NEET INTRODUCTORY TEST 1 (29.03.2025)

1. The test is of 2 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

2. A person observes that the full lengh of a train subtends an angle of 15^°.If the distance between the train and the person is 3 km, the length of the train,calculated using parallax method, in metres is

(a) 45
(b) 45 π
(c) 250 π
(d) 250

7. A physical quantity X is related to four measurable quantities a, b, c and d as follows 5 X = a²b3c2d-2

The percentage errors in the measurement of a, b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 2% and 4% respectively. What is the percentage error in quantity X?

(a) 15%
(b) 17%
(c) 21%
(d) 23%

8. In a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of length is 2% and that in the observation of the time-period is 3%. Then the maximum percentage error in determination of the acceleration due to gravity g is

(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 7%
(d) 8%

9. According to quantum mechanics, light travels in the form of packets and energy associated with each packet is E = hf where h is Planck’s constant and f is the frequency.
The dimensional formula for h is

(a) [M² L² T^-1]
(b) [M² L^-1 T²]
(c) [ML² T^-1]
(d) [ML^-2 T¹]

13. The force between two points charges placed in vacuum at distance 1 mm is 18 N. If a glass plate of thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 6, be kept between the charges then new force between them would be

(a) 18 N
(b) 108 N         
(c) 3 N
(d) 3×10^-6 N

14. A charge Q is divided in two parts Q₁ and Q₂ and these charges are placed at distance . There will be maximum repulsion between them, when

(a) Q₂ = (Q/R), Q₁= Q – (Q/R)
(b) Q₂ = (Q/3), Q₁= Q – (2Q/3)
(c) Q₂ = (Q/4), Q₁= Q – (3Q/4)
(d) Q₁ = Q₂ = Q/2

15. The permittivity ε₀ of vacuum is 8.86×10^-12 C²/N-m² and the dielectric constant of water is 81. The permittivity of water in C²/N-m² is

(a) 81×8.86×10^-12
(b) 8.86×10^-12
(c) (8.86×10^-12)/81
(a) 81/(8.86×10^-12)

17. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of with and electric field of intensity 2×10⁵N C^-1. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm is

(a) 8 mC
(b) 4 mC          
(c) 6 mC
(d) 2 mC

18. A positively charged pendulum is oscillating in a uniform electric field is shown in figure. Its time period of SHM as compared to that when it was uncharged. (mg>qE)

20. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed surface in units of N-m²/C are respectively 8×10³ and 4×10³. Then the total charge inside the surface is [where ε₀= permittivity constant]

21. A ring of mass m and radius R has four particles attached to the ring as shown in the figure. The centre of the ring is at origin. Find the CM of the system.

23. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are placed touching each other with their centres on a straight line. Their centre are marked P, Q and R The distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

26. The maximum velocity of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 7 mm is 4.4 m s^-1 .The period of oscillation is

(a) 100 s
(b) 0.01 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 0.1 s

29. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. When the particle is at a distance of 1 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then, its time period in second is

30. There is a simple pendulum hanging from the ceiling of lift. When the lift is standing still, the time period of pendulum is T. If the resultant acceleration becomes g/4, then the new time period of the pendulum is

(a) 0.8 T
(b) 0.25 T
(c) 2 T
(d) 4T

CHEMISTRY

31. Two elements X (at. mass 16) and Y (at. mass = 14) combine to form compounds A, B and C. The ratio of different masses of Y which combines with a fixed mass of X in A, B and C is 1:3: 5. If 32 parts by mass of X combines with 84 parts by mass of Y in B, then in C, 16 parts by mass of X will combine with

(a) 28 parts by mass of Y
(b) 70 parts by mass of Y
(c) 32 parts by mass of Y
(d) 56 parts by mass of Y

32. 8 g of sodium chloride was allowed to react with 9.8 g of sulphuric acid. 12.0 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and gaseous hydrogen chloride were formed. Calculate the mass of the gas formed.

(a) 36 g
(b) 3.6 g
(c) 3.4 g
(d) 6.2 g

33. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5% by mass (atomic mass of Se = 78.4amu). Then, the minimum. molecular mass of enzyme which contains not more than one Se atom is

(a) 1.568 x 10⁴ amu
(b) 1.568 x 10⁷ amu
(c) 1.568 x 10³ amu
(d) 1.568 x 10⁶ amu

34. The maximum number of molecules are present in

(a) 15 L of H₂ gas at S.T.P.
(b) 5 L of N₂ gas at S.T.P.
(c) 0.5 g of H₂ gas
(d) 10 g of O₂ gas

35. If 10²¹ molecules are removed from 100 mg CO₂, then number of moles of CO₂ left are

(a) 6.1 x 10^-4
(b) 2.8 x 10^-3
(c) 2.28 x 10^-3
(d) 1.36 x 10^-2

36. 6 g magnesite mineral on heating liberated carbon dioxide which measures 1.12 L at STP. What is the percentage purity of mineral?

(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

37. Consider three hypothetical ionic compounds AB, A₂B and A₂B₃ where in all the compounds, B is in -2 oxidation state and A has a variable oxidation state. What is the correct order of lattice energy of these compounds?

(a) A₂B > AB > A₂B₃      
(b) A₂B₃ > AB > A₂B
(c) AB > A₂B > A₂B₃      
(d) A₂B₃ > A₂B > AB

38. If Avogadro number Na is changed from 6.022 x 10²³ mol^-l to 6.022 x 10²⁰ mol^-l, this would change

a) the mass of one mole of carbon
b) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation
c) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
d) the definition of mass in units of grams.

39. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂ When 0.1 mole of XY₂ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

(a) 40,30
(b) 60, 40
(c) 20,30
(d) 30, 20

40. An unknown chlorohydrocarbon has 3.55% of chlorine. If each molecule of the hydrocarbon has one chlorine atom only, chlorine atoms present in 1 g of chlorohydrocarbon are (Atomic wt. of Cl = 35.5 u; Avogadro constant = 6.023 x 10²³ mol^-l)

(a) 6.023 x 10²¹
(b) 6.023 x 10²³
(c) 6.023 x 10²⁰
(d) 6.023 x 10⁹

41. The places that were left empty by Mendeleev in his periodic table were for

(a) aluminium and silicon
(b) gallium and germanium
(c) arsenic and antimony
(d) molybdenum and tungsten.

42. Which of the following expressions is correct?

(a) v = a(z – b)
(b) v² = a(z – b)²
(c) v = a²(z – b)²
(d) v² = a²(z – b)²

43. Which one of the following is a metalloid?

(a) Phosphorus
(b) Antimony
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Bismuth

44. The electronic configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵ represents

(a) electronegative element
(b) an element from 18^th group
(c) 4^th period and 5^th group
(d) none of these.

45. Which one pair of atoms or ions will have same configuration?

(a) F⁺ and Ne
(b) Li⁺ and He^–
(c) Na and K
(d) Cl^– and Ar

46. The size of isoelectronic species F^–, Ne, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ is affected by

(a) nuclear charge (Z)
(b) interelectronic repulsion in the valence shell
(c) valence principal quantum number (n)
(d) none of these factors.

47. In any period, the valency of an element with respect to hydrogen

a) increases one by one from IA to VIIA
b) decreases one by one from IA to VIIA
c) increases one by one from IA to IVA and then decreases from VA to VIIA one by one
d) decreases one by one from IA to IVA and then increases from VA to VIIA one by one.

48. Which of the following oxides is most basic?

(a) Bi₂O₃ 
(b) SeO₂
(c) Al₂O₃
(d) Sb₂O₃

49. Which oxide of N is isoelectronic with CO₂? 2

(a) NO₂
(b) NO
(c) N₂O
(d) N₂O₃

50. From the following electronic configuration which will have the highest electron affinity?

(a) 1s² 2s² 2p³
(b) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
(c) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵      
(d) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³

51. Which of the following is the most stable carbonium ion?

(a) C₆ H₅-CH₂
(b) CH₃-CH₂
(c) C₆ H₅-CH₂-CH₂
(d) C₆ CH₅-CH-C₆ H₅

52. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂=CH-CI is due to

(a) inductive effect                     
(b) resonance stabilisation
(c) electromeric effect                 
(d) electronegativity

53. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(a) BCI₃
(b) CH₃ OH
(c) NH₃
(d) AICI₄^–

54. The compound that does not give a blue colour in Lassaigne’s test is

(a) aniline
(b) glycine
(c) hydrazine
(d) urea

55. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by

(a) vacuum distillation                
(b) steam distillation
(c) fractional distillation             
(d) none of these

56. The enolic form of a acetone contains

(a) 8 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(b) 9 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 2 lone pair
(c) 9 σ-bonds, 2 π-bonds and 1 lone pair
(d) 10 σ-bonds, 1 π-bonds and 1 lone pair

57. Common name of the compound C₆ H₅ CHO is

(a) anisole
(b) benzaldehyde
(c) salicylaldehyde
(d) none of these

58. Geometry of methyl free radical is

(a) pyramidal
(b) plana
(c) tetrahedral
(d) linear

59. The purification of naphthalene can be done by

(a) filtration
(b) sublimation
(c) crystallization
(d) evaporation

60. Two substances having slightly different solubility can be separated by

(a) distillation   
(b) fractional distillation
(c) crystallizatio
(d) fractional crystallization

BIOLOGY

61. In Drosophila, sex determination mechanism is

(a) XX-XO
(b) ZZ-ZW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XY-XO

62. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZW-ZZ         
(b) ZZ-WW
(c) XX-XY      
(d) XO-XX.

63. Haplo-diploid sex determination is observed in

(a) grasshopper   
(b) hen
(c) Drosophila
(d) honey bee.

64. Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal recessive gene. What is the genotype of given parents?

(a) AA, aa
(b) aa, AA
(c) aa, Aa
(d) Aa, Aa

65. Process that leads to variation in DNA is/are

(a) recombination
(b) linkage
(c) mutation
(d) both (a) and (c).

66. A person with karyotype of XXY is affected by

(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Thalassemia.

67. _________is a point mutation.

(a) Sickle cell anaemia
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Down’s syndrome

68. Sex determination in grasshoppers, humans and Drosophila is similar because

a) females are heterozygous
b) males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes
c) all males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species
d) the ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms.

69. Sex chromosomes of female is heteromorphic and male is homomorphic in

(a) human beings
(b) birds
(c) honey bees
(d) all of these.

70. Which is incorrect about colour blindness?

a) This is due to defect in either red or green cone of eye resulting in failure to discriminate between red and green colour.
b) A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless her mother is a carrier and her father is colour blind.
c) If female has X^CX, then it is called carrier but when male has X^CY then it will be colour blind.
d) Out of total population of son of carrier woman, 25% have chances of being colour blind.

71. For a haemophilic boy, the chromosome number will be

(a) 46
(b) 45
(c) 44
(d) 42.

72. Thalassemia and phenylketonuria are disorders due to

(a) recessive autosomal genes
(b) dominant autosomal genes
(c) dominant sex genes
(d) recessive sex genes.

73. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn for the character.

(a) The female parent is heterozygous.
(b) The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character.
(c) The trait under study could not be colour blind.
(d) The male parent is homozygous dominant

74. Assertion: XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of female heterogamety and is found in
       Reason: Male heterogamy is seen in moths where males produce two different types of gametes.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.

75. Among the given groups of characters, identify the group with recessive characters only?

(a) Dwarf, white flower at terminal position
(b) Dwarf, white flower at axial position
(c) Dwarf, violet colour of flower
(d) Round and yellow seeds, terminal flowers

76. A plant heterozygous dominant for round seeds was crossed with a plant of wrinkled seeds. Which of the progenies agree with the expected result?

(a) 180 round and 300 wrinkled
(b) 305 round and 301 wrinkled
(c) 301 round and 1000 wrinkled
(d) 400 round and 300 wrinkled

77. How many types of gametes are found in F₁ progeny of cross between AABBCC and aabbcc?

(a) 3 
(b) 8
(c) 27
(d) 64

78. Genotype is

(a) genetic composition of many organisms
(b) genetic composition of plastids
(c) genetic composition of germ cells
(d) genetic composition of an individual.

79. In classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use

(a) pod length
(b) seed shape
(c) flower position
(d) seed colour.

80. A pure tall plant can be differentiated from a hybrid tall plant

(a) by measuring length of plant
(b) by spraying gibberellins
(c) if all plants are tall after self-pollination
(d) if all plants are dwarf after self-pollination

81. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.


A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d)-(iv)
B) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
D) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

82. Assertion: During mitotic anaphase, centromere of each chromosome splits and chromatids separate.
       Reason: During anaphase, chromatids move to opposite poles.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.

83. Identify the given mitotic phases of cell cycle


A) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Prophase
B) (a)-Anaphase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Telophase
C) (a)-Telophase, (b)-Metaphase, (c)-Prophase, (d)-Anaphase
D) (a)-Metaphase, (b)-Prophase, (c)-Telophase, (d)-Anaphase

84. When a cell has a stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

(a) G₂/M
(b) G₁/M
(c)G₁/S
(d)M/G₁

85. During which phase(s) of the cell cycle, the amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

(a)G₂ and M
(b)Only G₂
(c)G₁ and S
(d)G₀ and G₁

86. _________________is the best stage to observe the shape, size, and number of chromosomes

(a) Prophase   
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase

87. In which of the following stages, a chromosome is minimum coiled?

(a) Metaphase
(b) Anaphase
(c) Interphase
(d) Telophase

88. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: At the end of prophase, cell do not show Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus.
Statement II: The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the end of first phase of mitosis.

a) Both statements I and II are correct.
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
c) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

89. How many mitotic divisions must have a cell undergo to produce 32 cells?

(a) 32
(b) 16
(c) 5
(d) 10

90. Syncytium formation occurs if

a) No karyokinesis takes place
b) Both karyokinesis and cytokinesis are prevented
c) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
d) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

91. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes in

(a) prophase
(b) telophase
(c) anaphase
(d) metaphase.

92. As the prophase comes to an end, which of the following can be seen in the cell?

a) Nucleolus
b) Formation of spindle fibres
c) ER and Golgi complex
d) Nuclear membrane

93. Mitosis occurs in

a) haploid individuals
b) diploid individuals
c) both (A) and (B)
d) in bacteria only.

94. Identify the correct statement with regard to G₁ phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

a) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
b) Reorganisation of all cellular components takes place.
c) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
d) Nuclear division takes place.

95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This process occurs at the end of

(a) M phase
(b) G₁ phase
(c) S phase
(d) G₂ phase.

96. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is

(a) G₁ S G₂ M
(b) M  G₁ G₂ S
(c) G₁  G₂ S M
(d) S G₁ G₂ M

97. There are 14 chromosomes in each cell and 2C DNA after M-phase in a plant. Find out the correct match in the following table.


A) (a) and (c) are correct.
B) (a) and (b) are correct.
C) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
D) (b), (c) and (d) are correct

98. In cell cycle, during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

(a) Telophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase

99. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases or stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

a) C-karyokinesis
b) D- synthetic phase
c) A- cytokinesis
d) B- metaphase

100. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane reappears in

(a) telophase
(b) prophase
(c) metaphase
(d) anaphase.