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BANKING TEST SERIES (PROBABILITY 2)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PROBABILITY 2)

1. A box contains 50 marbles of different colours i.e. purple, pink and blue. Find the number of pink marbles in the box, if probability of picking purple marble is 3/5 and that of either a purple or pink marble is 4/5.

a) 6

b) 8

c) 5

d) 10

e) None of these
None

2. The chance that Om can solve a certain problem is 1/4, the chance that Jay can solve it is 2/3. Find the probability that the problem is solved if they both try.

a) 1/4

b) 3/4

c) 1/2

d) 1/7

e) 1/8
None

3. Tickets numbered 1 to 50 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 8?

a) 1/7

b) 7/26

c) 3/25

d) 2/5

e) 3/5
None

4. There are 8 boys and 4 girls are giving an interview for a job. If three of them are selected, then what is the probability that one of the three is a girl and the other two are the boys?

a) 37/45

b) 27/65

c) 28/55

d) 32/45

e) 11/15
None

5. If two fair dice are rolled simultaneously, find the probability of getting a sum of 9 from two dice.

a) 1/6

b) 1/3

c) 1/9

d) 1/4

e) None of these
None

6. From a pack of well shuffled deck of cards, a card is drawn at random, find the probability of getting an Ace of spade or a jack of diamond.

a) 1/52

b) 1/26

c) 1/13

d) 2/13

e) None of these
None

7. From a pack of well shuffled deck of cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being Ace?

a) 1/221

b) 2/221

c) 2/121

d) 1/121

e) None of these
None

8. One card is drawn at random from the well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card is either a king or a multiple of 2?

a) 4/13

b) 7/13

c) 5/13

d) 6/13

e) None
None

9. One card is drawn at random from the well shuffled pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card is either a king or a multiple of 3.

a) 5/13

b) 6/13

c) 3/13

d) 4/13

e) 7/13
None

10. There are 30 students in a class. Two monitors are selected. One is girl and one is boy. Number of boys are 20 and number of girls are 10. In how many ways can monitors be selected?

a) 140

b) 200

c) 240

d) 360

e) 180
None

11. If 2 cards are drawn from a pack of 52 cards, find the probability that will be ace.

a) 1 / 12

b) 1 / 234

c) 2 / 245

d) 1 / 425

e) 1 / 221
None

12. A bag contains 7 pink and 3 green balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. Find the probability that exactly two of them are pink.

a) 11/40

b) 12/19

c) 13/17

d) 21/40

e) 17/19
None

13. In a wardrobe, there are 12 jeans, 13 number of more kurta than the number of jeans and 20 number of more tops than the number of kurtas. One item is picked at random. Find the probability that is neither jeans nor kurta?

a) 145/82

b) 42/81

c) 36/81

d) 37/42

e) 37/82
None

14. If three dice are rolled simontaneously then find the probability of getting three sixes.

a) 1/12

b) 1/36

c) 1/18

d) 1/6

e) 1/216
None

Time’s up

April 14, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PROBABILITY 1)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PROBABILITY 1)

1. A coin is tossed and 6 sided dice is rolled. Find probability of getting a tail of coin and getting 6 on dice?

a) 1/6

b) 1/8

c) 1/9

d) 1/10

e) 1/12
None

2. Four women and three men appear for an interview. Three persons have to be selected. Find the probability of selecting one man and two women in the team.

a) 13/25

b) 18/35

c) 19/45

d) 9/25

e) 13/35
None

3. 2 dice are thrown in the air. Find the probability of getting a sum less than 11.

a) 7/12

b) 11/12

c) 5/12

d) 1/3

e) 2/5
None

4. Three kids A, B and C are attempting a question in which the chances of them getting the right answer is 1/5, 1/6 and 1/4 respectively. Find the probability that only one of them is getting the right answer.

a) 43/120

b) 47/120

c) 42/120

d) 53/120

e) 57/120
None

5. A number is selected from 51 to 100. Find the probability that is a square number or prime number.

a) 2/5

b) 13/50

c) 1/10

d) 2/10

e) 1/9
None

6. There are two bags. Each bag contains 5 bananas and 3 apples. Find the probability of selecting 2 bananas from the same bag.

a) 2/13

b) 3/14

c) 5/28

d) 1/13

e) 1/18
None

7. A coin and a dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a head and not getting a three.

a) 7/12

b) 1/4

c) 1/3

d) 5/12

e) 2/3
None

8. Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.

Quantity I: A coin is tossed 3 times. What is the probability of getting a tail each time?
Quantity II: 1/16

a) Quantity I > Quantity II

b) Quantity I < Quantity II

c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

e) Quantity I = Quantity II
None

9. Comprehension:
Directions: Study the information to answer the questions that below :

There are 52 cards in a pack. All jacks are removed from the pack. Two cards are chosen at a random without replacement.
Find the probability that both cards are spade.

a) 22/119

b) 45/118

c) 21/112

d) 11/188

e) 24/112
None

Time’s up

April 14, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 3)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 3)

1. The average age of a group of 20 tourists is 14 years. The age of the only girl member of the group is 2 years less than the average age of the group. If the age of guide is included the average age increases by 2 years. Find the difference between the ages of the guide and the girl member of group?

a) 42

b) 43

c) 45

d) 40

e) 44
None

2. The average marks obtained by the students of 3 departments is 848. If the average marks obtained by 15 students of science department is 64 and the average marks of 12 students of Hindi department is 72. Find the average marks obtained by the students of Mathematics department having 9 students.

a) 82

b) 83

c) 85

d) 80

e) 84
None

3. The average of 8 numbers is 28. If all numbers are multiplied by 3 and then subtracted by 3, what will be the value of 88.89% of the new average?

a) 60

b) 64

c) 72

d) 75

e) 79
None

4. The average marks of A, B and C in Maths is 84. The average marks of A and B are 5 more than average marks of B and C and difference in marks of B and A is 7 in same subject, where B is greater than A. Find the marks of C in Maths.

a) 82

b) 75

c) 95

d) 80

e) 84
None

5. A toy maker makes 10 Toys on Monday, 13 Toys on Tuesday, 12 Toys on Wednesday, 11 Toys on Thursday and 12 Toys on Friday. If the maker is paid x rupees for making every 10 Toys and y rupees for making every extra Toy, then find the average daily earning of the maker.

a) x + (8y/5)

b) y + (9y/5)

c) 10x + (8y/5)

d) 5x + 8y

e) None of these
None

6. In an examination result, it was found that the average marks scored by the top 15 students is 90.4. Out of these, the average marks of the top ten students is 93.6, while that of the last four is 84.5. How many marks did the 11^th student scored?

a) 81

b) 82

c) 83

d) 84

e) 85
None

7. The average runs scored by P in his 40 innings is 120. If he is out without scoring in 41^st inning and he scored average runs of 60 in his next 4 innings. What are average runs scored by him in 45 innings?

a) 96

b) 110

c) 80

d) 112

e) 97
None

8. The average of 60 students is 18 years. Among these 60 students, the average age of a group of 34 students is 15 years. What is the average (approx.) age of the group of remaining 26 students?

a) 20.88

b) 19.72

c) 22.64

d) 21.92

e) None of these
None

9. The average of 15 observations was found to be 30. Later, it was observed that 41 was wrongly taken as 14 and 23 as 32. Also, observation 27 and 46 were not included. Find the correct average.

a) 30.82

b) 31.82

c) 30.56

d) 31.56

e) 32.56
None

10. The average weight of 6 persons decreases by 3 kg when one of them weighing 80 kg is replaced by a new person. The weight (in kg) of the new person is

a) 74

b) 68

c) 62

d) 77

e) 72
None

11. The average age of 40 students of a class is 15 years. When 10 new students are admitted, the average age is increased by 0.2 years. The average age of new students is

a) 15.2 years

b) 16 years

c) 16.2 years

d) 16.4 years

e) 15.6 years
None

12. The average of first three numbers of a set of six numbers is 60. The average of the second, third and fourth numbers is 20 and the average of the third, fourth and fifth numbers is 30. The average of last three numbers is 40. What is the average of first, fifth and sixth number of the set?

a) 60

b) 75

c) 80

d) 45

e) None of these
None

13. Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities.
You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose from the possible answers.
Quantity A: The average age of a group of students going for trekking from class A is 12 years. The average age of 25 students from class B is 14 years and they are also joining the trekking trip. Then, the average age of the total group of students going for trekking is 13 years. The number of students in class A is:
Quantity B: The average salary of all the staff in an institute is Rs. 6000. The average salary of 8 workers is Rs. 5000 and the average salary of the other officers is Rs. 8000. The difference in number of workers and number of officers is:

a) Quantity A > Quantity B

b) Quantity A < Quantity B

c) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

d) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

e) Quantity A = Quantity B or no relation
None

14. A man purchased spirit for three consecutive years. In the first year, he purchased spirit at the rate of Rs. 5 per litre, in the second year, at the rate of Rs. 6.00 per litre and in the third year, at Rs. 7.50 per litre. If he purchased spirit worth Rs. 7,500 each year, the average price of spirit per litre for three years is.

a) Rs. 12

b) Rs. 10

c) Rs. 6

d) Rs. 18

e) Rs. 22
None

15. The average age of 10 men is increased by 2 years when two of them whose age are 24 and 26 years replaced by two new men. The average age of the two new men is.

a) 50 years

b) 42 years

c) 30 years

d) 35 years

e) None of these
None

16. Given below are three quantities named A, B and C. Based on the given information, determine the relation among the three quantities.
A sum of Rs. 8000 is divided between X, Y and Z, such that the average share of X and Y is Rs. 200 more than that of Y and Z, while the average share of X and Z is Rs. 125 less than that of X and Y.

Quantity A: What is the average share of X and Y?
Quantity B: What is the average share of X and Z?
Quantity C: What is the average share of Y and Z?

a) Quantity A > Quantity B > Quantity C

b) Quantity A < Quantity B < Quantity C

c) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B ≥ Quantity C

d) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B ≤ Quantity C

e) Quantity A = Quantity B = Quantity C
None

17. A person buys sugar at Rs. 40, Rs. 45 and Rs. 50 per kg for three consecutive months. What is the approximate average cost per kg of sugar, if he spends Rs. 2000 per month?

a) Rs. 49.1

b) Rs. 48.0

c) Rs. 43.5

d) Rs. 44.6

e) Rs. 45.8
None

18. Of the five numbers, the first number is five more than second number , the second number is half of the third number, the third number is 2/3^rd of the forth number and the fourth number is twice of the fifth number. The average of the five numbers is 18. Find the average of smallest and largest number.

a) 20

b) 10

c) 15

d) 35

e) 25
None

19. Given below are quantities named A and B. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose among the possible answer.

Quantity A: The average weight of 4 students is 40kg. If one more person joins the team then average weight becomes 42kg, then find the weight of the new person.
Quantity B: The price of sugar increases by 20% and the person can buy 9kg less sugar. Find the final quantity of sugar he has.

a) Quantity A > Quantity B

b) Quantity A < Quantity B

c) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

d) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

e) Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation
None

20. If the average weight of 10 boys in a boat is 55 kg. If one of the boys left the boat and a new boy whose weight is 80 Kg joins the boat then the average weight of boys increased by 1 kg. Find the weight of the boy who left the boat.

a) 65 kg

b) 60 kg

c) 55 kg

d) 70 kg

e) None of the above
None

21. In a class of 80 boys and 100 girls, the average marks scored by boys is 137 and average marks scored by girls is 162. Find the average marks of all students in a class.

a) 132 4/9

b) 150 8/9

c) 146 7/9

d) 154 17/18

e) None of the above
None

22. A museum has an average of 200 visitors on Weekends and 50 on weekdays. The average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days starting with Saturday is

a) 90

b) 110

c) 100

d) 105

e) 120
None

23. Sushil works 6 days in a week i.e. from Monday to Saturday. His average income for first four days was Rs. 60 and for the last 3 days from the 6 days was Rs. 75. Income of the fourth day is Rs. 63. Find the average income of 6 days.

a) 45

b) 67

c) 23

d) 35

e) 78
None

24. If total corona cases in all the states of India are 16,24,000 and the average of recovered and deceased persons in all the states of India is 20,000, and 2,000 respectively then find the average of present active cases in all the states of India if the number of states in India is 28.

a) 28,000

b) 24,000

c) 36,000

d) 34,000

e) None of these
None

25. A bought a certain number of Fiction books for Rs. 4500 and 40 Comic books of Rs. 9000. The average price of fiction and comic book is Rs. 250. Find the average number of the total books.

a) 20

b) 28

c) 24

d) 27

e) 22
None

26. The average of 40 numbers is 35. After all the calculation it is found that two numbers are wrongly written as 86 and 54 instead of 68 and 45. Find the new average.

a) 33.525

b) 34.325

c) 35.575

d) 32.295

e) 33.275
None

27. Average of 7 numbers is 6 and average of first 4 numbers is 4.5 and the average of last 4 numbers is 7.75. Find the value of middle number.

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) 7
None

28. A mark list of 30 students prepared by the teacher and average of their marks was 68. But, mark of one student was written as 35 instead of 53. Find the correct average marks.

a) 67.4

b) 65.6

c) 64.2

d) 68.6

e) 70.2
None

Time’s up

April 14, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 2)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 2)

1. find the present age of A.
I. average of the present age of A, B, C and D is 20 years
II. average age of B and D is 25
III. ratio of age of A and B is 2 : 3

a) Only statement I is efficient

b) Only statement II is sufficient

c) Statement I and II together is sufficient

d) Any of the above statement alone is sufficient

e) None of the statement together or alone is sufficient
None

2. The average age of a team of players is 24 years. When the age of their trainer is also included, the average age increases by 1 year. If the age of the trainer is 36 years, find the number of players in the team.

a) 8

b) 9

c) 10

d) 11

e) 12
None

2. The average age of 15 girls and their teacher is 16. If teacher’s age is excluded the average reduces by 1. What is the teacher’s age?

a) 28

b) 35

c) 31

d) 21

e) 24
None

4. The average weekly salary of A, B and C is Rs. 4,000 and that of B, C and D is Rs. 5,000. If the weekly salary of A is Rs. 2,750 then the weekly salary of D is

a) Rs. 5,750

b) Rs. 4,750

c) Rs. 5,280

d) Rs. 3,800

e) Rs. 4,250
None

5. The average weight of 60 students is 40 kg. There are 60% boys among them. If the average weight of the boys is 48 kg, find the average weight of the girls.

a) 24 kg

b) 36 kg

c) 28 kg

d) 44 kg

e) 34 kg
None

6. In a school with 400 students, the average of the age of the boys is 16 years and that of the girls is 12 years. If the average age of all students in the school is 14 years 9 months. Then the number of girls in the school is.

a) 175

b) 155

c) 237

d) 125

e) None of these
None

7. The average age of the family of 4 members is 38 years. If the age of the youngest member is 20 years, then find the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member

a) 17 years

b) 19 years

c) 18 years

d) 21 years

e) 20 years
None

8. The average weight of girls in a school is 36 kg and the average of boys in the same school is 38 kg. Girls are twice the number of boys and the difference of weights of girls and boys is 1020 kg, find the number of boys in the school.

a) 30

b) 40

c) 60

d) 50

e) 70
None

9. a, b, c, d, e are five numbers such that their average is 42. The average of a, b, c is 23, d is more than e by 5. What is the value of e?

a) 56

b) 63

c) 68

d) 72

e) 29
None

10. The average age of 7 members of a group 3 years ago was 25 years. 2 new members join the group and the present average age of the whole group becomes 26 years. Find the average age of the 2 new members.

a) 23 years

b) 26 years

c) 27 years

d) 19 years

e) 21 years
None

11. The average daily wage of 460 employees in a factory is Rs. 780. The average daily wage of officers is Rs. 1500 and the average daily wage of the workers is Rs. 540. Find the number of workers.

a) 115

b) 295

c) 395

d) 415

e) 345
None

12. The average height of a class having 20 students is 75 cm, when the height of the teacher is added the average height is increased by 5 cm. What is the height of the teacher?

a) 175 cm

b) 192 cm

c) 180 cm

d) 170 cm

e) 178 cm
None

13. There are 34 students in a class. The average weight of the class is 35 kg. If two new students joined the class, the average weight increases by 2 kg. Find the total weight of the two new students who joined the class?

a) 105 kg

b) 142 kg

c) 127 kg

d) 4 152 kg

e) None of these
None

14. The average age of 10 students is 20 years. If the age of one teacher is also included, the average age is increased by 10%. Find the age of the teacher.

a) 12 years

b) 36 years

c) 45 years

d) 41 years

e) 42 years
None

15. The average expenditure of a family from January to April is Rs. 15,000 and from May to December is Rs. 30,000. If family saves Rs. 20,000 in that year. Find his monthly average income.

a) Rs. 25,555

b) Rs. 45,555

c) Rs. 26,666

d) Rs. 36,777

e) Rs. 37,777
None

16. Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: The average age of a group of students is 24 years. When the age of their teacher is also included, the average age increases by 1 year. If the age of the teacher is 36 years, find the number of students in the group.
Quantity II: 11

a) Quantity I > Quantity II

b) Quantity I < Quantity II

c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
None

17. The average of the seven numbers is 45. We replace two numbers 65 and 54 with 56 and 35. Then find the new average.

a) 41

b) 43

c) 47

d) 45

e) 39
None

18. The average age of 15 persons is 13 years. When the age of two more persons is included then the average becomes 15. Find the average age of two new students.

a) 32 years

b) 30 years

c) 28 years

d) 31 years

e) 33 years
None

19. The average weight of some animals on a farm is 40 kg when 2 new animals joined the average is increased by 0.5 kg. If the weight of those 2 animals is 45 and 51 kg, find the total number of animals present initially.

a) 32

b) 30

c) 40

d) 35

e) 42
None

20. A batsman scored 90 runs in his 12^th match. Due to this, his average run is increased by 2. Find the initial average runs scored by him.

a) 65

b) 63

c) 68

d) 66

e) 70
None

21. Average age of Ankit and Sumit, 3 years ago was 29. If the age of Ankit, 4 years hence is 35 years and Sumit is 4 years elder to Amit. Then, find the difference between the age of Ankit and Amit.

a) 3 years

b) 2 years

c) 5 years

d) 6 years

e) 4 years
None

22. The average weight of 4 puppies is increased by 2 kg, when one puppy whose weight is 6 kg is replaced by a big dog. What is the weight of the new dog?

a) 13 kg

b) 16 kg

c) 18 kg

d) 12 kg

e) 14 kg
None

23. The average weight of the class is 60 kg and the average weight of boys in the class is 80 kg. The ratio of boys to girls in the class is 5 : 4 If there are 72 students in the class. Find the average weight of girls

a) 45

b) 35

c) 50

d) 55

e) None of these
None

24. There are 14 people in a family and the average age of the people is 50. A newborn joins the family. After 4 years what will be the average age of all the people in the family?

a) 50.6

b) 53

c) 60.5

d) 55

e) 55.5
None

Time’s up

April 14, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 1)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (AVERAGES 1)

1. The average age of 18 people is 25 years. After including 3 more persons, the average age is increased by 3 years. Find the average age of 3 new persons?

a) 42 years

b) 48 years

c) 46 years

d) 54 years

e) 36 years
None

2. A student’s marks were wrongly entered as 96 instead of 69. Due to this, the average marks of the class went up by 1/3 marks. What is the number of students in the class?

a) 75

b) 81

c) 78

d) 63

e) 84
None

3. A cricketer has a certain average of runs for his 8 innings. In the ninth inning he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing his average by 9 runs. His new average of runs is

a) 20

b) 24

c) 28

d) 32

e) 26
None

4. The average expenditure of a person for 10 days is Rs. 45 per day. If his average expenditure for the first 3 days is Rs. 52 per day, then what will be his average expenditure for the remaining 7 days.

a) Rs. 32

b) Rs. 48

c) Rs. 38

d) Rs. 42

e) Rs. 26
None

5. The average of 11 numbers is 33. If the average of first six numbers and the last six numbers are 25.5 and 40.5 respectively, then find the sixth number.

a) 34

b) 33

c) 35

d) 36

e) None of these
None

6. The average of a series of six numbers, in which each term is greater than its previous term by 3, is 32.5. What is the value of the smallest term?

a) 24

b) 28

c) 30

d) 25

e) 34
None

7. The average weight of the 8 crew members in a boat is increased by 5/2 kg, when one crew member of 60 kg replaced by new member. What is the weight of new member?

a) 75 kg

b) 85 kg

c) 88 kg

d) 80 kg

e) 90 kg
None

8. The Average marks of students A, B, C and D in geography is 60. If marks of a new student is joined, then the average marks becomes <span id="MathJax-Element-1-Frame" class="MathJax" style="display: inline;font-style: normal;font-weight: normal;line-height: normal;font-size: 14px;text-indent: 0px;text-align: left;text-transform: none;letter-spacing: normal;float: none;direction: ltr;max-width: none;max-height: none;min-width: 0px;min-height: 0px;border: 0px;padding: 0px;margin: 0px;color: inherit !important;background-color: inherit !important;position: relative" role="presentation" data-mathml="16 2/3% more than the previous average. Find the sum of marks of all students.

a) 350

b) 240

c) 480

d) 270

e) None of these
None

9. The average of five number is 27. If a number is removed from set of five numbers, then average is increased by 1. Find the removed number.

a) 23

b) 25

c) 12

d) 18

e) 20
None

10. In a car, there are 12 men whose average weight is increased by 1.5 kg when 1 man of 70 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of newcomer?

a) 75 kg

b) 92 kg

c) 88 kg

d) 76 kg

e) 97 kg
None

11. The average of 12 numbers is 35. The average of the first nine numbers is 40. The average of the last two numbers is 25. Find the tenth number.

a) 20

b) 10

c) 12

d) 15

e) 8
None

12. Average age of a group of 28 persons is 24 years. If a new person is included then the average age rises by 1 year, then the present age of new person will be which of the following?

a) 25

b) 27

c) 32

d) 30

e) 53
None

13. The average of 5 term is 50. If the first 4 terms are 45, 37, 80 and 43 what will be the last term?

a) 70

b) 80

c) 75

d) 45

e) 55
None

14. In an organization, employees are working in two shifts. The average number of employees working in the morning and evening shifts is 50. The number of employees working in morning shifts is 40 more than that of evening shifts. Find the number of employees working in the morning and evening shifts respectively.

a) 20 and 80

b) 70 and 30

c) 80 and 120

d) 20 and 60

e) 50 and 90
None

15. The average temperature of 7 days is 30°. If the average of the first 3 days is (100 / 3)° and that of the last 2 days is 30°, find the average temperature of 4^th and 5^th day.

a) 25°

b) 30°

c) 20°

d) 24°

e) 50°
None

16. A person scored 615 runs in five matches, if he hits 13 fours and 8 sixes, then find the average runs scored by him by running.

a) 105 runs

b) 103 runs

c) 113 runs

d) 123 runs

e) 120 runs
None

17. The average age of 5 men is 12 years. The average age of the first three men is 8 years and the average age of the last three men is 16 years. Find the age of the third man.

a) 11

b) 12

c) 15

d) 14

e) None
None

Time’s up

April 14, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (12.04.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (12.04.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

ENGLISH SECTION

Direction (1-11): A word is given in bold followed by four sentences. Some sentences are provided with meanings of the given word. One sentence may be provided with the opposite meaning of the given word. So you have to find an odd sentence which describes the opposite meaning to the given word.
1. Repugnant
A. The repellent odor was strong enough to keep the children out of the bathroom
B. The obscene dancing was not appropriate for a church function.
C. The man was asked to leave the restaurant because of his obnoxious behavior.
D. The politician worked hard to make innocuous speeches that would not offend anyone.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

2. Tenuous
A. The Totonacs have the dubious distinction of allying themselves with Cortes against the Aztecs.
B. She felt the piercing sting of humiliation and her heart being broken and torn apart like some fragile letter.
C. The fancy Spanish architecture was both elegant and well-designed
D.A discourse for which there were few takers earlier began to sound plausible.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

3. Sanguine
A. Jenny is optimistic and hopes for the best even when things look bleak
B. Jim was buoyant after he received a job offer during his first interview.
C. The handshake between the two men was their implicit agreement to the terms of the contract.
D. The dog groomer assured the dog’s owner that she would be satisfied with the pet’s haircut.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

4. Incite
A. The surgeon used a mild sedative to tranquilize the anxious patient prior to surgery.
B. The pictures of the victim’s body are sure to provoke feelings of anger within the jury.
C. The road construction will definitely instigate major traffic delays during rush hour.
D. The media tried to ferment public unrest by repeatedly publishing articles about the crooked police officer.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

5. Enervate
A. The lecture on calculus was enervating to the new students.
B. If you are idle then it will definitely enervate your progress towards success.
C. The energy drink enervated him to such an extent that he ran faster than the others.
D. The long journey from Kolkata to Bhubaneswar is quite enervating.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

6. Adamant
A. The doctors at Apollo hospital had been absolutely adamant that Meena’s grandmother was not going to get better
B. Raani is so adamant in her political beliefs that no one can change her mind!
C. Kunal is a very sweet, amiable and adamant boy.
D. Unemployed youths of this country are adamant about finding a suitable job.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

7. Negligent
A. Ranjit is quite punctual and negligent when it comes to official works.
B. I was utterly shocked to find out how negligent Arun had been during these years.
C. Please do not be negligent in your work else you will suffer.
D. Andy seems quite negligent about his health.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

8. Approbation
A. With your approbation she can stay at my house.
B. You need to build a powerful resume to gain approbation from the hiring company.
C. The clerks need prior approbation from the manager on this issue.
D. Without my prior approbation, there should not be any absentees tomorrow.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

d) All are correct
None

9. Fervent
A. My fervent wish for you is a lifetime of success and happiness.
B. The terrorist’s fervor made him believe that giving his life for his cause was his purpose in life.
C. Moments of fervent inspiration are also part of this very short but telling musical prayer.
D. The portrayals of factory life would make even the most fervent capitalists turn to Marx and Engels.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

10. Fierce
A. They brushed away every difficulty and pushed on fiercely.
B. The commanders fight fiercely and win the day against the traitorous forces.
C. They could not withstand the fierceness of attack of those soldiers.
D. Joe is a fierce debater who browbeats his opponents into defeat

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

11. Denounce
A. The dictator made a speech to denounce the actions of his enemies.
B. Management was quick to denounce the hard work done by the union representatives
C. Ministers took the floor to denounce the decision to suspend constitutional rule.
D. I encouraged them to denounce the callow subjugation of women and switch from heels to flats.

a) Only B

b) Only A

c) Only D

d) Only C

e) All are correct
None

DIRECTIONS (12 -18) Identify the correct/incorrect usage of the following words according to individual directions given below for each question.

12. SCRUMPTIOUS (Identify the correct usage)
A. The cease fire made the Russian government scrumptious which eventually silenced the guns and driven off the drones
B. My dog loves belly rub, so he avoids getting scrumptious at times.
C. He was arrested because of being scrumptious.
D. This restaurant is famous for making some of the world’s most scrumptious cakes.

a) Only a

b) Only d

c) Both b and c

d) Both b and d

e) Only b
None

13. SIESTA (Identify the incorrect usage)
A. The manager found the employee taking siesta and he was suspended.
B. The boy had siesta on his leg while he was playing football.
C. The laptop had a siesta and needs to take it for repair.
D. She had a habit of taking afternoon siesta.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Only d

d) Both b and c

e) Both a and c
None

14. GLOWER (identify the correct usage)
A. She had an awful glower on her face when she discovered him being with another girl.
B. The light he purchased wasn’t of enough glower
C. The little girl became glower when she received birthday presents in advance
D. The college was decorated with glower keeping the upcoming celebrations in mind.

a) Both a and c

b) Both b and d

c) Only a

d) Only b

e) Only d
None

15. ARDUOUS (Identify the correct usage)
A. He was extremely arduous to see his son’s achievement.
B. His next task on bucket list is an arduous climb up the Mount Everest.
C. From breakfast until dinner, he is always arduous to his kids.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Both a and c

d) Both b and a

e) Only c
None

16. DEVOUT (identify the correct usage)

A. The last question in the exam was devoted.
B. He was a devout Christian.
C. The devout players are known for their betrayal.
D. The characters in the play was devout by author and they finally cheated.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Both a and b

d) Both c and d

e) All are correct
None

17. CHASM (identify the correct usage)

A. There are various new schemes introduced in the budget for closing the chasm between the rich and the poor
B. Even today there is a chasm between black and white in the USA.
C. The deep chasm was formed on the road right in front of them.
D. The chasm extends the whole length of the river.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Only c

d) Both c and d

e) All are correct
None

18. MULISH (identify the incorrect usage)

A. His friends always hated him for that mulish look on his face.
B. The child didn’t like the mulish to eat.
C. The USA kept asking for mulishness from Indian government.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Only c

d) Both b and c

e) Both a and b
None

19. STANCH (identify the correct usage)
A. The mother immediately brought the cloth to stanch the blood.
B. The players didn’t let the stanch to play. C. He is a stanch follower of his boss.
C. The author was legally charged for his stanch to the priest.

a) Only a

b) Only b

c) Only c

d) Both a and c

e) Only d
None

20. FACULTATIVE (identify the correct usage)
A. He was too tired from work, he went to the beach for being facultative.
B. The diplomats were angry for the discrepancies in the facultative.
C. The last question in the examination was facultative.

a) Only a

b) Both b and c

c) Only c

d) Both b and a.

e) Both a and c
None

REASONING

Direction: (1-5) Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Eight persons Akshat, Banner, Chinmay, Duke, Easha, Fiza, Ghatak and Haris sit around the circular table. Some of them face towards the centre while some face away from the centre. Not more than two adjacent persons face in same direction.Fiza faces towards the centre and does not sit adjacent to Ghatak. Akshat sits second to the right of Ghatak. Chinmay and Easha are immediate right of each other. Two persons sit between Haris and Ghatak. Duke and Akshat face in same direction. Both Ghatak and Haris face in same direction. Fiza and Duke do not face in same direction. Akshat and Haris are not adjacent to each other. Easha sits opposite to Banner, who does not sit adjacent to Akshat.
1. _______ sits second to the right of Easha.

a) Fiza

b) Haris

c) Banner

d) Ghatak

e) Duke
None

2. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Easha sits immediate right of Akshat

b) Fiza sits opposite to Duke

c) Banner sits second to the right of Duke

d) Banner faces towards the centre

e) Haris sits adjacent to Banner
None

3. Four are the same in a certain way thus forms a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group?

a) Chinmay`

b) Akshat

c) Fiza

d) Duke

e) Banner
None

4. Who sits third to the left of one, who sits immediate right of Banner?

a) Easha

b) Chinmay

c) Akshat

d) Haris

e) Duke
None

5. Who sits opposite to Ghatak?

a) Akshat

b) Haris

c) Easha

d) Chinmay

e) Banner
None

Directions: (6-10) Read the given information carefully and answer the questions asked below.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a circular table and all of them are facing away from the centre of the table.
P sits third to the right of V. Only one person sits between P and W (either from the right or left from P). S sits second to the left of Q, who is not an immediate neighbour of V. The number of persons sitting between W and U is same as the number of persons sitting between R and U. T sits to the immediate right of R. T does not sit opposite to S.
6. Who is sitting fifth to the right of Q?

a) S

b) R

c) P

d) T

e) V
None

7. How many persons are sitting between R and W?

a) 4

b) 1

c) 3

d) 2

e) 5
None

8. Who is sits second to the left of T?

a) S

b) V

c) W

d) R

e) U
None

9. Which of the following is correct?

a) S sits fourth to the right of R

b) P sits fourth to the right of V

c) U sits third to the right of W

d) T sits third to the right of U

e) None of these
None

10. Who is sits opposite to S?

a) T

b) U

c) R

d) V

e) Q
None

Direction (11-15): Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Eight persons Panit, Gaurav, Jackey, Dipu, Pappu, Niraj, Harsh and Rajesh sitting around a circular table facing toward center. Each of them is working in a company on different profile viz Programmer, Manager, Team Leader, Chairman, Office Boy, Tester, Director and Admin but not necessary in the same order.

Director is sitting third to the right of Jackey. Only one person sits between Gaurav and Jackey. Panit is sitting to the immediate left of Rajesh. Three persons sit between Panit and Manager. Dipu is an immediate neighbour of Harsh. Harsh is Chairman. Only one person sits between Office Boy and Manager. Team Leader is to the immediate left of Chairman. Admin is an immediate neighbour of Manager. Jackey is an Manager. Gaurav sits third to the right of Niraj. Director is sitting to the immediate left Tester.

a) Gaurav

b) Pappu

c) Niraj

d) Rajesh

e) None of these
None

12. Who sits to the immediate left of Niraj?

a) Jackey

b) Panit

c) Rajesh

d) Harsh

e) None of these
None

13. Rajish is a _____?

a) Admin

b) Office Boy

c) Programmer

d) Team Leader

e) None of these
None

14. Who sits third to the left of Panit?

a) Niraj

b) Pappu

c) The one who is Admin

d) The one who is Team Leader.

e) None of these
None

15. Who sits in front of Harsh?

a) Rajesh

b) Panit

c) Pappu

d) Dipu

e) None of these
None

Directions: 16-20) Answer the questions based on the information given below.

Certain numbers of persons are sitting around the circular table. All of them are facing towards the centre.

Q sits third to the right of M. One person sits between R and M. Three persons sit between N and P. O sits adjacent to R. M sits exactly between N and Q. N sits second to the left of O. One person sits between P and Q. At least three persons sit between R and P.
16. How many persons sit in the circular arrangement?

a) 13

b) 12

c) 10

d) 1

e) 15
None

17. ___ sits immediate left of R.

a) N

b) O

c) M

d) Q

e) P
None

18. Who sits fourth to the left of N?

a) O

b) R

c) M

d) P

e) Q
None

19. How many persons sit between O and Q when counted from the right of O?

a) Three

b) Four

c) Two

d) Five

e) One
None

20. Who sits second to the left of P?

a) N

b) O

c) M

d) R

e) Q
None

QA SECTION

1. A group of nine students having at least 6 boys in it is to be selected from a group of 8 boys and 7 girls. Find total number of ways in which the group can be formed.

A) 1155

B) 1145

C) 1125

D) 1175

E) None of these
None

2. A bag contains 2 blue cubes, 3 green cubes and 4 yellow cubes. In how many ways 3 cubes can be drawn from the bag such that at least one green cube is drawn?

A) 72

B) 64

C) 56

D) 48

E) 84
None

3. 4 boys or 5 girls are to be selected from a group of 7 boys and 9 girls. Find the total number of ways in which the selection can be made.

A) 164

B) 161

C) 132

D) 144

E) None of these
None

4. Find the total number of ways in which the word OCCUPATION can be arranged so that all vowels are together.

A) 48000

B) 18000

C) 21600

D) 72000

E) None of these
None

5. Find the total number of ways of arrangement of the word ACCUMULATION, so that all the vowels are together.

A) 453600

B) 682400

C) 620000

D) 540500

E) None of these
None

6. In how many ways can the letters of word ‘BOTTLE’ be arranged?

A) 1440

B) 720

C) 240

D) 360

E) None of these
None

7. A book shelf has 8 Hindi, 7 English and 11 Sanskrit books. In how many ways can Sourav choose 5 books from the shelf so that it consists of one Hindi, two English and two Sanskrit books?

A) 8220

B) 8600

C) 9240

D) 9660

E) None of these
None

8. A cricket team of 11 players is to be selected from a group of 8 batsmen, 5 bowlers and 3 wicketkeepers. In how many ways a team having exactly 4 bowlers and 1 wicketkeeper is selected?

A) 168 ways

B) 300 ways

C) 420 ways

D) 568 ways

E) None of these
None

9. A basketball team of 5 players is to be selected from a group of 7 male players and 6 female players. In how many ways a team having exactly two female players is selected?

A) 525 ways

B) 510 ways

C) 475 ways

D) 420 ways

E) None of these
None

10. For an exhibition, a group of 7 cars has to be chosen out of 13 cars such that a particular car is always chosen. If the cars have to be chosen one by one, then find the total number of ways of doing so.

A) 848 × 6!

B) 924 × 7!

C) 544 × 7!

D) 712 × 6!

E) None of these
None

April 11, 2025
NEET MOCK TEST VII (11.04.2025)

Welcome to your NEET MOCK TEST VII (11.04.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

Important Instructions:

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).

3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS
1. For a solid rod, the Young’s modulus of elasticity 3.2×10¹¹Nm^-2 and density 8×¹³kgm^-3 . The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be (in ms^-1)-

(a) 145.75 × 10³ms^-1
(b) 3.65 × 10³ ms^-1(c) 18.96 × 10³ms^-1
(d) 6.32 × 10³ms^-1

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. T is the time period of simple pendulum on the earth’s surface. Its time period becomes x T when taken to a height R (equal to earth’s radius) above the earth’s surface. Then, the value of will be:

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) ½
(d) 1/4

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:

a) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple – junction diode in forward bias.
b) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias.
c) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple junction diode in reverse bias.
d) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal current 10 each were kept parallel to each other at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic force experienced by 10 cm length of wire P is F₁. If distance between wires is halved and currents on them are doubled, force on F₂ on 10 cm length of wire P will be:

(a) 8F₁
(b) 10F₁(c) F₁/8
(d) F₁/10

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of this ball at the highest point of its flight will become:

(a) 0
(b) E/2
(c) E/4
(d) E

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the figure. Between upper fixed point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on scale Q. The relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by:

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Three masses are placed on the x-axis, mass of 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is

(a) 40cm
(b) 45cm
(c) 50cm
(d) 30cm

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A balloon contains 1500 m³ of helium at 27°C and 4 atmospheric pressure. The volume of helium at -3°C temperature and 2 atmospheric pressure will be

(a) 1500 m³
(b) 1700 m³(c) 1900 m³
(d) 2700 m³

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The amplitude of magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is 2 x 10^-2T. Its electric field amplitude if the wave is travelling in free space is

(a) 6 V/m
(b) 60 V/m
(c) 10/6 V/m
(d) None of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. If c, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of

(a) c/g
(b) c/P
(c) Pcg
(d) c²/g

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A body having initial velocity of 10 m/s moving on a rough surface comes to rest after moving 50 m. What is coefficient of friction between the body and surface? (g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 0.5
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.1

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Given, , if the convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in water, then its focal length in water is

(a) equal to 40 cm
(b) equal to 20 cm
(c) equal to 10 cm
(d) None of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle. The minimum velocity of the body at the top is

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are:

Column I

Column II

Radiation

Wavelength

(A) Microwave

(i) 100 m

(B) Gamma rays

(ii) 10^-15 m

(C) A.M. radio waves

(iii) 10^-10 m

(D) X-rays

(iv) 10^-3 m

a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
b) (A) –(i), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
c) (A) –(iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv)
d) (A) – (iv), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using

(a) low resistance shunt in series
(b) low resistance shunt in parallel
(c) high resistance shunt in series
(d) high resistance shunt in parallel

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium by

(a) √8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 8

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. For the logic circuit given below, the output for A=0, B=0 and A=1, B=1 are:

(a) 0 and 0
(b) and 1
(c) 1 and 0
(d) 1 and 1

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The drift current in a p-n junction is

(a) from the n-side to the p-side
(b) from the p-side to the n-side
(c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward based and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward- biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse based

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°. Then velocity of light in the medium is

(a) 1.5×10⁸m/s
(b) 2×10⁸ m/s
(c) 3×10⁸ m/s
(d) 0.75×10⁸ m/s

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A metal piece is heated up to T° abs. The temperature of the surrounding is t° abs. The heat in the surrounding due to radiation is proportional to

(a) (T – T)⁴
(b) T⁴ – t⁴(c) (T – t)^1/4(d) T² – t²

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

21. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with an amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum force acting on the particle is

a) 144 π²
b) 188 π²
c) 288 π²
d) none of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

22. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular space and time .What is at this point?

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

23. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0ms-1 along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of 2.0 ms^-2. The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 ms^-1 is

(a) 6s
(b) 3s
(c) 30s
(d) 25s

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

24. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation PT² = constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:

(a) 3T²
(b) 3/T²
(c) 3/T³
(d) 3/T

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

25. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T s. If the lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration g / 4, then the period of the pendulum will be

(a) T
(b) T/4
(c) 2T/√5
(d) 2T √5

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

26. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V₁ to V₂ in three different ways. The work done by the gas is W₁ if the process is purely isothermal, W₂ If the process is purely adiabatic, W₃ if the process is purely isobaric. Then, choose the correct option

(a) W₁ < W₂ < W₃
(b) W₂ < W₃ < W₁(c) W₃ < W₁ < W₂
(d) W₂ < W₁ < W₃.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

27. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
(a) 1.24
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 1.5

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

28. Four particles of masses are placed at the vertices A, B, C and D as respectively of a square shown. The COM of the system will lie at diagonal AC if

a) m₁=m₃b) m₂=m₄
c) m₁=m₂
d) m₃=m₄

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

29. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
(a) qvB
(b) B/v
(c) zero
(d) B v/q

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

30. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for the man will be

(a) parabolic
(b) inclined straight line
(c) vertical straight line
(d) horizontal straight line

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

31. The frequencies of X-rays, γ -rays and ultraviolet rays are respectively a, b, and c. Then

a) a < b, b < c
b) a c
c) a > b, b > c
d) a > b, b < c

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

32. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a medium with the velocity of light at an angle 45° and is refracted in the medium at an angle 30°. Velocity of light in the medium will be (velocity of light in air = 3 x 10⁸ m/s)

a) 3.8 × 10⁸m/s
b) 3.38 × 10⁸m/s
c) 2.21 × 10⁸m/s
d) 1.58 × 10⁸m/s

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

33. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is , the force on the remaining segment BCDA is

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

34. Which of the following statements is FALSE for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular speed?
a) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
c) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

35. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under water what will be the new fringe separation?
[The wavelength of light being used is 5000 Å
(a) 1.5 x
(b) x
(c) 0.75x
(d) 2x

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

36. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface is

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

37. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in two fragments ’B’ and ’C’ of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in ’B’ and ‘C’ is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be:

(a) 0.8 MeV
(b) 275 MeV
(c) 220 MeV
(d) 176 MeV

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

38. Two capacitors when connected in series have a capacitance of 3 μF , and when connected in parallel have a capacitance of 16 μF . Their individual capacities are

a) 1 μF, 2 μF
b) 6 μF . 2 μF
c) 12 μF , 4 μF
d) 3 μF , 16 μF

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

39. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The ratio of time taken for the level of water to fall from h to h/2 and h/2 to zero is

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

40. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The diamagnetic property depends on temperature.
Statement II: The included magnetic dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetizing field.
In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

42. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 is stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is

a) 19.6 × 10²⁰ N/m²
b) 19.6 × 10¹⁸ N/m²
c) 19.6 × 10¹⁰ N/m²
d) 19.6 × 10¹⁵ N/m²

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

43. The energy of hydrogen atom in the n^th orbit is E_n, then the energy in the n^th orbit of single ionised helium atom is

(a) E_n/2
(b) 2 E_n
(c) 4 E_n
(d) E_n/4

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

44. A cubical block of side 30 cm is moving with velocity 2 ms^-1 on a smooth horizontal surface. The surface has a bump at a point O as shown in figure. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of the block immediately after it hits the bump, is

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

45. The current in a coil of L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly from 1A to 11A in 4 milli sec. The induced e.m.f.

(a) 100 V
(b) 0.4 V
(c) 440 V
(d) 40 V

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The M³⁺/M²⁺ reduction potential for iron is greater
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr²⁺ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
(D) Magnetic moment of V²⁺ is observed between BM

(a) (B),(C)only
(b) (C),(D) only
(c) (A), (B), (D)only
(d) (A), (B) only

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

47. For a chemical reaction A + B —> Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.

What is the value of x and y?
(a) 80 and 2
(b) 40 and 4
(c) 160 and 4
(d) 80 and 4

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

48. Match List-1 with List-Il:

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126g mol^-1. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

50. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements have high third – ionization energy is:

(a) Eu, Gd
(b) Eu, Yb
(c) Lu, Yb
(d) Dy, Gd

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

51. Which of the following options are correct for the reaction:
A) Redox reaction
B) Displacement reaction
C) Decomposition reaction
D) Combination reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A and B only
(b) A only
(c) C and D only
(d) A and D only

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

52. Stability of -Helix structure of proteins depends upon

(a) dipolar interaction
(b) H-bonding interaction
(c) van der Waals forces
(d) -stacking interaction

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

53. But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole of Hydrogen as shown below:

A) A is more soluble than B.
B) The boiling point & melting point of A are higher and lower than B respectively.
C) A is more polar than B because dipole moment of A is zero.
D) Br₂ adds easily to B than A.
Identify the incorrect statements from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B. C&D only
(c) A, C&D only
(d) B and C only

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

54. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mm Hg? (Assume dilute solution is being formed) Given: Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mm Hg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol^-1.

(a) 4.69 g
(b) 3.59g
(c) 2.59 g
(d) 3.69 g

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

55. The product obtained when methylamine(CH₃ NH₂) is treated with nitrous acid is:

(a) CH₃OH
(b) CH₃-0-N=0
(c) CH₃0CH₃
(d) both (b) & (c)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

57. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Acetal/ketal is stable in basic medium.
Reason R: The high leaving tendency of alkoxide ion gives the stability to acetal/ketal in basic medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both Aand Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

58. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter.
Statement II: Low level of noradrenaline is not the cause of depression in human.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

60. CN^– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that

(a) it carries negative charge,
(b) it is a pseudohalide.
(c) it can accept electrons from metal species,
(d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

62. 0.4 moles of HCI and 0.2 moles of CaCI₂ were dissolved in waler to have 500 mL of solution, the molarity of CI^– ion is:

(a) 0.8 M
(b) I.6M
(c) 1.2M
(d) 10.0M

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

63. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into

(a) Sodamide
(b) Sodium cyanide
(c) Sodiun nitrite
(d) Sodium nitrate

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

64. Inductive effect involves

(a) displacement of σ-electrons.
(b) delocalisation of π-eleclrons.
(c) delocalisation of σ-electrons.
(d) displacement of π-electrons.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

65. Arrange the following elements in the order of ease of detection of wave properties, in the de Broglie experiment. H,Li,Be,B,K

(a) H<Be,B<Li<K
(b) H>Li>K>Be>B
(c) H>Li>Be>B>K
(d) H<Li<Be<B<K

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

70. The unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)₄ are

(a) zero
(b) one
(c) three
(d) four

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

71. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The decrease in first ionization enthalpy from B to AI is much larger than that from AI to Ga.

Statement II: The d orbitals in Ga are completely filled. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(b) Both the statements I and II are correct
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(d) Both the statements I and II are incorrect

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

76. Out of CO₂,SiO₂,GeO₂,SnO₂, and PbO₂
a) CO₂ and SiO₂ are acidic, is amphoteric and PbO₂ is an oxidizing agent
b) PbO₂ is convered to Pb(NO₃)₂, on reaction with HNO₃
c) both are correct
d) none is correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

77. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?

(a) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard.
(b) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond.
(c) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively.
(d) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

82. The carbon chain length of the amine from CH₃CH₂CH₂CONH₂via Hoffmann bromamide reaction is:

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

87. 1M solution of CH₃COOH should be diluted to…………………… times so that pH is doubled.

(a) four limes
(b) 5.55×10⁴ times
(c) 5.55×10⁶ times
(d) 10^-2 times

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

89. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to:

(a) Supress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling.
(b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol.
(c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid.
(d) Neutralise the base liberated.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

90. Which of the following fact(s) explain as to why p- nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol?
(i) -I Effect of nitro group.
(ii) Greater resonance effect of p-nitrophenoxy group.
(iii) Steric effect of bulky nitro group.
(a) I and ii
(b) I and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) ii alone

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

BIOLOGY
91. The two strands of DNA are held together by

(a) peptide bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) hydrogen bonds
(d) S – S bonds

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

92. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

A. In cymose inflorescence, the flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

B. In gulmohar, the flowers are actinomorphic

C. In the flowers of cucumber, the margin of the thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary completely and getting fused with it, the other parts of flowers arise above the ovary.

D. Bracts are reduced leaves found at the base of the pedicle.

E. The flowers are hypogynous in mustard

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C only
(b) B, D, E only
(c) A, C, D only
(d) C, D, E only

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

93. Plants capture approximately X of the sun’s energy while other trophic levels capture about Y of the energy available to them in their food.

(a) X=1%, Y=10%
(b) X=10%, Y=60%
(c) X=10%, Y=1%
(d) X=60%, Y=10%

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

94. Assertion: Genetic variation shown by the plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges is very important economically.
Reason: The amount and variety of alkaloids present in this plant, change both between the Rauwolfia species and between the different strains of R. vomitoria.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

95. Which of the following disease is confirmed by ‘widal test’?

(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Typhoid
(c) Plague
(d) Tetanus

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

96. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

(a) Mitochondrion
(b) Lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

97. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in

(a) antipodal, egg and endosperm.
(b) egg, nucellus and endosperm.
(c) endosperm, nucellus and egg.
(d) antipodals, synergids and integuments

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

98. Column I Column II
a) Lemur i) Flying phalanges
b) Bobcat ii) Numbat
c) Anteater iii) Spotted cuscus
d) Flying squirrels iv) Tasmanian tiger cat

A) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
C) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
D) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-ii

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

99. Grana are

(a) protein storing plastids.
(b) coloured plastids.
(c) stacks of thylakoids.
(d) individual thylakoids present in stroma.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

100. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive unit in angiosperms?

(a) Ovule
(b) Filament
(c) Nucellus
(d) Embryo sac

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

101. Assertion: Metabolism refers to the sum of chemical reactions that occur within living organisms.
Reason: Metabolic reactions occur simultaneously inside living organisms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

102. Statement I: The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenol pyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

103. Match the following columns.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

104. Statement I: The chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation.
Statement II: In the S and G₂ phase, the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but interwound.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement ii are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

105. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having

(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

106. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?

(a) Methane and CO₂ only
(b) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO₂(c) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O₂(d) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO₂

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

107. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?

(a) Mango
(b) Bamboo
(c) Apple
(d) Papaya

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

108. Which of the following statements regarding the photorespiration are true ?

(a) Photorespiration is a metabolically expensive pathway.
(b) Photorespiration is avoided when carbon dioxide is abundant.
(c) Photorespiration results in a loss of usable carbon dioxide.
(d) All of the above.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

109. Statement I: Aristotle was the first to attempt biological classification based on phylogenetic attributes of the or ganisms.
Statement II: Linnaeus classified all organisms into five kingdoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

110. Which of the following growth regulators is an adenine derivative?

(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Ethylene

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

111. The amount of DNA in a mammalian cell in early prophase I is x. What is the amount of DNA in the same cell in anaphase I of meiosis?

(a) x/4
(b) x/2
(c) x
(d) 2x

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

112. Select the correct statement from the following
(i) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle.
(ii) Biogas commonly called gobar gas is pure methane.
(iii) Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plants is rich source of aerobic bacteria.
(iv) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
(v) B. anthracis has been used to make Bt cotton.

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) and (v)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

113. Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer?

(a) Nostoc
(b) Funaria
(c) Volvox
(d) Rhizopus

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

114. In order to obtain virus- free plants through tissue culture, the best method is

(a) protoplast culture
(b) embryo rescue
(c) anther culture
(d) meristem culture

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

115. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a

(a) Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome
(b) Dominant character earned by Y-chromosome
(c) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
(d) Recessive trail carried by X-chromosome

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

116. Select the incorrect statemenu s).
i. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.
ii. Codon is read in mRN A in a contiguous fashion.
iii. Three codons function as stop codons.
iv. The initiation codon AUG codes for methionine.

(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

117. The major part of activated sludge generated in sewage treatment is
a) Taken for secondary treatment
b) Pumped back into aeration tank to serve as inoculums
c) Pumped into anaerobic sludge digestors
d) Discharged into natural water bodies

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

118. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

(a) Breakdown of electron gradient
(b) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
(c) Reduction of NADP to N ADPFI, on the stroma side of the membrane
(d) Breakdown of proton gradient

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

119. Which bacterium helps in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’?

(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(b) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Aspergillus niger

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

120. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

121. Cells affected by leukaemia are

(a). Plasma cells
(b). Thrombocytes
(c). Leucocytes
(d). Erythrocytes

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

122. Companion cells are closely associated with:

(a) Sieve elements
(b) Vessel elements
(c) Trichomes
(d) Guard cells

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

123. Periderm is produced by

(a) Vascular cambium
(b) Fascicular cambium
(c) Phellogen
(d) Intrafascicular cambium

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

124. Presence of triploblastic organization, bilateral symmetry and a true coelom but lack of segmentation is seen in the members of the phylum

(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Mollusca
(d) Annelida

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

125. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Oxidation-reduction gradient in respiration
(b) reactions produce proton During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage
(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H⁺ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

126. Statement I: The primary endosperm cell (PEC) and develops into the endosperm
Statement II: The zygote develops into an embryo.

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

127. Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

128. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
i. Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal ceils.
ii. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
iii. The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring cells together.
iv. In animal cell, steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
v. DNA is not present in ribosome

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (v)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

129. Strands of DNA are helically twisted and connected to each other by base pairs aligned in which direction?

(a) Anti-parallel
(b) Parallel
(c) First in parallel then in anti-parallel
(d) None of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

130. Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators:
A. All GAs are acidic in nature.
B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.
C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.
D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.
E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.
Choose the correct set of statements from the ones given below:

(a) A, C, D
(b) B, E
(c) A, B, C
(d) B, D, E

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

131. Cytidine is:

a) Ribose + Cytosine + Phosphate
b) Cytosine mono phosphate
c) Ribose + Cytosine
d) Nucleotide

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

132. Match the plants in Column I with their modification types in Column II and choose the right options given below.
Column – I                     Column – II
a) Ginger (i) I kittened stems
b) Pumkin (ii) Thorns
c) Bougainvillea (iii) Stem tendrils
d) Opuntia (iv) Underground
a) A-(iv),B-(iii),C-(ii).D-(i)
b) A-(iv).B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iii)
c) A-(ii),B-(iv),C-(i), D-(iii)
d) A-(iii),B-(iv),C-(ii),D-(i)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

133. Choose the correct option.
a) A – Plasma membrane, B- Inter-doublet bridge, C-Central microtubule, D- Radial spoke
b) A- Plasma membrane, B- Arm, C-Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
c) A – Plasma membrane, B – Inter-doublet bridge, C – Hub, D- Radial spoke
d) A – Plasma membrane, B – Inter-doublet bridge, C- Hub, D-Arm

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

134. The F2 generation of a cross produced identical phenotypic and genotypic ratio. It is not an expected Mendelian result and and can be attributed to
a) Independent assortment
b) Linkage
c) Incomplete dominance
d) None of above

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

135. Match the following and choose the correct option-

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

136. Match the following and choose the correct option-

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

137. Match the features given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct match from the option given below.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

138. In frogs, the cloaca is used to pass.

(a) Sperms
(b) Urine
(c) Fecal matter
(d) All of them

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

139. Statement I: Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes.
Statement II: In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with water and is transported.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

140. What is released from ruptured Graafian follicle at the time of ovulation
a) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
b) Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
c) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
d) Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

141. Sex is determined on the basis of the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives in

(a). Birds
(b). Honey bees
(c). Grasshopper
(d). Fruit fly

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

142. Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct?
A. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
B. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papavex somniferum.
C. Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine.
D. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

143. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium often contains_______, which increase the surface area for secretion and absorption.

(a) flagella
(b) collagen fibres
(c) microvilli
(d) all of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

144. Which statement is false?
a) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in oxysome head.
b) Dark reaction occur in stroma of
c) H2O2 is degraded by
d) SER is involved in protein synthesis

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

145. Which of the following group of animals belongs to the same phylum?

(a) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm
(b) Prawn, scorpion. Locust a
(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, starfish
(d) Malarial parasite. Amoeba, mosquito

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

147. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

(a) Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
(b) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(c) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(d) More water reabsorption due to under-secretion of ADH

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

148. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Oligosaccharides are made up of 10- 15 units.
Statement II: Oligosaccharides are not sweet in taste.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

149. Assertion: Placenta is an endocrine gland.
Reason: It secretes many hormones essential for pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

150. Assertion: Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting gene.
Reason: The gene is derived from a bacterium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

151. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

152. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of water are

(a) plankton
(b) pelagic
(c) benthos
(d) neritic

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

153. Read the following 4-statemenls (i-iv) and accordingly mark the option that has both correct statements.
A. Cardiac fibres are branched with one or more nuclei.
B. Smooth muscles are unbranched and cylindrical.
C. Striated muscles can be branched or unbranched.
D. Involuntary muscles are non-striated.

(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

154. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?

(a) Thecodont dentition
(b) Alveolar lungs
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(d) Seven cervical vertebrae

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

156. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs:

(a) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
(b) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube
(c) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(d) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

157. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is

(a) follicular phase
(b) ovulatory phase
(c) luteal phase
(d) menstruation

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

159. Uricotelism is found in

(a) Frogs and toads
(b) Mammals and birds
(c) Birds, reptiles and insects
(d) Fishes and fresh water protozoans

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

160. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O₂

(a) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(b) raise the pCO₂ of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(c) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
(d) helps in releasing more O₂ to the epithelial tissues.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

161. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is

(a) nephron
(b) nephridia
(c) pyramid
(d) Henle’s loop

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

162. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:

(a) hypothalamus
(b) pons
(c) cerebellum
(d) thalamus

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

163. A patient with a pituitary tumor might suffer with polyuria (production of too much urine) as a result of decreased secretion of

(a) MSH
(b) FSH
(c) aldosterone
(d) ADH

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

164. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work, is caused by

(a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
(c) the depletion of glucos
(d) the accumulation of lactic acid

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

165. External gills, tracheae, and lungs all share which of the following sets of characteristics?

(a) Part of gas-exchange system, exchange both and ; increase surface area for diffusion.
(b) Used by water breathers; based on counter current exchange; use negative pressure breathing.
(c) Exchange only ; are associated with a circulatory system; found in vertebrates.
(d) Found in insects; employ positive-pressure pumping based on crosscurrent flow.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

166. Which one of the follow mg docs not act as a neurotransmitter?

(a) Epinephrine
(b) Norepinephrine
(c) Cortisone
(d) Acetylcholine

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

167. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection most animal viruses is

(a) Antigen
(b) Antibody
(c) Interferon
(d) Histone

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

168. Salmonella is related with

(a) Typhoid
(b) Polio
(c) T.B.
(d) Tetanus

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

169. Assertion: W’BCs accumulate al site of wounds by diapedesis.
Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

170. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(a) fructose and calcium but have no enzymes
(b) glucose and certain enzymes but have no calcium
(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

171. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

172. The figure given here shows diagrammatic representation of internal organs of frog. Identify A to E select the correct option.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

173. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

175. Match the following correctly.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

176. Match the following correctly.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

177. Match the following correctly.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

178. Match the following correctly.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

179. Match the following correctly.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

180. Statement I: ‘Saheli’ is an oral pill which has high contraception value and very little side effects.
Statement II: ‘Saheli’ contains progestin with no estrogen and a non-steroidal preparation called centrochroman.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 9, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 3

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 3

1. A container can be filled by two pipes P₁ and P₂ in 40 hours and 20 hours respectively. It will take ________ hours to fill the container from empty state if P₂ is used for half the time and P₁ and P₂fill it together for the other half.

a) 12

b) 14

c) 16

d) 10

e) None of these
None

A tank can be filled in 40 minutes but there are two leakages, one at the bottom of the tank which can empty the full tank in 80 minutes and other at the mid of the tank which can empty the tank in 120 minutes. In how many minutes tank can be filled?

a) 120 minutes

b) 160 minutes

c) 240 minutes

d) 80 minutes

e) 100 minutes
None

Directions: Information about three values have been given, you have to calculate the value of all three quantities and answer the question accordingly.
X: 60 Men could do a job in 40 days. Due to inclusion of some more Men, the work gets completed in 4/5 time. Fine the number of men added.
Y: A can finish the work in 5 days, while B takes 12 days to complete the same work. If A starts and they work on alternative days, Find the number of days taken to complete the work.
Z: A pipe can fill 40% of the tank in 6 hours. B can empty 30% of the same tank in 12 hours. If the tank is already half filled, find the time taken to fill the tank when both the pipes are opened together.

a) Y > Z > X

b) X > Y > Z

c) Z > X > Y

d) X = Y < Z

e) X > Z > Y
None

4. Pipe A can fill a tank in 8 hours and pipe B can empty it in 20 hours. Initially, pipe A alone is operated for 2 hours when the tank was empty. Later, pipe B is opened. How much more time will it take for the tank to be full?

a) 3 hours

b) 5 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 8 hours

e) 10 hours
None

5. There was a leakage in the petrol tank. If 5 litre of petrol is leaked out per day then it would have lasted for 30 days. If the leakage was 7 litre per day, then it would have lasted for only 24 days. For how many days would the petrol have lasted, if there is no leakage and it was completely used for the vehicle?

a) 120 days

b) 90 days

c) 80 days

d) 60 days

e) 75 days
None

6. 3 men fill a water tank using buckets in 8hr. 2 men and 4 women fill the same tank in 6hr. The first 2hr tank was filled by 2 men after that remaining tank was filled by 1 man and 3 women. If a hole is found in the tank then tank takes 2hr more to fill. How much time taken by the hole to empty the water in the water tank?

a) 50 hr

b) 55 hr

c) 60 hr

d) 65 hr

e) 70 hr
None

7. A tank is filled by 3 pipes; second pipe take 5 hours more than first pipe and 5 hours less than third pipe to fill the tank alone. If second and third pipe together take 1 hour more than first pipe to fill the tank, then find out how much time second pipe will take to fill the tank alone?

a) 10 hours

b) 18 hours

c) 12 hours

d) 15 hours

e) None of these
None

8. Pipe A and Pipe B can fill the water tank in 8 hours and 12 hours. Pipe C can empties the water tank in 16 hours. All pipes are open in the sequence of pipe A and pipe B and pipe C alternatively hours. In how much time the water tank filled?

a) 17 hours

b) 18 hours

c) 19 hours

d) 20 hours

e) 21 hours
None

9. A black pipe can empty a tank in 8 hours, while a red pipe can fill it in 3 hours. If the tank is initially half-filled and the red pipe is opened in it, how many black pipes are required in total to be opened in it to empty the tank in 12 hours?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

e) 6
None

10. Tap A and B fill a tank in 6 hours and 8 hours respectively and tap C empties the tank in 12½ hours. If all the taps are opened simultaneously, then in how much time(approximate) the tank will be half-filled?

a) 2.1 hours

b) 2.4 hours

c) 2.7 hours

d) 2.9 hours

e) None of these
None

11. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 24 minutes respectively. The pipes are opened simultaneously, and it is found that due to leakage in the both pipes it took 2 minutes more to fill the cistern. When the tank is completely full, in what time will the leak empty it?

a) 30 minutes

b) 20 minutes

c) 60 minutes

d) 40 minutes

e) 50 minutes
None

12. A pipe A can fill 3/4th of a cistern in 15 hours and pipe B can fill 2/3rd of the same cistern in 20 hours. If both the pipes open simultaneously then find the time taken by them to fill 80% of the cistern.

a) 8 hour 45 minutes

b) 9 hour 15 minutes

c) 9 hour 36 minutes

d) 10 hour 15 minutes

e) 10 hour 45 minutes
None

13. Pipe A and B together can fill the cistern in 15 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together and after 5 minutes pipe A is closed and remaining tank is filled by B in next 5 minutes, then in how many minutes pipe B alone will fill the tank?

a) 7 1/2

b) 5 1/2

c) 3 1/2

d) 6 3/2

e) None of these
None

14. Seema can make a bundle of roties in 12 minutes and Samir can make the same bundle of roties in 15 minutes. Together they make 6 fewer roties per minute and complete the bundle in 10 minutes. Find the number of roties in the bundle.

a) 175

b) 180

c) 120

d) 186

e) None of the above
None

15. Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 8 hrs and 12 hrs respectively while pipe C can empty it in 18 hrs. If all the pipes are opened together and Pipe C is closed 6/11 hours before filling the tank. Find the total time in which the tank is filled.

a) 72/11 hrs

b) 768/121 hrs

c) 816/121 hrs

d) 41/11 hrs

e) 55/6 hrs
None

16. There is a leakage at the bottom of the tank which can empty the tank in 60 hours. Pipe A can fill the tank in 10 hours while pipe B can empty the tank in 40 hours. If pipe A alone opened till 3/4^th tank gets filled and then pipe B is opened. In how many hours tank gets completely filled?

a) 89/5 hours

b) 87/6 hours

c) 79/3 hours

d) 74/7 hours

e) 93/7 hours
None

17. Pipe A can fill the tank in one hour but every hour its efficiency decreases to 1/12 for first hour, 1/9 for second hour and 1/6 for third hour of its original efficiency. Another pipe B can fill the tank in 2 hours but follows the same process as of first pipe. Find the time taken by both to fill the tank of 7/24 of its capacity with their varying efficiency.

a) 3 hours

b) 4 hours

c) 2 hours

d) 5 hours

e) 3.5 hours
None

18. 9 taps are fitted in a tank in which some are inlet taps and some are outlet taps. Each inlet tap can fill the tank in 20 hours and each outlet tap can empty the tank in 30 hours. Find the number of outlet taps if the whole tank is filled in 5 hours when all the 9 taps are open.

a) 2

b) 6

c) 7

d) 4

e) 3
None

19. 12 taps are fitted in a tank in which some are inlet taps and some are outlet taps. Each inlet tap can fill the tank in 30 hours and each outlet tap can empty the tank in 40 hours. Find the number of outlet taps if the whole tank is filled in 6 hours when all the 12 taps are open.

a) 2

b) 8

c) 7

d) 4

e) 5
None

20. There is a leak in the bottom of the tank. This leak can empty the tank in 15 hours. Tap A alone can fill the tank in 6 hours. Tap A opens for 4 hours after that remaining part of the tank is filled by tap B in 18 hours. When both pipes are opened simultaneously, then in what time tank is completely filled?

a) 5 hours

b) 7 hours

c) 2 hours

d) 10 hours

e) 9 hours
None

21. Pipe A takes 10 hours more than Pipe B to fill a tank. Pipe C(which is equally efficient as Pipe A and Pipe B together), fills the same tank in 12 hours. In how many hours will Pipe A, Pipe B and Pipe C fill the tank if Pipe A is accompanied by B and C on alternate hours.

a) 20 hours

b) 30 hours

c) 10 hours

d) 5 hours

e) None of these
None

Time’s up

April 9, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 2)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 2)

1. Tap A can empty the tank in 20 hours. B and C can fill the same tank in 10 and 12 hours respectively. All the taps are opened simultaneously. Find the time required for the tank to get filled completely.

a) 9 hours 30 minutes

b) 7 hours 30 minutes

c) 7 hours 45 minutes

d) 10 hours 30 minutes

e) 8 hours 15 minutes
None

2. Two pipes X and Y can fill a tank in 6 hours and 9 hours respectively. If they are turned on alternately for one hour each starting with X then what will be the time taken to fill the tank?

a) 6 hours

b) 7 hours

c) 8 hours

d) 9 hours

e) 12 hours
None

3. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 18 and 36 hours respectively. An outlet pipe C can empty it in 24 hours. If they opened together, then in how many hours the 3/4^th of the capacity of the tank is filled?

a) 122 hours

b) 24 hours

c) 16 hours

d) 20 hours

e) 18 hours
None

4. There is a water tank which is 2/5^th full. Pipe A can fill that tank in 4 hrs and pipe B can empty that tank in 6 hrs. If both pipes are open together, then find the time taken (in hrs.) to fill that tank completely?

a) 8

b) 7.8

c) 7.4

d) 7.2

e) 6
None

5. Pipe A can fill the tank 2 times faster than pipe B and pipe C can fill the tank 3 times faster than pipe A. If pipe A can fill the tank in 15 minutes, then in how many minutes all the pipes fill the tank?

a) 3 minutes 40 minutes

b) 3 minutes 30 seconds

c) 3 minutes 20 seconds

d) 3 minutes 45 seconds

e) 3 minutes 35 seconds
None

6. Three taps A, B, and C can fill a tank in 12 mins, 15 mins and 20 mins respectively. All the three taps are opened simultaneously. But due to some obstacles it was found that only 2/5^th of water from A, 3/4^th of water from B and 2/3^rd of water from C flows through them. After removing the obstacles if was found that it takes <span id="MathJax-Element-6-Frame" class="MathJax" style="display: inline;font-style: normal;font-weight: normal;line-height: normal;font-size: 14px;text-indent: 0px;text-align: left;text-transform: none;letter-spacing: normal;float: none;direction: ltr;max-width: none;max-height: none;min-width: 0px;min-height: 0px;border: 0px;padding: 0px;margin: 0px;color: inherit !important;background-color: inherit !important;position: relative" role="presentation" data-mathml="312″>3 1/2 minutes to fill the tank. Find the time after which the obstacles were removed.

a) 19/7

b) 18/7

c) 314/3

d) 12/3

e) 23/7
None

7. Pipe X fills a cistern of volume 3000 units in 4 hours. Pipe Y fills a cistern of 2500 units in 5 hours. How much time will both the pipes together take to fill a cistern of 4800 units?

a) 2 hours

b) 3.84 hours

c) 2.4 hours

d) 3.2 hours

e) 4.8 hours
None

8. A tank can be filled by two pipes A and B in 4 hours. It can be filled by pipes B and C in 6 hours. How much time will A alone take to fill the tank, if all three of them fills the tank in 2 hours?

a) 5 hours

b) 4 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 3 hours

e) 8 hours
None

9. Pipe A can fill the tank in 12 hours, Pipe B can fill the tank in 15 hours, While Pipe C can empty the tank. If all the pipes opened at once tank can be filled in 10 hours. Pipe C can empty 150 liters of a tank in 1 hour. Find the capacity of a tank in liters.

a) 2500 litres

b) 4000 litres

c) 1800 litres

d) 3000 litres

e) 2200 litres
None

10. Pipe P alone can fill the tank in 20 hours while Pipe Q can empty the tank in 30 hours. Pipe R alone can fill the tank in certain hours. If all three pipes are opened simultaneously for 5 hours and then pipe R is closed. Pipe P and Pipe Q takes 30 hours to fill the remaining tank. Pipe R alone can fill the tank in –

a) 12 hours

b) 40 hours

c) 10 hours

d) 15 hours

e) 25 hours
None

11. A tank which could be filled in 8 hours takes two hours more to be filled due to leakage in the tank. If the tank is full, find the time in which leakage empty the tank.

a) 40 hours

b) 10 hours

c) 5 hours

d) 4 hours

e) 20 hours
None

12. Pipe A fills twice as fast as pipe B and pipe B fills twice as fast as pipe C. Pipe C can fill a tank in 20 hours. In how many hours will the tank fill if all the pipes are opened?

a) 2 5/7 hr

b) 3 6/7 hr

c) 2 6/14 hr

d) 2 6/7 hr

e) 4 6/7 hr
None

13. 6 taps are fitted in a tank in which some are inlet taps and some are outlet taps. Each inlet tap can fill the tank in 18 hours and each outlet tap can empty the tank in 54 hours. Find the number of outlet taps if the whole tank is filled in 9 hours when all the 6 taps are open.

a) 2

b) 6

c) 7

d) 4

e) 3
None

14. A pipe takes 2 hrs to fill 23 litre water and another takes 3 hrs to fill 17 litre. If both the pipes are kept open, how much approximate time will it take to fill 80 litres of water in the tank?

a) 4hrs 40 min

b) 6 hrs

c) 5.40 hrs

d) 6.30 hrs

e) None of these
None

15. To fill the tank Pipe A and Pipe B takes 12hours. Pipe B and Pipe C takes 9 hours to fill the tank and Pipe C and Pipe A together take 15 hours to fill the tank. Find the time taken to fill the tank when Pipe A, Pipe B and Pipe C opened together(approximately).

a) 5 hours

b) 8 hours

c) 9 hours

d) 11 hours

e) 6 hours
None

16. Two pipes A and B alone can fill a cistern in 15 minutes and 25 minutes respectively. If both pipes A and B are opened together, then after how much time pipe A is closed so that cistern is full in 15 minutes?

a) 4 minutes

b) 2 minutes

c) 6 minutes

d) 5 minutes

e) 3 minutes
None

17. Two pipe can fill a tank in 18 minutes and 15 minutes. An outlet pipe can empty the tank in 45 minutes. In how much time three pipe can fill the tank.

a) 10

b) 20

c) 30

d) 40

e) None
None

18. A pipe can fill a bucket in 3 hours but due to a hole at the bottom, it takes 5 hours to fill the bucket. How much time will it take to empty the bucket if it was full?

a) 6

b) 15

c) 12

d) 9

e) 7.5
None

19. Two pipes can fill a tank in 8 hours and 12 hours respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but due to a leakage in the tank, it takes 24 hours to fill the tank. If the tank is full, how long will the leakage take to empty the tank?

a) 5 hours

b) 6 hours

c) 8 hours

d) 12 hours

e) 16 hours
None

Time’s up

April 9, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 1)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PIPE & CISTERN 1)

1. Pipe A can fill the tank in 12 hours and pipe B can fill the tank in 20 hours. A third pipe C empties the tank in 30 hours. If all pipes are opened together then find the time taken to fill the tank completely.

a) 13

b) 10

c) 12

d) 8

e) 11
None

2. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 90 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is also an outlet C. If all the three pipes are opened together, the tank is full in 50 minutes, how much time will be taken by C to empty the full tank?

a) 210 minutes

b) 90 minutes

c) 220 minutes

d) 180 minutes

e) 225 minutes
None

3. One pipe can fill a tank in 50 hours. Due to a leak the total time taken to fill the tank was 60 hours. How much time will the leak take to empty a half-filled tank?

a) 120 hours

b) 90 hours

c) 180 hours

d) 80 hours

e) 150 hours
None

4. A pipe can fill a tank in 10 minutes and another can fill the tank in 20 minutes. If both the pipe are kept open, then in how much time tank will be completely full?

a) 6.67 min

b) 10 min

c) 8 min

d) 6 min

e) 7.5 min
None

5. Two pipes A and B can empty a tank in 24 hours and 36 hours respectively while another pipe C can fill the same tank in 6 hours. All three pipes opened for 8 hours and then both A and B is closed find the total time in which the tank will be filled.

a) 300 min

b) 360 min

c) 480 min

d) 540 min

e) 560 min
None

6. Tap M alone can fill the tank in 5 hours and tap N alone can fill the tank in 15 hours. If both opened till half of the tank gets filled and then tap N is closed. Total time required to fill the tank is –

a) 32/13 hours

b) 35/9 hours

c) 35/8 hours

d) 32/7 hours

e) 37/9 hours
None

7. A tank consist of one inlet and one outlet pipe. The Inlet pipe fills the tank in 10 hours and the outlet pipe empties the tank in 15 hours. Find the time taken to fill the tank when both pipes are open together.

a) 10 hours

b) 15 hours

c) 30 hours

d) 20 hours

e) 25 hours
None

8. Pipe Q can fill a tank 4 times faster than pipe X. If both the pipes are opened together and they fill the tank in 36 minutes then find the time taken by pipe X to fill the tank alone.

a) 130 minutes

b) 150 minutes

c) 180 minutes

d) 170 minutes

e) 145 minutes
None

9. Three pipes A, B and C were opened to fill a tank. Working alone A, B and C requires 12 minutes, 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Another pipe D, which is outlet pipe, can empty the fully filled tank in 30 minutes working alone. What is the total time taken to fill the tank if all the pipes are simultaneously opened?

a) 3 minutes

b) 12 minutes

c) 6 minutes

d) 8 minutes

e) 5 minutes
None

10. Pipes A and B together take 20 hours, B and C together take 15 hours, and C and A together take 12 hours to fill a tank. In what time will the tank be filled if all 3 pipes work together?

a) 10 hours

b) 15 hours

c) 12.5 hours

d) 5 hours

e) 7.5 hours
None

11. A tank has two inlet pipe which can fill the tank in 3 hours and 4 hours respectively and has one outlet pipe which can empty the tank in 6 hours. If all the pipes work together then in how many hours the tank will be filled?

a) T5/12 hours

b) 11/12 hours

c) 12/5 hours

d) 5/9 hours

e) 7/12 hours
None

12. Two pipes E and F can fill a tank in 12 hours and 6 hours respectively. If pipe G can empty the one – fourth of the tank in 4 hours, then in how much time all the three pipes can fill the half-empty tank?

a) 12/7 hours

b) 5/9 hours

c) 24/9 hours

d) 13/17 hours

e) 19/29 hours
None

13. Pipe P alone can fill the tank in 18 hours and pipe Q alone can fill the tank in 12 hours. Both pipes opened for 7 hours. The fraction of the tank remained after 7 hours is equal to the fraction of the tank filled by pipe R in one hour. In what time the tank gets filled when all three pipes are opened simultaneously?

a) 7 hours

b) 4 hours

c) 3 hours

d) 9 hours

e) 6 hours
None

Time’s up

April 8, 2025

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