Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

BANKING WEEKLY TEST (05.04.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (05.04.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

ENGLISH SECTION

Directions (1- 30 ) Select the most appropriate option to change the narration.
1. He said that her brother was getting married.

A. She said, “Her brother is getting married.”

B. She told, “Her brother is getting married.”

C. She said, “My brother is getting married.”

D. She said, “My brother was getting married.”

E. She said to me, “My brother is getting married.”
None

2. The boy said, “Who dare call you a thief?”

A. The boy enquired who dared call him a thief.

B. The boy asked who called him a thief.

C. The boy told that who dared call him a thief.

D. The boy wondered who dared call a thief.

E. The boy told me that who dared call him a thief.
None

3. She exclaimed with sorrow that it was a very miserable plight.

A. She said with sorrow, “What a pity it is.”

B. She said, “What a mystery it is.”

C. She said, “What a miserable sight it is.”

D. She said, “What a very miserable plight it is.”

E. She said, “What a miserable plight it is.”
None

4. Dhruv said that he was sick and tired of working for that company.”

A. Dhruv said, “I am sick and tired of working for this company.”

B. Dhruv said, “He was tired of that company.”

C. Dhruv said to me, “I am sick and tired of working for this company.”

D. Dhruv said, “I will be tired of working for that company.”

E. Dhruv said, “I would be tired of working for that company.”
None

5. “Are you alone, my son?” asked a soft voice close behind me.

A. A soft voice asked that what I was doing there alone.

B. A soft voice said to me are you alone son.

C. A soft voice from my back asked if I was alone.

D. A soft voice behind me asked if I was alone.

E. A soft voice from my back asked whether I was alone.
None

6. She said to him, “Why don’t you go today?”

A. She asked him why he did not go that day.

B. She said to him why he don

C. She asked him not to go that day.

D. She asked him why he did not go today.

E. She asked him not to go today.
None

7. He exclaimed with joy that India had won the Sahara Cup.

A. He said, “India has won the Sahara Cup.”

B. He said, “India won the Sahara Cup.”

C. He said, “How! India will win the Sahara Cup.”

D. He said, “Hurrah! India has won the Sahara Cup.”

E. He said, “Hurrah! India had won the Sahara Cup.”
None

8. The little girl said to her mother, “ Did the sun rise in the East?”

A. The little girl said to her mother that the sun rose in the East.

B. The little girl asked her mother if the sun rose in the East.

C. The little girl said to her mother if the sun rises in the East

D. The little girl asked her mother if the sun is in the East.

E. The little girl said to her mother whether the sun rises in the East.
None

9. The man said, “No, I refused to confers guilt.”

A. The man emphatically refused to confers guilt.

B. The man refused to confers his guilt.

C. The man told that he did not confers guilt.

D. The man was stubborn enough to confers guilt.

E. The man was stubborn enough to confers guilt.
None

10. Nita ordered her servant to bring her a cup of tea.

A. Nita told her servant, “Bring a cup of tea.”

B. Nita said, “Bring me a cup of tea.”

C. Nita said to her servant, “Bring me a cup of tea.”

D. Nita told her servant, “Bring her that cup of tea.”

E. Nita told her servant, “Bring her this cup of tea.”
None

11. My cousin said, “My room-mate snored throughout the night.”

A. My cousin said that her room-mate snored throughout the night

B. My cousin told me that her room-mate snored throughout the night.

C. My cousin complained to me that her room-mate is snoring throughout the night

D. My cousin felt that her room-mate may be snoring throughout the night.

E. My cousin complained to her that her room-mate was snoring throughout the night.
None

12. “Please don’t go away”, she said.

A. She said to please her and not go away

B. She told me to go away.

C. She begged me cannot to go away.

D. She begged that I would not go away.

E. She begged that I will not go away.
None

13. She said to her friend, “I know where everyone is.”

A. She told that she knew where was everyone.

B. She told her friend that she knew where everyone was.

C. She told her friend that she knew where is everyone

D. She told her friend that she knows where was everyone

E. She told her friend that she knows where is everyone.
None

14. He said to her, “Are you coming to the party?”

A. He asked her whether she was coming to the party.

B. He told her if she was coming to the party.

C. He asked her if she was coming to the party.

D. He asked her if she will be coming to the party

E. He said to her if she will be coming to the party.
None

15. My friend said to me, “Has your father returned from Calcutta?”

A. My friend said to me that my father has returned from Calcutta.

B. My friend asked me if my father had returned from Calcutta.

C. My friend told me that his father had returned from Calcutta.

D. My friend enquired me if his father had returned from Calcutta.

E. My friend said to me whether his father had returned from Calcutta
None

16. He said, “What a beautiful scene!”

A. He said that what a beautiful scene it was.

B. He wondered that it was a beautiful scene.

C. He exclaimed what a beautiful scene it was.

D. He exclaimed that it was a very beautiful scene.

E. He suggested what a beautiful scene it was
None

17. Gavaskar said, “Bravo! Azhar, you have done well.”

A. Gavaskar exclaimed with joy that Azhar had done well.

B. Gavaskar called Azhar and exclaimed that he had done well.

C. Gavaskar congratulated Azhar, saying that he had done well.

D. Gavaskar praised Azhar for his having done well.

E. Gavaskar said to Azhar for his having done well.
None

18. He said, “May God grant peace to the departed soul!”

A. He wished by God to grant peace to the departed soul.

B. He wished that God may grant peace to the departed soul.

C. He prayed that might God grant peace to the departed soul.

D. He prayed that God would grant peace to the departed soul.

E. He prayed that God might grant peace to the departed soul.
None

19. John said to Robert, “Let him come, then we shall see.”

A. John said to Robert that if he came, they would see him.

B. John told Robert that they shall see him if he came

C. John told Robert that once he came, they would see him.

D. John told Robert that they would see him if he might come.

E. John told Robert that they will see him if he might come.
None

20. The spectators said, “Bravo! Well played, Ravi.”

A. The spectators called Ravi bravo because he had played well.

B. The spectators said that Ravi played well and applauded him.

C. The spectators encouraged Ravi saying that he played well.

D. The spectators applauded Ravi, saying that he had played well.

E. The spectators said that Ravi have played well and applauded him.
None

QA SECTION

1. If circumference of the base of a right circular cone is 220 cm and volume of the cone is 15400 cm³, then slant height of the cone is:

A) 39 cm

B) 38 cm

C) 41 cm

D) 37 cm

E) None of these
None

2: The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangular field is 27 m. If the cost of fencing the field at the rate of Rs. 2/metre is Rs. 492, then find the ratio of the length to breadth of the field.

A) 26:15

B) 24:17

C) 2:1

D) 12:5

E) 25:16
None

3: A cube having each edge equals to 20 cm is cut into several smaller cubes having each edge equals to 4 cm. Find the number of smaller cubes which are the part of the faces of the larger cube but not the part of edges of the larger cube.

A) 56

B) 64

C) 32

D) 54

E) 72
None

4: Each side of square ‘A’ is 6 cm less than that of square ‘B’. The perimeter of a rectangle is 3 times the difference of the perimeters of the two squares. If the length of the rectangle is 20 cm, then find its breadth.

A) 19 cm

B) 14 cm

C) 12 cm

D) 18 cm

E) None of these
None

5: Ratio of radius to height of right circular cylinder is 4:9 respectively. Find the area of a rectangle whose breadth is 37.5% more than radius of the cylinder while ratio of length of rectangle to height of cylinder is 3:4 respectively. Given that curved surface area of the cylinder is 3456 cm². (Take π = 3)

A) 884 cm

B) 584 cm²

C) 594 cm²

D) 624 cm²

E) None of these

A)

B)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

6: The diagonal of a square is 24√2 cm. The perimeter of the square is 24 cm less than a rectangle whose length to breadth ratio is 7:5. Find the area of the rectangle.

A) 725 cm²

B) 875 cm²

C) 915 cm²

D) 625 cm²

E) 1015 cm²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

7: The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 8:5. When the length and breadth of the rectangle is increased by 25% and decreased by 40% respectively, then its perimeter becomes 390 cm. Find the original area of the rectangle.

A) 8400 cm²

B) 9000 cm²

C) 7200 cm²

D) 6400 cm₂

E) 10500 cm²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e
None

8: The perimeter of a square is 36 metres more than that of a rectangle. The ratio of the length to breadth of the rectangle is 9:4. If the area of the square is 3721 m², then find the cost of painting one surface of the rectangle at the rate of Rs. 2.5/m².

A) Rs. 5760

B) Rs. 4320

C) Rs. 5220

D) Rs. 6300

E) Rs. 5040
None

9: Volume of a cylinder is 4928 m³ while cost of painting its outer surface (except base and top) at a rate of Rs. 8 per m²is Rs. 5632. Find the ratio of radius of base to height of the cylinder.

A) 7:6

B) 7:8

C) 7:4

D) 7:2

E) None of these
None

10: Area of the base of a cone is 616 cm² and curved surface area of a cylinder is 3168 cm². Find the height of the cylinder if radius of base of cylinder is 4 cm more than that of the cone.

A) 21 cm

B) 35 cm

C) 28 cm

D) 24 cm

E) None of these
None

11. If the ratio of the radius of the cone to cylinder is 1: 2 and the slanting height of the cone is 25 cm. The surface area of the cone is equal to the total surface area of the sphere whose radius is 2√14 cm. If the height of the cylinder is equal to the height of the cone, then what is the curved surface area of the cylinder?

A.2612 cm2

B.2412 cm2

C.2012 cm2

D.2112 cm2

E.None of these
None

12. If the circumference of the circle is 44 cm and the radius of the cone is equal to the radius of the circle. The Curved surface area of the cone is 550 cm2 and the ratio of the height of the cone to height of the cylinder is 4:3. If the ratio of the radius of the cylinder to cone is 1:2, then what is the volume of the cylinder?

A.663 cm3

B.673 cm3

C.683 cm3

D.693 cm3

E.None of these
None

13. If the radius of circle is 7 cm and ratio of the diameter of the circle to length of the rectangle is 1: 1, then the ratio of breadth of the rectangle to the side of the square 5: 8. If the sum of the area of circle and rectangle is 294 cm2, then what is the difference between the perimeter of the rectangle and the perimeter of the square?

A.24 cm

B.14 cm

C.17 cm

D.16 cm

E.None of these
None

14. If the ratio of the radius to slanting height of the cone is 3:5 and volume of the cylinder is equal to the volume of the cone. If the radius of the cylinder is 4 cm and the height of the cylinder is equal to the side of the square whose perimeter is 192 cm, then what is the curved surface area of the cone?

A.90Π cm2

B.180Π cm2

C.240Π cm2

D.Cannot be determined

E.None of these
None

15. If the circumference of the circle is equal to the perimeter of the square and Length of the rectangle is 8 cm more than the side of the square. If the radius of the circle is equal to the side of the equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 42 cm and the breadth of the rectangle is 6 cm more than the side of the equilateral triangle, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

A.80 cm

B.90 cm

C.100 cm

D.120 cm

E.None of these
None

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions below.

An uncertain number of persons sitting in a straight line facing north. Three persons sit between A and B. C sits second to the right of A. Only three persons sit between B and D. E is immediate left of A. C sits fifth from right extreme ends of the row. I sits on the extreme end of the row. As many persons sit between C and F as many between F and D. J sits second to the left of G, who is an immediate neighbor of B. Not more than two persons sit between G and D. Five persons sit between D and I. As many persons sit between D and H as many between H and I.
1. Who is sitting second to the right of G?

(a) F

(b) D

(c) C

(d) J

(e) B
None

2. Who sits at extreme left end?

(a) B

b) I

(c) J

(d) G

(e) H
None

3. How many persons sitting in a row?

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c) 23

(d) 14

(e) None of these
None

4. Who among the following person sits sixth to the right of B?

(a) H

(b) D

(c) G

(d) C

(e) None of these
None

5. How many persons are sitting between D and E

(a) Two

(b) Five

(c) One

(d) Four

(e) More than five
None

Directions(6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons namely Pravin, Queen, Raman, Seetha, Tushar, Umesh, Vinoth, Wahab, Ximon and Yousuf are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. People sitting in Row-1 facing north direction while people sitting in Row-2 facing south direction. Therefore people sitting in Row-1 face the people sitting in Row-2. They were born in following months among January, March, April, May, June, July and August. Exactly two persons were born in each of the month of April, May and June. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.

Seetha sits exactly in the middle of the north facing row. Tushar sits between Ximon and Wahab and opposite to Umesh. Pravin sits at the extreme right end of the south facing row. Only one person sits between the two persons who were born in April. Queen sits opposite to Raman and to the immediate right of the person, who was born in May month. Raman doesn’t face south direction. Wahab was born in August month. The person who was born in March sits to the immediate right of Yousuf and opposite to the person who is born in April. The person born in January sits to the right of the person born in July but they don’t sit at any of the ends. Only one person sits between the two persons who were born in May.

6. Who sits to the immediate right of Umesh?

a) The one who was born in June

b) The one who was born in July

c) The one who was born in March

d) The one who was born in May

e) None of the above
None

7. Which of the following in pairs are born in same month?

a) Yousuf and Vinoth

b) Pravin and Queen

c) Raman and Tushar

d) Both A and B

e) Both A and C
None

8. In which month was the person born who sits opposite to Seetha?

a) January

b) July

c) May

d) June

e) None of the above
None

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) Raman-March

b) Tushar-April

c) Umesh-January

d) Vinoth-June

e) Yousuf-July
None

10. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

a) Only two persons are sit between Pravin and Ximon.

b) The persons were born in June month sitting in different rows.

c) The one who was born in March sits third to the left of Umesh.

d) The one who was born in August month and the one who was born in March month are sitting diagonally opposite to each other.

e) None of the above
None

Directions(11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Twelve people O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated on parallel rows. Such a way that O, P, S, U, V, Z are seated on row 1 which is above row 2 and other persons are seated on row 2 but not necessarily in the same order. Some people are facing north and some people facing south in both the rows.

O sits second from the left of S who is not facing north. P sits immediate right of S. P sits straight to T facing and both are not facing each other. V sits second to the right of P. O and R faces each other. Y sits second to the left of R. Two persons sit between Q and X. W and U are seated at corners and facing opposite direction to each other. Neither Q nor X is sit at the extreme ends of the row. Z and U are facing same direction as Q and X. V is facing same direction as R. Q is not a neighbor of R. Not more than five persons facing south.
11. Who among the following persons facing south in Row-1?

a) S and O

b) V and S

c) S and P

d) S and U

e) Cannot be determined
None

12. In which direction neighbor of S faces?

a) One person faces north and other persons faces south

b) Both the persons faces North

c) Both the person faces South

d) Immediate left faces north and immediate right faces south

e) Cannot be determined
None

13. Find the following person’s position in the rows respectively.
I. Who sits immediate right of O?
II. Who sits third to the right of Q?

a) Y and V

b) V and X

c) V and Y

d) Z and R

e) Cannot be determined
None

14. Find the odd one out among the following.

a) U

b) Z

c) Y

d) X

e) R
None

15. If U is related to P and S is related to Z in same way Y is related with:

a) U

b) Z

c) X

d) T

e) R
None

Directions(16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons from A to J sit in two parallel rows such that 5 persons sit in each row. The persons in one row face towards North and the persons in another row face towards South such that persons of row face the persons of another row.

J is third to the right of G, who is on immediate left of D. A is second to the left of C, who sits opposite to D. E sits opposite to the one who is on the immediate left of J. F sits second to the left of I, who faces North. B sits opposite to I.

16. In which of the following pairs one person faces south while another faces north?

a) B – F

b) D – F

c) A – E

d) G – I

e) All of the above
None

17. In which of the following pairs both person faces North?

a) B – F

b) D – C

c) A – E

d) G – I

e) All of the above
None

18. What is the position of H with respect to A?

a) Both are in different rows

b) Third to the left

c) Second to the right

d) Third to the right

e) None of these
None

19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

a) C

b) E

c) B

d) H

e) J
None

20. Who sits second to the right of B?

a) C

b) E

c) A

d) H

e) None of these
None

April 3, 2025
NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 7 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A square of wire of side 3 cm is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The centre of the square is at the axis of the mirror and the plane is normal to the axis. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is

(a) 4 cm²
(b) 6 cm²
(c) 16 cm²
(d) 36 cm²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The light ray is incidence at angle of 60 on a prism of angle 45 . When the light ray falls on the other surface at 90 from the surface, the refractive index of the material of prism and the angle of deviation are given by

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is

(a) 45 cm
(b) 55 cm
(c) 275 6 cm
(d) 325 6 cm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A point object is moving on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards the mirror. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its velocity is 9 cm/sec. What is the velocity of the image at that instant?

(a) 5 cm/sec
(b) 12 cm/sec
(c) 4 cm/sec
(d) 9 cm/sec

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 10 cm and the size of image is twice as that of object, then the object distance is

(a) 60 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) 30 cm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f₁ and f₂ are in contact and coaxial. The combination is equivalent to a single lens of power
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed be

(a) 30 cm left
(b) infinity
(c) 1 cm to the right
(d) 18 cm to the left

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Relation between critical angles of water and glass is

a) C_w > C_g
b) C_w < C_g
c) C_w = C_g
(a) C_w = C_g= 0

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The force between two points charges placed in vacuum at distance 1 mm is 18 N. If a glass plate of thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 6, be kept between the charges then new force between them would be

(a) 18 N
(b) 108 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 3×10^-6 N

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q₁ and Q₂ and these charges are placed at distance . There will be maximum repulsion between them, when

(a) Q₂= (Q/R), Q₁=Q-(Q/R)
(b) Q₂= (Q/3), Q₁=(2Q/3)
(c) Q₂= (Q/4), Q₁=(3Q/4)
(d) Q₂= Q₂= (Q/2)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed surface in units of N-m²/C are respectively 8×10³ and 4×10³. Then the total charge inside the surface is
[where ε₀= permittivity constant]

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Find the total flux due to charge associated with the given hemispherical surface

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Three capacitors of capacitance 4 μF, 6 μF and 12 μF are connected first in series and then in parallel. What is the ratio of equivalent capacitance in the two cases?

(a) 2:3
(b) 1:11
(c) 11:1
(d) 1:3

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. What is the equivalent capacitance of the system of capacitors between A and B?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A 2 m long wire has a resistance of 16 Ω. What is the resistance of this wire if it is 1 m long?

(a) 4 Ω
(b) 8 Ω
(c) 32 Ω
(d) 64 Ω

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. What is the value of unknown resistance R, if galvanometer shows null deflection in the given meter bridge set up?

(a) 97.50 Ω
(b) 105 Ω
(c) 150 Ω
(d) 110 Ω

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) -45°
(d) 180°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Two forces, each of magnitude F have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle between two forces is

(a) 45°
(b) 120°
(c) 150°
(d) 160°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Position of a particle in a horizontal plane is given by x= 6t m and y=8t-5t² m. The velocity with which the particle starts moving?

(a) 8 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 10 m/s
(d) 0 m/s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 3, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 18 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A ray of light in air is incident on a glass slab at an angle of incidence of 60°. When it travels through glass, it is deviated through 15°. What is the refractive index of the material of the glass slab?

(a) 1.275
(b) 1.225
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents is

a) parallel current repels and antiparallel currents attract.
b) parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
c) both currents attract.
d) both currents repel.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR circuit is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinityDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Work function of metal is

a) minimum energy required to free an electron from surface against coulomb forces
b) minimum energy required to free a nucleon
c) maximum energy required to eject an electron from electronic orbit
d) minimum energy to ionise an atomDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the smallest wavelength?

(a) Microwaves
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) X-rays
(d) Gamma raysDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following motions is not simple harmonic?

a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
b) Motion of a simple pendulum
c) Motion of planet around the sun
d) Oscillation of liquid in a U-tubeDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. During propagation of a plane progressive mechanical wave,

a) All the particles are vibrating in the same phase.
b) Amplitude of all the particles is equal.
c) Particles of the medium executes SHM
d) Wave velocity depends upon the nature of the medium.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The magnitude of induced emf during electromagnetic induction, is directly proportional to

a) electric flux
b) rate of change of magnetic flux
c) magnetic field
d) electric fieldDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The value of 3.26×4.9 to the correct significant figure is

(a) 16.0
(b) 15.9
(c) 15.97
(d) 16.1Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The angular acceleration for a particle having angular displacement 𝜃=3𝑡3−9𝑡2is zero when t equals?

(a) 2 s
(b) 1 s
(c) 5 s
(d) 1/2 sDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following is dimensionless?

a) Universal gas constant (R)
b) Universal gravitational constant (G)
c) Planck’s constant (h)
d) Refractive index of a mediumDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. If maximum tension of a string is 30 N and a mass of 4 kg is tied to its end against gravity, then

a) the string will hold the mass
b) the string will break
c) the string will execute SHM
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Work done by a variable force is given by

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then which the following is not true

a) for elastic collision, e = 1
b) for perfectly elastic collision, e = 0
c) for inelastic collision, e > 1
d) all are trueDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. 1 joule is equivalent to

(a) 10⁵ erg
(b) 10⁶ erg
(c) 10⁷ erg
(d) 10⁸ erg
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. If the displacement of the particle along the x-axis is given by x=4t²+4, , the value of its velocity in m/s at t = 2s along the y-axis is

(a) 16
(b) 0
(c) 10
(d) 24
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The most stable nucleus should have

(a) even number of protons and odd number of neutrons
(b) odd number of neutrons and odd number of protons
(c) even number of protons and even number of neutrons
(d) even number of neutrons and odd number of protonsDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The radius of ₄Be⁸ nucleus will be

(a) 1.2 × 10^-15 m
(b) 2.4 × 10^-15 m
(c) 3.6 × 10^-15 m
(d) 4.8 × 10^-15 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The nucleus _nX^m emits one and one The resulting nucleus is

a) _nX^m-4
b) _n-2X^m-4
c) _n-3X^m-4
d) _n-1X^m-4Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The shortest wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen is equal to the shortest wavelength of Balmer series of a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number 𝑍. The value of 𝑍 is

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 3, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 155 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The radius of electron’s second stationary orbit in Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be

(a) R/3
(b) 2.25 R
(c) 3 R
(d) 9 R
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its kinetic energy becomes equal to its potential energy is
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-III,C -IV, D-II
(c) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
(d) A-II, B-I.C-IV, D-III
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A prism of refractive index and angle of prism A is placed in the position of minimum angle of deviation. If minimum angle of deviation is also A, then in terms of refractive, A = ________

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 7.5 MeV
(b) 9.0 MeV
(c) 8.0 MeV
(d) 8.5 MeV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Resistance of the wire is measured as 2Ω and 3Ω at 10°C and 30°C respectively. Temperature co-coefficient of resistance of the material of the wire is:

(a) 0.033⁰C^-1(b) – 0.033⁰C^-1(c) 0.011⁰C^-1(d) 0.055⁰C^-1.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a distance of 10 m in t s, the distance travelled by the toy in the next t s will be:

(a) 10m
(b) 20m
(c) 30m
(d) 40m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum speed of car will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34. [Take g = 10 ms^-2]

(a) 3.4 m/s
(b) 22.4 m/s
(c) 13 m/s
(d) 17 m/s

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A source supplies heal to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increases

(a) 1200 W
(b) 600 W
(c) 500 W
(d) 800 W
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach on the face BC if

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. If the density of a small planet is the same as that of earth, while the radius of the planet is 0.2 times that of the earth, the gravitational acceleration on the surface of the planet is

(a) 0.2 g
(b) 0.4 g
(c) 2 g
(d) 4 g
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The work function of a metallic substance is 5 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately

a) 1.6 × 10⁷Hz
b) 8.86 × 10¹⁵Hz
c) 9.68 × 10¹⁷Hz
d) 1.2 × 10¹⁵Hz
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m and at the same time another ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms^-1. Then the distance from the top of the tower, at which the two balls meet is

(a) 68.4 m
(b) 48.4 m
(c) 18.4 m
(d) 78.4 m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. At the centre of a cubical box +Q charge is placed. The value of total flux that is coming out a wall is

a) Q/ε_°
b) Q/ 3ε_°
c) Q/ 4ε_°
d) Q/ 6ε_°

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A particle moves under the effect of a force F = cx from x = 0 to x = x₁, the work done in the process is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 2, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 120 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The amount of heat required to convert 5g of ice at 0℃ to steam at 100℃ is
a) 3100 cal
b) 3200 cal
c) 3600 cal
d) 4200 calDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In an isobaric process, 2 moles of an ideal gas is heated from 27℃ to 127℃, then the work done in this process is

a) Zero
b) 1.66 kJ
c) 4.2 kJ
d) 2.0 kJDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. One mole of an ideal gas monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation V²=constant . The heat capacity of the gas during the process is

a) 3/2 R
b) 5/2 R
c) R
d) R/2Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of O₂ through 1℃ at constant volume is Q. What is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of O₂ through 1℃ at constant pressure?

a) Q+R
b) Q+R/16
c) R-Q
d) Q+R/32
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The ratio between Bohr radii are

a) 1:2:3
b) 2:4:6
c) 1:4:9
d) 1:3:5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which symbol shows an atom of element having 42 protons, 42 electrons and 65 neutrons

a) ₄₂X¹⁰⁷
b) ₄₂X⁶⁵c) ₄₂X¹⁴⁷d) ₄₈X¹⁴⁷
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. One requires an energy to remove a nucleon from nucleus and an energy to remove an electron from an atom. Then

a) E_n= E_e
b) E_n< E_ec) E_n> E_e
d) E_n≤ E_e
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are

a) semiconductor
b) conductor
c) insulator
d) Superconductor
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to

a) NAND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Study the circuit shown in the figure. Name the gate that the given circuit resembles.

a) NAND
b) AND
c) OR
d) NOR
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. What is the nature of Gaussian surface involved in Gauss law of electrostatic?

a) Magnetic
b) Scalar
c) Vector
d) Electrical
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance 50 μF in air and 110 μF when immersed in a oil. The dielectric constant of the oil is

a) 0.4
b) 0.55
c) 1.10
d) 2.20
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A capacitor of capacitance is charged to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface enclosing the capacitor is
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be

a) 0.33 A
b) 0.5 A
c) 0.67 A
d) 0.17 A
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A wire of radius and another wire of radius 2r, both of the same material and length are connected in series to each other. The combination is connected across a battery. The ratio of the heats produced in the two wires will be

a) 4.00
b) 2.00
c) 0.50
d) 0.25
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A magnet of magnetic moment M of length 22 cm is bent into a semicircle. Now the magnetic moment is

a) 11/7 M
b) 7/11M
c) 14M
d) 22M
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. At a certain place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place is

a) 60°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 30°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The dipole moment of a short bar magnet is 1.25A−m2. The magnetic field on its axis at a distance of 0.5 metre from the centre of the magnet is

a) 0×10⁻⁴Newton/amp-meter
b) 4×10⁻²Newton/amp-meter
c) 2×10⁻⁶Newton/amp-meter
d) 64×10⁻⁸Newton/amp-meter
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A magnetic field of 2×10⁻²T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100cm²with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1V, when it is removed from the field in time t. The value of t is

a) 0.1 sec
b) 0.01 sec
c) 1 sec
d) 20 sec
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better turning of an LCR circuit used for communication?

a) R=20Ω, L=1.5H, C=35μF
b) R=25Ω, L=2.5H, C=45μF
c) R=15Ω, L=3.5H, C=30μF
d) R=25Ω, L=1.5H, C=45μF
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 2, 2025
NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST SERIES 1 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The unit of Stefan’s constant is

(a) Js^-s
(b) Jm^-2 s^-1 K^-4
(c) Jms^-2
(b) Jm^-2 s^-1 K^-4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A person observes that the full lengh of a train subtends an angle of 15^°.If the distance between the train and the person is 3 km, the length of the train,calculated using parallax method, in metres is

(a) 45
(b) 45 π
(c) 250 π
(d) 250
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Which of the following is wrong?

a) The unit of ct is same as that of λ
b) The unit of x is same as that of λ
c) The unit of 2πc/λ is same as that of 2πc/λ t
d) The unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) dyne × cm⁵
(b) dyne × cm⁴
(c) dyne × cm
(d) dyne × cm²Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 × 10⁴ and 48000.50 are respectively

(a) 5 and 6
(b) 5 and 7
(c) 2 and 7
(d) 2 and 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A cube has a side of length 2 × 10^-2 m. Its volume upto correct significant figures is

(a) 1.7 × 10^-6 m³.
(b) 1.73 × 10^-6 m³.
(c) 1.7 × 10^-6 m³.
(d) 1.7 × 10^-6 m³.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A physical quantity X is related to four measurable quantities a, b, c and d as follows 5 X = a²b3c2d-2

The percentage errors in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 2% and 4% respectively. What is the percentage error in quantity X?

(a) 15%
(b) 17%
(c) 21%
(d) 23%
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of length is 2% and that in the observation of the time-period is 3%. Then the maximum percentage error in determination of the acceleration due to gravity g is

(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. According to quantum mechanics, light travels in the form of packets and energy associated with each packet is E = hf where h is Planck’s constant and f is the frequency.
The dimensional formula for h is
(a) [M² L² T^-1]
(b) [M² L^-1 T²]
(c) [ML² T^-1]
(d) [ML^-2 T¹]

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. An electron at rest has a charge of 6×10^-19 C. It starts moving with a velocity v=c/2, where c is the speed of light, then the new charge on it is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Two similar and equal charges repel each other with force of 1.6 N, when paled 3 m apart. Strength of each charge is

(a) 40 μC
(b) 20 μC
(c) 4 μC
(d) 2 μC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The force between two points charges placed in vacuum at distance 1 mm is 18 N. If a glass plate of thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 6, be kept between the charges then new force between them would be

(a) 18 N
(b) 108 N
(c) 3 N
(d) 3×10^-6 N
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q₁ and Q₂ and these charges are placed at distance . There will be maximum repulsion between them, when

(a) Q₂= (Q/R), Q₁= Q – (Q/R)
(b) Q₂= (Q/3), Q₁= Q – (2Q/3)
(c) Q₂= (Q/4), Q₁= Q – (3Q/4)
(d) Q₁= Q₂= Q/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The permittivity ε₀ of vacuum is 8.86×10^-12 C²/N-m² and the dielectric constant of water is 81. The permittivity of water in C²/N-m² is

(a) 81×8.86×10^-12
(b) 8.86×10^-12
(c) (8.86×10^-12)/81
(a) 81/(8.86×10^-12)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 1200 V/m]
(b) 0.04 V/m
(c) 900 V/m
(d) 4500 V/m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of with and electric field of intensity 2×10⁵N C^-1. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm is

(a) 8 mC
(b) 4 mC
(c) 6 mC
(d) 2 mC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A positively charged pendulum is oscillating in a uniform electric field is shown in figure. Its time period of SHM as compared to that when it was uncharged. (mg>qE)

(a) will increase
(b) will decrease
(c) will not change
(d) will first increase then decrease
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed surface in units of N-m²/C are respectively 8×10³ and 4×10³. Then the total charge inside the surface is [where ε₀= permittivity constant]

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 28, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (29.03.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (29.03.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

REASONING SECTION

Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Eight persons i.e. D, Q, G, H, K, S, E and W are sitting around a square table in such a way that four persons sit at the corner side of the table and other four persons sit in the middle side of the table. The persons who sit at the corner side are facing away from the center and the persons who sit in the middle side are facing towards the center. D sits at the corner side of the table. One person sits between D and G. Q sits third to the right of G. Three persons sit between Q and E. W sits second to the right of E. W is not an immediate neighbour of D. H sits second to the right of K.

1. How many person sit between S and the one who sit 2^nd left of Q?

a) 3

b) 1

c) 4

d) 0

e) CND
None

2. Who among the following faces Q?

a) the one who sit 2nd right of S

a) the one who sit 2nd right of S b) the one who sit opposite to W

c) the one who sit immediate left of G

d) the one who sit 2nd right of K

e) None of these
None

3. How many person sit between D and Q when counted from the left of D?

a) 0

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

e) None of these
None

4. Who sit immediate right of 4^th to the left of K?

a) G

b) Q

c) W

d) S

e) H
None

5. What is the position of H with respect to K?

a) 2nd to the right

b) 6th to the left

c) immediate left

d) Immediate right

e) Both (a) and (b)
None

Direction (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Twelve person L, M, N, P, Q, R, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table. Two person are sitting on each side of the table and four person are sitting in the corners of the table. The persons sit on the side of the table are facing towards center. The persons are sitting on the corners of the table person are facing away from the center. Not more than two persons of immediate neighbours are facing same directions. All the information are not necessarily in the same order.

The number of person sit between X and U is as same as the number of persons sit between Y and U, who is not an immediate neighbour of R. Five person sit between L and P, who is sitting on one of the sides of the table. Two person sit between X and R, who is facing the immediate neighbours of Q. W sits third to the right of P and is facing the same direction as V. Three person sit between L and M, who is facing the same direction as P. X sits three places away from M and not immediate neighbur of U. N sits fourth to the left of L and is facing the same direction as U.
6. Who sits second to the left of W?

a) N

b) X

c) Z

d) Y

e) P
None

7. What is the position of Y with respect to V?

a) Second to left

b) Third to left

c) Fourth to left

d) Second to right

e) Third to right
None

8. How many person sit between U and W, whencount from the left of U?

a) Two

b) Four

c) Three

d) Five

e) Seven
None

9. Four of the following form a group, which one does not belong to that group?

a) N

b) Q

c) U

d) V

e) Z
None

10. Which of the following combination of pair is/are on the same side of the table?

a) WP

b) XL

c) MR

d) MY

e) NR
None

Directions (11-15): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Seven persons- A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in the linear row facing the south but not necessarily in the same order.

B sits second from one of the ends. Only two persons are sitting between B and A. The number of persons sits to the left of A is the same as the right of G.The number of persons sitting between A and G is the same as between E and F. E and G are not immediate neighbours. C sits to the right of E but not an immediate neighbour of B.

11. Who among the following sits immediate left of B?

a) The one who sits second to the left of G

b) A

c) Fds

d) E

e) The one who sits third to the left of C
None

12. Who among the following person sits to the left of A?

a) The one who sits fourth from the right end

b) B

c) The one who sits immediate left of G

d) D

e) All of the above
None

13. If C is related to A and E is related to F in a certain way. Then, who among the following is related to D?

a) B

b) The one who sits third from the left end

c) The one who sits immediate left of A

d) E

e) C
None

14. How many persons are sitting between C and G?

a) More than three

b) None

c) One

d) Two

e) Three
None

15. What is the position of F with respect to D?

a) Third to the right

b) Third to the left

c) Second to the right

d) Second to the left

e) None of the above
None

Directions (16-20): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Eight persons- E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting in the linear row but not necessarily in the same order. All are facing the south direction.

E sits second to the right of K. Only one person sits between K and I who sits at the end of the row. H and E are immediate neighbours. The number of persons sits to the left of G is the same as the number of persons sits to the right of F. F and I are not immediate neighbors. L sits second to the right of J.
16. How many persons sit to the right of J?

a) One

b) Five

c) Four

d) Two

e) Three
None

17. Which of the following statement is true?
I) Only one person sits between J and H
II) K sits immediate left of H
III) L sits at the end of the table
IV) J sits to the left of G

a) Only (II) and (III)

b) Only (I) and (IV)

c) Only (I) and (II)

d) Only (II) and (IV)

e) Only (I), (II) and (III)
None

18. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order from the right end, then how many persons unchanged their position?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) More than three

e) None
None

19. Four of the five among the following are similar in such a way to form a group, which one of the following doesn’t belong to the group?

a) IK

b) HJ

c) JL

d) HL

e) EF
None

20. If J and K interchange their positions and F and I did the same, with respect to the new positions, who among the following person sits second to the right of F?

a) L

b) E

c) G

d) J

e) H
None

QA SECTION

1. Retailer sold one article at 33 1/3 % profit and another at 100% profit. Find his overall profit percentage if the selling price of both the article is same?

(a) 60%

(b) 55%

(c) 66 ⅔%

(d) 75%

(e) 56 ⅔%
None

2. A shopkeeper marked up an article 40% above its cost price and gave two successive discounts of 25% and 10% respectively. If he made a loss of Rs. 352, then find the cost price of the article?

(a) 5600 Rs.

(b) 5000 Rs.

(c) 6400 Rs.

(d) 6800 Rs.

(e) 72 00 Rs.
None

3. A shopkeeper marks up price of LED 60% above its cost price and gives three successive discounts of 12 1/2 %, d% and 25%. If shopkeeper made a loss 16% on LED. Find the second discount allowed by shop?

(a) 15%

(b) 20%

(c) 25%

(d) 16 ⅔ %

(e) 17.5%
None

4. A shopkeeper marked the price of an article by 40% above cost price and gave discount of Rs. 224. On the final amount, he charged 10% tax. In the whole transaction, he earned Rs. 158.6. Find cost price of the article.

(a) Rs 750

(b) Rs 760

(c) Rs 744

(d) Rs 757

(e) Rs 74
None

5. Ram bought a bike at 20% discount on MRP. After 1 year Ram sell the bike to Ramesh at 10% loss. After 1 year more Ramesh sell the bike at 20% profit to Ranjan. If Ranjan paid Rs. 1,29,600, then find the M.R.P. of the bike ?

(a) 1,50,000

(b) 2,25,000

(c) 1,40,000

(d) 2,00,000

(e) 1,80,000
None

6. Marked priced of A is 1600 Rs more than its cost price. When discount on A is 500 there is a profit of 25% obtained. At what price A should be sold to obtain 30% profit.

(a) 4800

(b) 5600

(c) 5400

(d) 5200

(e) 5720
None

7. Two mobile phones were purchased at the same price. One was sold at a profit of 30% and the second was sold at a price which was Rs 2500 less than the price at which the first was sold. If the overall profit earned by selling both the mobile phones was 5%, wha t was the cost price of one mobile phone?

(a) Rs 8000

(b) Rs 5000

(c) Rs 6000

(d) Rs 4500

(e) Rs 5500
None

8. A shopkeeper buys a chair and a table for Rs . 1500. He sells the chair at 20% profit and table at 30% profit. If total profit is 33 1/3 % of S.P. of table, find C.P. of chair ?

(a) Rs 600

(b) Rs 900

(c) Rs 750

(d) Rs 650

(e) Rs 55
None

9. A shopkeeper marked up a shirt 50% above the cost price and allows successive discounts of 11 1/9% and 10% on it. If the difference between profit earned and discount given is Rs. 200 then find the marked price of the shirt?

(a) Rs. 2100

(b) Rs. 3000

(c) Rs. 2400

(d) Rs. 3600

(e) Rs. 330
None

10. A shopkeeper sells two pens, he sold 1 pen at profit and other pen at loss. SP of each of the two pens is Rs.300 and profit percentage on 1 pen is equal to loss percentage on other. If overall loss of shopkeeper is 6.25%, then find difference between cost price of both pen.

(a) Rs.350

(b) Rs.100

(c) Rs.240

(d) Rs.160

(e) Rs.30
None

11. A can do a piece of work in 10 days, and B can do the same work in 20 days. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. C can do the work in how many days, working alone?

a) 5 days

b) 10 days

c) 15 days

d) 20 days

e) 25 days
None

12. A can do a piece of work in 12 days. B can do this work in 16 days. A started the work alone. After how many days should B join him, so that the work is finished in 9 days?

a) 2 days

b) 3 days

c) 4 days

d) 5 days

e) 1 days
None

13. A and B can do a piece of work in 4 days, while C and D can do the same work in 12 days. In how many days will A, B, C and D do it together?

a) 12 days

b) 4 days

c) 3 days

d) 2 days

e) None of these
None

14. A and B can do a piece of work in 40 days, B and C can do it in 120 days. If B alone can do it in 180 days, in how many days will A and C do it together?

a) 45 days

b) 22.5 days

c) 25 days

d) 18 days

e) 12 days
None

15. A, B, C, and D can do a piece of work in 20 days. If A and B can do it together in 50 days, and C alone in 60 days, find the time in which D alone can do it.

a) 120 days

b) 200 days

c) 150 days

d) 90 days

e) 75 days
None

16. A, B, and C can do a piece of work in 8 days. B and C together do it in 24 days. B alone can do it in 40 days. In what time will it be done by C working alone?

a) 25 days

b) 24 days

c) 60 days

d) 20 days

e) 30 days
None

17. A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 450. A can do it in 20 days and B can do it in 40 days. With the help of C, they finish it in 8 days. How much should C be paid for his contribution?

a) Rs. 180

b) Rs. 40

c) Rs. 120

d) Rs. 60

e) Rs. 50
None

18. Daku and Tamatar can do a piece of work in 70 and 60 days respectively. They began the work together, but Daku leaves after some days and Tamatar finished the remaining work in 47 days. After how many days did Daku leave?

a) 14 days

b) 16 days

c) 18 days

d) 10 days

e) 7 days
None

19. Ajay and Vijay undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 480. Ajay alone can do it in 75 days while Vijay alone can do it in 40 days. With the help of Pradeep, they finish the work in 25 days. How much should Pradeep get for his work?

a) Rs. 40

b) Rs. 20

c) Rs. 360

d) Rs. 100

e) Rs. 60
None

20. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing the work together but after 2 days, B had to leave and A alone completed the remaining work. The whole work was completed in :

a) 8 days

b) 12 days

c) 15 days

d) 10 days

e) 24 days
None

March 28, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 14 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The addition of 22.148 and 5.36 with regards to significant figures is
a) 27.508
b) 27.50
c) 27.51
d) 27.52
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A result of cross product of two vectors is zero, this implies the vectors are

a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) mutually exclusive
d) mutually inclusive
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) -2t + 3
b) -10t + 3
c) 2t + 3
d) 10t + 3Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg, moving with velocities 5 m/s and 10 m/s collide with each other in opposite direction. After collision the first body moves with a velocity of 3 m/s. The velocity of the second body is

a) 11 m/s

b) 20 m/s

c) 6 m/s

d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The scalar product of two vectors is minimum when the angle between them is

a) 0º
b) 90º
c) 60º
d) 180º
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Choose the incorrect statement for inelastic collision

a) both momentum and KE is conserved
b) only momentum is conserved
c) KE is not conserved
d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The forces which obey the inverse square law are examples of

a) non-conservative forces
b) conservative forces
c) nuclear forces
d) equilibrium forces
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The range of a projectile fired at some angle to the horizontal becomes maximum when the angle of projection is

a) 90º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 0º
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Steel is more elastic than rubber because it:

a) requires larger deforming force
b) is never deformed
c) is deformed very easily
d) is harder than rubber
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?

a) 60°
b) 30°
c) 90°
d) 1200°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A metallic rod of length l and cross – sectional area A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the rod is elongated by an amount y, then the work done is proportional to

a) y
b) 1/y
c) y²
d) 1/y²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y=sin³ωt. The motion is

a) non-periodic
b) periodic but not simple harmonic
c) simple harmonic with period 2π/ω
d) simple harmonic with period π/ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following wave does not travel in vacuum?

a) Seismic waves
b) X-rays
c) Light
d) Radio waves
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V ac supply. The resistance of the bulb is

a) 284Ω
b) 384Ω
c) 484Ω
d) 584Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in

a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons-
b) polar and non-polar nature of molecules.
c) Pauli exclusion principle.
d) electronegative nature of materials.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror.
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.
d) scattering of light by particles of air.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due to a dipole, is related as

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is

a) zero
b) constant different from zero
c) proportional to the distance from the curve
d) None of the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is’

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
b) 0.61 × 10⁹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 28, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 102 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval =24 hours)

a) 18 ºC

b) 20 ºC

c) 22 ºC

d) 25 ºC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2, 500 g of water and 100 g of ice at 0°C are in a calorimeter whose water equivalent is 40 g. 10 g of steam at 100°C is added to it. Then water in the calorimeter is : (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/g, Latent heat of steam = 540 cal/ g)

a) 580 g
b) 590 g
c) 600 g
d) 610 gDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-section of a wire is Q = 5 t²+3 t+1. The value of current at time t = 5 s is

a) 9 A
b) 49 A
c) 53 A
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is

a) 3.40 eV
b) 1.15 eV
c) 0.85 eV
d) 0.66 eV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of

a) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
b) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
c) 11 protons and 13 electrons
d) 11 protons, 11 electrons and 13 neutrons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. When 3Li7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4Be8, the emitted particles will be

a) alpha particles
b) beta particles
c) gamma photons
d) neutrons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 46 MeV
b) 5.6 MeV
c) 3.9 MeV
d) 23 MeVDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m³ to a volume of at a constant pressure of 100 N/m². Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of the gas:

a) increases by 250 J

b) decreases by 250 J

c) increases by 50 J

d) decreases by 50 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Gas at a pressure P₀ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to

a) 4P₀
b) 2P₀
c) P₀
d) 0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The current will be maximum in , if

a) R = r
b) R < r
c) R > r
d) R =r/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness 10^-6m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is

a) 10⁷ V/m
b) 10^-6 V/m
c) 10⁵ V/m
d) 10^-5 V/m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The gate for which output is high if at least one input is low?

a) NAND
b) NOR
c) AND
d) OR
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside will.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) decrease for some and increase for others
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?

a) Melting of ice
b) Bursting of tyre
c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The relaxation time in conductors

a) increases with the increases of temperature
b) decreases with the increases of temperature
c) it does not depends on temperature
d) all of sudden changes at 400 K
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Two full turns of the circular scale of gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on scale. The total number of divisions on circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that screw gauge has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale division, in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is

a) 3.32 mm
b) 3.38 mm
c) 3.73 mm
d) 3.30 mm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Assertion: Dimensional constants are those physical quantities which has constant value.
Reason: Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
d) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Find the centre of mass of the given rod of length L as shown in fig.

a) 0.8 L
b) 0.75 L
c) L
d) 0.3 L
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 10π²
b) 15π²
c) 10π
d) 15πDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 J, the work necessary for stretching another wire of same material, but with double radius of cross-section and half the length by 1 mm is

a) 10 J
b) 5 J
c) 20 J
d) 16 JDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 27, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 110 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Choose the correct option from the following options given below:

(a) In the ground state of Rutherford’s model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in Thomson’s model electrons always experience a net-force.
(b) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford’s model but has a highly non-uniform mass distribution in Thomson’s model
(c) A classical atom based on Rutherford’s model is doomed to collapse.
(d) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford’s model but not in Thomson’s model.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed in water of refractive index , then the fringe with becomes (in mm):

(a) 16
(b) 9
(c) 48
(d) 12

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-Ill, B-ll, C-l, D-l V
(b) A-lll, B-IV,C-II, 1X1
(c) A-IV,B-l,C-lll,D-ll
(d) A-ll, B-lll, C-l, D-IV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015 u. The binding energy of helium nucleus is:

(a) 14.2MeV
(b) 56.8MeV
(c) 28.4MeV
(d) 7.1 MeV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in radians):

a) π/6

b) π/3

c) π/8

d) π/4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In the given circuit, rms value of current (I_rms) through the resistor R is:

(a) 2A
(b) 1/2 A
(c) 20A
(d) 2√2 A

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:

(a) R=0.001r
(b) R= 1000r
(c) R = 2r
(d) R = r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is:

(a) 1:1
(b) 3:1
(c) √3:1
(d) 9:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32 limes its initial value. The final pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is:

(a) 32
(b) 326
(c) 128
(d) 1/32

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally at the mid-point of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45° with the vertical. Then Fequals: (Take g = 10 ms^-2 and the rope to be massless)

(a) 100 N
(b) 90 N
(c) 70 N
(d) 75 N

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the surface of the earth. When both ‘d* and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) d=3h/2
(b) d= h/2
(c) d=h
(d) d=2h

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A particle of mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant 800 N m^-1 executes simple harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of the oscillator is 4 J, the maximum acceleration (in ms^-2) of the particle is

(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 20

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + bt², where a = 15 cm and b=3 cm/s^-2. Its instant velocity at time 3 sec will be

(a) 36cm/sec
(b) 9cm/sec
(c) 4.5cm/sec
(d) 18cm/sec π

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because

(a) induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. If the maximum compression of the spring is 0.15 m, the value of mass m is

(a) 0.5kg
(b) 0.15kg
(c) 0.12kg
(d) 1.5kg

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen gas is

(a) PV= RT
(b) PV=2RT
(c) PV = 1/2RT
(d) PV = 4RT

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope

(a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(b) depends on the nature of the metal used
(c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of a lower of height 45 m. Then its kinetic energy after 3 sec is [take g= 10m/s²]

(a) 557J
(b) 1350J
(c) 1050J
(d) 1296J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into energy. The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be

(a) 9×10¹⁹J
(b) 9×10¹⁷J
(c) 9×10¹⁶J
(d) 9×10¹³J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times of the coefficient of superficial expansion (area), then value of x is

(a) 3
(b) 25
(c) 1.5
(d) 2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 24, 2025

error: Content is protected !!

Enable Notifications OK No thanks