Written by
in
Welcome to your NEET MOCK TEST VII (11.04.2025)
Important Instructions:
PHYSICS
(a) 145.75 × 103 ms-1 (b) 3.65 × 103 ms-1(c) 18.96 × 103 ms-1 (d) 6.32 × 103 ms-1
4. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal current 10 each were kept parallel to each other at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic force experienced by 10 cm length of wire P is F1. If distance between wires is halved and currents on them are doubled, force on F2 on 10 cm length of wire P will be:
(a) 8F1 (b) 10F1(c) F1/8 (d) F1/10
5. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of this ball at the highest point of its flight will become:
(a) 0 (b) E/2 (c) E/4 (d) E
6. The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the figure. Between upper fixed point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on scale Q. The relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by:
7. Three masses are placed on the x-axis, mass of 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is
(a) 40cm (b) 45cm(c) 50cm (d) 30cm
8. A balloon contains 1500 m3 of helium at 27°C and 4 atmospheric pressure. The volume of helium at -3°C temperature and 2 atmospheric pressure will be
(a) 1500 m3 (b) 1700 m3(c) 1900 m3 (d) 2700 m3
9. The amplitude of magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is 2 x 10-2 T. Its electric field amplitude if the wave is travelling in free space is
(a) 6 V/m (b) 60 V/m(c) 10/6 V/m(d) None of these
10. If c, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then the dimensions of length will be same as that of
(a) c/g(b) c/P(c) Pcg (d) c2/g
11. A body having initial velocity of 10 m/s moving on a rough surface comes to rest after moving 50 m. What is coefficient of friction between the body and surface? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.1
12. Given, , if the convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in water, then its focal length in water is
(a) equal to 40 cm(b) equal to 20 cm(c) equal to 10 cm(d) None of these
13. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle. The minimum velocity of the body at the top is
14. The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are:
Column I
Column II
Radiation
Wavelength
(A) Microwave
(i) 100 m
(B) Gamma rays
(ii) 10-15 m
(C) A.M. radio waves
(iii) 10-10 m
(D) X-rays
(iv) 10-3 m
15. A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using
(a) low resistance shunt in series(b) low resistance shunt in parallel(c) high resistance shunt in series(d) high resistance shunt in parallel
16. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium by
(a) √8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8
17. For the logic circuit given below, the output for A=0, B=0 and A=1, B=1 are:
(a) 0 and 0(b) and 1(c) 1 and 0(d) 1 and 1
18. The drift current in a p-n junction is
(a) from the n-side to the p-side(b) from the p-side to the n-side(c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward based and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward- biased and in the opposite direction if it is reverse based
19. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°. Then velocity of light in the medium is
(a) 1.5×108 m/s(b) 2×108 m/s(c) 3×108 m/s (d) 0.75×108 m/s
20. A metal piece is heated up to T° abs. The temperature of the surrounding is t° abs. The heat in the surrounding due to radiation is proportional to
(a) (T – T)4 (b) T4 – t4(c) (T – t)1/4(d) T2 – t2
21. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with an amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum force acting on the particle isa) 144 π2b) 188 π2c) 288 π2d) none of these
22. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular space and time .What is at this point?
23. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0ms-1 along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the rate of 2.0 ms-2. The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 ms-1 is
(a) 6s (b) 3s (c) 30s (d) 25s
24. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation PT2 = constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:
(a) 3T2 (b) 3/T2 (c) 3/T3 (d) 3/T
25. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T s. If the lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration g / 4, then the period of the pendulum will be(a) T (b) T/4 (c) 2T/√5(d) 2T √5
26. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three different ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 If the process is purely adiabatic, W3 if the process is purely isobaric. Then, choose the correct option
(a) W1 < W2 < W3 (b) W2 < W3 < W1(c) W3 < W1 < W2 (d) W2 < W1 < W3.
27. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are 4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
28. Four particles of masses are placed at the vertices A, B, C and D as respectively of a square shown. The COM of the system will lie at diagonal AC ifa) m1=m3b) m2=m4c) m1=m2d) m3=m4
29. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
30. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for the man will be
(a) parabolic(b) inclined straight line(c) vertical straight line (d) horizontal straight line
31. The frequencies of X-rays, γ -rays and ultraviolet rays are respectively a, b, and c. Thena) a < b, b < cb) a cc) a > b, b > cd) a > b, b < c
32. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a medium with the velocity of light at an angle 45° and is refracted in the medium at an angle 30°. Velocity of light in the medium will be (velocity of light in air = 3 x 108 m/s)a) 3.8 × 108 m/sb) 3.38 × 108 m/sc) 2.21 × 108 m/sd) 1.58 × 108 m/s
33. A circular coil ABCD carrying a current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic force on the segment AB is , the force on the remaining segment BCDA is
34. Which of the following statements is FALSE for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular speed?
35. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under water what will be the new fringe separation?[The wavelength of light being used is 5000 Å
36. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface is
37. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in two fragments ’B’ and ’C’ of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in ’B’ and ‘C’ is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be:
(a) 0.8 MeV(b) 275 MeV(c) 220 MeV (d) 176 MeV
38. Two capacitors when connected in series have a capacitance of 3 μF , and when connected in parallel have a capacitance of 16 μF . Their individual capacities area) 1 μF, 2 μFb) 6 μF . 2 μFc) 12 μF , 4 μFd) 3 μF , 16 μF
39. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The ratio of time taken for the level of water to fall from h to h/2 and h/2 to zero is
40. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If ϕ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be
41. Given below are two statements:Statement I : The diamagnetic property depends on temperature.Statement II: The included magnetic dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetizing field.In the light of given statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
42. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 is stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod isa) 19.6 × 1020 N/m2b) 19.6 × 1018 N/m2c) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2d) 19.6 × 1015 N/m2
43. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is En, then the energy in the nth orbit of single ionised helium atom is
(a) En/2 (b) 2 En (c) 4 En (d) En/4
44. A cubical block of side 30 cm is moving with velocity 2 ms-1 on a smooth horizontal surface. The surface has a bump at a point O as shown in figure. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of the block immediately after it hits the bump, is
45. The current in a coil of L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly from 1A to 11A in 4 milli sec. The induced e.m.f.
(a) 100 V (b) 0.4 V (c) 440 V (d) 40 V
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following statements are correct?(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by oxide ion(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between BM
(a) (B),(C)only(b) (C),(D) only(c) (A), (B), (D)only (d) (A), (B) only
(a) 80 and 2 (b) 40 and 4(c) 160 and 4(d) 80 and 4
48. Match List-1 with List-Il:
49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution.Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126g mol-1. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
50. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements have high third – ionization energy is:
(a) Eu, Gd (b) Eu, Yb(c) Lu, Yb (d) Dy, Gd
51. Which of the following options are correct for the reaction:
52. Stability of -Helix structure of proteins depends upon
(a) dipolar interaction (b) H-bonding interaction(c) van der Waals forces (d) -stacking interaction
53. But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole of Hydrogen as shown below:A) A is more soluble than B.B) The boiling point & melting point of A are higher and lower than B respectively.C) A is more polar than B because dipole moment of A is zero.D) Br2 adds easily to B than A.Identify the incorrect statements from the options given below:
54. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in 100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by 0.20 mm Hg? (Assume dilute solution is being formed) Given: Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mm Hg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol-1.
(a) 4.69 g (b) 3.59g(c) 2.59 g (d) 3.69 g
55. The product obtained when methylamine(CH3 NH2) is treated with nitrous acid is:
(a) CH3OH (b) CH3-0-N=0(c) CH30CH3 (d) both (b) & (c)
57. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:Assertion A: Acetal/ketal is stable in basic medium.Reason R: The high leaving tendency of alkoxide ion gives the stability to acetal/ketal in basic medium.In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A is true but R is false(b) A is false but R is true(c) Both Aand Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A(d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
58. Given below are two statements:Statement I: Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter.Statement II: Low level of noradrenaline is not the cause of depression in human.In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
60. CN– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that
(a) it carries negative charge,(b) it is a pseudohalide.(c) it can accept electrons from metal species,(d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species.
62. 0.4 moles of HCI and 0.2 moles of CaCI2 were dissolved in waler to have 500 mL of solution, the molarity of CI– ion is:
(a) 0.8 M (b) I.6M (c) 1.2M (d) 10.0M
63. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into
(a) Sodamide(b) Sodium cyanide(c) Sodiun nitrite(d) Sodium nitrate
64. Inductive effect involves
(a) displacement of σ-electrons.(b) delocalisation of π-eleclrons.(c) delocalisation of σ-electrons.(d) displacement of π-electrons.
65. Arrange the following elements in the order of ease of detection of wave properties, in the de Broglie experiment. H,Li,Be,B,K
(a) H<Be,B<Li<K(b) H>Li>K>Be>B(c) H>Li>Be>B>K(d) H<Li<Be<B<K
70. The unpaired electrons in Ni(CO)4 are(a) zero(b) one (c) three (d) four
(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.(b) Both the statements I and II are correct(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect(d) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
76. Out of CO2,SiO2,GeO2,SnO2, and PbO2
77. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?
(a) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard.(b) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond.(c) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively.(d) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond.
82. The carbon chain length of the amine from CH3CH2CH2CONH2 via Hoffmann bromamide reaction is:
(a) 4(b) 2(c) 3 (d) 5
87. 1M solution of CH3COOH should be diluted to…………………… times so that pH is doubled.
(a) four limes(b) 5.55×104 times(c) 5.55×106 times(d) 10-2 times
89. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to:
(a) Supress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling.(b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol.(c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid.(d) Neutralise the base liberated.
90. Which of the following fact(s) explain as to why p- nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol?(i) -I Effect of nitro group.(ii) Greater resonance effect of p-nitrophenoxy group.(iii) Steric effect of bulky nitro group.
BIOLOGY
(a) peptide bonds (b) phosphodiester bonds(c) hydrogen bonds (d) S – S bonds
(a) A, B, C only (b) B, D, E only(c) A, C, D only (d) C, D, E only
93. Plants capture approximately X of the sun’s energy while other trophic levels capture about Y of the energy available to them in their food.
(a) X=1%, Y=10% (b) X=10%, Y=60%(c) X=10%, Y=1% (d) X=60%, Y=10%
94. Assertion: Genetic variation shown by the plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges is very important economically. Reason: The amount and variety of alkaloids present in this plant, change both between the Rauwolfia species and between the different strains of R. vomitoria.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
95. Which of the following disease is confirmed by ‘widal test’?
(a) Tuberculosis(b) Typhoid(c) Plague(d) Tetanus
96. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
(a) Mitochondrion(b) Lysosome(c) Golgi apparatus(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
97. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(a) antipodal, egg and endosperm.(b) egg, nucellus and endosperm.(c) endosperm, nucellus and egg.(d) antipodals, synergids and integuments
99. Grana are
(a) protein storing plastids.(b) coloured plastids.(c) stacks of thylakoids.(d) individual thylakoids present in stroma.
100. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive unit in angiosperms?(a) Ovule(b) Filament(c) Nucellus (d) Embryo sac
101. Assertion: Metabolism refers to the sum of chemical reactions that occur within living organisms. Reason: Metabolic reactions occur simultaneously inside living organisms.In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
103. Match the following columns.
104. Statement I: The chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation. Statement II: In the S and G2 phase, the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but interwound.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement ii are incorrect(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement II is correct(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
105. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience(b) high stability and low resilience(c) low stability and low resilience(d) high stability and high resilience
106. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
(a) Methane and CO2 only(b) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2(c) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2(d) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
107. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?
(a) Mango (b) Bamboo(c) Apple (d) Papaya
108. Which of the following statements regarding the photorespiration are true ?
(a) Photorespiration is a metabolically expensive pathway.(b) Photorespiration is avoided when carbon dioxide is abundant.(c) Photorespiration results in a loss of usable carbon dioxide.(d) All of the above.
110. Which of the following growth regulators is an adenine derivative?
(a) Abscisic acid(b) Auxin(c) Cytokinin(d) Ethylene
111. The amount of DNA in a mammalian cell in early prophase I is x. What is the amount of DNA in the same cell in anaphase I of meiosis?
(a) x/4 (b) x/2 (c) x (d) 2x
112. Select the correct statement from the following(i) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle.(ii) Biogas commonly called gobar gas is pure methane.(iii) Activated sludge sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plants is rich source of aerobic bacteria.(iv) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.(v) B. anthracis has been used to make Bt cotton.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) only(c) (ii) and (iii)(d) (iv) and (v)
113. Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer?
(a) Nostoc (b) Funaria(c) Volvox (d) Rhizopus
114. In order to obtain virus- free plants through tissue culture, the best method is
(a) protoplast culture (b) embryo rescue(c) anther culture (d) meristem culture
115. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a
(a) Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome (b) Dominant character earned by Y-chromosome(c) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome(d) Recessive trail carried by X-chromosome
116. Select the incorrect statemenu s).i. Six codons do not code for any amino acid.ii. Codon is read in mRN A in a contiguous fashion.iii. Three codons function as stop codons.iv. The initiation codon AUG codes for methionine.
(a) (i) only(b) (ii) only(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
117. The major part of activated sludge generated in sewage treatment is
118. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:
(a) Breakdown of electron gradient(b) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma(c) Reduction of NADP to N ADPFI, on the stroma side of the membrane(d) Breakdown of proton gradient
119. Which bacterium helps in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’?
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii(b) Trichoderma polysporum(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae(d) Aspergillus niger
120. Match List-I with List-II.Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV(d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
121. Cells affected by leukaemia are
(a). Plasma cells(b). Thrombocytes(c). Leucocytes(d). Erythrocytes
122. Companion cells are closely associated with:
(a) Sieve elements (b) Vessel elements(c) Trichomes(d) Guard cells
123. Periderm is produced by
(a) Vascular cambium(b) Fascicular cambium(c) Phellogen (d) Intrafascicular cambium
124. Presence of triploblastic organization, bilateral symmetry and a true coelom but lack of segmentation is seen in the members of the phylum
(a) Aschelminthes (b) Arthropoda(c) Mollusca(d) Annelida
125. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Oxidation-reduction gradient in respiration(b) reactions produce proton During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage(c) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules(d) ATP is synthesized through complex V
126. Statement I: The primary endosperm cell (PEC) and develops into the endosperm Statement II: The zygote develops into an embryo.
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement II are incorrect(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
127. Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer.
128. Which of the following statements are incorrect?i. Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal ceils.ii. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.iii. The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring cells together.iv. In animal cell, steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum.v. DNA is not present in ribosome
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iv)(d) (i) and (v)
129. Strands of DNA are helically twisted and connected to each other by base pairs aligned in which direction?
(a) Anti-parallel(b) Parallel(c) First in parallel then in anti-parallel(d) None of these
130. Given below are some statements about plant growth regulators:A. All GAs are acidic in nature.B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.Choose the correct set of statements from the ones given below:
(a) A, C, D (b) B, E(c) A, B, C (d) B, D, E
132. Match the plants in Column I with their modification types in Column II and choose the right options given below. Column – I Column – IIa) Ginger (i) I kittened stemsb) Pumkin (ii) Thornsc) Bougainvillea (iii) Stem tendrilsd) Opuntia (iv) Underground
133. Choose the correct option.
134. The F2 generation of a cross produced identical phenotypic and genotypic ratio. It is not an expected Mendelian result and and can be attributed to
135. Match the following and choose the correct option-
136. Match the following and choose the correct option-
137. Match the features given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose the correct match from the option given below.
138. In frogs, the cloaca is used to pass.
(a) Sperms (b) Urine(c) Fecal matter (d) All of them
139. Statement I: Carbonic anhydrase is present in the erythrocytes. Statement II: In erythrocytes the carbon dioxide combine with water and is transported.
140. What is released from ruptured Graafian follicle at the time of ovulation
141. Sex is determined on the basis of the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives in
(a). Birds (b). Honey bees(c). Grasshopper (d). Fruit fly
142. Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct?A. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.B. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papavex somniferum.C. Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine.D. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
(a) (i) and (ii)(b) (i) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
143. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium often contains_______, which increase the surface area for secretion and absorption.
(a) flagella(b) collagen fibres(c) microvilli(d) all of these
144. Which statement is false?
145. Which of the following group of animals belongs to the same phylum?
(a) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm(b) Prawn, scorpion. Locust a(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, starfish(d) Malarial parasite. Amoeba, mosquito
147. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?
(a) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone(b) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction(c) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells(d) More water reabsorption due to under-secretion of ADH
148. Given below are two statements:Statement I: Oligosaccharides are made up of 10- 15 units.Statement II: Oligosaccharides are not sweet in taste.In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:a) Statement I is true but Statement II isb) Statement I is false but Statement II isc) Both Statement I and Statement II ared) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
149. Assertion: Placenta is an endocrine gland. Reason: It secretes many hormones essential for pregnancy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
150. Assertion: Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting gene. Reason: The gene is derived from a bacterium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct(c) A) is not correct but (R) is correct(d) (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
151. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
152. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of water are
(a) plankton (b) pelagic(c) benthos(d) neritic
153. Read the following 4-statemenls (i-iv) and accordingly mark the option that has both correct statements.A. Cardiac fibres are branched with one or more nuclei.B. Smooth muscles are unbranched and cylindrical.C. Striated muscles can be branched or unbranched.D. Involuntary muscles are non-striated.
(a) (i) and (iv)(b) (ii) and (iii)(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
154. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class Mammalia?
(a) Thecodont dentition (b) Alveolar lungs(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves(d) Seven cervical vertebrae
156. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs:
(a) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division(b) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube(c) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm(d) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
157. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is
(a) follicular phase(b) ovulatory phase(c) luteal phase (d) menstruation
159. Uricotelism is found in
(a) Frogs and toads(b) Mammals and birds(c) Birds, reptiles and insects(d) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
160. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
(a) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise(b) raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.(c) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%(d) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.
161. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is
(a) nephron (b) nephridia(c) pyramid (d) Henle’s loop
162. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:
(a) hypothalamus (b) pons(c) cerebellum (d) thalamus
163. A patient with a pituitary tumor might suffer with polyuria (production of too much urine) as a result of decreased secretion of
(a) MSH (b) FSH(c) aldosterone (d) ADH
164. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work, is caused by
(a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen(b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres(c) the depletion of glucos(d) the accumulation of lactic acid
165. External gills, tracheae, and lungs all share which of the following sets of characteristics?
(a) Part of gas-exchange system, exchange both and ; increase surface area for diffusion.(b) Used by water breathers; based on counter current exchange; use negative pressure breathing.(c) Exchange only ; are associated with a circulatory system; found in vertebrates.(d) Found in insects; employ positive-pressure pumping based on crosscurrent flow.
166. Which one of the follow mg docs not act as a neurotransmitter?
(a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine(c) Cortisone (d) Acetylcholine
167. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection most animal viruses is
(a) Antigen (b) Antibody(c) Interferon (d) Histone
168. Salmonella is related with
(a) Typhoid (b) Polio(c) T.B. (d) Tetanus
169. Assertion: W’BCs accumulate al site of wounds by diapedesis. Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
170. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(a) fructose and calcium but have no enzymes(b) glucose and certain enzymes but have no calcium(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
171. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
172. The figure given here shows diagrammatic representation of internal organs of frog. Identify A to E select the correct option.
173. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
175. Match the following correctly.
176. Match the following correctly.
177. Match the following correctly.
178. Match the following correctly.
179. Match the following correctly.
180. Statement I: ‘Saheli’ is an oral pill which has high contraception value and very little side effects. Statement II: ‘Saheli’ contains progestin with no estrogen and a non-steroidal preparation called centrochroman.In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: