NEET FULL TEST IV (29.02.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST IV (29.02.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

Important Instructions:

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

1. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval =24 hours)

a) 18 ºC

b) 20 ºC

c) 22 ºC

d) 25 ºC

None

2, 500 g of water and 100 g of ice at 0°C are in a calorimeter whose water equivalent is 40 g. 10 g of steam at 100°C is added to it. Then water in the calorimeter is : (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/g, Latent heat of steam = 540 cal/ g)

a) 580 g
b) 590 g
c) 600 g
d) 610 g

None

3. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-section of a wire is Q = 5 t²+3 t+1. The value of current at time t = 5 s is

a) 9 A
b) 49 A
c) 53 A
d) None of these

None

4. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is

a) 3.40 eV
b) 1.15 eV
c) 0.85 eV
d) 0.66 eV

None

5. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of

a) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
b) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
c) 11 protons and 13 electrons
d) 11 protons, 11 electrons and 13 neutrons

None

6. When 3Li7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4Be8, the emitted particles will be

a) alpha particles
b) beta particles
c) gamma photons
d) neutrons

None

a) 46 MeV
b) 5.6 MeV
c) 3.9 MeV
d) 23 MeV

None

8. A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m³ to a volume of at a constant pressure of 100 N/m². Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of the gas:

a) increases by 250 J

b) decreases by 250 J

c) increases by 50 J

d) decreases by 50 J

None

9. Gas at a pressure P₀ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to

a) 4P₀
b) 2P₀
c) P₀
d) 0

None

10. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The current will be maximum in , if

a) R = r
b) R < r
c) R > r
d) R =r/2

None

11. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness 10^-6m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is

a) 10⁷ V/m
b) 10^-6 V/m
c) 10⁵ V/m
d) 10^-5 V/m

None

12. The gate for which output is high if at least one input is low?

a) NAND
b) NOR
c) AND
d) OR

None

13. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside will.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) decrease for some and increase for others

None

14. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?

a) Melting of ice
b) Bursting of tyre
c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed
d) None of these

None

15. The relaxation time in conductors

a) increases with the increases of temperature
b) decreases with the increases of temperature
c) it does not depends on temperature
d) all of sudden changes at 400 K

None

16. Two full turns of the circular scale of gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on scale. The total number of divisions on circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that screw gauge has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale division, in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is

a) 3.32 mm
b) 3.38 mm
c) 3.73 mm
d) 3.30 mm

None

17. Assertion: Dimensional constants are those physical quantities which has constant value.
Reason: Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
d) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

None

18. Find the centre of mass of the given rod of length L as shown in fig.

a) 0.8 L
b) 0.75 L
c) L
d) 0.3 L

None

a) 10π²
b) 15π²
c) 10π
d) 15π

None

20. If the work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 J, the work necessary for stretching another wire of same material, but with double radius of cross-section and half the length by 1 mm is

a) 10 J
b) 5 J
c) 20 J
d) 16 J

None

a) 3/2
b) 1
c) 2/3
d) 1/2

None

22. An object covers (16±0.4) m distance in (4±.02) Find out its speed in m/s with absolute error limits.

a) (4±0.3)
b) (4±0.4)
c) (3±0.3)
d) (3±0.4)

None

23. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237g and 2.5 cm respectively. The density of the material of the body (in g/cm³) in correct significant figure is

a) 1.6048

b) 1.69

c) 1.695

d) 1.7

None

24. Four marbles are dropped from the top of a tower, one after the other with an interval of one second. The first one reaches the ground after 4 second. When the first one reaches the ground, the distances between the first and second, the second and third and the third and fourth will be, respectively

a) 35 m, 25 m and 15 m
b) 30 m, 25 m and 10 m
c) 35 m, 20 m and 15 m
d) 30 m, 20 m and 10 m

None

25. A particle is moving in a straight line and its acceleration-time graph is shown below. At t = 0 the particle has velocity (–10 m/s). Find the velocity of the particle at t = 8 s

a) 20 m/s
b) 30 m/s
c) 40 m/s
d) 50 m/s

None

26. A point mass moves along a circle of radius R with a constant angular acceleration α. How much time is needed after motion begins for the radial acceleration of the point mass to be equal to its tangential acceleration?

None

27. A string of length 10 cm breaks if its tension exceeds 10 N. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string, is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be

a) 20 rad/s
b) 10 rad/s
c) 30 rad/s
d) 50 rad/s

None

28. A body of mass 10 kg is released from a tower of height 20 m and body acquires a velocity of 10 m/s after falling through the distance 20 m. The work done by the push of the air on the body is (Take g = 10 m/s)

a) 1500 J
b) 1800 J
c) -1500 J
d) -1800 J

None

29. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is at αR distance from the centre of the bigger disc. The value of α is

a) 1/2
b) 1/6
c) 2/3
d) 1/3

None

30. A 90 kg body placed at 2R distance from surface of earth experiences gravitational pull of: (take R = Radius of earth, g = 10 ms^-2)

a) 400 N
b) 100 N
c) 900 N
d) 200 N

None

31. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by △x on applying force 1/3 newton, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 9

None

32. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water in the capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be

a) 2M
b) M
c) M2
d) 4M

None

33. The work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from 4 cm to 5 cm is Joule (given surface tension of soap water to be 25×10⁻³N/m)

a) 0.5657×10⁻³
b) 5.657×10⁻³
c) 56.5×10⁻³
d) 565×10⁻³

None

34. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is

a) 2(√3) cm
b) 2(√5) cm
c) √5cm
d)√3cm

None

35. The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by x=5[cosπt + sinπt] where x is in metre. The amplitude of motion of the particle is given by

a) 8 m
b) 10 m
c) 5√2m
d) 10√2m

None

36. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 kHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, the wavelengths of the reflected and transmitted sound are (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s⁻¹and in water = 1500 m s⁻¹)

a) 3.4mm,30mm
b) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
c) 3.4 mm, 15 mm
d) 6.8 mm, 30 mm

None

37. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50cm, the length of closed pipe is

a) 25cm
b) 12.5cm
c) 100cm
d) 200cm

None

38. A long, thick straight conductor of radius R carries current I uniformly distributed in its cross-section area. The ratio of energy density of the magnetic field at distance R/2 from surface inside the conductor and outside the conductor is:

a) 1:16
b) 1:1
c) 1:4
d) 9/16

None

39. A particle having charge 100 times that of an electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8m with one rotation per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre is

a) 10⁻⁷/μ₀
b) 10⁻¹⁷μ₀
c) 10⁻⁶μ₀
d) 10⁻¹⁵/μ₀

None

40. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250×10⁻¹⁰ The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536×10⁻¹⁰m is
(Given h=4.14×10⁶ms⁻¹eVs and c=3×10⁸ms⁻¹)

a) ≈6×10⁵ms⁻¹
b) ≈0.6×10⁶ms⁻¹
c) ≈61×10³ms⁻¹
d) ≈0.3×10⁶ms⁻¹

None

41. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2×10⁴turns per meter. At centre of the solenoid is 100 turns coil of radius 0.01 m placed with its axis coinciding with solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π²Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

a) 32π μC
b) 16 μC
c) 32 μC
d) 16 πμC

None

42. An inductor 20mH, a capacitor 100μF and a resistor 50Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V=10sin314t. The power loss in the circuit is

a) 0.67W
b) 0.76W
c) 0.89W
d) 0.51W

None

43. The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80V,40V and 100V respectively in an L−C−R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

a) 0.4
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 1.0

None

44. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly

a) 1.25
b) 1.59
c) 1.69
d) 1.78

None

45. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). the angel of minimum deviation is

a) 180°−3A
b) 180°−2A
c) 90°−A
d) 180°+2A

None

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following ion is the smallest in size ?

a) Na+
b) Mg²⁺
c) Al³⁺
d) N^3-

None

47. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

a) Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
b) Both A and B are alkali metals
c) A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
d) B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metals

None

48. In octahedral structure (all are bond pair with no lone pair) MX₆, the number of X-M-X bonds at is :

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

None

49. A sigma bonded molecule MX₄ is See Saw shape. The number of non – bonding pairs of electron is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

None

50. In BrF₃ molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize

a) Lp- lp repulsion only
b) Lp- bp repulsion only
c) Lp- lp repulsion and Lp-bp repulsion
d) Bp – Bp repulsion only

None

51. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to

a) The p- bonding involves overlap of p- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese
b) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with p – orbitals of manganese
c) There is no p- bonding
d) The p- bonding involves overlap of d- orbitals of Oxygen with d – orbitals of manganese

None

52. Choose the incorrect statement

a) Na₂Cr₂O₇ is preferred over K₂Cr₂O₇ in volumetric analysis.
b) K₂Cr₂O₇solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
c) KMnO₄ Titrations are carried out only in the presence of dil.H₂SO₄
d) Cr (V) undergoes disproportionation in acidic medium to Cr (VI) and Cr (III)

None

53. Which of the following Lanthanoid ions is Diamagnetic ?

a) Ce²⁺
b) Yb²⁺
c) Eu²⁺
d) Gd²⁺

None

54. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

a) n=5 to n=3
b) n=5 to n=4
c) n=6 to n=1
d) n=6 to n=5

None

55. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be ( kg /s)

a) 1. 25 X 10^-34 m
b) 3. 01 10^-34 m
c) 5.27 x 10^-30 m
d) 5.27 x 10^-20 m

None

56. Aluminium (III) chloride forms a dimer because

a) Al has high IE
b) Cannot form a trimer
c) Al can have higher coordination number
d) Both belongs to p- block

None

57. Borax is prepared by treating boric acid with

a) NaCl
b) NaNO₂
c) Na₂CO₃
d) NaHCO₃

None

58. Which of the following ion undergo Self oxidation and reduction

a) Al³⁺ and Na⁺
b) Al³⁺ and Ga⁺
c) Ga⁺ and In⁺
d) In⁺ and Tl⁺

None

59. Which of the statements about denaturation given below are correct ?
1. Denaturation of protein affects primary structure.
2. Denaturation of protein causes loss of secondary and tertiary structure.
3. Denaturation of protein leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.

a) All are correct
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2

None

60. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin E

None

61. Decomposition of H₂O₂ follows a first order reaction. In 50 min the concentrations of H₂O₂decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H₂O₂ reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O₂ will be?

a) 6.93×10⁻⁴ mol min⁻¹
b) 2.66L min⁻¹at STP
c) 1.34×10⁻² mol min⁻¹
d) 6.93×10⁻² mol min⁻¹

None

62. Al₂O₃is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high current. If 0×10⁴ amperes of current is passed through molten Al₂O₃ for 6 hours, what mass of aluminum is produced? (Assume 100 % current efficiency, At. mass of Al = 27u)

a) A. 1.3×10⁴ g
b) 2.4×10⁵ g
c) 8.1×10⁴ g
d) 9.0×10³g

None

63. When 4 Lof H₂(g) is mixed with 11.2 of Cl₂(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to?

a) 1 mole of HCl (g)
b) 2 moles of HCl (g)
c) 0.5 mole of HCl (g)
d) 1.5 mole of HCl (g)

None

64. 5 g of an impure sample of sodium sulphate dissolved in water was treated with excess of barium chloride solution when 1.74 g of BaSO₄was obtained as dry precipitate. Calculate the percentage purity of the sample.

a) 60.4 2
b) 70.67
c) 84.16
d) 90.32

None

65. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A ( 150 torr) and 2 mol B ( 240 torr) is 200 torr. In this case :

a) there is a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
b) there is a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) there is no deviation from Raoults law
d) cannot be decided

None

66. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, k = Ae−^Ea/RT. Activation energy (E_a) of the reaction can be calculated by plotting

None

67. At 25⁰C, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 0×10⁻¹². The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01M aqueous solution of the base would be:

a) 1.0×10⁶mol L⁻¹
b) 1.0×10⁻⁷mol L⁻¹
c) 2.0×10⁻⁶ mol L⁻¹
d) 1.0×10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹

None

68. One mole of an ideal mono-atomic gas is caused to go through the cycle shown in the figure below. Then the change in the internal energy in expanding the gas from ato c along the path abc is:

a) 3P₀V₀ b) 6 RT₀
c) 4.5 RT₀
d) 10.5 RT₀

None

69. A reaction occurs spontaneously if:

a) TΔS =ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
b) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
c) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔS are positive
d) TΔS >ΔH and both ΔH and ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative

None

70. A schematic plot of ln K_eqversus inverse of temperature for a reaction is shown below: The reaction must be:

a) Highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
b) One with negligible enthalpy change
c) endothermic
d) exothermic

None

71. If the mass of neutron is assumed to half of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to be twice of its original value, then the atomic mass of ¹⁴C will be

a) Same
b) 14.28 % less
c) 14.28 % more
d) 28.56 % more

None

72. The △G⁰for the reaction = + 57 kJ
MX_(s)⇔M⁺_(aq)+ X⁻_(aq)Hence K_sp for the reaction is

a) 10⁻⁵
b) 10⁻⁶c) 10⁻¹⁰
d) 10⁻¹⁶

None

73. For the observations given, the correct rate law expression is:

None

74. Cu⁺((aq))is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction, according to the reaction 2Cu⁺(aq) ⇌ Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
Choose E⁰ for the above reaction if

a) − 0.38 V
b) + 0.49 V
c) + 0.38 V
d) + 0.19 V

None

75. Which of the following statement is false?

a) Raoult’s law is obeyed only when solution is very dilute
b) Both Raoult’s law and Henry’s law law says that P α X
c) Increase in temperature decreases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction
d) Increase in temperature increases solubility of solid in liquid for endothermic reaction

None

76. On reductive ozonolysis of

yields

a) 6-oxoheptanoic acid
b) 6-oxoheptanal
c) 6-hydroxyheptanal
d) 3-hydroxypentanal

None

a) CH₃CHO
b) CH₃CH₂NHOH
c) CH₃CH₂COOH
d) CH₃COOH

None

the product E is
a) salicylic acid
b) anthranilic acid
c) benzoic acid
d) o-nitrobenzoic acid.

None

79. Which gives iodoform test?

a) Hexan-3-one
b) Pentan-3-one
c) Pentan-2-one
d) Pentanal

None

80. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction?

None

a) mesityl oxide
b) 2-butene
c) 2-Hydroxybutanal
d) 3-hydroxybutanal

None

82. An organic aromatic compound having molecular formula C₂H₂O does not give characteristic colour with neutral FeCl3 but bubbles of hydrogen gas are formed when it is treated with metallic sodium. The compound is

None

83. Tertiary butyl halide on boiling with water gives tertiary butyl alcohol. The reaction follows

a) 2 mechanism
b) N1 mechanism
c) E1 mechanism
d) none of these

None

84. The products obtained when anisole is heated in a sealed tube with HI are

None

a) phenol
b) Benzyl alcohol
c) Aniline
d) Benzaldehyde

None

86. Primary amine with Hinsberg’s reagent forms

a) N-alkylbenzenesulphonamide soluble in KOH solution.
b) N-alkylbenzenesulphonamide insoluble in KОН solution.
c) N,N-dialkylbenzenesulphonamide soluble in KOH solution.
d) N,N-dialkylbenzenesulphonamide insoluble in KOH solution.

None

87. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?

None

88. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO, while testing for halogens. By doing so, it:

a) Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN, formed
b) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
c) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
d) Increases the concentration of NO, ions

None

89. Which of these statements about [Co (CN)₆]^3- is true?

a) [Co (CN) ₆ ] ^3- has four unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration
b) [Co (CN) ₆ ] ^3-has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
c) [Co (CN) ₆ ]^3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration
d) [Co (CN) ₆ ] ^3- has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration

None

90. [Co(NH3)₄(NO2)₂]Cl exhibits

a) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical isomerism
b) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and geometrical isomerism
c) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
d) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism

None

BOTANY

91. The double-helical structure of DNA was proposed by:

(a) Watson and Crick
(c) Frederick Sanger
(d) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Linus Pauling

None

92. Assertion: Enzymes are highly specific in their action.
Reason: Enzymes have an active site that binds to a specific substrate.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

None

93. Assertion: RNA is more reactive than DNA.
Reason: RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

None

94. Which of the following is a fibrous protein?

(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Keratin
(c) Insulin
(d) Myoglobin

None

95. Which of the following is a storage polysaccharide in animals?

(a) Cellulose
(b) Starch
(c) Glycogen
(d) Chitin

None

96. In a typical angiosperm, the mature embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleate. If the polar nuclei fail to fuse before fertilization, what would be the ploidy level of the endosperm in the resulting fertilization?

(a) Haploid (n)

(b) Diploid(2n)

(d) Tetraploid (4n)

None

97. A plant exhibits cleistogamy and produces only self-pollinated seeds. Which of the following features is most likely absent in such a plant?

(a) Nectar production
(b) Micropyle plant?
(c) Synergids
(d) Endosperm

None

98. During pollen grain development, the generative cell divides to form two male gametes. If a mutation causes the generative cell to divide into three cells instead of two, what would be the most likely consequence during fertilization?

a) Formation of twin embryos
b) Failure of double fertilization
c) Production of a tetraploid endosperm
d) No effect on seed development

None

99. In some angiosperms, apomixis mimics sexual reproduction. Which of the following best explains why apomictic seeds are genetically identical to the parent plant?

a) Meiosis is followed by fusion of gametes
b) Embryo develops from a diploid cell without fertilization
c) Endosperm formation involves triple, fusion
d) Pollen grains undergo mitotic division

None

100. A flower is pollinated by wind, and its pollen grains lack exine. Which of the following adaptations is most likely present to ensure successful pollination?

a) Sticky pollen grains
b) Feathery stigma
c) Brightly colored petals
d) Nectar guides

None

101. In an experiment, the stigma of a flower is removed before pollination. Which of the following processes will be directly affected?

a) Formation of the pollen tube
b) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
c) Development of the endosperm
d) Maturation of the ovule

None

102. The phenomenon of polyembryony is observed in certain plants. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding polyembryony?

a) It always results from the fertilization of multiple egg cells
b) It can occur due to the cleavage of a single zygote or development of additional embryos from nucellar cells
c) It leads to the formation of genetically diverse embryos in a single seed
d) It is exclusive to plants exhibiting apomixis

None

103. In a species of flowering plant, the pollen grains are viable for only 30 minutes after release. What type of pollination mechanism is this plant most likely adapted to?

a) Entomophily (insect pollination)
b) Anemophily (wind pollination)
c) Hydrophily (water pollination)
d) Autogamy (self-pollination)

None

104. Which of the following structures in an angiosperm ovule directly provides nourishment to the developing embryo?

a) Integuments
b) Endosperm
c) Nucellus
d) Funicle

None

105. A plant breeder observes that a certain variety of angiosperm produces seeds without fertilization of the egg cell but requires pollination for endosperm development. This phenomenon is best described as:

(a) Parthenocarpy
(c) Pseudogamy
(b) Apomixis
(d) Polyembryony

None

106. The primary structure of a protein is stabilized by:

(a) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulfide bridges
(b) Peptide bonds
(d) Ionic bonds

None

107. A certain biomolecule exhibits the following properties:

It is insoluble in water.
It contains long hydrocarbon chains.
It yields glycerol and fatty acids upon hydrolysis.

What is the biomolecule?

(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Protein
(c) Lipid
(d) Nucleic acid

None

108. In the competitive inhibition of an enzyme, the inhibitor:

a) Binds irreversibly to the active site
b) Increases the Km value without affecting Vmax
c) Decreases both Km and Vmax
d) Binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme

None

109. The denaturation of a protein involves:

a) Breaking of peptide bonds
b) Loss of primary structure
c) Disruption of secondary and tertiary structures
d) Formation of new hydrogen bonds

None

110. An amino acid with a hydrophobic side chain is most likely to be found:

a) On the surface of a globular protein
b) In the interior of a globular protein
c) In the active site of an enzyme
d) In the peptide backbone

None

111. Which of the following carbohydrates cannot be directly utilized by humans for energy production?

(a) Glucose
(c) Cellulose
(b)Fructose
(d) Sucrose

None

112. In a T.S. (transverse section) of a young dicot root, the protoxylem is located towards the periphery, and the metaxylem is towards the center. This condition is described as:

(a) Exarch
(b) Endarch
(c) Mesarch
(d) Polyarch

None

113. The phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm together constitute:

a) Periderm
b) Secondary xylem
c) Secondary phloem
d) Vascular cambium

None

114. A tissue in the stem of a flowering plant shows living cells with thickened corners due to pectin deposition and is involved in providing flexibility. This tissue is

(a) Sclerenchyma
(b) Collenchyma

(d) Xylem fibers

None

115. In an isobilateral leaf, the mesophyll is:

a) Differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma
b) Undifferentiated and uniform
c) Absent due to the presence of sclerenchyma
d) Replaced by aerenchyma

None

116. The plant body of Funaria is

a) completely sporophyte
b) predominantly gametophyte sporophyte
c) completely gametophyte with
d) predominantly gametophyte

None

117. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis

(a) has unlimited growth
(b) bears a solitary flower
(c) has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers
(d) terminates in a flower

None

118. Hypanthodium is a specialised type of

(a) fruit
(b) inflorescence
(c) thalamus
(d) ovary.

None

119. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from

(a) multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(c) complete inflorescence
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary

None

120. Which of the following statements with respect to endoplasmic reticulum is incorrect?

(a) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(b) SER is devoid of ribosomes
(c) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(d) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

None

121. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for

(a) protein synthesis
(b) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
(c) breakdown of macromolecules
(d) oxidation-reduction reaction

None

122. The pyrenoids are made up of

(a) proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
(b) core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
(c) core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
(d) core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.

None

123. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

(a) Diplontic life cycle
(b) Members of Kingdom Plantae
(c) Mode of nutrition
(d) Multiplication by fragmentation

None

124. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
b) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
c) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed.

None

125. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is

(a) marginal
(b) free central
(c) basal
(d) axile

None

126. The floral formula

is that of

(a) soybean
(b) sunhemp
(c) tobacco
(d) tulip.

None

127. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

(a) Glycolipids
(b) Proline
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol

None

128. Microtubules are the constituents of

(a) centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) spindle fibres, centrioles and cili(a)

None

129. Meiosis II performs

(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromere
(c) separation of homologous chromosomes
(d) separation of chromatids.

None

130. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.

None

131. If the growing plant is decapitated, then

(a) its growth stops
(b) leaves become yellow and fall down
(c) axillary buds are inactivated
(d) axillary buds are activated.

None

132. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

(a) IAA and gibberellin
(b) Auxin and cytokinin
(c) Auxin and abscisic acid
(d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid

None

133. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in

(a) mosses
(b) algae
(c) ferns
(d) fungi.

None

134. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

a) gynoecium
b) androecium
c) corolla
d) calyx.

None

135. The movement of auxin is largely

(a) centripetal
(b) acropetal
(c) basipetal
(d) both (a) and (c)

None

ZOOLOGY

136. Match the following:

Options:

a) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
b) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
c) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-ii

None

137. A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between ABab and abab?

(a) Aabb and aabb and aabb
(b) AABB
(c) AaBb and aabb
(d) AaBb and AaBb

None

138. A gene is said to be recessive if

a) It expressed its effect in the absence of dominant gene
b) It expressed only in heterozygous condition
c) It expressed both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
d) None of above

None

139. Evolutionary convergence is development of

a) Random mating
b) Common set of characters in closely related groups
c) Dissimilar characters in closely related groups
d) Common set of characters in group of different ancestry

None

140. Which experiment suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated from non-living matter?

a) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
b) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
c) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
d) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in sealed vessel.

None

141. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates:

a) Microevolution
b) Macroevolution
c) Convergent evolution
d) Divergent evolution

None

142. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for B-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

a) The transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce B galactoside
b) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to host cell
c) It will lead to lysis of host cell
d) It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability

None

143. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?

a) Presence of origin of replication
b) Presence of a marker gene
c) Presence of two or more recognition site
d) Presence of single restriction enzyme site

None

144. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

a) It delivers T-DNA into plant cells
b) It is used to deliver gene of interest in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic host cells
c) It transform normal plant cell into tumour cell
d) It is not pathogenic to plant cell

None

145. Transgenic expression of transgene in target tissue is determine by

(a) Promoter
(b) Transgene
(c) Reporter
(d) Enhancer

None

146. Competition for light, nutrients and space is more severe between

a) Closely related organism growing in different niches
b) Closely related organism growing in same niche
c) Distantly related organism growing in different habitat
d) Distantly related organism growing in same niche

None

147. The dominant second trophic level in a lake ecosystem is

(a) Phytoplankton
(c) Benthos
(b) Zooplankton
(d) Fishes

None

148. Biomass available for consumption by herbivores and decomposers is called

a) Secondary productivity
b) Tertiary production
c) Net primary production
d) Gross primary production

None

149. Which example shows Gause Exclusion Principle?

a) Resident fishes and visiting flamingoes in South American shallow lake
b) Abingdon tortoise and goat in Galapagos Island
c) Pisasters and mussels in rocky intertidal coast
d) Warbler species inhabiting the same tree

None

150. Which of the following will be easily cut by a specific restriction endonuclease?

a) 5’ GTATTC3’ ; 3’CATAAG5’
b) 5’GATACT3’ ; 3’CTATGA5’
c) 5’GAATTC3’ ; 3’CTTAAG5’
d) 5’CTCAGT3’ ; 3’GAGTCA5’

None

151. Frogs differ from humans in possessing

a) Nucleated red blood cell
b) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
c) Paired cerebral hemisphere
d) Hepatic portal system

None

152. Systemic heart refers to

a) Heart that contracts under stimulation from system
b) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
c) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
d) Two ventricles together in human being

None

153. Culture method where sterilized medium is continuously added and waste products are removed

(a) Closed culture
(b) Open culture
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B

None

154. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when

(a) r − value approaches zero
(b) K=N
(c) K>N
(d) K<N

None

155. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

a) Progesterone
b) Cortisol
c) Testosterone
d) Glucagon

None

156. Select the correct sequence regarding stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart.
1. AV bundle
2. Purkinje fibres
3. AV node
4. Bundle branches
5. SA node

Options:
(a) 2-4-5-3-1
(c) 5-3-1-4-2
(b) 5-1-4-2-3
(d) 1-5-3-2-4

None

157. Select the correct pair.

a) Heart – involuntary, unstriated
b) Iris- smooth, involuntary
c) Biceps- smooth
d) Abdominal wall- smooth

None

158. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

(a) Glial cell
(c) Cartilage
(b) Blood
(d) Adipose tissue

None

159. Saddle joint is present between

a) Humerus and pectoral girdle
b) Atlas and axis
c) Carpal and metacarpal
d) Carpals

None

160. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

a) Locomotion
b) Storage of minerals
c) Production of body heat
d) Production of erythrocytes

None

161. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured using antibiotics?

(a) Pneumonia
(c) Common cold
(b) Cholera
(d) Typhoid

None

162. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response.

None

163. The antibody produced during allergic reaction is

(a) IgE
(c) IgG
(b) IgM
(d). Ig(d)

None

164. Assertion (A): Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Reason (R): Our body appears to have memory of the first encounter of the pathogen.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

None

165. Gullet or Cavity in cell which act as a mouth is present in which protozoan?

a) Flagellates
b) Ciliates
c) Amoeboids
d) Sporozoans

None

166. The given figure is

a) Implants
b) IUDs
c) Disposable contraceptive devices
d) Reusable contraceptive devices

None

167. To form embryo in vitro, the male gamete is transferred into female gamete directly. Such technique is called

(a) IUI
(b) IUT
(c) ICSI
(d) GIFT

None

168. 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in:

a) Distal convoluted tubule
b) Proximal convoluted tubule
c) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
d) Descending limb of Loop of Henle

None

169. Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

(a) Alcohol
(b) Caffeine
(c) Renin
(d) Atrial-Natriuretic factor

None

170. Which of the following chordate character is found in adults of urochordates?

a) Pharyngeal gill clefts
b) Notochord
c) Post anal tail
d) All of these

None

171. Nematocysts take part in

a) Anchorage
b) Offence and defense
c) Food capture
d) All of these

None

172. All chordates at one or another stage, possess

a) Two pairs of pentadactyl limbs
b) Movable jaw
c) Vertebral column
d) Pharyngeal gill slits

None

173. The given pie chart represents the diversity exhibited by different taxonomic groups of invertebrates. Identify A and B.

a) A – annelids B – molluscs
b) A – crustaceans B – echinoderms
c) A – crustaceans B – molluscs
d) A – echinoderms B – annelids

None

174. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:

a) Estrogen only
b) Progesterone
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Relaxin only

None

175. In human adult females, oxytocin:

a) Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.
b) Is secreted by anterior pituitary.
c) Stimulates growth of mammary glands.
d) Relaxes the cervix during parturition

None

176. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

a) Spermatid
b) Spermatogonia
c) Second polar body
d) Secondary oocyte

None

177. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZW-ZZ
(b) ZZ-WW
(c) XX-XY
(d) XO-XX

None

178. Select the wrongly matched pair

a) Lactobacillus – Curd formation
b) A. Fleming – Antibiotic
c) Cyclosporin A – Bioactive molecule
d) Brewer’s yeast – Saccharomyces boulardii

None

179. Bottled fruit juice available in the market are clear as they are clarified using

a) Lipase and pectinase
b) Streptokinase and proteases
c) Proteases and pectinase
d) Pectinase and amylase

None

180. Select the mismatched pair

a) Swiss cheese – Propionibacterium
b) Symbiotic nitrogen fixing – Azospirillum
c) Activated sludge – Secondary sewage treatment
d) Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum

None

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