Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

SMATEE TEST SERIES 14 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The addition of 22.148 and 5.36 with regards to significant figures is
a) 27.508
b) 27.50
c) 27.51
d) 27.52
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A result of cross product of two vectors is zero, this implies the vectors are

a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) mutually exclusive
d) mutually inclusive
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) -2t + 3
b) -10t + 3
c) 2t + 3
d) 10t + 3Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg, moving with velocities 5 m/s and 10 m/s collide with each other in opposite direction. After collision the first body moves with a velocity of 3 m/s. The velocity of the second body is

a) 11 m/s

b) 20 m/s

c) 6 m/s

d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The scalar product of two vectors is minimum when the angle between them is

a) 0º
b) 90º
c) 60º
d) 180º
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Choose the incorrect statement for inelastic collision

a) both momentum and KE is conserved
b) only momentum is conserved
c) KE is not conserved
d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The forces which obey the inverse square law are examples of

a) non-conservative forces
b) conservative forces
c) nuclear forces
d) equilibrium forces
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The range of a projectile fired at some angle to the horizontal becomes maximum when the angle of projection is

a) 90º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 0º
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Steel is more elastic than rubber because it:

a) requires larger deforming force
b) is never deformed
c) is deformed very easily
d) is harder than rubber
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?

a) 60°
b) 30°
c) 90°
d) 1200°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A metallic rod of length l and cross – sectional area A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the rod is elongated by an amount y, then the work done is proportional to

a) y
b) 1/y
c) y²
d) 1/y²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The displacement of a particle is represented by the equation y=sin³ωt. The motion is

a) non-periodic
b) periodic but not simple harmonic
c) simple harmonic with period 2π/ω
d) simple harmonic with period π/ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following wave does not travel in vacuum?

a) Seismic waves
b) X-rays
c) Light
d) Radio waves
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V ac supply. The resistance of the bulb is

a) 284Ω
b) 384Ω
c) 484Ω
d) 584Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in

a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons-
b) polar and non-polar nature of molecules.
c) Pauli exclusion principle.
d) electronegative nature of materials.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work functions hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take place only if:

a) λ≥λ0
b) λ≤λ0
c) λ≥2λ0
d) λ=4λ0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror.
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.
d) scattering of light by particles of air.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due to a dipole, is related as

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is

a) zero
b) constant different from zero
c) proportional to the distance from the curve
d) None of the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is’

a) 1.13 × 10¹¹
b) 1.13 × 10¹⁰
c) 0.61 × 10¹¹
b) 0.61 × 10⁹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 28, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 102 PHYSICS

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Email

1. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval =24 hours)

a) 18 ºC

b) 20 ºC

c) 22 ºC

d) 25 ºC
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2, 500 g of water and 100 g of ice at 0°C are in a calorimeter whose water equivalent is 40 g. 10 g of steam at 100°C is added to it. Then water in the calorimeter is : (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/g, Latent heat of steam = 540 cal/ g)

a) 580 g
b) 590 g
c) 600 g
d) 610 gDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-section of a wire is Q = 5 t²+3 t+1. The value of current at time t = 5 s is

a) 9 A
b) 49 A
c) 53 A
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbit is

a) 3.40 eV
b) 1.15 eV
c) 0.85 eV
d) 0.66 eV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of

a) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
b) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
c) 11 protons and 13 electrons
d) 11 protons, 11 electrons and 13 neutrons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. When 3Li7 nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are 4Be8, the emitted particles will be

a) alpha particles
b) beta particles
c) gamma photons
d) neutrons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 46 MeV
b) 5.6 MeV
c) 3.9 MeV
d) 23 MeVDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m³ to a volume of at a constant pressure of 100 N/m². Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of the gas:

a) increases by 250 J

b) decreases by 250 J

c) increases by 50 J

d) decreases by 50 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Gas at a pressure P₀ is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are halved and their speeds are doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to

a) 4P₀
b) 2P₀
c) P₀
d) 0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The current will be maximum in , if

a) R = r
b) R < r
c) R > r
d) R =r/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness 10^-6m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is

a) 10⁷ V/m
b) 10^-6 V/m
c) 10⁵ V/m
d) 10^-5 V/m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The gate for which output is high if at least one input is low?

a) NAND
b) NOR
c) AND
d) OR
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside will.

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) decrease for some and increase for others
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?

a) Melting of ice
b) Bursting of tyre
c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The relaxation time in conductors

a) increases with the increases of temperature
b) decreases with the increases of temperature
c) it does not depends on temperature
d) all of sudden changes at 400 K
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Two full turns of the circular scale of gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on scale. The total number of divisions on circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that screw gauge has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale division, in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is

a) 3.32 mm
b) 3.38 mm
c) 3.73 mm
d) 3.30 mm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Assertion: Dimensional constants are those physical quantities which has constant value.
Reason: Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

a) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
b) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
d) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Find the centre of mass of the given rod of length L as shown in fig.

a) 0.8 L
b) 0.75 L
c) L
d) 0.3 L
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 10π²
b) 15π²
c) 10π
d) 15πDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 J, the work necessary for stretching another wire of same material, but with double radius of cross-section and half the length by 1 mm is

a) 10 J
b) 5 J
c) 20 J
d) 16 JDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 27, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 110 PHYSICS

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Email

1. Choose the correct option from the following options given below:

(a) In the ground state of Rutherford’s model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in Thomson’s model electrons always experience a net-force.
(b) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford’s model but has a highly non-uniform mass distribution in Thomson’s model
(c) A classical atom based on Rutherford’s model is doomed to collapse.
(d) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford’s model but not in Thomson’s model.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed in water of refractive index , then the fringe with becomes (in mm):

(a) 16
(b) 9
(c) 48
(d) 12

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-Ill, B-ll, C-l, D-l V
(b) A-lll, B-IV,C-II, 1X1
(c) A-IV,B-l,C-lll,D-ll
(d) A-ll, B-lll, C-l, D-IV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015 u. The binding energy of helium nucleus is:

(a) 14.2MeV
(b) 56.8MeV
(c) 28.4MeV
(d) 7.1 MeV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1 kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from the origin is 5m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in radians):

a) π/6

b) π/3

c) π/8

d) π/4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In the given circuit, rms value of current (I_rms) through the resistor R is:

(a) 2A
(b) 1/2 A
(c) 20A
(d) 2√2 A

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power delivered by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:

(a) R=0.001r
(b) R= 1000r
(c) R = 2r
(d) R = r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is:

(a) 1:1
(b) 3:1
(c) √3:1
(d) 9:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32 limes its initial value. The final pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is:

(a) 32
(b) 326
(c) 128
(d) 1/32

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally at the mid-point of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45° with the vertical. Then Fequals: (Take g = 10 ms^-2 and the rope to be massless)

(a) 100 N
(b) 90 N
(c) 70 N
(d) 75 N

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the surface of the earth. When both ‘d* and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of the following relations is correct?

(a) d=3h/2
(b) d= h/2
(c) d=h
(d) d=2h

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A particle of mass of 4 kg suspended from a spring of force constant 800 N m^-1 executes simple harmonic oscillations. If the total energy of the oscillator is 4 J, the maximum acceleration (in ms^-2) of the particle is

(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 45
(d) 20

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + bt², where a = 15 cm and b=3 cm/s^-2. Its instant velocity at time 3 sec will be

(a) 36cm/sec
(b) 9cm/sec
(c) 4.5cm/sec
(d) 18cm/sec π

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because

(a) induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. If the maximum compression of the spring is 0.15 m, the value of mass m is

(a) 0.5kg
(b) 0.15kg
(c) 0.12kg
(d) 1.5kg

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen gas is

(a) PV= RT
(b) PV=2RT
(c) PV = 1/2RT
(d) PV = 4RT

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope

(a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(b) depends on the nature of the metal used
(c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(d) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of a lower of height 45 m. Then its kinetic energy after 3 sec is [take g= 10m/s²]

(a) 557J
(b) 1350J
(c) 1050J
(d) 1296J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into energy. The energy released by the fission of 1 kg mass will be

(a) 9×10¹⁹J
(b) 9×10¹⁷J
(c) 9×10¹⁶J
(d) 9×10¹³J

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times of the coefficient of superficial expansion (area), then value of x is

(a) 3
(b) 25
(c) 1.5
(d) 2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 24, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 10 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Those units, which can neither be derived from one another, nor can they be further resolved into any other units are called
a) derived units
b) fundamental units
c) physical units
d) elementary units
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Steradian is an example of

a) fundamental units
b) derived units
c) supplementary units
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The dimensional formula of Voltage is

a) [ML² T^-3 A^-1]
b) [ML³ T^-2 A^-1]
c) [ML² T^-1 A^-3]
d) [ML³ T^-2 A^-2]Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. If a body changes its velocity in equal intervals of time, it is said to have

a) uniform motion
b) uniformly accelerated motion
c) uniform velocity
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The slope of the position-time graph of an object in uniform motion gives

a) displacement
b) distance
c) velocity
d) speedDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The distance covered by a body initially at rest, which accelerates to a speed of 144 kmh^-1, in 20s is

a) 800 m
b) 200 m
c) 400 m
d) 500 mDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For a non-uniform circular motion in a circle of radius r, the angular acceleration α is

a) a constant
b) 0
c) always varying
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A transverse wave consists of

a) only crests
b) only troughs
c) both crests and troughs
d) rarefactions and compressionsDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. De Broglie wavelength of 0.05 eV thermal neutron is

a) 1.3Å
b) 2Å
c) 5.4Å
d) 8ÅDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The line that draws power supply to your house from street has

a) 220√2V average voltage.
b) 220 V average voltage.
c) Voltage and current out of phase by π/2.
d) Voltage and current possibly differing in phase ϕ such that |ϕ|<π/2.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow is concentric arcs.
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs.
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because

a) it is monochromatic
b) it is not chromatic
c) it is not observed
d) it has small angular spreadDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a constant force acts on a particle, its acceleration will

a) remain constant
b) gradually decreases
c) gradually increases
d) be undefinedDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The maximum value of photoelectric current is called

a) base current
b) saturation current
c) collector current
d) emitter currentDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Energy is emitted when electron jumps from

a) Lower orbit to higher orbit
b) Higher orbit to lower orbit
c) Ground state to first excited state
d) Second excited state to infinityDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In a nuclear reaction which of the following is conserved?

a) Energy
b) Spin
c) Charge
d) All of theseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Balmer series lies in the

a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Near IR region
d) Far IR regionDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. How many spectral lines are observed for Hydrogen atom when electron jump from to in visible range?

a) 10
b) 3
c) 6
d) 15Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 21, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (22.03.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (22.03.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

ENGLISH SECTION

(Directions 1- 10) In these questions the sentences have been given in Active/ Passive Voice. From the given alternatives choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
1. The child’s shrill wail broke the silence.

a) The silence was being broken by the child’s shrill wail.

b) The child’s shrill wail was broken by the silence.

c) The silence was broken by the child’s shrill wail.

d) The silence was being broken by the child’s shrill wail.

e) The silence were being broken by the child’s shrill wail.
None

2. The scheme permits investors to buy the shares from foreign companies.

a) Under the scheme the investors may be permitted to buy shares from foreign companies.

b) Under the scheme the investors have been permitted to buy shares from foreign companies

c) Under the scheme the investors are permitted to buy shares from foreign companies.

d) Under the scheme the investors were permitted to buy shares from foreign companies.

e) Under the scheme the investors was permitted to buy shares from foreign companies.
None

3. The shopkeeper lowered the prices.

a) The prices lowered the shopkeeper.

b) The prices were lowered by the shopkeeper.

c) Down went the prices.

d) The shopkeeper got down the prices.

e) The shopkeeper were got down the prices.
None

4. Who can count the stars in the sky?

a) By whom can the stars in the sky be counted?

b) By whom can be stars in the sky counted?

c) By whom could the stars be counted in the sky?

d) By whom could the stars in the sky be counted?

e) By whom can the stars in the sky be count?
None

5. The company paid her a meager salary.

a) She was paid a meager salary by the company.

b) A meager salary has been paid to her by the company.

c) She was being paid a meager salary by the company.

d) A meager salary was to be paid to her by the company.

e) A meager salary was to paid to her by the company.
None

6. Has somebody broken the window?

a) Have the window been broken ?

b) Had the window been broken by somebody ?

c) Has the window been broken by somebody ?

d) Has been the window broken?

e) Has been the window broken by somebody?
None

7. I was surprised to see by his make over

a) His make over surprises me.

b) His make over surprise me.

c) His make over surprised me.

d) His make over has surprised me.

e) His make over has been surprised me.
None

8. Our task had been completed before sunset.

a) We completed our task before sunset.

b) We have completed our task before sunset.

c) We complete our task before sunset.

d) We had completed our task before sunset.

e) We had complete our task before sunset.
None

9. Parents love their children.

a) Children will be loved by their parents.

b) Children have been loved by their parents.

c) Children are being loved by their parents.

d) Children are loved by their parents.

e) Children are been loved by their parents.
None

10. Sameer shut the door with a bang.

a) The door was shut with a bang by Sameer.

b) The door with a bang shut by Sameer.

c) The door shut Sameer with a bang.

d) The door had been shut with a bang by Sameer.

e) The door has shut Sameer with a bang.
None

Directions (11-15): Each question below has one blank, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence to make it meaningfully complete.

11. Digital services have made great __________ into India with the triumvirate of mobile phones, Aadhaar and unified payments interface (UPI).

(a) Debacle

(b) Prospective

(c) Inroads

(d) Slumped

(e) Waver
None

12. Many animals have a colour __________ ability that is far beyond our comprehension, for example, the Mantis Shrimp.

(a) Dabble

(b) Mode

(c) Realm

(d) Perception

(e) Seizure
None

13. The world’s most powerful super computer today can ___________ 148,000 trillion operations in a second.

(a) Rekindle

(b) Wrecked

(c) Affable

(d) Juggle

(e) None of these.
None

14. Amazon fires were caused by __________ who wanted to use the land for cattle grazing and farming.

(a) Ranchers

(b) Dement

(c) Frenzy

(d) Conjecture

(e) None of these.
None

15. India’s recent decision to ___________ Prime Minister’s visit to Turkey scheduled for later this year contradicts the fundamental principle of policymaking.

(a) Fall through

(b) Draw up

(c) Put off

(d) Clamp down on

(e) Clam up
None

Directions (16-20): In the following questions a paragraph is given with two blanks. The paragraph is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as your answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option. If none of the given options fills the given blanks then choose option (e), ‘None of these’ as your answer.

16. Global _____________ have shown that in order to achieve _______________ development and growth, the expansion of financial services to all sections of society is of utmost importance.

(a) agencies, exposed

(b) trends, inclusive

(c) indicators, beginner

(d) sales, confidant

(e) None of these
None

17. It is now ______________ that the frontier politics of British India had failed to produce a single ___________ and well-defined northern boundary separating the Indian subcontinent from Xinjiang and Tibet.

(a) epidemics, evolving

(b) incapacitated, signified

(c) dispute, advisory

(d) accepted , integrated

(e) none of these
None

18. The ________________ rationale for the British at the time was to __________ a buffer around an autonomous “Outer Tibet” that would eventually fall under its sway.

(a) criticising, downplaying

(b) entangled, formulating

(c) underlying, carve

(d) perpetrated, erroneous

(e) none of these
None

19. Between 1954 and 1956, Jawaharlal Nehru ___________in several long exchanges with Premier Zhou Enlai in Delhi and Beijing but the border issue was mostly _______________from their conversations.

(a) anticipated, concession

(b) scrambled, regards

(c) engaged, excluded

(d) recommendations, recast

(e) none of these
None

20. India’s ____________ decision of March 1959 to provide _____________ to the Dalai Lama dramatically transformed India-China relations.

(a) negotiable, comparative

(b) fateful, asylum

(c) presidential, periodisation

(d) provisional, forced

(e) none of these
None

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-5): Study the following information and answer the questions below:
a) Only II follows
b) Either I or II and III follows
c) Both I and II follows
d) Both II and III follows
e) None follows

1. Statement:
Only a few Genes are DNA
Only DNA are RNA
No RNA is Protein
Conclusion:
I. No Gene is Protein
II. Some proteins are Genes
III. Some Genes are not DNA

a) Only II follows

b) Either I or II and III follows

c) Both I and II follows

d) Both II and III follows

e) None follows
None

2. Statement:

Some A are B
Only a few B are C
No A is D

Conclusion:
I. At least some A are C
II. All B are C is a possibility
III. No D is C

a) Only II follows

b) Either I or II and III follows

c) Both I and II follows

d) Both II and III follows

e) None follows
None

3.Statement:

All Planets are Stars
Some Stars are Earth
Only a few Suns are Planets

Conclusion:
I. All Sun being Star is a possibility
II. Some Stars are Sun
III. Some Planets are Earth

a) Only II follows

b) Either I or II and III follows

c) Both I and II follows

d) Both II and III follows

e) None follows
None

4.Statement:

All Mathematics are Economics
Only a few Mathematics are Chemistry
No Chemistry is Physics

Conclusion:
I. All Chemistry are Economics
II. Some Economics are Chemistry
III. All Mathematics being Physics is a Possibility

a) Only II follows

b) Either I or II and III follows

c) Both I and II follows

d) Both II and III follows

e) None follows
None

5.Statement:

Some twos are threes
No four is ten
Only a few tens are threes

Conclusion:
I. No three is four
II. Some twos are four is a possibility
III. Some threes are twos

a) Only II follows

b) Either I or II and III follows

c) Both I and II follows

d) Both II and III follows

e) None follows
None

6. Conclusion:
Some fans are definitely switches; all switches are tubes.

Statement I: No switch is a tube. All switches are fans.
Statement II: Some switches are tubes. Some tubes are fans.
Statement III: All switches are fans. All fans are tubes.
Statement IV: All tubes are switches. No tube is a fan.
Statement V: All tubes are switches. Some fans are definitely tubes.

a) Only statement I is correct

b) only statement II is correct

c) only statement III is correct

d) only statement IV is correct

e) only statement V is correct
None

7. Conclusions:

Some chair being Table is a possibility
Some pot being chair is a possibility

Statements:
I) All table are sofa, some chair are sofa, No pot is chair
II) All table are sofa, No chair is sofa, all pots are table
III) Some table are sofa, some chair are sofa, No pot is chair
IV) Some table are sofa, some chair are sofa, No table is pot
V) Some tables are sofa, some chair are sofa, all pot is chair

a) Only statement I is correct

b) only statement II is correct

c) only statement III is correct

d) only statement IV is correct

e) only statement V is correct
None

8. Conclusions:

Some bags are being shirts is a possibility
Some pants are being bags is a possibility

Statements:

1: All shirts are ties; Some bags are ties. No pant is bag
2: All shirts are ties; No bag is tie. All pants are shirts
3: Some shirts are ties; Some bags are ties. No pant is bag
4: Some shirts are ties; no bags are ties. No pant is bag
5: Some shirts are ties; Some bags are ties. All pants are shirts

a).Only 1

b).Both 2 and 3

c).Only 4

d).Both 4 and 5

e). Only 5
None

9. Statement

I) All Alpha are Beta
II) Some Beta are Gamma
III) Only Gamma is Delta
IV) No Beta is Ampere
Conclusion:
I) No Ampere is Alpha
II) Some Alpha can be Gamma
III) Some Beta are Delta

a) Both (I) and (III) follow

b) Both (II) and (III) follow

c) Both (I) and (II) follow

d) All I, II and III follows

e) None follows
None

10. Statement:

I) Some Maggie are Tea
II) All Tea are Chips
III) Some Chips are not Choco
IV) No Choco is Ice Cream

Conclusion:
I) No Ice Cream is Chips
II) All Choco can be Chips
III) All Maggie are Chips is a possibility

a).Only 1

b).Both 2 and 3

c).Only 4

d).Both 4 and 5

e). Only 5
None

Directions (11-14): Question consists of Some statements followed by two conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.

11. Statements:

All Grills are Arrow.
Some Hat are Grills.
Some Cell are Arrow.

Conclusions:
I. Some Cell are definitely not Grills.
II. Some Hat can never be Arrow.

(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Neither I nor II follow

(d) Both I and II follow

(e) Either I or II follow
None

12. Statements:

All Grills are Arrow.
Some Hat are Grills.
Some Cell are Arrow.

Conclusions:
I. Some Hat are Arrow.
II. Some Grills are Cell.

(a) Only II follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Either I nor II follow

(d) Both I and II follow

(e) Neither I or II follow
None

13. Statements:

Some Door are Fan.
No Door is Rose.
No Fan is Shelf.

Conclusions:
I. Some Fan can never be Rose.
II. Some Rose are Shelf is a possibility.

(a) Neither I nor II follows

(b) Only I follows

(c) Either I or II follow

(d) Both I and II follow

(e) Only II follows
None

14. Statements:

Some Door are Fan.
No Door is Rose.
No Fan is Shelf.

Conclusions:
I. All Door are Shelf is a possibility.
II. All Shelf can be Doors.

(a) Either I or II follows

(b) Only II follows

(c) Neither I nor II follow

(d) Both I and II follow

(e) Only I follows
None

Direction (15-17): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

15. Statements:

Only a few Pizza are Burger.
Only a few Burger are Maggie.
All Maggie are Momo’s.
No Pasta is Maggie.

Conclusions:
I. Some Maggie are not Burger.
II. Some Pizza are not Pasta.
III. Only a few Pizza are Maggie.

(a) If only conclusion I and II follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion II or III and I follows

(d) None follows

(e) None of these
None

16. Statements:

Only a few Bank are Account.
Few Current are Saving.
All Account are Saving.
Some FD are not Account.

Conclusions:
I. Some Account can be FD.
II. Some Saving are not FD.
III. All Bank being Account is a possibility.

(a) If only conclusion I and II follows

(b) If only conclusion II and III follows

(c) If only conclusion I follows

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None Follow
None

17. Statements:

Only Vertical is Circle.
Some Vertical are not Square.
All Square are Triangle.

Conclusions:
I. Some Circle can be Triangle.
II. All Square being Vertical is a possibility.
III. Only a few Vertical is Triangle.

(a) If only conclusion I and II follows

(b) Only II

(c) If only conclusion I follows

(d) All I, II and III follow

(e) None Follow
None

Directions (18-20): In each of the questions below. Some statements are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the information given in the statements:

18. Statements:

Only a few Arm is chair.
All chair is shoulder.
Only a few shoulder is key.

Conclusions:

(a) Some key can be chair
(b) All shoulder can be key
(c) Some shoulder is not arm.
(d) All arm can be chair
(e) None of these

(a) Some key can be chair

(b) All shoulder can be key

(c) Some shoulder is not arm.

(d) All arm can be chair

(e) None of these
None

19. Statements:

All chamber is key.
Only a few key is chain.
Only a few chain is garden.

Conclusions:

(a) All key can be chain
(b) All chain can be garden
(c) All garden can be chain
(d) Some garden is not chain
(e) Some chain is chamber

(a) All key can be chain

(b) All chain can be garden

(c) All garden can be chain

(d) Some garden is not chain

(e) Some chain is chamber
None

20. Statements:

All hair is head.
Only a few hair is smooth.
All smooth is silk.

Conclusions:

(a) All hair can be smooth
(b) All head can never be smooth.
(c) Some head is not hair.
(d) Some silk is not smooth
(e) Some smooth is not hair.

(a) All hair can be smooth

(b) All head can never be smooth.

(c) Some head is not hair.

(d) Some silk is not smooth

(e) Some smooth is not hair.
None

QA SECTION

1. Marked price of a bat is Rs 350.A shopkeeper gives a discount of Rs x and makes a profit of 12. If manufacturing cost of bat is Rs 280, then find the discount percent given by shopkeeper on bat?

(a) 10%

(b) 6%

(c) 4%

(d) 3%

(e) 5%
None

2. Retailer mark up an article 35% above its cost price and earn Rs 480 by giving 20% discount on the marked price. If he sells article at 15% discount on marked price then, find retailer’s profit on selling one article.

(a) 885 Rs.

(b) 875 Rs.

(c) 855 Rs.

(d)845 Rs.

(e) 840 Rs.
None

3. There is some profit when an article is sold for Rs. 840. However, when the same article is sold for Rs. 480, there is some loss. If the value of profit is two times the value of loss, then find the selling price when the article is sold at profit of 37

(a)Rs. 800

(b) Rs. 775

(c) Rs. 825

(d)Rs. 845

(e) Rs. 875
None

4. Retailer mark up an article 35% above its cost price and earn Rs 96 by giving 20% discount on the marked price. If he sells article at 15% discount on marked price then, find retailer’s profit on selling one article.

(a)118

(b) 177

(c) 236

(d) 214

(e) 154
None

5. When an article is sold at 40% discount, a loss of 10% occurs but when it sold at 20% discount then there is a profit of Rs.7.5. What is the cost price of the article?

(a) 37.5 Rs

(b) 40 Rs

(c) 66.67 Rs

(d) 48 Rs

(e) 39.2 Rs
None

6. 20% of product bought by a shopkeeper is damaged and are sold at 30% discount. Remaining products is sold at a discount of 10%. If difference between total selling price of products sold at 30% discounts and 10% discount is 29,000, Then find the sum of marked price of all product? (in rs)

(a) 50,000

(b) 40,000

(c) 25,000

(d) 75,000

(e) 60,000
None

7. A shopkeeper marked the price of jeans 25% above the cost price and allowed two successive discounts of 10% and 5% respectively. If shopkeep er made a profit of Rs. 89.1, then find at what price shopkeeper sold the jeans to make a profit of 40%?

(a) 1844.4 Rs.

(b) 1814.4 Rs.

(c) 1860.4 Rs.

(d) 1890.4 Rs.

(e) 1880.4 Rs.
None

8. A pen was marked up by 50% above cost price and allowed Rs 100 discount on marked price. If shopkeeper still made a profit of Rs. 100, then find the selling price of the pen (in Rs.)?

(a) 450 Rs.

(b) 600 Rs.

(c) 500 Rs.

(d) 400 Rs.

(e) 350 Rs
None

9 . A person sold a book at 20% profit. If he had bought it at 10% less cost and sold for Rs 90 more then he would have gained 40% profit. Find cost price of book.

(a) Rs 800

(b) Rs 1600

(c) Rs 1500

(d) None of these

(e) Rs 1200
None

10. Retailer sold one article at 33 1 3 % profit and another at 100% profit. Find his overall profit percentage if the selling price of both the article is same?3

(a) 60%

(b) 55%

(c) 66

(d) 75%

(e) 56 2/3
None

11. A shopkeeper marked up an article 40% above its cost price and gave two successive discounts of 25% and 10% respectively. If he made a loss of Rs. 352, then find the cost price of the article?

(a) 5600 Rs.

(b) 5000 Rs.

(c) 6400 Rs.

(d) 6800 Rs.

(e) 7200 Rs.
None

12. A shopkeeper marks up price of LED 60% above its cost price and gives three successive discounts of 12 1 2 %, d% and 25%. If shopkeeper made a loss 16% on LED. Find the second discount allowed by shop?

(a) 15%

(b) 20%

(c) 25%

(d) 16 ⅔ %

(e) 17.5%
None

13. A shopkeeper marked the price of an article by 40% above cost price and gave discount of Rs. 224. On the final amount, he charged 10% tax. In the whole transaction, he earned Rs. 158.6. Find cost price of the article.

(a) Rs 750

(b) Rs 760

(c) Rs 744

(d) Rs 757

(e) Rs 74
None

14. Ram bought a bike at 20% discount on MRP. After 1 year Ram sell the bike to Ramesh at 10% loss. After 1 year more Ramesh sell the bike at 20% profit to Ranjan. If Ranjan paid Rs. 1,29,600, then find the M.R.P. of the bike ?

(a) 1,50,000

(b) 2,25,000

(c) 1,40,000

(d) 2,00,000

(e) 1,80,000
None

15. Marked priced of A is 1600 Rs more than its cost price. When discount on A is 500 there is a profit of 25% obtained. At what price A should be sold to obtain 30% profit.

(a) 4800

(b) 5600

(c) 5400

(d) 5200

(e) 5720
None

16. Two mobile phones were purchased at the same price. One was sold at a profit of 30% and the second was sold at a price which was Rs 2500 less than the price at which the first was sold. If the overall profit earned by selling both the mobile phones was 5%, wha t was the cost price of one mobile phone?

(a) Rs 8000

(b) Rs 5000

(c) Rs 6000

(d) Rs 4500

(e) Rs 5500
None

17. A shopkeeper buys a chair and a table for Rs . 1500. He sells the chair at 20% profit and table at 30% profit. If total profit is 33 1 3 % of S.P. of table, find C.P. of chair ?

(a) Rs 600

(b) Rs 900

(c) Rs 750

(d) Rs 650

(e) Rs 55
None

18. A shopkeeper marked up a shirt 50% above the cost price and allows successive discounts of 111/9% and 10% on it. If the difference between profit earned and discount given is Rs. 200 then find the marked price of the shirt?

(a) Rs. 2100

(b) Rs. 3000

(c) Rs. 2400

(d) Rs. 3600

(e) Rs. 330
None

19. A shopkeeper sells two pens, he sold 1 pen at profit and other pen at loss. SP of each of the two pens is Rs.300 and profit percentage on 1 pen is equal to loss percentage on other. If overall loss of shopkeeper is 6.25%, then find difference between cost price of both pen.

(a) Rs.350

(b) Rs.100

(c) Rs.240

(d) Rs.160

(e) Rs.30
None

20. The selling price of an article is 60% of its marked price and shopkeeper gets a profit of 20%. If shopkeeper sells the article at its marked price, then the difference between cost price and marked price of article is Rs. 140. Find the cost price of the article.

(a) 490 Rs

(b) 280 Rs

(c) 70 Rs

(d) 140 Rs

(e) 210 Rs
None

March 21, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 99 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If the unit of force were 10N, that of power were 1MW and that of time 1 millisecond then the unit of length would be:

a) 10 m
b) 100 m
c) 10^-1 m
d) 10^-2 mDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3.

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 6%
d) 12%Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate ‘α’ for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate ‘β’ to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, maximum velocity reached by the car is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A ball is moving with speed 20 m/s collides with a smooth surface as shown in figure. The magnitude of change in velocity in m/s of the ball will be:

a) 10√3
b) 40√3
c) 20
d) 20√3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. If impulse I varies with time t as I = (30t²-360t) kgms^-1. The change in momentum is minimum at t equals

a) 5s
b) 6s
c) 4s
d) 3s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is

a) 2 N
b) 10 N
c) 20 N
d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. An older model car accelerates from 0 to speed v in a time interval of Δt. A newer, more powerful sports car accelerates from 0 to 3v in the same time period. Assuming the energy coming from the engine appears only as kinetic energy of the cars and that the cars are of same mass. Choose correct statement

a) The power of the sports car is three times that of the older-model car
b) The power of the sports car is six times that of the older-model car
c) The power of the sports car is equal that of the older-model car
d) The power of the sports car is nine times that of the older-model car
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kgm²about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 120 rpm about the axis. the torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in 90 seconds would be

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density ρ is bent into a circular loop with centre at O as shown. The moment of inertia of loop about axis XX’ is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Match the column-I with column-II, for a satellite in circular orbit

(Where M_E is the mass of the earth, m is mass of the satellite and r is the radius of the orbit)
a) A–r, B–s, C–q, D–p
b) A–s, B–r, C–p, D–q
c) A–p, B–q, C–s, D–r
d) A–q, B–p, C–r, D–s

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A projectile is fired with a speed v=√2gRfrom the surface of earth. It escapes the gravitational pull of earth. Its speed in interstellar space will be

a) 2gR
b) √2gR
c) gr² d) √gR
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If kinetic energy of rotation is 40% of kinetic energy in translatory state, then the body is a

a) cylinder
b) circular ring
c) solid sphere
d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option among the following.
Statement-A: In pure translational motion at any instant of time, all particles of the body have the same velocity.
Statement-B: In pure rotation of the rigid body about a fixed axis, every particle of the body moves in a circle, which lies in a plane parallel to the axis and has its centre on the axis.

a) Both A & B are correct
b) Neither A is correct nor B is correct
c) A is incorrect and B is correct
d) A is correct and B is incorrect
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Two-point masses m₁ and m₂ at rest in gravity-free space are released from distance d. Find the velocity of centre of mass of system in m/s at the time of collision of masses

a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 1/3
d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole

a) gets larger
b) gets smaller
c) remains of the same size
d) gets deformed
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. In a water-fall the water falls from a height of 100 m. If the entire K.E. of water is converted into heat, the rise in temperature of water will be

a) 0.23 °C
b) 0.46 °C
c) 2.3 °C
d) 0.023 °C
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is

a) zero
b) equal to heat given to the system
c) more than heat given to the system
d) independent of heat given to the system
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Choose the incorrect statement related to an isobaric process.

a) V/T=constant
b) W = PΔV
c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising the temperature only.
d) D. ΔQ > W
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A diatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic change according to the P-V diagram shown in the figure. The total heat given to the gas is nearly (use ln 2 = 0.7)

a) 2.5 P₀V₀
b) 1.4 P₀V₀
c) 1.1 P₀ V₀ d) 3.9 P₀ V₀
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 20, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (SIMPLIFICATION 2)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (SIMPLIFICATION 2)

1. What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
1347 + 254 + 457 – 3382 + 8745 – 5723 = ?

a) 1709

b) 1608

c) 1702

d) 1698

e) None of these
None

2. What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
1124 + [24 + {23 – (27 + 6 × 9) + 91} + 66.67% of 75] = ?² + 270

a) 31

b) 32

c) 33

d) 21

e) 29
None

3. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
4968.02 ÷ 216.004 – 3725.921 ÷ 207.004 = ∛?

a) 125

b) 225

c) 150

d) 140

e) 155
None

4. Direction: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
9837 + 315 × 6 = (?) + 77 × 13 + 10% of 1500

a) 10296

b) 10386

c) 10576

d) 10666

e) 10956
None

5. What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
1920/?² + 96/6 – 10 = 1/30 + 42/7

a) 120

b) 430

c) 123

d) 320

e) 240
None

6. What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question?
[{(1948 + 652 – 140) ÷ (41 × 8)} + (313 ÷ 2)] = 2⁶+ 10^?

a) 10

b) 5

c) 2

d) 1

e) 8
None

7. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
216^1/3 × 26⁴ × 39⁴ ÷ [12⁴ × 3 × 2^-3] = 13^?

a) 8

b) 12

c) 4

d) 10

e) 16
None

8.

a) 1568

b)1484

c) 1674

d) 1878

e) 2106
None

9.

a) 7073

b) 7074

c) 6982

d) 7004

e) 6984
None

10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
(19 × 26) – (14 × 17) + 24 = ? × 7 × 95 ÷ 19

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) None of these
None

11. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
52 × 48 + 113 × 87 + 35 × 25 = ? – √196

a) 13215

b) 13216

c) 13217

d) 13218

e) 13219
None

12. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
(4 × 3)⁴ ÷ (9 × 16)³ × (64 × 27)⁵ = (12)^?

a) 11

b) 12

c) 13

d) 14

e) 15
None

13. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
935.5 + 555.4 + 64.5 + 1444.6 = 600% of ?

a) 200

b) 250

c) 300

d) 350

e) None of these
None

15. What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
35 × 25 + 55 × 45 + 75 × 65 = ? × 5

a) 1220

b) 1330

c) 1455

d) 1665

e) 1645
None

15. What will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
81^2.4 ÷ 27 ^{– 0.4} × 243^0.1 = 3^{? + 0.3}

a) 11

b) 12

c) 13

d) 14

e) 15
None

16. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
600 + 38% of ? = 60² – 32 – 2²

a) 7200

b) 7800

c) 7600

d) 7400

e) 8200
None

17.

a) 144

b) 14

c) 196

d) (√14)

e) 194
None

18. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(13/17) + (0.375 × 64) ÷ (13/4 – 12/5) = ?

a) 27

b) 35

c) 33

d) 29

e) 31
None

19. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
72.5 × 4 – 300% of √6241 = √?

a) 2704

b) 2809

c) 3969

d) 3844

e) 3973
None

20. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
64³ ÷ 16 ÷ 8 – 36 × 25 = 4 × ?

a) 307

b) 317

c) 270

d) 287

e) 300
None

21. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
165% × 24 ÷ 3 + 35% of 1200 = ?

a) 459.40

b) 440

c) 469.40

d) 449.40

e) 433.20
None

22. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
125 × 24 + 60% of 660 = 4 × ?

a) 759

b) 829

c) 849

d) 750

e) 730
None

23.

a) 56

b) 26

c) 46

d) 16

e) 36
None

24. What value should come in place of ‘x’ in the following question?
√6889 – √2116 + √2704 ÷ √676 × 3 = x

a) 45

b) 43

c) 54

d) 55

e) None of these
None

25. What value should come in place of ‘x’ in the following question?
703 ÷ 19 × 8 + (75 ÷ 2 × 4 + 52) = x

a) 498

b) 468

c) 458

d) 438

e) 490
None

26. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
[(3/2) of 974 ÷ 3] + √676 – (?/4) = 471 – ∛343

a) 176

b) 187

c) 196

d) – 196

e) – 204
None

27. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
88.60% of 1500 + 39.25% of 800 + 63.20% of 2500 + 25.40% of 4500 = ?

a) 4856

b) 4466

c) 4256

d) 4366

e) None of these
None

28. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
416 × 35 + 225 × 26 – 48 × 42 – 42 × 84 = (?) × 2

a) 6363

b) 5375

c) 7372

d) 7433

e) 3000
None

29. What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
791 + 7 × 62 – 73 + 45% of 80 = ?% of 90

a) 132

b) 640

c) 1220

d) 1320

e) None of these
None

30. What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
49% of 520 + 51% of 480 = ? – 5.4

a) 505

b) 502

c) 499

d) 559

e) 488
None

31. What will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions?
6³ × 3⁴ ÷ 9³ + ?² = 7²

a) 3

b) 10

c) 5

d) 2

e) 8
None

32. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(1/2) of (7/2) ÷ {(1/4) + (1/2) – (2/3)} – 16 + 3 × (1/3) ÷ (1/4) = 3^?

a) 2

b) 1

c) 3

d) 5

e) 4
None

33. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(∛512 × 5 ÷ 2) × (24 of 8 ÷ 3) + 5² = ?³ – 26

a) 10

b) 12

c) 13

d) 11

e) 14
None

35. What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
[(72)² ÷ 24 × 8] ÷ 24 = 6 × ?

a) 13

b) 14

c) 15

d) 11

e) 12
None

35. What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
15% of 450 + 17 × 5.5 = ?

a) 144

b) 174

c) 161

d) 165

e) 147
None

36. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
12.5 × 14 ÷ 8.75 + 12 = 20 + ?

a) 14

b) 11

c) 12

d) 18

e) 15
None

38. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
36 × 1.75 + 24 × 3.25 = ?

a) 142

b) 141

c) 162

d) 182

e) 152
None

38. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
1.6% of 1000 × 2.4% of ? = 288

a) 750

b) 600

c) 890

d) 679

e) 567
None

39. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
[130 × 130 ÷ 25 × 15] ÷ 30 = ?

a) 338

b) 456

c) 345

d) 354

e) 453
None

Time’s up

March 19, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (SIMPLIFICATION 1)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (SIMPLIFICATION 1)

1. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
5³ × 2³ = ? × 10

a) 60

b) 100

c) 40

d) 20

e) 80
None

2. What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question?
2³× 3² ÷ (90 ÷ ?) = √64

a) 10

b) 12

c) 20

d)15

e) 18
None

3. What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question?
125^1/3 × 27^1/3 × 125^4/3 = 15 × 5^?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 1

d) 2

e) 4
None

4. What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the following question?
√144 × √81 – (6)² = ? + (8)²

a) 6

b) 8

c) 10

d) 12

e) 16
None

5.

a) 90

b) 70

c) 60

d) 80

e) 110
None

6. What value should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(√64) × 150% – 88 ÷ 22 = ?

a) 6

b) 8

c) 3

d) 2

e) 12
None

7.

a) 212

b) 106

c) 84

d) – 84

e) 53
None

8. What value should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
48 – 55 ÷ 5 × 11 + √289 = ?

a) 15

b) 7

c) 55

d) -56

e) -44
None

9.

a) 3

b) -1

c) -2

d) 1

e) 2
None

10. What value should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
∛1728 – √49 × ∛125 + ? = √484

a) 84

b) 125

c) 45

d) 44

e) 121
None

11.

a) 524

b) 254

c) 121

d) 242

e) 423
None

12. What value should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(77 × 11 ÷ 7 + 2) ÷ ∛27 = ?

a) 36

b) 41

c) 47

d) 51

e) 66
None

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a) 88

b) 98

c) 90

d) 86

e) 92
None

14. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
50% of 7800 ÷ 26 ÷ 25 = ?

a) 4

b) 12

c) 8

d) 6

e) 2
None

15. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
18 – ? + 19 + (11)² = 120

a) 38

b) 48

c) 42

d) 34

e) 24
None

16. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
256 × 2^-5 × ? = (2/25) of 50 × 75

a) 25

b) 37.5

c) 22.5

d) 50

e) 16
None

17. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
1/8 + 1/12 – 1/4 + 1/? = 0

a) 12

b) 10

c) 24

d) 34

e) 18
None

18. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
∛512 × √36 – ? × 16 = 16

a) 5

b) 4

c) 2

d) 1

e) 3
None

19. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
49.99% of 199.99 + 4.98³ + 9.99% of ? = 19.99²

a) 1650

b) 1750

c) 1950

d) 2050

e) 1850
None

20. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
20% of 500 ÷ ? + [40% of 400] = 164

a) 15

b) 125

c) 50

d) 75

e) 25
None

21. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?
12.5% of 100 + 1/4 × 1728 – 4.5 = ?

a) 620

b) 560

c) 480

d) 520

e) 440
None

22. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
25 × 164 + 112 of 5 = 4 × ?

a) 1215

b) 1275

c) 1165

d) 1135

e) 1195
None

23. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
30% of 550 + 110% of 50 = ?³ + 4

a) 4

b) 8

c) 12

d) 16

e) 6
None

24.

a) 8

b) 10

c) 6

d) 12

e) 4
None

25. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
512^(1/9) × 729^(1/6)= ?^(1/2)

a) 25

b) 49

c) 36

d) 40

e) 21
None

26. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
√? + 1/6 of 216 + ∛512 = 108

a) 256

b) 4096

c) 16

d) 4

e) 216
None

27. What value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(50 + 22) ÷ 0.24 ÷ 15 = ?

a) 20

b) 10

c) 41

d) 29

e) 25
None

28.

a) 5

b) 12

c) 7

d) 9

e) 10
None

29. What value should come in place of question mark(?) in the question?
17 × 6 – 30% of ? = 42

a) 100

b) -100

c) 200

d) -200

e) 50
None

30. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
12 + 15 ÷ 5 – ? = 10

a) 5

b) 10

c) 6

d) 15

e) 2
None

31. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following question?
1331 ÷ 11 + 90 × 104 = ?

a) 9485

b) 9481

c) 10205

d) 9495

e) 10106
None

32. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
7 + (8 – 3 of 2) = ?

a) 9

b) 5

c) 0

d) 6

e) 7
None

33. What will come in place of the question mark?
√4 × 100% of 26 = 13 × ?

a) 3

b) 3.5

c) 1

d) 2

e) 4
None

34. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
6{35 + (72 + 12 ÷ 2 × 3 – 50) + 5} = ?

a) 480

b) 485

c) 481

d) 960

e) 470
None

35. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(4200 + 5600 – 4000 – 600) ÷ ? = 200

a) 36

b) 63

c) 26

d) 16

e) None of these
None

36. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
785 – 215 + 615 – 385 = ?

a) 600

b) 700

c) 500

d) 800

e) None of these
None

37. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
404 ÷ 4 × 5 + 30 – 135 = ?

a) 405

b) 410

c) 400

d) 480

e) 470
None

Time’s up

March 18, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PERCENTAGE 3)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PERCENTAGE 3)

1. In 2015, Testbook had n number of questions in its question bank. If it increased by 25% in 2016 and further 60% in 2017. In 2018, the number of questions declined by 60%. If in 2015 the percentage of hard questions was 30% of the total questions and that of in 2018 it is 40%, then what is the percentage change in the hard questions in this duration?

a) 6.67% Increase

b) 5% Increase

c) 6% Decrease

d) 5% Decrease

e) None of the above
None

2. P’s salary is 40% more than Q’s salary. R’s salary is ¾ of Q’s salary. Now the salary of P and Q is increased by 5% and salary of R is increased by 8%. After increment, what percent of P’s salary is the salary of R?

a) 56.78%

b) 53.57%

c) 18.66%

d) 55.10%

e) 50%
None

3. Total salary of A, B and C is Rs. 86000. Salary of A is 40% less than salary of B and salary of C is Rs. 5000 less than salary of B. Salary of A is what percent of salary of C?

a) 77.77%

b) 70%

c) 19.99%

d) 33%

e) 45%
None

4. Radha decided to save 25% of her monthly income. But due to her high expenditure, she could only save Rs. 2500, which is 40% of what she wanted to save. By what percent her expenditure was increased?

a) 10%

b) 15%

c) 5%

d) 20%

e) 25%
None

5. Given below are two quantities named 1 and 2. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
Quantity 1: Total number of books in the library.
In a library, 20% of the books are in German, 20% are in Japanese and 18% are in Hindi. The remaining 29400 books are in Urdu.
Quantity 2: The value of 4 × 7⁵

a) Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

b) Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

c) Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

d) Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

e) Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or No relation
None

6. In the box, the price of 50 books is 75% of the price of 120 notebooks. The price of a pen is Rs.20. The price of a pen is 40% of price of a notebook. If 10 same pens are added into the box, then what is difference in the price of book and the price of the notebook?

a) Rs. 100

b) Rs. 80

c) Rs. 75

d) Rs. 20

e) Rs. 40
None

7. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by ___ % and the denominator by ___ %, the original fraction 8/15 is decreased by 60%.
Which of the following option satisfies the two blanks in the question?

A. 20, 50
B. 50, 200
C. 100, 400
D. 200, 300

a) Only A

b) Only B

c) Only C

d) Only D

e) Not enough information
None

8. A school has a certain number of students out of which 40% come to school by bus and 50% come to school by auto and 20% students come by both transport and remaining 750 students come by walking. The total number of students who come to school only by bus is what percent of the total number of students who come to school only by Auto?

a) 66.66%

b) 50%

c) 45%

d) 40%

e) 33.33%
None

9. A boy, after giving away 80% of his pocket money to one companion and 6% of the remainder to another, has 47 paise left with him. How much pocket money did the boy have in the beginning?

a) Rs. 2

b) Rs. 2.50

c) Rs. 5

d) Rs. 1.25

e) Rs. 1.5
None

10. The weight of two persons Amit and Sumit is in the ratio 5 : 7. Sumit’s weight is increased by 20% and the total weight of Amit and Sumit together became 156kg with an increase of 30%. By what percent did the weight of Amit increase?

a) 44%

b) 63%

c) 46%

d) 33%

e) 40%
None

11. There were two candidates in an election. 10% of the total voters did not cast their votes whereas 5% of the casting votes were declared invalid. If the winning candidate received 50% votes of the total voters and won by 7250 votes, then find out the total number of Voters?

a) 50,000

b) 48,000

c) 36,000

d) 56,000

e) 60,000
None

12. There are two candidates participated in an election. 10% voters did not cast their votes and 60 votes were found to be invalid. The winner got 47% votes of the total voters and won by 308 votes. Find the number of voters in the voting list.

a) 6300

b) 6200

c) 6100

d) 6600

e) 7000
None

13. In an examination, Manikarnika got 30% of total marks and got failed by 30 marks. If she could get 30% more marks than what she actually got then she would have got 45 marks more than just passing marks. Find the maximum approximate marks in the examination.

a) 333

b) 833

c) 733

d) 533

e) 433
None

14. In an election, three candidates are participating. 25% voters didn’t cast their votes and 6.66% of the total votes are invalid. C got 2450 valid votes which is 40% more than the valid votes got by B. If A got only 40% of the total valid votes, then find the individual valid votes of A, B and C respectively.

a) 5400, 1750, 2450

b) 5600, 2450, 1750

c) 2800, 1750, 2450

d) 1750, 2450, 5600

e) None of these
None

15. Ram answered 24 out of the first 40 questions correctly. Of the remaining questions, he marked 3/4^th correctly. Each question carries equal marks and there is no deduction for the wrong answer. If he gets 70% marks, then the number of the questions in an exam is –

a) 180

b) 100

c) 120

d) 300

e) 150
None

16. The cost of packaging of the oranges is one – fourth the cost of fresh oranges themselves. The cost of oranges increased by two – fifth but the cost of packaging decreased by 50%, then find the percentage change of the cost of packed oranges, if the cost of packed oranges is equal to the sum of the cost of fresh oranges and cost of packaging.

a) 24%

b) 22%

c) 25%

d) 23%

e) None of these
None

17. A cowherd has 1 million cows at the beginning of the year 1990. The numbers grow by x% (x > 0) during the year. A famine hits his town in the next year and many of his cows died. The cow population decreased by y% during 1991 and at the beginning of 1992, the cowherd finds that he is left with 1 million cows. Which of the following is correct?

a) y > x

b) x > y

c) x = y

d) x ≥ y

e) Cannot be determined
None

18. Ram saves 15% of his income. His income is raised by 12%, but the saving remains the same. Find the hike in his expenditure.

a) 14.8%

b) 35.26%

c) 14.12%

d) 35.45%

e) None of these
None

19. There are two numbers ‘x’ and ‘y’, where ‘x’ is greater than ‘y’. If the difference between 37.5% of ‘y’ and 25% of ‘x’ is equal to the 25% of the difference between ‘x’ and ‘y’, then find the ratio of ‘x’ and ‘y’.

a) 5 : 4

b) 4 : 3

c) 3 : 2

d) 2 : 1

e) 3 : 4
None

20. The ratio of P’s to Q’s salary is 5 : 7. If Q’s salary is increased by 35%, his salary becomes Rs. 52,920. What is the salary of P?

a) Rs. 27350

b) Rs. 28000

c) Rs. 23000

d) Rs. 17260

e) None of these
None

21. Prashant bought a device from an online store for Rs. 22000, but it was faulty so he returned it, the company accepts a return after deducting 10%. He saw the same device at a discounted price of Rs. 19000, he again ordered the same device, again it was found faulty, he makes a return, the company takes the return after deducting 12%. The amount of money he lost in this whole transaction is what percent of the cost of the device he bought initially?

a) 19.36%

b) 21.47%

c) 20.37%

d) 22.15%

e) 18.24%
None

22. In an election, 80% of the people casted their votes and 45% of the voters who casted votes are employed and 66.67% of employed voters are engineers. Find the percentage of engineers among total voters?

a) 12%

b) 24%

c) 50%

d) 76%

e) 48%
None

23. Aditya and Harshit go to Europe trips for enjoyment. Both spends 25% on food, 15% on traveling, 10% on shopping and 1/5^th part of his total amount on party and drugs. If the difference between their saving and Expenditure on shopping is 80000 then how much amount both have when go to Europe trips?

a) 5 lakhs

b) 4 lakhs

c) 3 lakhs

d) 2 lakhs

e) 1 lakhs
None

24. Govind saves 20% of his income and the rest are spent, if his salary is increased by 25% and the expenditure of Govind also increases, then find the increase in % of his expenditure. If the new saving of Govind is 12% of his salary,

a) 33.33%

b) 25%

c) 37.5%

d) 20%

e) None of these
None

25. A man spends 15%, 20% & 25% of his monthly income on mutual funds, travelling & medicines respectively and remaining of the income on households. If the difference between expenditures on households & mutual funds is Rs. 16,800 then calculate his monthly income.

a) Rs. 55,300

b) Rs. 58,400

c) Rs. 67,200

d) Rs. 75,200

e) Rs. 62,500
None

26. When the price of flour was increased by 20%, a family increase its consumption in such a way that the expenditure on flour was only 44% more than before. If previously family consumes 50 kg flour monthly, find the new monthly consumption of the same family.

a) 37.5 kg

b) 70 kg

c) 55 kg

d) 60 kg

e) None of these
None

27. If Mr. Karan salary is increased by 18% and then decreased by 12%. Then, find the percentage of increase or decrease in salary.

a) 3.43% increase

b) 3.48% decrease

c) 3.84% increase

d) 4.43% decrease

e) 4.85% decrease
None

Time’s up

March 18, 2025
BANKING TEST SERIES (PERCENTAGE 1)

Welcome to your BANKING TEST SERIES (PERCENTAGE 1)

1. If the price of petrol has increased from Rs. 40 per litre to Rs. 60 per litre, by how much percent a person has to decrease his consumption so that his expenditure remains same.

a) 66.67%

b) 40%

c) 33.33%

d) 45%

e) None of these
None

2. The price of wheat is reduced by 4%. How many more or less kg of wheat can now be bought for the money which was sufficient to buy 48 kg wheat earlier?

a) 1 kg less

b) 1 kg more

c) 2 kg more

d) 2 kg less

e) none of these
None

3. The price of an umbrella decreased by 20%. As a result of which the sale increased by 40%. What will be the net effect on the total revenue of the shop?

a) 12% decrease

b) 16% increase

c) 20% decrease

d) 12% increase

e) 18% decrease
None

4. Dhivya’s salary was increased by 50% and subsequently decreased by 20%. By what percent her salary got increased from the original salary?

a) 20%

b) 30%

c) 25%

d) 35%

e) 16.66%
None

5. A car driver’s income consist of his salary and tips. Every month his tips were 5/4 of his salary. What portion of his income came from tips?

a) 4/7

b) 3/7

c) 5/9

d) 5/8

e) 5/11
None

6. The ratio between male and female in a city is 4 : 7. The children percentage among the males and females of the city is 25% and 30% respectively. If the number of adult males in the city is 9000, then find the population of the city?

a) 32000

b) 30000

c) 35000

d) 33000

e) 28000
None

7. In an examination, Bharat scored 45% marks and failed by 18 marks. In the same examination, Ram scored 54% marks and get 27 marks more than the passing marks. What is the score of Mohan in the same examination, who secured 75%?

a) 450

b) 375

c) 670

d) 342

e) none of these
None

8. The difference between <span id="MathJax-Element-3-Frame" class="MathJax" style="display: inline;font-style: normal;font-weight: normal;line-height: normal;font-size: 14px;text-indent: 0px;text-align: left;text-transform: none;letter-spacing: normal;float: none;direction: ltr;max-width: none;max-height: none;min-width: 0px;min-height: 0px;border: 0px;padding: 0px;margin: 0px;color: inherit !important;background-color: inherit !important;position: relative" role="presentation" data-mathml="3313%”>33 1/3 of a number and <span id="MathJax-Element-4-Frame" class="MathJax" style="display: inline;font-style: normal;font-weight: normal;line-height: normal;font-size: 14px;text-indent: 0px;text-align: left;text-transform: none;letter-spacing: normal;float: none;direction: ltr;max-width: none;max-height: none;min-width: 0px;min-height: 0px;border: 0px;padding: 0px;margin: 0px;color: inherit !important;background-color: inherit !important;position: relative" role="presentation" data-mathml="1623%”>16 2/3% of the same number is 132. What is <span id="MathJax-Element-5-Frame" class="MathJax" style="display: inline;font-style: normal;font-weight: normal;line-height: normal;font-size: 14px;text-indent: 0px;text-align: left;text-transform: none;letter-spacing: normal;float: none;direction: ltr;max-width: none;max-height: none;min-width: 0px;min-height: 0px;border: 0px;padding: 0px;margin: 0px;color: inherit !important;background-color: inherit !important;position: relative" role="presentation" data-mathml="9111%”>9 1/11% of that number?

a) 54

b) 30

c) 72

d) 81

e) 45
None

9. In an election a candidate got 75% of the total votes and elected by a majority of 350 votes. Find the total number of votes polled.

a) 500

b) 800

c) 1000

d) 700

e) 1200
None

10. A number X is 150% of another number Y, which is 40% of 30. Find the difference in the value of Y and X.

a) 9

b) 8

c) 7

d) 6

e) 5
None

11. If side of square is increased by 20% the area is increased by how much percent?

a) 45%

b) 40%

c) 44%

d) 12%

e) 20%
None

12. Rohan deposits 20 % of his salary in the bank account and spends 25 % of the remaining amount on household activities. If the cash in hand is Rs 3150. Find his salary.

a) Rs 5350

b) Rs 5450

c) Rs 5150

d) Rs 5250

e) Rs 5550
None

13. There are two numbers. The difference between these two numbers is equal to 20% of the sum of the number. Then, find the ratio of the numbers

a) 1:2

b) 3:2

c) 4:5

d) 6:7

e) 3:7
None

14. If a number A is 30% less than another number B and B is 20% more than 150, then what is the value of A?

a) 144

b) 156

c) 136

d) 126

e) 111
None

15. Hari’s monthly salary is Rs. 1,65,000. His saving is 10% of his expenditure. Find his saving.

a) Rs 20000

b) Rs 10000

c) Rs 15000

d) Rs 50000

e) Rs 17000
None

16. Present income of Gopal is Rs. 72,900, it has been decreasing annually at the rate of 10%. What was the income of the Gopal before 3 years?

a) Rs. 80,000

b) Rs. 1,00,000

c) Rs. 85,000

d) Rs. 90,000

e) None of these
None

17. In an election, A got 43% of total votes and B got 57% of the total votes. If the difference between the number of votes is 5054, find the total number of voters.

a) 36,500

b) 35,300

c) 35,700

d) 36,100

e) 37,900
None

18. The difference between the two numbers is 85. If 52% of a number is equal to 69% of another number. What is the value of a bigger number?

a) 300

b) 350

c) 345

d) 260

e) None of these
None

19. A person spends 10% of his income on medical, 20% of his income spend on traveling, and the rest of his income spend on others. If the expenditure on others is Rs. 3500 then, find the total income?

a) Rs. 6000

b) Rs. 4000

c) Rs. 4500

d) Rs. 5000

e) None of these
None

20. A person has total income Rs. x. He spends 20% of his income on travelling, 30% on groceries and was left with Rs. 2500. What was his total income?

a) Rs. 4500

b) Rs. 5000

c) Rs. 4000

d) Rs. 3000

e) Rs. 3500
None

Time’s up

March 18, 2025

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