Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. The anther in transverse section appears to be

(a) Diagonal
(b) Tetragonal
(c) Unilobed
(d) Mosaic

2. What are A, B, C and D in this figure?


a) A: Thalamus, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Stigma
b) A: Style, B: Ovary, C: Stigma, D: Thalamus
c) A: Stigma, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Thalamus
d) A: Ovary, B: Stigma, C: Thalamus, D: Style

3. Tetragonal anther consists of

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

4. How many microsporangia are there in each lobe of anther?

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

5. Which one amongst the given perform the function of protection in typical microsporangium?
(A) Epidermis      (B) Endothecium
(C) Tapetum        (D) Middle layer

(a) A and B 
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) A, B and D

6. Function performed by the outer three layers of microsporangium?

a) Protection to developing pollen
b) Provides nourishment to developing pollen
c) Helps in the dehiscence of anther to release pollen
d) Both (a) and (c)

7. Formation of pollen from pollen mother cell is referred to as

a) Pollenogenesis
b) Megasporogenesis
c) Microsporogenesis
d) Ovulation

8. Male gametophyte in angiosperm is represented by

a) Anther
b) Androecium
c) Microsporangium
d) Pollen grain

9. Pollen grains are

a) Spherical
b) Oval
c) Generally spherical
d) Irregular

10. Exine of pollen is
(A) Hard outer layer of pollen grain
(B) Most resistant organic matter known.
(C) Layer made up of sporopollenin.
(D) Layer which can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali.
(E) Layer which cannot be degraded by any known enzyme.
Which one of the following is correct?

a) A and B
b) A, B, C and D
c) A, B, C, D and E
d) A, C and E

11. At which sub-stage of prophase-I are homologous chromosomes fully paired and synapsis completed?

(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene

12. Assertion: Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
     Reason: Crossing over occurs in diplotene stage of prophase-I

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

13. Match the features (Column-I) with their stages (Column-II).

Choose the correct answer from the following options.

(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

14. In which stage of meiosis II, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?

(a) Prophase II and Metaphase II
(b) Anaphase II and Telophase II
(c) Prophase II and Telophase II
(d) Metaphase II and Anaphase II

15 .In which of the following stage, the terminalisation occurs?

(a) Zygotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Diplotene

16. The stage of meiosis where centromere divides for the first and the only time, ensuring separation of daughter chromosomes, occur in

(a) anaphase-II
(b) telophase-I
(c) anaphase-I
(d) telophase- II.

17. Enzyme responsible for fixing crossed over parts of non-sister chromatids is

(a) lipase
(b) recombinase
(c) ligase
(d) endonuclease.

18. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

(a) leptotene
(b) zygotene
(c) pachytene
(d) diakinesis

19. In tetrad, crossing over does not take place between

(a) non-sister chromatids of outer group
(b) sister chromatids of dyad
(c) outermost and innermost non-sister chromatids
(d) all of these.

20. In meiosis I, nuclear membrane and nucleolus completely disappear during

(a) zygotene
(b) pachytene
(c) diakinesis
(d) metaphase.

1. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of

a) Natural selection
b) Adaptive radiation
c) Analogous organs
d) Homologous organs

2. Theory of panspermia:

a) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
b) Creation of life from chemicals
c) Creation of life from pre-existing life
d) Creation of life from spores

3. Chemical evolution theory is also known as

a) Cosmozoic theory
b) Oparin- Haldane’s theory
c) Miller and Urey theory
d) Creation theory

4. What type of selection will be observed if the distribution of neck length shifted to favour individuals with long neck?

a) Stabilising selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Both A and C

5. Archaeopteryx fossil shows link between

a) Birds and fishes
b) Reptiles and mammals
c) Fishes and amphibians
d) Reptiles and birds

6. Which of the following is used to measure pollutants in the water body?

(a) Helium level in the water
(b) Calcium level
(c) BOD
(d) All of these

7. Bacillus thuringiencis kills the pest by releasing toxins in the

(a) Brain of pests
(b) Gut of pests
(c) Heart of pests
(d) Lungs of pests

8. Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?

(a) Aphids
(b) Grasshoppers
(c) Beetles
(d) All of these

9. The primary treatment of sewage fails to remove

(a) Sand particles
(b) Small pebbles
(c) Pathogens
(d) Plastics

10. Aspergillus niger produces

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Fumaric acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Citric acid

11. Integrated Pest Management discourages the use of

(a) Biological methods
(b) Chemical pesticides
(c) Mechanical methods
(d) All of these

12. Cyclosporin A drug is produced by

a) Trichoderma polysporum
b) Penicillium notatum
c) Manascus purpureus
d) Aspergillus niger

13. The first antibiotic was discovered by

(a) R Koch
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) A Fleming
(d) W Fleming

14. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is

(a) Propane
(b) Methane
(c) Butane
(d) Carbon dioxide

15. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for

a) Biological control of plant disease
b) Killing insects
c) Controlling caterpillars
d) Producing antibiotics

16. Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
       Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic chemical and  pesticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

17. Which bacteria is involved in biogas production?

(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Methanogens
(d) None of these

18. Biologists consider flowers to be objects of

a) Morphological marvels
b) Embryological marvels
c) Sites of sexual reproduction
d) All of these

19. When does plant decides to flower?

a) In embryonic development
b) During the appearance of flower buds
c) Before the actual flower appear on plant
d) All the above

20. Whorl of carpel in flower represents

a) Gynoecium
b) Androecium
c) Calyx
d) Corolla

1. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(a) Fibrous root
(b) Primary roots
(c) Prop roots
(d) Lateral roots

2. Tap root system is found in

(a) wheat
(b) mustard
(c) grass
(d) Monstera

3. Select the group of plants that possess stilt roots

(a) Rhizophora, Hedera
(b) Pandanus, Ficus
(c) Ficus, Pisum
(d) Zea mays, Rhizophora

4. _______develops from the plumule of the embryo of germinating seed

(a) Axillary bud
(b) Petiole
(c) Stem
(d) Root

5. _______are the green stems of limited growth which have taken over the function of photosynthesis from leaves.

(a) phylloclades
(b) Cladodes
(c) phyllodes
(d) Stem thorn

6. In Opuntia, the function of photosynthesis is carried out by.

(a) cladode
(b) phyllode
(c) phylloclade
(d) stipules

7. Sweet potato is a modified

(a) stem
(b) Adventitious root
(c) Tap root
(d) rhizome.

8. The region of the stem where leaves are borne are called ______and ______are the portions between two_____

(a) Nodes, nodes and internodes
(b) nodes, internodes and nodes
(c) internodes, nodes and nodes
(d) internodes, internodes and nodes

9. The given figure shows the regions of root tip with labelling as A, B and (c) Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B and


a) A-Zone of elongation, B-Zone of meiosis, C Zone of mitosis.
b) A Zone of maturation, B Zone of meristematic activity, C-Zone of elongation.
c) A-Zone of mitosis, B-Zone of elongation, C Zone of root cap.
d) A-Region of maturation, B- Region of elongation, C -Zone of meristematic activity.

10. What type of growth are seen in roots

(a) phototropic
(b) ascending growth
(c) geotropic
(d) against gravity

11. What part of the stem are modified for support and climbing called tendrils

(a) nodes
(b) axillary bud
(c) terminal bud
(d) shoot apex

12. Pneumatophore are found in

(a) Rhizobium
(b) leguminous plants
(c) Rhizophora
(d) maize

13. Who proposed Theory of Biogenesis?

(a) Mendel
(b) Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Aristotle

14. Amino acids found in Miller and Urey experiment

a) Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid
b) Alanine, valine, aspartic acid
c) Valine, glycine, proline
d) Valine, glycine, leucine

15. Tendrils of cucurbits and thorns of bougainvillea are example of

a) Homologous organ
b) Analogous organ
c) Natural selection
d) Adaptive radiation

16. Remains or impression of hard parts of ancient organisms are preserved in which type of rocks

(a) Any type of rocks
(b) Igneous
(c) Metamorphic
(d) Sedimentary

17. When selective pressures select against two extremes of a trait, the population experiences

a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilising selection
d) Adaptive radiation

18. In Miller and Urey experiment, the ratio of Ammonia: Methane: Hydrogen is

(a) 2:1:2
(b) 2:2:1
(c) 1:2:2
(d) 1:2:1

19. Wooly Mammoth found deep frozen in Siberia ice is

(a) Unaltered fossil
(b) Petrified fossil
(c) Coprolites
(d) Mould fossil

20. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by

(a) Darwin
(b) Von baer
(c) Pasteur
(d) Haeckel

1. The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography is/are

(a) silica gel
(b) quick lime
(c) magnesia
(d) None of above

2. Example of Vinylic halide is

a)

b)

c)

d)

3. Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used to distinguish between.

a) Acid and Alcohol
b) Alkane and Alcohol
c) n-alkane and branched alkane
d) Ketones and Aldehydes

4. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃

5. Which of the following compounds undergo aldol condensation?

(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) Trimethylacetaldehyde
(d) Acetaldehyde

6. The product of Reimer-Tiemann reaction is a

(a) salicylaldehyde
(b) salicuclic acid
(c) hydroyamine
(d) nitroaldehyde

7. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives:

(a) m-bromophenol
(b) o- and p- bromophenol
(c) 2,4-dibromophenol
(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol

8. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism?

(a) CH₃O-CH₃
(b) CH₃O-CH₂CH
(c) C₂H₅-S-C₂H₅
(d) CH₃CH₂CH₃

9. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium is

(a) Uno
(b) Uue
(c) Unp
(d) Uns

10. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

(a) CO₂
(b) H₂O
(c) NH₃ 
 (d) PF₅

11. Match List 1 and List 2

         List 1                              List 2

        1) BrF₅                       i. Square Pyramidal
        2) NH₄⁺                    ii. Tetrahedral
        3) BF₃                       iii. Trigonal Bipyramidal
        4) SbCl₅                    iv. Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i

12. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

13. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg

14. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

(a) [Ne] 3s¹
(b) [Ne] 3s² 3p¹
(c) [Xe] 6s¹
(d) [Xe] 6s²

15. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium

16. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

(a) X₂ O
(b) P₂O
(c) PX₃
(d) P₂X₃

17. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

(a) I > I⁺> I^–
(b) I > I^– > I⁺
(c) I⁺ > I^– > I  
(d) I^– > I > I⁺

18. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of rea tants

19.  Units of rate constant for first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity (M) are respectively

(a) sec^-1, M sec^-1 
(b) sec^-1, M
(c) M sec^-1, sec^-1
(d) M, sec^-1

20. For a reaction, the activation energies of forward and reverse reactions are equal when

(a) ∆H = 0
(b) ∆S = 0
(c) the order is zero
(d) there is no catalyst.

1. In bell shaped age pyramid, population is

(a) Expanding
(b) Stable
(c) Declining
(d) None of above

2. Estimate of actual number of individuals in a population

(a) Relative density
(b) Absolute density
(c) Partial density
(d) Economic density

3. Formula for logistic growth:

a) dN/dt=rN(K-N/K)
b) dN/dt=rN(N-N/K)
c) dN/dt=rN(N-K/K)
d) dN/dt=rN(1-N/K)

4. Select the negative factor for population density?
1. Emigration            2. Natality
3. Mortality              4. Immigration

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

5. Group of organism of the same species occupying a particular space

(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Biosphere

6. Which of the following structures in a flower is responsible for the production of male gametes?

(a) Ovary
(b) Anther
(c) Stigma
(d) Style

7. In flowering plants, double fertilization involves:

a) Fusion of one sperm with the egg and another with the polar nuclei
b) Fusion of two sperms with the egg cell
c) Fusion of one sperm with the antipodal cells
d) Fusion of two polar nuclei with the egg

8. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

(a) Xenogamy
(b) Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy
(d) Cleistogamy

9. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive unit in angiosperms?

(a) Ovule
(b) Filament
(c) Nucellu
(d) Embryo sac

10. Cleistogamous flowers are adapted for:

a) Cross-pollination
b) Self-pollination
c) Wind pollination
d) Water pollination

11. In an embryo sac, the cells that assist in guiding the pollen tube towards the egg are:

a) Antipodal cells
b) Polar nuclei
c) Synergids
d) Nucellar cells

12. The structure that connects the stigma to the ovary in a flower is:

(a) Filament
(b) Style
(c) Petiole
(d) Pedicel

13. Which of the following pollinating agents is responsible for hydrophily?

(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Insects
(d) Birds

14. After fertilization, the ovule develops into:

(a) Seed
(b) Fruit
(c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm

15. In which type of endosperm development does cell wall formation occur immediately after each nuclear division?

a) Nuclear endosperm
b) Cellular endosperm
c) Helobial endosperm
d) Mosaic endosperm

16. The embryo sac of a typical angiosperm at maturity is:

a) 8-nucleate, 7-celled
b) 7-nucleate, 8-celled
c) 6-nucleate, 7-celled
d) 8-nucleate, 8-celled

17. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?

(a) Mango
(b) Bamboo
(c) Apple
(d) Papaya

18. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub-stage of prophase-I of meiosis?

a) Diplotene
b) Zygotene
c) Diakinesis
d) Pachytene

19. Which one is correct about crossing over/ genetic recombination?
(A) It occurs in tetrad stage. It occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis-I
(B) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(C) It is a recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(D) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes.

(a) All are correct
(b) All except (d)
(c) (b), (c) and (d)
(d) (c) and (d)

20. Assertion (A): Meiosis maintains a fixed number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms.
      Reason (R): First division of meiosis is heterotypic or reductional division.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is true but Reason is true.

1. Oxygenic photosynthesis is found in

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Methanogens
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Halophiles

2. Heterocysts occur in

(a) Bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Cyanobacteria

3. Protistans are connecting link between

a) Plants and animals
b) Fungi and plants
c) Monera and multicellular organisms
d) Fungi and animals

4. Members of Kingdom Protista are primarily

(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Saprotrophs
(d) Parasites

5. Five kingdom classification was proposed by

a) Herbert Copeland
b) Robert H Whittaker
c) Ernst Haeckel
d) Carolus Linnaeus

6. Which of the following have cellulosic cell wall?

(a) Fungi
(b) Animalia
(c) Plantae
(d) Monera

7. Viroids have

a) RNA not enclosed by protein coat
b) DNA enclosed by protein coat
c) DNA not enclosed by protein coat
d) RNA enclosed by protein coat

8. Which of the following groups are commonly known as imperfect fungi

(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

9. Thread-like fungal structures are known as

(a) Sclerotia
(b) Phycomycetes
(c) Hyphae
(d) None of these

10. Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because they

a) Require both RNA and DNA
b) Both require food molecules
c) Both require oxygen for respiration
d) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate

11. The smallest known agents of the infectious diseases are

(a) Viruses
(b) Mycoplasmas
(c) Viroids
(d) Actinomyces

12. Main component of cell wall of fungi is

(a) Chitin
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glucose
(d) Pectin

13. Which of the following structures are produced exogenously in fungus?

(a) Ascus
(b) Conidia
(c) Basidium
(d) Microspores

14. Which is not character of a population?

(a) Sex ratio
b) Age
(c) Birth rate and death rate
(d) Habitat

15. J-shaped growth curve is observed in

(a) Logistic growth
(b) Exponential growth
(c) Mutualism
(d)None of above

16. Which enzyme is produced by ADA gene?

a) Adenylate
b) Adenine deaminase
c) Adenosine deaminase
d) Adenine

17. Gene therapy involves

a) Introduction of normal gene to a cell
b) Replacement of defective gene with normal gene
c) Transfer of gene
d) None of above

18. Which chain is absent in mature insulin?

(a) Chain A
(b) Chain B
(c) Chain C
(d) Chain A and B

19. Human insulin is commercially produced from

a) Rhizobium
b) Mycobacterium
c) Saccharomyces
d) Escherichia

20. What connects peptide chain in mature insulin?

a) Disulphide bridges
b) Ligase
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrogen bond

1. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium  is

a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unp
d) Uns

2. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

a) CO₂
b) H₂O
c) NH₃
d) PF₅

3. Match List 1 and List 2

   List 1                      List 2

1. BrF₅                Square Pyramidal
2. NH₄⁺             Tetrahedral
3. BF₃                 Trigonal Bipyramidal
4. SbCl₅              Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i

4. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

5. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg

6. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

a) [Ne] 3s
b) [Ne] 3s² 3p¹
c) [Xe] 6s¹
d) [Xe] 6s²

7. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium

8. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

a) X₂ O
b) P₂O
c) PX₃
d) P₂X₃

9. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

a) I > I⁺> I^–
b) I > I^– > I⁺
c) I⁺ > I^– > I
d) I^– > I > I⁺

10. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the change in the internal energy in Joule is?

a) -50
b) 50               
c) 100
d) -175

11. Match list II and List II


A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
B) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
C) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
D) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

12. In adiabatic reversible conditions, 1 mole of CO₂ gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then the work done is? (C_v = 6 cal/mol and γ = 1.33)

a) 900 cal
b) 1000 cal     
c) 1200 cal
d) 1400 cal 

13. What is the value of γ for monoatomic gas (ideal gas)?

a) 7/5
b) 4/3              
c) 5/2
d) None of these

14. ∆H and ∆U for the reaction, Fe₂O₃ (s) + 3H₂ (g) ⇢ 2Fe (s) + 3H₂O (l); at constant temperature are related as

(a) ∆H = ∆U
(b) ∆H = ∆U + RT
(c) ∆H = ∆U + 3RT
(d) ∆H = ∆U – 3RT

15. If 10 kJ of work is done on the system then 2 kcal heat is released by the system then change in internal energy is? (1cal = 4.2 J)

a) 1.6 J
b) 1600 J         
c) 1.6 cal
d) 1600 cal      

16. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The ∆E for this process is?

a) 1381.1 cal
b) 163.7 cal
c) zero
d) 9 atm L

17. In which case change in entropy is negative?

a) Sublimation of solid to gas
b) 2H(g)→H₂(g)
c) Evaporation of water
d) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature

18. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

a) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
b) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
c) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0
d) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0

19. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂ = CH -Cl is due to

a) inductive effect
b) resonance stabilisation
c) electromeric effect
d) electronegativity

20. Sublimation is a process where a solid

a) melts
b) changes into liquid form
c) boils
d) changes into vapour form directly.

1. During mitosis chromosome number is

(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) constant
(d) none of these

2. In mitosis, centromere divides at

(a) prophase
(b) metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) telophase.

3. Spindle fibre unite with which structure of chromosomes?

(a) Chromocentre
(b) Chromomere
(c) Centriole
(d) Kinetochore

4. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the

(a) metaphase plate
(b) metatorial plate
(c) equatorial phase
(d) anaphase plate

5. In an average 24 hour duration of cell cycle of human cell, mitosis consumes a period of average hour/hours.

(a) two
(b) three
(c) twelve
(d) one

6. Morgan conducted his experiment on

a) Pisum sativum
b) Drosophila melanogaster
c) Musca domestica
d) Triticum aestivum

7. What are the possible genotypes of person with blood group A?

(a) IAIA only
(b) IAIB
(c) IAi , IAIA
(d) ii

8. What will be the phenotype of F1 generation if red flower and white flower were crossed and they show incomplete dominance?

(a) Red
(b) White
(c) Pink
(d) Roan

1. HGP is the sequencing of complete human

a) genome
b) proteins
c) RNA
d) enzymes.

10. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what conclusion was drawn from the presence of radioactive phosphorus in the bacterial pellet?

a) Proteins are the genetic material

b) DNA is the genetic material

c) RNA is the genetic material

d) Carbohydrates are essential for infection

11. Which of the following is NOT required for the elongation phase of translation?

(a) Ribosomes
(b) tRNA
(c) Mrna
(d) DNA polymerase

12. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, after one round of replication in ¹⁴N medium, the DNA was found to have:

a) All heavy strands (¹⁵N)
b) All light strands (¹⁴N)
c) Hybrid strands (¹⁵N-¹⁴N)
d) A mix of heavy and light strands

13. The process of transcription in eukaryotes differs from prokaryotes because:

a) It occurs in the cytoplasm
b) It involves splicing of mRNA
c) It does not require RNA polymerase
d) It produces DNA as the final product

14. In mitosis, there are two phases that are virtually the reverse of each other and these are

(a) prophase and metaphase
(b) prophase and telophase
(c) anaphase and telophase
(d) metaphase and telophase.

15. In which phase of mitosis, chromosome physically separates into chromatids which repel each other?

(a) Anaphase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Prophase

16. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?

(a) 32
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 4

17. The significance of mitotic division is

(a) it maintains the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(b) it replaces the old or worn-out cells
(c) daughter cells and parent cells have the same number of chromosomes (2n)
(d) all of these.

18. “G₀” state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes

(a) check point before entering the next phase
(b) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay
(c) death of a cell
(d) exit of cells from cell cycle.

19. Which is the longest phase of cell cycle?

(a) Anaphase-II
(b) Prophase-I
(c) Interphase
(d) Both prophase-I and II

20. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?

(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Telophase
(d) Prophase

1. Benzene reacts with CH₃Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to form :

a) Chlorobenzene
b) Benzyl chloride
c) Xylene
d) Toluene

2. Which of the following has least boiling point?

a) n-Hexane 
b) n-Pentane
c) 2-Methylbutane
d) 2,2-Dimethyl propane

3. The principle involved in paper chromatography is

a) Adsorption
b) Partition
c) Solubility
d) Volatility

4. The species having +I effect are

a) CH₃CH₂
b) -COOH
c) -NO₂
d) CN

5. Which of the following compounds are aromatic ?


a) A,B
b) A,B,C
c) B,C
d) B only

6. For a given alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides follow the order:

a) RI > RBr > RCI
b) RCI > RBr > RI
c) RI > RCI > RBr
d) RBr>RI > RCl.

7. – Alkyl halides on treatment with alc. KOH give

a) alcohols
b) alkenes
c) alkanes
d) aldehydes

8. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction –

a) C₆H₅Cl
b) CH₂=CHCI
c) CICH₂CH=CH₂
d) CH₃-CH=CHCI

9. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

a) s > p > d > f
b) s < p < d < f
c) s > p f
d) s

d > f

10. Which of the following set is non permissible?

a) n=4, l= 3, m=0
b) n=4, l= 2, m= 1
c) n= 4, l= 4, m=1
d) n=4, l=0, m= 0

11. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Na atom is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

12. How many electrons can fit in the orbitals for which n=3 and l =1 ?

a) 2
b) 6
c) 10
d) 14

13. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbitals is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

14. In case of d_x2–_y2 orbital

a) Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
b) Probability of finding the electron along y -axis is zero
c) Probability of finding the electron along x- axis is zero
d) Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y- axis

15. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are

a) 2, 0
b) 2, 1
c) 2, 2
d) 3, 1

16. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

a) Alpha particle scaterring from Gold
b) Beta particle scaterring from Gold
c) Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
d) A and B

17. How many electron pair are present in

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

18. The H⁺ ion concentration of 0.05 M CH₃COOH solution is? (K_a = 1.25 x 10^-6)

a) 4 × 10^-6
b) 16 × 10^-3     
c) 25 × 10^-5
d) 32 × 10^-4

19. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?
(I) pKw increase with increase in temperature
(II) pKw decreases with increase in temperature
(III) pKw = 14 at all temperature
(IV) pKw = pH at all temperature

a) only (I)
b) (II) and (IV) only
c) I and IV only
d) (I), (II) and (IV)

20. Calculate the pH of 10^-7 M NaOH

a) 7.3
b) 8.4  
c) 10.2
d) 6.5