NEET MOCK TEST VI (03.04.2025)

Welcome to your NEET MOCK TEST VI (03.04.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

Important Instructions:

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

1. The radius of electron’s second stationary orbit in Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be

(a) R/3
(b) 2.25 R
(c) 3 R
(d) 9 R

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2. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its kinetic energy becomes equal to its potential energy is

None

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-III,C -IV, D-II
(c) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
(d) A-II, B-I.C-IV, D-III

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6. A prism of refractive index and angle of prism A is placed in the position of minimum angle of deviation. If minimum angle of deviation is also A, then in terms of refractive, A = ________

None

(a) 7.5 MeV
(b) 9.0 MeV
(c) 8.0 MeV
(d) 8.5 MeV

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8. Resistance of the wire is measured as 2Ω and 3Ω at 10°C and 30°C respectively. Temperature co-coefficient of resistance of the material of the wire is:

(a) 0.033⁰C^-1(b) – 0.033⁰C^-1(c) 0.011⁰C^-1(d) 0.055⁰C^-1.

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9. A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a distance of 10 m in t s, the distance travelled by the toy in the next t s will be:

(a) 10m
(b) 20m
(c) 30m
(d) 40m

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10. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum speed of car will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34. [Take g = 10 ms^-2]

(a) 3.4 m/s
(b) 22.4 m/s
(c) 13 m/s
(d) 17 m/s

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12. A source supplies heal to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increases

(a) 1200 W
(b) 600 W
(c) 500 W
(d) 800 W

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14. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam incident normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach on the face BC if

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15. If the density of a small planet is the same as that of earth, while the radius of the planet is 0.2 times that of the earth, the gravitational acceleration on the surface of the planet is

(a) 0.2 g
(b) 0.4 g
(c) 2 g
(d) 4 g

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16. The work function of a metallic substance is 5 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately

a) 1.6 × 10⁷Hz
b) 8.86 × 10¹⁵Hz
c) 9.68 × 10¹⁷Hz
d) 1.2 × 10¹⁵Hz

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17. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m and at the same time another ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms^-1. Then the distance from the top of the tower, at which the two balls meet is

(a) 68.4 m
(b) 48.4 m
(c) 18.4 m
(d) 78.4 m

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18. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system from P is

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19. At the centre of a cubical box +Q charge is placed. The value of total flux that is coming out a wall is

a) Q/ε_°
b) Q/ 3ε_°
c) Q/ 4ε_°
d) Q/ 6ε_°

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20. A particle moves under the effect of a force F = cx from x = 0 to x = x₁, the work done in the process is

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21. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure exerted by a gas on the walls is measured as

(a) rate of change of momentum imparted to the walls per second per unit area.
(b) momentum imparted to the walls per unit area
(c) change of momentum imparted to the walls per unit area.
(d) change in momentum per unit volume

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22. The fundamental frequency of a closed end organ pipe is n. Its length is doubled and radius is halved. Its frequency will become nearly

(a) n/2
(b) n/3
(c) n
(d) 2n

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23. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air = 1m/s. the viscosity of air is 8×10^-5 poise. The viscous force on it is

a) 45.2 × 10^-4dyne
b) 101.73 × 10^-5dyne
c) 16.95 × 10^-4dyne
d) 16.95 × 10^-5dyne

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24. A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current supplied by the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in other case when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be:

(a) 0.4 A and 0.2 A
(b) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
(c) 0.1 A and 0.2 A
(d) 0.2 A and 0.1 A

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25. Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at 20°C. The mass of water that will be present when the water acquires a temperature of 90°C (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g) is

(a) 24.83 gm
(b) 24 gm
(c) 36.6 gm
(d) 30 gm

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26. Electromotive force is the force which is able to maintain a constant

(a) potential difference
(b) power
(c) resistance
(d) current

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27. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B, has the components of velocity along B as well as perpendicular to B. The path of the charge particle will be

(a) helical path with the axis perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field B
(b) straight along the direction of magnetic field B
(c) helical path with the axis along magnetic field B
(d) circular path

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28. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency cd in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is

a) NABRω
b) NAB
c) NABR
d) NABω

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29. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is

(a) 16J
(b) 8J
(c) 32 J
(d) 24 J

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30. The effective capacitance between the points P and Q of the arrangement shown in the figure is

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31. A glass rod 20 cm long is clamped al the middle. It is set into the longitudinal vibration. If the emitted sound frequency is 4000 Hz, the velocity of sound in glass will be

(a) 2800 m/s
(b) 3200 m/s
(c) 1600 m/s
(d) 2000 m/s

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32. In bringing an electron towards another electron, the electrostatic potential energy of system

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) becomes zero
(d) remains unchanged

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33. A conducting loop of radius 10/√π cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.5T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.5 s at a steady rate. The induced emf in the circular loop at 0.25 s is:

(a) emf=1mV
(b) emf=10mV
(c) emf=100mV
(d) emf=5mV

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34. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a particular position, the electric field is along the negative z-axis and magnetic field is along the positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is:

(a) at 45° angle from positive y-axis
(b) negative y-axis
(c) positive z-axis
(d) positive y-axis

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35. Identify the solar cell characteristics from the following options:

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36. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area and Young’s modulus is is subjected to a load of 250 N, then the elongation in the wire will be:

a) 6.25 × 10^-3 m
b) 4 × 10^-4 m
c) 6.25 × 10^-6 m
d) 4 × 10^-3 m

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37. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along the

(a) radius of orbit
(b) tangent to the orbit
(c) line parallel to plane of rotation
(d) line perpendicular to plane of rotation

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38. Kirchhoff’s I and II laws are based on conservation of

(a) energy and charge respectively
(b) charge and energy respectively
(c) mass and charge respectively
(d) None of these

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39. Use of eddy currents is done in the following except

(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) electric brakes
(c) induction motor
(d) dynamo

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40. A satellite of mass m is put into a circular orbit of height h from the surface of the earth (mass = M_e, radius = R_e) The orbital speed of satellite is

None

41. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement.

(a) The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous.
(b) A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non- uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it.
(c) A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines of force, the path of the particle is a circle.
(d) There is no change in the energy of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field although a magnetic force is acting on it.

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42. A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns and 4 cm² face area is placed with its axis parallel to a magnetic field which decreases by 10 ^-2Wbm^-2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:

(a) 400Mv
(b) 200mV(c) 4mV
(d) 0.4mV

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43. In a Young’s double slit experiment, light of 500 nm is used to produce an interference pattern. When the distance between the slits is 0.05 mm, the angular width (in degree) of the fringes formed on the distance screen is close to:

(a) 0.17°
(b) 0.57°
(c) 1.7°
(d) 0.07°

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44. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from air to glass is , then Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is π/2 – θ_BStatement II: The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan^-1 (μ_g) where μ_g is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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45. A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed u such that it hits the target on the ground at a distance R from it. If t₁ and t₂are the values of the time taken by it to hit the target in two possible ways, the product is t₁t₂

(a) R/4g
(b) R/g
(c) R/2g
(d) 2R/g

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CHEMISTRY

46. In the Friedel Craft’s acylation reaction, the effective electrophile is

(a) RCOCl⁺(b) AIC1₃(c) RCOCI
(d) RCO⁺.

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47. A reaction proceeds by first order, 75% of this reaction was completed in 32 min. The time required for 50% completion is (in minute)

(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 24

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48. Consider the following statements
I. The radius of an anion is larger than that of the parent atom.
II. The ionization energy generally increases with increasing atomic number in a period.
III. The electronegativity of an element is the tendency of an isolated atom to attract an electron.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) I alone
(b) II alone
(c) l and II
(d) II and III

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50. Which of the following statement is not correct about the characteristics of cathode rays?

(a) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
(b) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electrical or magnetic field.
(c) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray tube.
(d) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube.

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51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ?

(a) Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F^– (increasing ionic size)
(b) B<C<O<N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
(c) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(d) Li<Na< K< Rb (increasing metallic radius)

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52. Choose the correct stability order of group 13 elements in their + 1 oxidation state.

(a) Al < Ga < ln < TI
(b) Tl < ln < Ga < Al
(c) Al < Ga < TI < ln
(d) (d) A I<Tl < Ga < ln

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53. Which one of the following group-15 hydrides is the strongest reducing agent?

(a) AsH₃(b) BiH₃(c) PH₃(d) SbH₃

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54. Haemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass. The number of Fe atoms in 3.3 g of haemoglobin is: (Given: Atomic mass of Fe is 56u, N_A in 6.022×10²³ mol^-1 )

(a) 1.21 × 10⁵
(b) 12.0 × 10⁵
(c) 1.21 × 10²⁰
(d) 3.4 × 10²²

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55. Statement I: Different number of electron pairs arc present in resonance structures.
Statement II : Resonance structures do not differ in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.

(a) Both statement I and II are correct.
(b) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect

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56. The limiting molar conductivities of HCI, CH₃COONa and NaCI are respectively 425,90 and 125 mho cm² mol^-1 at 25°C. The molar conductivity of 0.1 M CH₃COOH solutions is 7.8 mho cm² mol^-1 at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M acetic acid solution at the same temperature is

(a) 0.10
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.15
(d) 0.03 125 mho cm² mol^-1

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57. Assertion: Protonation of a carbonyl group increases its electrophilic character.
Reason: Protonation of a carbonyl group involves addition of an electrophile on nucleophilic oxygen.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.

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58. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

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59. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃ is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates completely, molar concentration of sodium ions, Na⁺ and carbonate ions, are respectively (Molar mass of Na₂CO₃ = 106 g mol^-1)

(a) 0.955 M and 1.910 M
(b) 1.910M and 0.955 M
(c) l.90Mand I.910M
(d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M

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60. In which alkyl halide, S_N2 mechanism is favoured maximum?

(a) CH₃CI
(b) CH₃CH₂CI
(c) (CH3)₂CHCI
(d) (CH₃)₃C-CI

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61. Equilibrium constant K changes with temperature. At 300 K, equilibrium constant is 25 and at 400 K, it is 10. Hence, backward reaction will have energy of activation

(a) equal to that of forward reaction.
(b) less than that of forward reaction.
(c) greater than that of forward reaction.
(d) given values are not sufficient to explain given statement.

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64. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom?

(a) n = 5, l= 3, m = 0, s= + 1/2
(b) n = 3, l = 2, m =-3, s=-1/2
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s= -1/2
(d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2

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65. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism?

a) CH₃ – CO – C₂H₅
b) C₂H₅ – S – C₂H₅
c) CH₃ – O – CH
d) CH₃ – O – C₂H₅

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67. IUPAC name of is

a) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
b) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
c) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) chloride
d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride

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68. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume and simultaneously heated to twice in initial temperature, the change in entropy (ΔS ) is

a) C_V In2

b) C_P In2

c) R In 2

d) (C_V -R) In 2

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69. The geometry of and are Ni(CO)₄ and [Ni(PPh₃)₂ Cl₂] are

(a) both square planar
(b) tetrahedral and square planar
(c) both tetrahedral
(d) None of these

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70. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb calorimeter, and w corresponds to

(a) ΔU < 0, w = 0
(b) ΔU < 0, w < 0
(c) ΔU > 0, w = 0
(d) ΔU >0, w > 0

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71. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to different carbon atoms in alkanes has the order

(a) Tertiary> Primary > Secondary
(b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary

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72. In most cases, for a rise of 10 K temperature the rate constant is doubled to tripled. This is due to the reason that

(a) collision frequency increases by a factor of 2 to 3.
(b) fraction of molecules possessing threshold energy increases by a factor of 2 to 3.
(c) Activation energy is lowered by a factor of 2 to 3.
(d) none of these

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73. Which of the following colligative property can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or colloids) with greatest precision?

(a) Osmotic pressure
(b) Elevation of boiling point
(c) Depression of freezing point
(d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

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74. Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde?

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75. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is the operation of:

(a) Electrostatic attractions
(b) van der Waals forces
(c) Dipole – Dipole interactions
(d) Hydrogen bonding

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76. Assertion : Threshold frequency is the maximum frequency required for the ejection of electron from the metal surface.
Reason : Threshold frequency is characteristic of a metal.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
d) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

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79. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?

a) IF₇< IF₅ <CIF₃< XeF₂
b) IF₇< XeF₂ < CIF₂< IF₅
c) IF₇< CIF₃< XeF₂< IF₅
d) IF₇< XeF₂ < IF₅ < CIF₃

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80. An open beaker of water in equilibrium with water vapour is in a sealed container. When a few grams of glucose are added to the beaker of water, the rate at which water molecules:

(a) leaves the vapour increases
(b) leaves the solution increases
(c) leaves the solution decreases
(d) leaves the vapour decreases

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83. Which element is not present in Nessler’s reagent?

(a) Mercury
(b) Potassium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Iodine

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85. Statement I: In secondary structure of DNA adenine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine whereas cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine.

Statement II: RNA molecules are of three types m-RNA, r-RNA and t-RNA and they all perform different functions.

(a) Both statement I and II are correct.
(b) Both statement 1 and II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

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87. Statement I: Compounds containing -CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids.
Statement II: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with Li A1H₄ .

a) Both statement I and II are correct.
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.

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88. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted in the given figure. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol^-1 is:

(a) 2/R
(b) 1/R
(c) R
(d) 2R

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89. The incorrect statement is:

(a) Manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral
(b) In manganate and permanganate ions, the -bonding takes place by overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen and d- orbitals of manganese
(c) Manganate and permanganate ions are paramagnetic
(d) Manganate ion is green in colour and permanganate ion is purple in colour

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BOTANY

91. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

(a) Housefly
(b) Firefly
(c) Grasshopper
(d) Cockroach

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92. Which of the following statements are correct about the leaf?
(i) Leaf is a lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the stem.
(ii) It develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
(iii) Leaves originate from root apical meristems and arranged in an acropetal order.
(iv) They are the most important vegetative organs for reproduction.
(v) A typical leaf consists of 4 main parts

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(d) All of these

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93. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called

(a) Complementary cells
(b) Subsidiary cells
(c) Bulliform cells
(d) Lenticels

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94. Statement I: Synapsis of homologous chromosome occurs during prophase I.
Statement II: Nucleoli may reappear in telophase I.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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95. ADP is phosphorylated and NADP is reduced, this happens during.

(a) dark phase of photosynthesis
(b) light phase of photosynthesis
(c) Photorespiration
(d) Calvin cycle

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96. Assertion : Mitosis division results in the production of diploid cells.
Reason : Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.

a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

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97. Filiform apparatus is found in

(a) synergids
(b) anther wall
(c) secondary nucleus
(d) egg cell

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98. Statement I: The events ’from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enters the ovule’ are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
Statement II: Pollen-pistil interaction is mediated by chemical components of the ovule.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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99. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development gynaecomastia, and is sterile?

(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Edward syndrome
(d) Down’s syndrome

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100. Statement I: Stop codons for tRNAs are UAA, UAG, UGA. Statement II: tRNAs are not specific for each amino acid.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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101. Statement I: Genetic diversity comprises of different type of gene in different type species as well as same species.
Statement II: Amphibian species diversity is more in Eastern Ghats than the Western Ghat.

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102. Assertion: After 24 hours, toddy becomes unpalatable.
Reason: The fermentation of toddy is continued by naturally occurring yeasts.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

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103. Organisms which are indicator of pollution of air are

(a) Mosses
(b) Lichens
(c) Mushrooms
(d) Puffballs

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104. Statement I: Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and tapetum.
Statement II: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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106. Species interaction with negative influence on both is referred to as

(a) amensalism
(b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
(d) competition

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108. Which of the following is a free living aerobic non- photosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Azospirillum
(d) Nostoc

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109. C₄ acid, formed in the mesophyll of C₄ plants leaf during photosynthesis is

(a) OAA or malic acid or aspartic acid
(b) pyruvic acid
(c) succinic acid
(d) fumaric acid

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110. Azotobacter and Beijerinckia are the examples of

(a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(c) ammonifying bacteria
(d) disease causing bacteria

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111. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA replication

(a) Leading strand is formed 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(b) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(c) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 5’⟶ 3’ direction
(d) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation in 3’⟶ 5’ direction

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112. The C₄ plants arc photosynthetically more efficient than C₃ plants because:

(a) the CO₂ compensation point is more
(b) CO₂ generated during photorespiration is trapped and recycled through PEP carboxylase
(c) the CO₂ efflux is not prevented
(d) they have more chloroplasts

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113. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers is

(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) consumer food chain
(d) predator food chain

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114. Independent assortment of genes does not lake place when

(a) genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(b) genes are linked and located on same chromosomes
(c) genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
(d) All the above

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115. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because

(a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high

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117. A small segment of DNA contains the base sequence CGT. If an mRNA transcript is made that includes this DNA sequence, what will be the anticodon on the tRNA that will bind to the corresponding mRNA codon for this DNA triplet?

(a) CGT
(b) GCA
(c) CGU
(d) GCT

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118. Phosphofructokinase is inhibited by H⁺ ions and hence the rate of glycolysis:

(a) increases when pH falls
(b) decreases when pH falls significantly
(c) neither increase or decrease
(d) either increase or decrease

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119. Which one of the following is incorrect about the activities associated with PS-I and PS-II in non-cyclic photophosphorylation?

a) Water is oxidised in PS -II, but not in PS -I.
b) Photons (light) are needed to activate both PS -I and PS-II
c) Photolysis of water, formation of ATP + NADPH + H occur.
d) Production of NADPH + H⁺is associated with PS – II, but not with PS -I. 5’⟶ 3’

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120. The C₄ plants arc photosynthetically more efficient than C₃ plants because:

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121. Which is the correct combination?

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122. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below.

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123. Which of the following is not currently a major cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?

(a) Overexploitation
(b) Global warming
(c) Habitat destruction
(d) Introduction of foreign predators and disease

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124. ABO blood group system is due to

(a) multifactor inheritance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) epistasis

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125. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?

(a) Yeast – statins
(b) Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
(d) Aspergillus niger – citric acid

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127. Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive higher levels are fewer in number.

Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as food at the higher level.

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130. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(i) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote.
(ii) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3N while gymnospermic one is N.
(iii) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm.
(iv) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte.
(v) Endosperm develop at the chalazal end.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only(iii)
(c) (iv) and (v)
(d) only (ii)

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131. Assertion: Hybrid is formed by cross between two organisms that are different in one or more than one traits.

Reason: Mendel crossed two plants differing in one trait to obtain F₁ plants which is a monohybrid cross. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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132. Statement I: DNA fingerprinting is very well known for its application in paternity testing in case of disputes.
Statement II: It employs the principle of DNA polymorphism. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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134. Study the pedigree chart given below: What does it show?

(a) Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
(c) Inheritance of a recessive sex – linked disease like haemophilia
(d) Inheritance of a sex -linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria

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136. Assertion: CO₂ diffuses only from tissue to alveoli and not in reverse direction.

Reason: CO₂ is 10 times more soluble than O₂. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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137. In which of the following option the partial pressure of oxygen or carbon-di-oxide is correctly described?

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138. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait:

(a) insect resistance
(b) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
(c) high protein content
(d) high vitamin-A content

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139. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for:

(a) Study of enzymes
(b) Genetic transformation
(c) DNA sequencing
(d) Genetic Fingerprinting

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140. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

(a) amino groups on the amino acids
(b) R groups on the amino acids
(c) amino acid sequences within the protein molecule
(d) peptide bonds

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141. Members from how many given phylum possess external fertilization?
Hemichordata, Platyhelminthes, Ctenophora, Porifera, Echinodermata, Arthropoda

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

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142. Intercalated discs are the communication junctions between the cells of

(a) cardiac muscles
(b) striped muscles
(c) adipose tissue
(d) nerve and striated muscles

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143. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like proboscis gland is present?

(a) Hemichordata
(b) Chordata
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Annelida

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144. Mesorchium in frogs is associated with:

(a) Testes
(b) Kidney
(c) Brain
(d) Both(a)&(b)

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145. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are

(a) Disposable contraceptive devices
(b) Reusable contraceptives
(c) IUDs
(d) Implants

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146. Select the correct statements regarding oogenesis.
(i) It is initiated during the embryonic development stage when millions of oogonia are formed within each ovary.
(ii) Graafian follicle releases primary oocyte from the ovary by ovulation.
(iii) At puberty only 60,000 – 80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
(iv) Secondary oocyte within tertiary follicles grows in size and completes its second meiotic division.
(v) Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of zona pellucida.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) all the five statements

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147. Bulbourethral gland is present in

(a) Males and is another name for Uterus masculina
(b) Females and is another name for Bertholin’s gland
(c) Males and is another name for Cowper‘s gland
(d) None of these

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148. Assertion: Prolactin is also called the ‘milk ejection hormone’.
Reason: Oxytocin stimulates the smooth muscle contractions of the mammary glands.

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150. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following is to be expected?

a) The urine will be more concentrated
b) The urine will be more dilute
c) There will be no urine formation
d) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed

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151. Change over time within an evolutionary lineage (phyletic change).

a) is the only important evolutionary- process.
b) rarely occurs without geographic separation of populations.
c) is the main means by which new species arise.
d) cannot account for the proliferation of species.

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152. Read the following statements.
(i) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(ii) Echinoderms are triploblaslic and coelomale animals.
(iii) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(iv) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(v) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (ii).(iii) and (v) are correct
(b) (iii), (iv) and (v)are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i). (iv) and (v) are correct

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153. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

(a) Partial pressure of CO₂ can interfere with O₂ binding with haemoglobin
(b) Higher H⁺ cone, in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(c) Low Pco₂ in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(d) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O₂

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154. Arrange the following human ancestors in ascending order, from earliest to latest:
A. Homo erectus
B Australopithecus
C Homo hahilis
D. Homo neanderthelensis

(a) A-B-C-D
(b) B-A-C-D
(c) (c) B-C-A-D
(d) D-C-A-B

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155. When CO7 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes

(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper

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156. Which of the following is a single U shaped bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity and it is also included in the skull?

(a) Hyoid
(b) Malleus
(c) Sacrum
(d) Scapula

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157. Which endocrine gland plays important role in immunity?

(a) Spleen
(b) Thymus
(c) Pineal
(d) Adrenal medulla

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158. Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is false?

(a) It is secreted by -cells of Langerhans.
(b) It acts antagonistically to insulin.
(c) It decreases blood sugar level.
(d) The gland responsible for its secretion is heterocrine gland.

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159. Select the correct match of the types of organs given in column I with their role in excretion given in column II.

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160. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineered living organism?

(a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization

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161. Statement 1: Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level to prolactin.
Statement II: Prolactin stimulates the release of gonadotrophins. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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162. What is mode of bacterial resistance against antibiotics?

(a) Development of thick mucilaginous layer
(b) Alteration of cell membrane
(c) Mutation in bacteria
(d) All the above

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163. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements
(i) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal.
(ii) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.
(iii) Smaller the size of DNA fragment, larger is the distance it travels through it.
(iv) Pure DNA can be visualised directly by exposing to UV radiation. Choose correct answer from the options given below

(a) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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165. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart begins by the command from

(a) Purkinje fibres
(b) AV node
(c) chordae tendinae
(d) SA node

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166. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?

(a) Lecithin – A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.
(b) Palmitic acid – An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.
(c) Adenylic acid – Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.
(d) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule

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167. The voluntary response to the distension of urinary bladder is

(a) polyurea
(b) micturition
(c) mellitus
(d) menstruation

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168. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?

(a) WBC and serum
(b) all components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets

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169. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in:

(a) More concentrated urine
(b) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(c) No urine formation
(d) More diluted urine

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170. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a) myofibril
(b) sarcomere
(c) Z-band
(d) cross bridges

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171. Withdrawal of which hormone is the cause of menstruation?

(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) LH
(d) FSH

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172. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(i) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
(ii) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline, and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of bacteria) infection.
(iii) Several genes (called cellular oncogenes) have been identified in normal cells which when activated under certain conditions, could transformation of the cells.
(iv) The vaccine also generates memory – B and T cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
(v) HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes.

(a) (i) and (v)
(b) (ii)any
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of these

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173. Assertion : Interspecific competition is the only potent force in organic evolution.
Reason: Unexceptionally two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.

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174. Select the correct matching of a hormone,its function.

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175. Which of the given statements (i-iv) are correct about bioreactor?
(i) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for obtaining the desired product.
(ii) Raw materials are biological which are converted into specific products.
(iii) Slirred-tank reactor is horizontal in shape.
(iv) Large volume of culture cannot be processed.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these

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176. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation?

(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen
(b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
(c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

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177. Assertion: Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful.
Reason: Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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178. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
b) A-(i), B(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

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179. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

(a) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
(b) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
(c) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defence present at the time of birth.
(d) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.

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180. Read the following (i to v) statements and select the one option that contains both correct statements
(i) Z-line is present in the centre of the light band .
(ii) Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line
(iii) The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band
(iv) Light band contains only thin filaments
(v) Actin filaments are thicker as compared to the myosin filaments.

(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (v) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii)and(iv)

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