) 4.8×10⁷C kg⁻¹
d) 2.4×10⁷C kg⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A small angled prism (μ=1.62) gives a deviation of 4.8. Calculate the angle of prism.

a) 5°
b) 6.36°
c) 3°
d) 7.74°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2×10⁴turns per meter. At centre of the solenoid is 100 turns coil of radius 0.01 m placed with its axis coinciding with solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π²Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

a) 32π μC
b) 16 μC
c) 32 μC
d) 16 πμC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. An inductor 20mH, a capacitor 100μF and a resistor 50Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V=10sin314t. The power loss in the circuit is

a) 0.67W
b) 0.76W
c) 0.89W
d) 0.51W
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80V,40V and 100V respectively in an L−C−R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 1.0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). the angel of minimum deviation is

a) 180°−3A
b) 180°−2A
c) 90°−A
d) 180°+2A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular path of radius 0.8 m with an angular velocity 44 rad/sec. If radius of path becomes 1 m then value of angular velocity will be

(a) 35.28 rad/sec
(b) 14.08 rad/sec
(c) 28.16 rad/sec
(d) 24.08 rad/sec

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of waler in 5 minutes. A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in

(a) 5 minutes
(b) 8 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 20 minutes

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance

(a) increases K times
(b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times
(d) increases K^-1 times

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new momentum will be

(a) same as initial value
(b) twice the initial value
(c) thrice the initial value
(d) four times the initial value

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a current i is flowing, the dimensions of L i2 are

(a) [ML²T^-2]
(b) [MLT^-2]
(c) [M²L²T^-2]
(d) Not expressible in M,L,T

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm, and its spring constant is 4000 N/m. A mass of 20 kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is, (Take g =8 m/s²)

(a) 4.9 cm
(b) 0.49 cm
(c) 9.4 cm
(d) 0.94 cm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates through an angle q₁ in first one second and through an additional angle q₂ in the next one secon(d) The ratio between the angles is

(a) 3
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 2/3

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The moment of inertia of HCl molecule (in kg m²) about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the H⁺ and Cl^– ions will be, if the interatomic distance is 1 Å (mass of H atom = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg, mass of Cl atom = 5.89 x 10^-26 kg)

(a) 0.162×10^-47
(b) 1.62×10^-47(c) 16.2×10^-47
(d)162×10^-47

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The earth of mass 6 x 10²⁴ kg revolves round the sun with angular velocity 2 x 10^-7 rad/s, in a circular orbit of radius 1.5 x 10⁸ The force exerted by the sun on the earth in newtons is

(a) 36×10³¹(b) 3.6×10³¹(c) 0.36×10³⁰
(d) 36×10³⁰

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The depth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity is g/4 is (R is radius of earth)

(a) R/4
(b) 3R/4
(c) 4R/3
(d) R/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 100 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
d) 0.61 × 10⁹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a point A to point B, then

a) V_A-V_B= +ve
b) V_A-V_B = 0
c) V_A-V_B=-ve
d) it is stationary
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect to distance (s) from centre as

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Three capacitors are connected in the arms of a triangle ABC as shown in figure 5 V is applied between A and B. The voltage between B and C is

a) 2 V
b) 1 V
c) 3 V
d) 1.5 V
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The voltage V and current I graphs for a conductor at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ are shown in the figure. The relation between T₁ and T₂ is

a) T₁ > T₂
b) T₁ < T₂
c) T₁ = T₂
a) T₁ > 1/T₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed

a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the ground state
b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited states and the first excited state
c) in any transition in a H-atom
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Currents flowing in each of the circuits A and B respectively are

a) 1 A, 2A
b) 2A, 1A
c) 4A, 2A
d) 2A, 4A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

28. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.

Output is:

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents
a) NOR gate
b) AND gate
c) NAND gate
d) OR gate
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between consecutive energy levels

a) remain the same
b) increases
c) decreases
d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. For a constant force the work done in stretching if spring constant k1>k2 then energy stored in two wire related as

a) ω1>ω2
b) ω1=ω2
c) ω1<ω2
d) ω2=2ω1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The displacement of an elastic wave is given by the function y=3sinωt+4cosωt. where y is in cm and t is in second. Calculate the resultant amplitude.

a) 3 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 7 cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. When a capillary tube is dipped into a liquid, the liquid neither rises nor falls in the capillary.

a) the surface tension of the liquid must be zero
b) the contact angle must be 90∘
c) the surface tension may be zero
d) the contact angle may be 90∘
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A load of 3kg produces an extension of 1.5mm in a wire of length 3m and diameter 2mm. Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is

a) 1.87×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
b) 3.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
c) 15×10¹⁰Nm⁻²d) 2.5×10¹⁰Nm⁻²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found than 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Two similar thin Equi-convex lenses, of focal f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1, When the space between the two lens is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index μ=1.5 as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2, the ratio F1:F2 will be

a) 3:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 2:3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A 2.5 m long straight wire having mass of 500 g is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. If a current of 4 A is passing through the wire, then the magnitude of the field is (Take g 10ms−2)

a) 0.5T
b) 0.6T
c) 0.25T
d) 0.8T
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A current-carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop, without touching it. The correct statement(s) is (are)

a) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant.
b) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant.
c) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate.
d) The emf induction in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) infinity
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is.

a) blue
b) green
c) violet
d) red
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 6, 2025

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