SMATEE TEST VI (05.04.2025)

Welcome to your SMATEE TEST VI (05.04.2025)

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ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed

PHYSICS

1. A ray of light in air is incident on a glass slab at an angle of incidence of 60°. When it travels through glass, it is deviated through 15°. What is the refractive index of the material of the glass slab?

(a) 1.275
(b) 1.225
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.5

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2. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents is

a) parallel current repels and antiparallel currents attract.
b) parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
c) both currents attract.
d) both currents repel.

None

3. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR circuit is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity

None

4. Work function of metal is

a) minimum energy required to free an electron from surface against coulomb forces
b) minimum energy required to free a nucleon
c) maximum energy required to eject an electron from electronic orbit
d) minimum energy to ionise an atom

None

5. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations has the smallest wavelength?

(a) Microwaves
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) X-rays
(d) Gamma rays

None

6. Which of the following motions is not simple harmonic?

a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
b) Motion of a simple pendulum
c) Motion of planet around the sun
d) Oscillation of liquid in a U-tube

None

7. During propagation of a plane progressive mechanical wave,

a) All the particles are vibrating in the same phase.
b) Amplitude of all the particles is equal.
c) Particles of the medium executes SHM
d) Wave velocity depends upon the nature of the medium.

None

8. The magnitude of induced emf during electromagnetic induction, is directly proportional to

a) electric flux
b) rate of change of magnetic flux
c) magnetic field
d) electric field

None

9. The value of 3.26×4.9 to the correct significant figure is

(a) 16.0
(b) 15.9
(c) 15.97
(d) 16.1

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10. The angular acceleration for a particle having angular displacement 𝜃=3𝑡3−9𝑡2is zero when t equals?

(a) 2 s
(b) 1 s
(c) 5 s
(d) 1/2 s

None

11. Which of the following is dimensionless?

a) Universal gas constant (R)
b) Universal gravitational constant (G)
c) Planck’s constant (h)
d) Refractive index of a medium

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12. If maximum tension of a string is 30 N and a mass of 4 kg is tied to its end against gravity, then

a) the string will hold the mass
b) the string will break
c) the string will execute SHM
d) none

None

13. Work done by a variable force is given by

None

14. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then which the following is not true

a) for elastic collision, e = 1
b) for perfectly elastic collision, e = 0
c) for inelastic collision, e > 1
d) all are true

None

15. 1 joule is equivalent to

(a) 10⁵ erg
(b) 10⁶ erg
(c) 10⁷ erg
(d) 10⁸ erg

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16. If the displacement of the particle along the x-axis is given by x=4t²+4, , the value of its velocity in m/s at t = 2s along the y-axis is

(a) 16
(b) 0
(c) 10
(d) 24

None

17. The most stable nucleus should have

(a) even number of protons and odd number of neutrons
(b) odd number of neutrons and odd number of protons
(c) even number of protons and even number of neutrons
(d) even number of neutrons and odd number of protons

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18. The radius of ₄Be⁸ nucleus will be

(a) 1.2 × 10^-15 m
(b) 2.4 × 10^-15 m
(c) 3.6 × 10^-15 m
(d) 4.8 × 10^-15 m

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19. The nucleus _nX^m emits one and one The resulting nucleus is

a) _nX^m-4
b) _n-2X^m-4
c) _n-3X^m-4
d) _n-1X^m-4

None

20. The shortest wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen is equal to the shortest wavelength of Balmer series of a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number 𝑍. The value of 𝑍 is

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6

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21. The ionization energy for H-atom is

a) 13.6 𝑒𝑉
b) 27.2 𝑒𝑉
c) 54.4 𝑒𝑉
d) 100 𝑒𝑉

None

22. Which of the following pairs are isotones?

(a) ₁H² and ₁H³
(b) ₃Li³ and ₁H³
(c) ₆C¹² and ₇N¹³
(a) ₁H¹ and ₂H⁴

None

23. Lyman series lies in the

(a) Ultraviolet region
(b) Visible region
(c) Near IR region
(d) Far IR region

None

24. How many numbers of neutrons are produced when uranium atom is bombarded with a slow moving neutron?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

None

25. In a nuclear reaction which of the following is conserved?

(a) Energy
(b) Spin
(c) Charge
(d) All of these

None

CHEMISTRY

26. The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography is/are

(a) silica gel
(b) quick lime
(c) magnesia
(d) None of above

None

27. Example of Vinylic halide is

a)

None

28. Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used to distinguish between.

a) Acid and Alcohol
b) Alkane and Alcohol
c) n-alkane and branched alkane
d) Ketones and Aldehydes

None

29. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃

None

30. Which of the following compounds undergo aldol condensation?

(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) Trimethylacetaldehyde
(d) Acetaldehyde

None

31. The product of Reimer-Tiemann reaction is a

(a) salicylaldehyde
(b) salicuclic acid
(c) hydroyamine
(d) nitroaldehyde

None

32. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives:

(a) m-bromophenol
(b) o- and p- bromophenol
(c) 2,4-dibromophenol
(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol

None

33. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism?

(a) CH₃O-CH₃(b) CH₃O-CH₂CH
(c) C₂H₅-S-C₂H₅
(d) CH₃CH₂CH₃

None

34. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium is

(a) Uno
(b) Uue
(c) Unp
(d) Uns

None

35. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

(a) CO₂(b) H₂O
(c) NH₃
(d) PF₅

None

36. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2

1) BrF₅ i. Square Pyramidal
2) NH₄⁺ ii. Tetrahedral
3) BF₃ iii. Trigonal Bipyramidal
4) SbCl₅ iv. Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i

None

37. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

None

38. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg

None

39. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

(a) [Ne] 3s¹(b) [Ne] 3s²3p¹(c) [Xe] 6s¹
(d) [Xe] 6s²

None

40. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium

None

41. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

(a) X₂ O
(b) P₂O
(c) PX₃(d) P₂X₃

None

42. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

(a) I > I⁺> I^–
(b) I > I^–> I⁺(c) I⁺> I^–> I
(d) I^– > I > I⁺

None

43. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of rea tants

None

44. Units of rate constant for first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity (M) are respectively

(a) sec^-1, M sec^-1
(b) sec^-1, M
(c) M sec^-1, sec^-1(d) M, sec^-1

None

45. For a reaction, the activation energies of forward and reverse reactions are equal when

(a) ∆H = 0
(b) ∆S = 0
(c) the order is zero
(d) there is no catalyst.

None

46. For the reaction, H_2(g) + Br_2(g) → 2HBr_(g), the reaction rate = k[H₂] [Br₍₂₎]^1/2. Which statement is true about this reaction?

(a) The reaction is of second order.
(b) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2.
(c) The unit of k is sec^-1.
(d) Molecularity of the reaction is 2.

None

47. For a reaction A + B → Products, the order w.r.t. A is 1 and w.r.t. B is 2. If concentrations of both are doubled, then rate increases by

(a) 4 times
(b) 6 times
(c) 8 times
(d) 2 times

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48. Rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 x 10^-2 mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of reactant. Half-life of the reaction is

(a) 7.53 min
(b) 0.383 min
(c) 23.1 min
(d) 8.73 min

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49. Arrhenius equation may not be represented as

None

50. Activation energy of a reaction is determined by

(a) plotting substrate – time graph
(b) plotting rate – time graph
(c) calculating rate constants at two different temperatures
(d) none of these.

None

BIOLOGY

51. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(a) Fibrous root
(b) Primary roots
(c) Prop roots
(d) Lateral roots

None

52. Tap root system is found in

(a) wheat
(b) mustard
(c) grass
(d) Monstera

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53. Select the group of plants that possess stilt roots

(a) Rhizophora, Hedera
(b) Pandanus, Ficus
(c) Ficus, Pisum
(d) Zea mays, Rhizophora

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54. _______develops from the plumule of the embryo of germinating seed

(a) Axillary bud
(b) Petiole
(c) Stem
(d) Root

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55. _______are the green stems of limited growth which have taken over the function of photosynthesis from leaves.

(a) phylloclades
(b) Cladodes
(c) phyllodes
(d) Stem thorn

None

56. In Opuntia, the function of photosynthesis is carried out by.

(a) cladode
(b) phyllode
(c) phylloclade
(d) stipules

None

57. Sweet potato is a modified

(a) stem
(b) Adventitious root
(c) Tap root
(d) rhizome.

None

58. The region of the stem where leaves are borne are called ______and ______are the portions between two_____

(a) Nodes, nodes and internodes
(b) nodes, internodes and nodes
(c) internodes, nodes and nodes
(d) internodes, internodes and nodes

None

59. The given figure shows the regions of root tip with labelling as A, B and (c) Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B and

a) A-Zone of elongation, B-Zone of meiosis, C Zone of mitosis.
b) A Zone of maturation, B Zone of meristematic activity, C-Zone of elongation.
c) A-Zone of mitosis, B-Zone of elongation, C Zone of root cap.
d) A-Region of maturation, B- Region of elongation, C -Zone of meristematic activity.

None

60. What type of growth are seen in roots

(a) phototropic
(b) ascending growth
(c) geotropic
(d) against gravity

None

61. What part of the stem are modified for support and climbing called tendrils

(a) nodes
(b) axillary bud
(c) terminal bud
(d) shoot apex

None

62. Pneumatophore are found in

(a) Rhizobium
(b) leguminous plants
(c) Rhizophora
(d) maize

None

63. Who proposed Theory of Biogenesis?

(a) Mendel
(b) Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Aristotle

None

64. Amino acids found in Miller and Urey experiment

a) Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid
b) Alanine, valine, aspartic acid
c) Valine, glycine, proline
d) Valine, glycine, leucine

None

65. Tendrils of cucurbits and thorns of bougainvillea are example of

a) Homologous organ
b) Analogous organ
c) Natural selection
d) Adaptive radiation

None

66. Remains or impression of hard parts of ancient organisms are preserved in which type of rocks

(a) Any type of rocks
(b) Igneous
(c) Metamorphic
(d) Sedimentary

None

67. When selective pressures select against two extremes of a trait, the population experiences

a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilising selection
d) Adaptive radiation

None

68. In Miller and Urey experiment, the ratio of Ammonia: Methane: Hydrogen is

(a) 2:1:2
(b) 2:2:1
(c) 1:2:2
(d) 1:2:1

None

69. Wooly Mammoth found deep frozen in Siberia ice is

(a) Unaltered fossil
(b) Petrified fossil
(c) Coprolites
(d) Mould fossil

None

70. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by

(a) Darwin
(b) Von baer
(c) Pasteur
(d) Haeckel

None

71. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of

a) Natural selection
b) Adaptive radiation
c) Analogous organs
d) Homologous organs

None

72. Theory of panspermia:

a) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
b) Creation of life from chemicals
c) Creation of life from pre-existing life
d) Creation of life from spores

None

73. Chemical evolution theory is also known as

a) Cosmozoic theory
b) Oparin- Haldane’s theory
c) Miller and Urey theory
d) Creation theory

None

74. What type of selection will be observed if the distribution of neck length shifted to favour individuals with long neck?

a) Stabilising selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Both A and C

None

75. Archaeopteryx fossil shows link between

a) Birds and fishes
b) Reptiles and mammals
c) Fishes and amphibians
d) Reptiles and birds

None

76. Which of the following is used to measure pollutants in the water body?

(a) Helium level in the water
(b) Calcium level
(c) BOD
(d) All of these

None

77. Bacillus thuringiencis kills the pest by releasing toxins in the

(a) Brain of pests
(b) Gut of pests
(c) Heart of pests
(d) Lungs of pests

None

78. Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?

(a) Aphids
(b) Grasshoppers
(c) Beetles
(d) All of these

None

79. The primary treatment of sewage fails to remove

(a) Sand particles
(b) Small pebbles
(c) Pathogens
(d) Plastics

None

80. Aspergillus niger produces

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Fumaric acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Citric acid

None

81. Integrated Pest Management discourages the use of

(a) Biological methods
(b) Chemical pesticides
(c) Mechanical methods
(d) All of these

None

82. Cyclosporin A drug is produced by

a) Trichoderma polysporum
b) Penicillium notatum
c) Manascus purpureus
d) Aspergillus niger

None

83. The first antibiotic was discovered by

(a) R Koch
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) A Fleming
(d) W Fleming

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84. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is

(a) Propane
(b) Methane
(c) Butane
(d) Carbon dioxide

None

85. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for

a) Biological control of plant disease
b) Killing insects
c) Controlling caterpillars
d) Producing antibiotics

None

86. Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

None

87. Which bacteria is involved in biogas production?

(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Methanogens
(d) None of these

None

88. Biologists consider flowers to be objects of

a) Morphological marvels
b) Embryological marvels
c) Sites of sexual reproduction
d) All of these

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89. When does plant decides to flower?

a) In embryonic development
b) During the appearance of flower buds
c) Before the actual flower appear on plant
d) All the above

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90. Whorl of carpel in flower represents

a) Gynoecium
b) Androecium
c) Calyx
d) Corolla

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91. The anther in transverse section appears to be

(a) Diagonal
(b) Tetragonal
(c) Unilobed
(d) Mosaic

None

92. What are A, B, C and D in this figure?

a) A: Thalamus, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Stigma
b) A: Style, B: Ovary, C: Stigma, D: Thalamus
c) A: Stigma, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Thalamus
d) A: Ovary, B: Stigma, C: Thalamus, D: Style

None

93. Tetragonal anther consists of

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

None

94. How many microsporangia are there in each lobe of anther?

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

None

95. Which one amongst the given perform the function of protection in typical microsporangium?
(A) Epidermis (B) Endothecium
(C) Tapetum (D) Middle layer

(a) A and B
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) A, B and D

None

96. Function performed by the outer three layers of microsporangium?

a) Protection to developing pollen
b) Provides nourishment to developing pollen
c) Helps in the dehiscence of anther to release pollen
d) Both (a) and (c)

None

97. Formation of pollen from pollen mother cell is referred to as

a) Pollenogenesis
b) Megasporogenesis
c) Microsporogenesis
d) Ovulation

None

98. Male gametophyte in angiosperm is represented by

a) Anther
b) Androecium
c) Microsporangium
d) Pollen grain

None

99. Pollen grains are

a) Spherical
b) Oval
c) Generally spherical
d) Irregular

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100. Exine of pollen is
(A) Hard outer layer of pollen grain
(B) Most resistant organic matter known.
(C) Layer made up of sporopollenin.
(D) Layer which can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali.
(E) Layer which cannot be degraded by any known enzyme.
Which one of the following is correct?

a) A and B
b) A, B, C and D
c) A, B, C, D and E
d) A, C and E

None

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

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