NEET FULL TEST V (05.04.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST V (05.04.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

Important Instructions:

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited

PHYSICS

1. The amount of heat required to convert 5g of ice at 0℃ to steam at 100℃ is

a) 3100 cal
b) 3200 cal
c) 3600 cal
d) 4200 cal

None

2. In an isobaric process, 2 moles of an ideal gas is heated from 27℃ to 127℃, then the work done in this process is

a) Zero
b) 1.66 kJ
c) 4.2 kJ
d) 2.0 kJ

None

3. One mole of an ideal gas monoatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation V²=constant . The heat capacity of the gas during the process is

a) 3/2 R
b) 5/2 R
c) R
d) R/2

None

4. The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of O₂ through 1℃ at constant volume is Q. What is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of O₂ through 1℃ at constant pressure?

a) Q+R
b) Q+R/16
c) R-Q
d) Q+R/32

None

5. The ratio between Bohr radii are

a) 1:2:3
b) 2:4:6
c) 1:4:9
d) 1:3:5

None

6. Which symbol shows an atom of element having 42 protons, 42 electrons and 65 neutrons

a) ₄₂X¹⁰⁷
b) ₄₂X⁶⁵c) ₄₂X¹⁴⁷d) ₄₈X¹⁴⁷

None

7. One requires an energy to remove a nucleon from nucleus and an energy to remove an electron from an atom. Then

a) E_n= E_e
b) E_n< E_ec) E_n> E_e
d) E_n≤ E_e

None

8. Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are

a) semiconductor
b) conductor
c) insulator
d) Superconductor

None

9. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to

a) NAND
b) NOR
c) OR
d) None of these

None

10. Study the circuit shown in the figure. Name the gate that the given circuit resembles.

a) NAND
b) AND
c) OR
d) NOR

None

11. What is the nature of Gaussian surface involved in Gauss law of electrostatic?

a) Magnetic
b) Scalar
c) Vector
d) Electrical

None

12. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance 50 μF in air and 110 μF when immersed in a oil. The dielectric constant of the oil is

a) 0.4
b) 0.55
c) 1.10
d) 2.20

None

13. A capacitor of capacitance is charged to a potential V. The flux of the electric field through a closed surface enclosing the capacitor is

None

14. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be

a) 0.33 A
b) 0.5 A
c) 0.67 A
d) 0.17 A

None

15. A wire of radius and another wire of radius 2r, both of the same material and length are connected in series to each other. The combination is connected across a battery. The ratio of the heats produced in the two wires will be

a) 4.00
b) 2.00
c) 0.50
d) 0.25

None

16. A magnet of magnetic moment M of length 22 cm is bent into a semicircle. Now the magnetic moment is

a) 11/7 M
b) 7/11M
c) 14M
d) 22M

None

17. At a certain place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place is

a) 60°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 30°

None

18. The dipole moment of a short bar magnet is 1.25A−m2. The magnetic field on its axis at a distance of 0.5 metre from the centre of the magnet is

a) 0×10⁻⁴Newton/amp-meter
b) 4×10⁻²Newton/amp-meter
c) 2×10⁻⁶Newton/amp-meter
d) 64×10⁻⁸Newton/amp-meter

None

19. A magnetic field of 2×10⁻²T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100cm²with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1V, when it is removed from the field in time t. The value of t is

a) 0.1 sec
b) 0.01 sec
c) 1 sec
d) 20 sec

None

20. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better turning of an LCR circuit used for communication?

a) R=20Ω, L=1.5H, C=35μF
b) R=25Ω, L=2.5H, C=45μF
c) R=15Ω, L=3.5H, C=30μF
d) R=25Ω, L=1.5H, C=45μF

None

21. A proton and an α – particle have kinetic energy in the ratio 16:1. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated with them is.

(a) 4:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 7:2

None

22. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted? e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹(c)

(a) 2.4 eV
(b) 1.5 eV
(c) 3.1 eV
(d) 4.5 eV

None

23. A ray of light when falls on a liquid A-air interface at angle 45°, it just gets total reflection. When a ray of light falls on liquid B -air interface at angle 30°, it does not emerge out. We can infer that

(a) μ_A>μ_B
(b) μ_A<μ_B(c) μ_A=μ_B
(d) can’t be inferred

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24. In going from a rarer to a denser medium, light loses some spee(d) What happens to energy carried by light waves?

a) Greater in rarer medium
b) Greater in denser medium
c) equal in both mediums
d) cannot be said

None

25. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(a) I₁+I₂(b) (√I₁+√I₂)²(c) (√I₁−√I₂)²(d) 2(I₁+I₂)

None

26. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm×2cm) to (5cm×4×cm). If the work done is 3×10⁻⁴J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250Nm⁻¹
(b) 0.125Nm⁻¹(c) 0.2Nm⁻¹
(d) 8.0Nm⁻¹

None

27. When two displacements represented by y₁=asin (ωt) and y₂=bcos (ωt) are superimposed, the motion is

None

28. In an SHM, x is the displacement and a is the acceleration at time t. the plot of a against x for one complete oscillation will be

(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a sinusoidal curve

None

29. Which of the following statements are true wave motion?

a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through all mediums
b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through solids only
d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum

None

30. To determine Young’s modulus of the material of a wire,

a) two wires of same length and radius are taken.
b) Single straight wire of uniform cross section is taken.
c) three wires of different lengths but of same material are taken.
d) two springs of same length but different materials are taken.

None

31. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V= (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) (a) The value of the resistance is:

(a) (10±0.5)Ω
(b) (10±0.3)Ω
(c) (10±0.4)Ω
(d) (10±0.1)Ω

None

32. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 12 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed in rad/s is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.8
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.2

None

33. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal groun(d) The magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is

None

34. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force F_c=-k/r² , the total energy is

(a) -k/r
(b) k/r
(c) -k/2r
(d) k/2r

None

(a) 40s
(b) 80s
(c) 20s
(d) 50s

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36. A 60 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body in m/s2 is

(a) 5.2

(b) 2.5

(d) 1

None

37. A body of 10 kg is acted by a force of 129.4 N. If g =8 m/s². The acceleration of the block is 10 m/s². What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?

(a) 0.03
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.4

None

38. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum p. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road be m, then the stopping distance is

None

39. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally opposite point. The work done in this case is

(a) 0
(b) mgh
(c) -mgh
(d) none

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40. The force constants of two springs are k₁ and k₂ respectively. Both are stretched till their potential energies are equal. The forces f₁ and f₂ applied on them are in the ratio

None

41. Natural length of a spring is 60 cm, and its spring constant is 4000 N/m. A mass of 20 kg is hung from it. The extension produced in the spring is, (Take g =8 m/s²)

(a) 4.9 cm
(b) 0.49 cm
(c) 9.4 cm
(d) 0.94 cm

None

42. A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates through an angle q₁ in first one second and through an additional angle q₂ in the next one secon(d) The ratio between the angles is

(a) 3
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/2
(d) 2/3

None

43. The moment of inertia of HCl molecule (in kg m²) about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to the line joining the H⁺ and Cl^– ions will be, if the interatomic distance is 1 Å (mass of H atom = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg, mass of Cl atom = 5.89 x 10^-26 kg)

(a) 0.162×10^-47
(b) 1.62×10^-47(c) 16.2×10^-47
(d)162×10^-47

None

44. The earth of mass 6 x 10²⁴ kg revolves round the sun with angular velocity 2 x 10^-7 rad/s, in a circular orbit of radius 1.5 x 10⁸ The force exerted by the sun on the earth in newtons is

(a) 36×10³¹(b) 3.6×10³¹(c) 0.36×10³⁰
(d) 36×10³⁰

None

45. The depth at which the effective value of acceleration due to gravity is g/4 is (R is radius of earth)

(a) R/4
(b) 3R/4
(c) 4R/3
(d) R/2

None

CHEMISTRY

46. The suitable indicator for the titration of weak acid and strong base should have a pH range between :

(a) 3-5
(b) 7-11
(c) 4-6
(d) 2-3

None

47. An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentane-3-one. The alkene ‘A’ is

None

48. An organic compound having molecular formula CHO, gives silver mirror test with tollen’s reagent and shows 2,4-DNP test. Compound is. D) Both b and c

a)

d) Both b and c

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49. Which of the following reagents will convert A to B?

a) PCC
b) Ozonolysis
c) BH₃ ; H₂O₂/OH followed by PCC oxidation.
d) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K₂Cr₂O₇

None

50. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃

None

51. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their basic strength :-
(I) C6H5NH2 (II) C2H5NH2
(III) (C2H5)2NH2 (IV)NH3

(a) II > III > IV > I
(b) III > II > IV > I
(c) III > IV > II > I
(d) II > IV > III > I

None

52. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points :-
(i) CH3CHO (II) CH3CH3–OH
(III) CH3O–CH3 (IV) CH3CH2CH3

(a) II > IV > I > III
(b) II > III > I > IV
(c) II > I > III > IV
(d) I > II > III > IV

None

53. Complex [Co(NH3)5(NO2)2]Cl2 can show :

a) Only ionisation isomerism
b) Only linkage isomerism
c) Both linkage and ionisation isomerism
d) Linkage and coordination isomerism

None

54. Assertion (A) :- [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagneti(c)
Reason (R) :- In presence of strong field ligand H2O, electrons get paired in [Fe(H2O)6] while in weak field ligand CN- , electrons don’t pair up.

a) (a) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
b) (a) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
c) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
d) Both (a) and (R) correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

None

55. Assertion (A) :- Benzaldehyde is more reactive than propanal for NAR. (Nucleophilic addition reaction)
Reason (R) :- The carbon atom of carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophillic than carbon atom of carbonyl group present in propanal.

a) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
d) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

None

56. Which statement is NOT correct for benzene sulphonyl chloride?

a) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
b) It is used to distinguish, primary and secondary amines
c) On treatment with secondary amine it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali.
d) It doesn’t react with tertiary amine.

None

In the above reaction compound C is

a) CH₃–COOH, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
b) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–CN
c) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
d) CH₃–CH₂–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC

None

58. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?

(a) Sulphur compound
(b) Quinoline
(c) Both
(d) None

None

59. IUPAC name of aspirin is :

a) 2-Ethanoyloxy benzoic acid
b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Aspirin
d) 2-methoxy carboxyl benzoic acid

None

60. Which of the following nitrogen containing compound does not give Lassaigne’s test ?

(a) Phenyl hydrazine
(b) Glycine
(c) Urea
(d) Hydrazine

None

61. Choose the correct order of atomic size ?

a) Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
b) Lu > Yb > La > Lr
c) Ce > Pm > Yb > Lu
d) Lu > Yb > Ce > La

None

62. Electron gain enthalpy is the amount of energy released when an electron is _____ to the outermost shell of an elements in its _____ state. It becomes more _____ across a period and less ____ down a group.

a) Added, gaseous, negative, negative
b) Remove, liquid, positive, negative
c) Added, liquid, negative, positive
d) Removed, gaseous, positive, positive

None

63. Identify the one which reduced Tollen’s reagent ?

(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Maltose
(d) Sucrose

None

64. The correct Lewis acid order for boron halide is

a) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃
b) BF₃ < BCl₃ < BBr₃ < BI₃
c) BF₃ > BI₃ > BBr₃ > BCl₃
d) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃

None

65. Catalyst used in contact process is is

(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) V₂O₅(c) Cr₂O₃
(d) CrO₃

None

66. Statement I : Osmium exhibits a maximum oxidation state of +6
Statement II : Osmium is a 4d block element.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
c) Statement I is true but Statement II are False
d) Statement I is False but Statement II are True

None

67. The correct order of increasing bond length is

a) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ < F₂
b) O₂ > N₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
c) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ > F₂
d) N₂ < O₂ < F₂ < Cl₂

None

68. Which one is the most Acidic among the following oxide

(a) MgO
(b) P₄O₁₀(c) Tl₂O₃(d) SO₂

None

69. Uuu

(a) Copernicium
(b) Meitnerium
(c) Darmstadium
(d) Rontgenium

None

70. Zero electron gain enthalpy is shown by

(a) B, N and O
(b) Na, Mg and Al
(c) H, He and Ne
(d) Be, Mg and P

None

71. Which Hybridisation is not match with the following compound?

(a) SF₄ – sp³d
(b) NH₃ – sp³(c) BrF₅ – sp³d³(d) SF₆ – sp³d²

None

72. The geometry of XeOF₂ is

(a) Octahedral
(b) T-shape
(c) Square Planar
(d) Tetrahedral

None

73. Magnesium reacts with an elements X to form an ionic compoun(d) If the ground state electronic configuration of X is 1s² 2s² 2p³ , the simplest formula for this compound is

(a) Mg₂X₃(b) MgX₂(c) Mg₂X
(d) Mg₃X₂

None

74. Which of the following ion has the maximum polarizing power ?

(a) Na⁺(b) Mg²⁺(c) Ca²⁺
(d) Al³⁺

None

75. Dinitrogen is relatively inactive because

a) It has high Electronegativity
b) It has high bond dissociation enthalpy
c) High Melting and Boiling point
d) Stable electronic configuration

None

76. The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction are 30.5 and 45.5 KJ/mol, respectively . The reaction is?

(a) exothermic

(b) endothermic

(d) independent of temperature

None

(a) 0.9555 M and 1.910 M
(b) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
(c) 1.90 M and 1.090 M
(d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M

None

78. The freezing point of 4% aqueous solution of ‘A’ is equal to the freezing point 10% aqueous solution of ‘B’. If the molecules mass of ‘A’ is

(a) 160

(b) 90

(d) 180

None

79. A milli molar solution of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is 70% dissociate(d) Find out the osmotic pressure of the solution at 27⁰C

(a) 0.076 atm
(b) 2.76 atm
(c) 3.67 atm
(d) 9.67 atm

None

(a) 2
(b)1
(c) -1/2
(d) 3/2

None

81. 15 grams of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 grams of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%

None

82. What is the final temperature of 0.10 mole monoatomic ideal gas that performs 75 cal of work adiabatically if the initial temperature is 227 ⁰C? (use R = 2 cal/K mol)

(a) 250 K

(b) 300 K

(d) 750 K

None

83. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following half cells are given as
Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ Zn(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.762 V
Cr³⁺(aq) + 3e⁻⇢ Cr(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.740 V
2H⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ H₂(g) ; E⁰ = 0.000 V
Fe³⁺(aq) + e⁻⇢ Fe²⁺(aq) ; E⁰ = – 0.770 V
The strongest reducing agent is?

(a) Zn(s)
(b) Cr(s)
(c) H₂(s)
(d) Fe²⁺(aq)

None

84. For an ideal gas, consider only P−V work in going from an initial state X to the final state Z. The final state Z can be reached by either of the two paths shown in the figure. Which of the following choice(s) is (are) correct? [Take ΔS as change in entropy and w as work done]

None

85. In the dissociation of PCl₅, as PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) if the degree of dissociation is α at equilibrium pressure P, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction is

None

86. pK_a for NH₄⁺ion is 8.24 at 100 ⁰(c) A solution of 0.2M NH₄OH and a solution of 0.1M HCI are mixed together in equivolume proportion. The pH of the resulting mixture at
100 ⁰C (K_w = 10⁻¹²) will be

(a) 8.24
(b) 10.24
(c) 3.76
(d) 77

None

87. A solution contains Pb²⁺ and Fe²⁺ ions. To it some quantity of Fe and Pb is added Then

a) concentration of Pb2+ ions will remain unaffected
b) concentration of Pb2+ ions will increase
c) concentration of Fe2+ ions will increase
d) concentration of Fe2+ ions will decrease.

None

88. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of reactants

None

89. According of Kohlrausch’s law, the limiting value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte A₂B is

None

90. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen.

(a) 44.8 L

(b) 22.4 L

(d) 67.2 L

None

BOTANY

91. In maize seed, the layer separating the endosperm from the embryo is rich in

(a) proteins
(b) carbohydrates
(c) hormones
(d) enzymes

None

92. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)

None

93. The function of the cambium in a plant is:

(a) water absorption
(b) lateral growth
(c) food storage
(d) photosynthesis

None

94. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption

None

95. Which of the following cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?

(a) Ribosome
(b) Mesosome
(c) Lysosome
(d) Microsome

None

96. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

a) reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane.
b) breakdown of proton gradient.
c) breakdown of electron gradient.
d) movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

None

97. Which of the following is the process of respiration that involves the breakdown of fatty acids to generate ATP?

(a) Glycolysis
(b) B-oxidation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Kreb’s cycle

None

98. What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

a) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity.
b) To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway.
c) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle.
d) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

None

99. What is a fat molecule made of

a) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
b) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
c) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
d) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecules

None

100. Phosphoglyceride is made up of

a) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
b) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
c) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

None

101. Which fatty acid can detect spoilage of oil

(a) Oleic acid
(b) Linoleic acid
(c) Erucic acid
(d) Linolenic acid

None

102. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: A protein can be visualized as a line, with the left end representing the first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end representing the last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin is composed of four subunits: two alpha (α) subunits and two beta (β) subunits
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) Both statement I and statement II are false
b) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
c) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
d) Both statement I and statement II are true

None

103. Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilising the three-dimensional folding of most proteins

(a) Ester bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Electrostatic interaction
(d) Hydrophobic interaction

None

104. Which two functional groups are typical of sugars?

(a) Carbonyl and phosphate
(b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Hydroxyl and methyl
(d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

None

105. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of

a) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
b) D-glucosamine
c) N-acetyl glucosamine
d) lipoglycans

None

106. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(a) NAD⁺(b) ATP
(c) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
(d) Molecular oxygen

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107. During the light dependent reactions, water is split into oxygen, protons, and electrons. What is the fate of the electrons?

(a) Used to reduce CO2
(b) Used to generate ATP
(c) Release of O
(d) Transferred to chlorophyll

None

108. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires

(a) calcium
(b) iron
(c) cobalt
(d) magnesium

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109. Which one of these statements is incorrect?

a) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
c) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial
d) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

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110. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in matrix in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

a) lactate dehydrogenase
b) isocitrare dehydrogenase
c) malate dehydrogenase
d) succinate dehydrogenase

None

111. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)

None

112. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption

None

113. In the majority of higher animals and plants, and are mutually exclusive events.

(a) growth; nutrition
(b) nutrition; consciousness
(c) growth; reproduction
(d) reproduction; consciousness

None

114. Colchicine interferes with the cell because of;

(a) splitting of chromosomes
(b) non-pairing of chromosomes
(c) double replication of chromosomes
(d) non-formation of spindle

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115. Match the following column:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(b) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(c) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)

None

116. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(a) Phaeophyceae only
(b) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(d) Rhodophyceae only

None

117. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(a) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields.
(b) speed up the malting process.
(c) promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface.
(d) help overcome apical dominance

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118. Match the following columns:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(b) (1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(v); (4)-(iii)
(d) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iii)

None

119. In plant, development refers to the formation of specialised tissues and organs from undifferentiated cells.

(a) germination
(b) morphogenesis
(c) differentiation
(d) senescence

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120. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of:

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Mycorrhizae
(c) Bacteria
(d) Light

None

121. Which feature is NOT related to vacuole in plant cells?

(a) Its cell sap is hypertoni(c)
(b) Its membrane is called tonoplast.
(c) It is not an endomembrane system.
(d) It can occupy upto 90 the percent of the volume of the cell.

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122. Assertion (a): Growth in living organism refers to increase in body mass, increase in size and increase in number of cells.
Reason (R): Growth in living organism occurs by accumulation of material by external agency.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of (a)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (a)

None

123. Assertion (a): Dispersal is the spreading or dissemination of fruits and seeds from the parent plants to various distances.
Reason (R): Dispersal is important to prevent overcrowding and decrease competition for nutrients.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (a)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (a)

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124. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Zaminkand – Corn
(b) Replum – Mustard
(c) Twisted Aestivation – China rose
(d) Phyllode – Acacia

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125. Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called as amphibian of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): The plant body is haplontic

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R explanation of (a) are true and R is the correct
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)

None

126. Nissl’s granules are irregular masses of ribosomes and:

(a) SER
(b) RER
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Cytoplasm

None

127. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Plant growth regulators are organic compounds synthesized in minute quantities.
Statement II: PGRs are simple, small molecules having composition. diverse chemical
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given options:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

None

128. Chromosomes are long, thin and slender and chromatin network exposes and threads appear clear in which stage?

(a) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(d) Diplotene

None

129. Characteristics of Mitosis-l stages are given:
(I) Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.
(II) Fully condensed chromosomes.
(III) Spindle is assemble(d)
(IV) Nucleolus and NM breaks down.
Above characterisitics belong to:

(a) Zygotene
(b) Diakinesis
(c) Diplotene
(d) Metaphase

None

130. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Axile placentation – Tomato
(b) Jasmine, colocasia – Runner
(c) Mango fruit – Mesocarp is edible
(d) Scutellum – Shield shape cotyledon in seed of grass

None

131. Shedding of leaves, flowers and fruits due to change in hormone balance in plants is:

(a) Senescence
(b) Abscission
(c) Photorespiration
(d) Ripening

None

132. Assertion (A): The Cycas have pinnate leaves for a few years, while in Conifers, the leaves have a needle like structure with reduced surface are (A)
Reason (R): The leaves have a sunken stoma, which reduces water loss from the surface of the leaves.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)

None

133. Read the following five statements and select the option with all correct statements:
(I) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise bare rock.
(II) Selaginella pteridophyte. is a homosporous
(III) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(IV) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(V) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on the sporophyte

(a) (II), (III), and (IV)
(b) (I), (IV), and (V)
(c) (II), (III), and (V)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)

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134. In Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem and then come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoot. These branches are called:

(a) Stolon

(b) Sucker

(d) Offset

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135. Consider the following set of plants: Funaria, Selaginella, Cycas, Marchantia, Riccia, Azolla, Salvinia, Polytrichum, Psilotum Anthoceros, How many of the above plants are heterosporous?

(a) Four
(c) Five
(b) Three
(d) Two

None

ZOOLOGY

136. A rasping organ for feeding called radula is present in the phylum

a) Echinodermata
b) Arthropoda
c) Mollusca
d) Chordata

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137. Which of the following characteristic distinguish arthropoda from annelids and molluscs?

a) An external skeleton made of chitin (a polysaccharide) and protein rather than a shell made chiefly of mineral salts
b) Subdivision of the legs into movable segments
c) Distinct group of muscles, derived from many body segments that move the separate part of the exoskeleton
d) All of the above

None

138. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system
b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex
c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworm and leeches are dioecious
d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods

None

139. Which of the following undergoes the meiosis -I division?

a) Primary spermatocytes
b) Secondary spermatocytes
c) Spermatids
d) Spermatogonia

None

140. Menstrual cycle is divided into different phases in which follicular phase is also known as

a) Secretory phase
b) Luteal phase
c) Proliferative phase
d) Menstrual phase

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141. Which of the following is a finger-like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening

(a) Oviduct
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons pubis
(d) Chorionic villi

None

142. Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Sex of the unborn child
d) All of these

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143. Which method is used to have a child through GIFT?

a) Transfer of embryo with upto 8 blastomeres in fallopian tube
b) Transfer of sperm and unfertilized oocyte in fallopian tube
c) Insertion of sperm into cytoplasm of oocyte through zona pellucida
d) Introduction of sperm into uterus

None

144. Select the incorrect statement regarding health

a) Health can be defined as absence of disease
b) Healthy people are more efficient at work
c) Health increases productivity
d) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality

None

145. Choose the incorrect statement from the given options

a) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic system
b) The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a healthy person through houseflies
c) Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm
d) Amoebiasis is a protozoan disease

None

146. Match the following

a) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(i)
b) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(iii)
c) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(i)
d) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)

None

147. Our immune system plays an important role in

a) Allergic reactions
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Organ transplantation
d) All of these

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148. Assertion (A): X-rays and γ-rays are called carcinogens
Reason (R): Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true

None

149. Phytoplankton belongs to the kingdom

(a) Plantae
(b) Protista
(c) Monera
(d) Fungi

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150. Alexander Fleming noticed the chemical produced by a mould could check the growth of bacterium on which he worke(d) The bacterium mentioned was

(a) Streptococcus
(c) Staphylococcus
(b) Streptobacillus
(d) Streptomyces

None

151. The enzyme used in laundry to clear oil stains is

(a) Lactase
(c) Pectinase
(b) Streptokinase
(d) Lipase

None

152. Methanogens are mostly present in

a) Anaerobic sludge of sewage and rumen of cattle
b) Primary sludge
c) The fermentation of toddy
d) Swiss cheese

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153. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon become extinct due to

a) Alien species invasion
b) Co-extinction
c) Habitat loss and fragmentation
d) Over exploitation

None

154. Major cause of cancer is

a) Polyploidy
b) Chromosomal aberration
c) Frame-shift mutation
d) Aneuploidy

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155. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in

a) Single gene
b) Two genes
c) Half of the chromosomes
d) Entire chromosome

None

156. When the volume of body fluid falls below normal, the ADH will

a) Decrease the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
b) Increases the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
c) Has nothing to do with permeability of convoluted tubule
d) Decreases permeability of proximal convoluted tubule

None

157. Which one of the following is a vasoconstrictor?

(a) Angiotensin II
(c) ANF
(b) Renin
(d) Histamine

None

158. Assertion (a): Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints
Reason (R): Synovial fluid is present here

a) Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)
c) (a) is true but (R) is false
d) (a) is false but (R) is true

None

159. In the exponential growth equation, N1=N0 ert, e represents

a) The base of geometric logarithms
b) The base of exponential logarithms
c) The base of natural logarithms
d) The base of number logarithms

None

160. Identify the incorrect statements about frog.
i. Oesophagus is short tube
ii. Tadpole is carnivorous
iii. Dorsal side of body is olive greenish in colour
iv. Hind brain consist of cerebellum and medulla oblongata

(a) II only
(b) I and iii
(c) I, ii and iii
(d) I, ii and iv

None

161. Assertion(A): Competitive Exclusion principle applies to those species who compete for the same resources for their
survival
Reason (R): Competition result in extinction if one species

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A Is false but R is true

None

162. Choose the correct statements.
i. Exponential growth occurs when resources are abundant
ii. Logistic growth results in J-shaped curve
iii. Carrying capacity is the maximum limit beyond which no further growth is possible.
iv. Logistic growth model is considered more realistic than exponential growth

(a) i, iii and iv
(c) iii only
(b) i, ii and iii
(d) i and iv

None

163. Ciliated epithelial cells are mainly present in

a) Bile duct and bronchioles
b) Fallopian tube and pancreatic duct
c) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
d) Salivary duct and pancreatic duct

None

164. In adipocytes, nucleus and cytoplasm are at

(a) Terminal
(b) Centre
(c) Periphery
(d) All of above

None

165. Which of the following are directly involved in systemic circulation?

a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle, left ventricle
b) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle
c) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
d) Left ventricle, aorta, inferior vena cava

None

166. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(a) Ecdysone
(c) Epinephrine
(b) Estriol
(d) Estradiol

None

167. Select the correct pair.

a) Corpus luteum – temporary endocrine gland
b) Thyroid – thymosins
c) Epiphysis cerebri – pituitary gland
d) Thymus gland – Collip’s hormone

None

168. Statement I: Interferons are proteins produced by infected cells in response to viral infections
Statement II: Interferons are members of large group of proteins called cytokines.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II are correct

None

169. A cross was performed between individuals with AABB and aabb genotypes. The F1 progeny were self-fertilise(d) What is the probability that the F2 progeny will have the same phenotype as their parents?

(a) 1/16

(b) 3/16

(d) 9/16

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170. The DNA that is isolated from desired organism and transferred from that organism to another by combining with vehicle DNA is

(a) Carrier DNA
(b) Amplified DNA
(c) Transform DNA
(d) Passenger DNA

None

171. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using which of the following?
1. dNTPs 2. Mg²+
3. dATPs 4. Ca²+

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

None

172. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) Transformation is the procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into host bacterium.
b) If many copies of target DNA are to be achieved, then it should be cloned in vector with high copy number.
c) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to ampicillin is transferred into E.coli cells, then the host cells become transformed into any antibiotic resistant cells.
d) Presence of many recognition sites in the vector will generate several DNA fragments which may complicate gene cloning

None

173. Multiple alleles are present

a) on different chromosomes
b) at the same locus of the chromosome
c) at different loci on the same chromosome
d) on non-sister chromatids

None

174. An individual with XxYy genotype is producing four types of gametes as XY, Xy, xY, xy by meiosis. If the frequency of these gametes is 25% each, then, it explains

a) Mutations
b) Independent assortment
c) Incomplete linkage
d) Complete linkage

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175. In a fish, gold skin colour (G) is dominant to black skin colour (g) and split tail fin (S) is dominant to single tail fin (s). A breeder crosses a male fish having GgSs genotype with a female fish having ggSs genotype. Determine the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny.

(a) 3:1
(c) 3:1:3:1
(b) 9:7
(d) 9:3:3:1

None

176. Whale, seal and shark show which of the following?

a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Natural selection
d) Hybridisation

None

177. Which of the following is incorrect regarding genetic drift?

a) Mechanism for evolution of new species
b) Founder effect is a special case
c) Random change in allele frequency in a population
d) Significant only in large population

None

178. Organic compounds required for origin of life were

a) Urea and amino acids
b) Proteins and amino acids
c) Urea and nucleic acids
d) Proteins and nucleic acids

None

179. At a particular locus, frequency of allele ‘A’ is 0.7 and that of allele ‘a’ is 0.3. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

(a) 0.42
(c) 0.49
(b) 0.21
(d) 0.9

None

180. Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicates that

a) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
b) Frogs will have gills in the future
c) Frogs uses gills for respiration
d) Frogs evolved from Piscean ancestor

None

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