SMATEE FULL TEST V (29.03.2025)

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

1. The addition of 22.148 and 5.36 with regards to significant figures is

a) 27.508
b) 27.50
c) 27.51
d) 27.52

2. A result of cross product of two vectors is zero, this implies the vectors are

a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) mutually exclusive
d) mutually inclusive

4. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg, moving with velocities 5 m/s and 10 m/s collide with each other in opposite direction. After collision the first body moves with a velocity of 3 m/s. The velocity of the second body is

a) 11 m/s

b) 20 m/s

c) 6 m/s

d) none

5. The scalar product of two vectors is minimum when the angle between them is

a) 0º
b) 90º
c) 60º
d) 180º

6. Choose the incorrect statement for inelastic collision

a) both momentum and KE is conserved
b) only momentum is conserved
c) KE is not conserved
d) none

7. The forces which obey the inverse square law are examples of

a) non-conservative forces
b) conservative forces
c) nuclear forces
d) equilibrium forces

8. The range of a projectile fired at some angle to the horizontal becomes maximum when the angle of projection is

a) 90º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 0º

9. Steel is more elastic than rubber because it:

a) requires larger deforming force
b) is never deformed
c) is deformed very easily
d) is harder than rubber

10. The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?

a) 60°
b) 30°
c) 90°
d) 1200°

11. A metallic rod of length l and cross – sectional area A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the rod is elongated by an amount y, then the work done is proportional to

a) y
b) 1/y
c) y²
d) 1/y²

12. The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y=sin³ωt. The motion is

a) non-periodic
b) periodic but not simple harmonic
c) simple harmonic with period 2π/ω
d) simple harmonic with period π/ω

13. Which of the following wave does not travel in vacuum?

a) Seismic waves
b) X-rays
c) Light
d) Radio waves

14. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V ac supply. The resistance of the bulb is

a) 284Ω
b) 384Ω
c) 484Ω
d) 584Ω

15. The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in

a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons-
b) polar and non-polar nature of molecules.
c) Pauli exclusion principle.
d) electronegative nature of materials.

16. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0

17. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror.
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.
d) scattering of light by particles of air.

18. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due to a dipole, is related as

19. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is

a) zero
b) constant different from zero
c) proportional to the distance from the curve
d) None of the above

20. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is’

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
b) 0.61 × 10⁹

21. Rutherford’s a-particle experiment showed that the atoms have

a) Proton
b) Nucleus
c) Neutron
d) Electrons

22. As one considers orbits with higher values of in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the atom

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains the same
d) does not increase

23. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the

a) second line of Paschen series
b) second line of Balmer series
c) first line of Pfund series
d) second line of Lyman series

24. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be

a) –13.6 eV
b) – 27.2 eV
c) – 54.4 eV
d) – 6.8 eV

25. The longest wavelength of the Balmer series is 6563 Å. The Rydberg’s constant is

a) 1.09 × 10⁵ m^-1  
b) 1.09 × 10⁶ m^-1  
c) 1.09 × 10⁷ m^-1  
a) 1.09 × 10⁸ m^-1           

CHEMISTRY

26. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium  is

a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unp
d) Uns

27. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

a) CO₂
b) H₂O
c) NH₃
d) PF₅

28. Match List 1 and List 2

   List 1                      List 2

1. BrF₅                Square Pyramidal
2. NH₄⁺             Tetrahedral
3. BF₃                 Trigonal Bipyramidal
4. SbCl₅              Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i

29. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

30. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg

31. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

a) [Ne] 3s
b) [Ne] 3s² 3p¹
c) [Xe] 6s¹
d) [Xe] 6s²

32. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium

33. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

a) X₂ O
b) P₂O
c) PX₃
d) P₂X₃

34. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

a) I > I⁺> I^–
b) I > I^– > I⁺
c) I⁺ > I^– > I
d) I^– > I > I⁺

35. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the change in the internal energy in Joule is?

a) -50
b) 50               
c) 100
d) -175

36. Match list II and List II


A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
B) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
C) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
D) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

37. In adiabatic reversible conditions, 1 mole of CO₂ gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then the work done is? (C_v = 6 cal/mol and γ = 1.33)

a) 900 cal
b) 1000 cal     
c) 1200 cal
d) 1400 cal 

38. What is the value of γ for monoatomic gas (ideal gas)?

a) 7/5
b) 4/3              
c) 5/2
d) None of these

39. ∆H and ∆U for the reaction, Fe₂O₃ (s) + 3H₂ (g) ⇢ 2Fe (s) + 3H₂O (l); at constant temperature are related as

(a) ∆H = ∆U
(b) ∆H = ∆U + RT
(c) ∆H = ∆U + 3RT
(d) ∆H = ∆U – 3RT

40. If 10 kJ of work is done on the system then 2 kcal heat is released by the system then change in internal energy is? (1cal = 4.2 J)

a) 1.6 J
b) 1600 J         
c) 1.6 cal
d) 1600 cal      

41. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The ∆E for this process is?

a) 1381.1 cal
b) 163.7 cal
c) zero
d) 9 atm L

42. In which case change in entropy is negative?

a) Sublimation of solid to gas
b) 2H(g)→H₂(g)
c) Evaporation of water
d) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature

43. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

a) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
b) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
c) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0
d) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0

44. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂ = CH -Cl is due to

a) inductive effect
b) resonance stabilisation
c) electromeric effect
d) electronegativity

45. Sublimation is a process where a solid

a) melts
b) changes into liquid form
c) boils
d) changes into vapour form directly.

46. Which of the following compounds exhibits geometrical isomerism?

a) C₂H₅Br
b) (CH)₂(COOH)₂
c) CH₃CHO
d) (CH2)₂ (COOH)₂

47. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl
b) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
c) CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂Cl
d) (CH₃)₃CCl

48. Kolbe’s reaction is used in obtaining

a) anisole from phenol
b) salicylaldehyde from phenol and CHI3
c) salicylic acid from sodium phenate and CO2
d) salicylic acid from phenol and CO2.

49. Phenol gives characteristic colouration with

a) iodine solution
b) bromine water
c) neutral FeCl₃ solution
d) ammonium hydroxide

50. Which gives iodoform test?

a) Hexan-3-one
b) Pentan-3-one
c) Pentan-2-one
d) Pentanal

BIOLOGY

51. Oxygenic photosynthesis is found in

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Methanogens
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Halophiles

52. Heterocysts occur in

(a) Bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Cyanobacteria

53. Protistans are connecting link between

a) Plants and animals
b) Fungi and plants
c) Monera and multicellular organisms
d) Fungi and animals

54. Members of Kingdom Protista are primarily

(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Saprotrophs
(d) Parasites

55. Five kingdom classification was proposed by

a) Herbert Copeland
b) Robert H Whittaker
c) Ernst Haeckel
d) Carolus Linnaeus

56. Which of the following have cellulosic cell wall?

(a) Fungi
(b) Animalia
(c) Plantae
(d) Monera

57. Viroids have

a) RNA not enclosed by protein coat
b) DNA enclosed by protein coat
c) DNA not enclosed by protein coat
d) RNA enclosed by protein coat

58. Which of the following groups are commonly known as imperfect fungi

(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

59. Thread-like fungal structures are known as

(a) Sclerotia
(b) Phycomycetes
(c) Hyphae
(d) None of these

60. Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because they

a) Require both RNA and DNA
b) Both require food molecules
c) Both require oxygen for respiration
d) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate

61. The smallest known agents of the infectious diseases are

(a) Viruses
(b) Mycoplasmas
(c) Viroids
(d) Actinomyces

62. Main component of cell wall of fungi is

(a) Chitin
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glucose
(d) Pectin

63. Which of the following structures are produced exogenously in fungus?

(a) Ascus
(b) Conidia
(c) Basidium
(d) Microspores

64. Which is not character of a population?

(a) Sex ratio
b) Age
(c) Birth rate and death rate
(d) Habitat

65. J-shaped growth curve is observed in

(a) Logistic growth
(b) Exponential growth
(c) Mutualism
(d)None of above

66. Which enzyme is produced by ADA gene?

a) Adenylate
b) Adenine deaminase
c) Adenosine deaminase
d) Adenine

67. Gene therapy involves

a) Introduction of normal gene to a cell
b) Replacement of defective gene with normal gene
c) Transfer of gene
d) None of above

68. Which chain is absent in mature insulin?

(a) Chain A
(b) Chain B
(c) Chain C
(d) Chain A and B

69. Human insulin is commercially produced from

a) Rhizobium
b) Mycobacterium
c) Saccharomyces
d) Escherichia

70. What connects peptide chain in mature insulin?

a) Disulphide bridges
b) Ligase
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrogen bond

71. In bell shaped age pyramid, population is

(a) Expanding
(b) Stable
(c) Declining
(d) None of above

72. Estimate of actual number of individuals in a population

(a) Relative density
(b) Absolute density
(c) Partial density
(d) Economic density

73. Formula for logistic growth:

a) dN/dt=rN(K-N/K)
b) dN/dt=rN(N-N/K)
c) dN/dt=rN(N-K/K)
d) dN/dt=rN(1-N/K)

74. Select the negative factor for population density?
1. Emigration            2. Natality
3. Mortality              4. Immigration

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

75. Group of organism of the same species occupying a particular space

(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Biosphere

76. Which of the following structures in a flower is responsible for the production of male gametes?

(a) Ovary
(b) Anther
(c) Stigma
(d) Style

77. In flowering plants, double fertilization involves:

a) Fusion of one sperm with the egg and another with the polar nuclei
b) Fusion of two sperms with the egg cell
c) Fusion of one sperm with the antipodal cells
d) Fusion of two polar nuclei with the egg

78. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

(a) Xenogamy
(b) Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy
(d) Cleistogamy

79. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive unit in angiosperms?

(a) Ovule
(b) Filament
(c) Nucellu
(d) Embryo sac

80. Cleistogamous flowers are adapted for:

a) Cross-pollination
b) Self-pollination
c) Wind pollination
d) Water pollination

81. In an embryo sac, the cells that assist in guiding the pollen tube towards the egg are:

a) Antipodal cells
b) Polar nuclei
c) Synergids
d) Nucellar cells

82. The structure that connects the stigma to the ovary in a flower is:

(a) Filament
(b) Style
(c) Petiole
(d) Pedicel

83. Which of the following pollinating agents is responsible for hydrophily?

(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Insects
(d) Birds

84. After fertilization, the ovule develops into:

(a) Seed
(b) Fruit
(c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm

85. In which type of endosperm development does cell wall formation occur immediately after each nuclear division?

a) Nuclear endosperm
b) Cellular endosperm
c) Helobial endosperm
d) Mosaic endosperm

86. The embryo sac of a typical angiosperm at maturity is:

a) 8-nucleate, 7-celled
b) 7-nucleate, 8-celled
c) 6-nucleate, 7-celled
d) 8-nucleate, 8-celled

87. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?

(a) Mango
(b) Bamboo
(c) Apple
(d) Papaya

88. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub-stage of prophase-I of meiosis?

a) Diplotene
b) Zygotene
c) Diakinesis
d) Pachytene

89. Which one is correct about crossing over/ genetic recombination?
(A) It occurs in tetrad stage. It occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis-I
(B) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(C) It is a recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(D) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes.

(a) All are correct
(b) All except (d)
(c) (b), (c) and (d)
(d) (c) and (d)

90.Assertion (A): Meiosis maintains a fixed number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms.
      Reason (R): First division of meiosis is heterotypic or reductional division.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is true but Reason is true.

91. At which sub-stage of prophase-I are homologous chromosomes fully paired and synapsis completed?

(a) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(d) Diplotene

92. Assertion: Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
       Reason: Crossing over occurs in diplotene stage of prophase-I

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

93.Match the features (Column-I) with their stages (Column-II).

Choose the correct answer from the following options.

(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

94. In which stage of meiosis II, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?

(a) Prophase II and Metaphase II
(b) Anaphase II and Telophase II
(c) Prophase II and Telophase II
(d) Metaphase II and Anaphase II

95 .In which of the following stage, the terminalisation occurs?

(a) Zygotene
(c) Diakinesis
(b) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene

96. The stage of meiosis where centromere divides for the first and the only time, ensuring separation of daughter chromosomes, occur in

(a) anaphase-II
(b) telophase-I
(c) anaphase-I
(d) telophase- II.

97. Enzyme responsible for fixing crossed over parts of non-sister chromatids is

(a) lipase
(b) recombinase
(c) ligase
(d) endonuclease.

98. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

(a) leptotene
(b) zygotene
(c) pachytene
(d) diakinesis

99. In tetrad, crossing over does not take place between

(a) non-sister chromatids of outer group
(b) sister chromatids of dyad
(c) outermost and innermost non-sister chromatids
(d) all of these.

100. In meiosis I, nuclear membrane and nucleolus completely disappear during

(a) zygotene
(b) pachytene
(c) diakinesis
(d) metaphase.