Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

SMATEE TEST SERIES 8 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. Which of the following is not a fundamental unit?
a) kelvin
b) ampere
c) candela
d) volt

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The dimensional formula for kinetic energy is

a) [M L² T^-1]
b) [M L^-1 T²]
c) [M L² T^-2]
d) [M L^-2 T^-2]

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The number of significant figures in 4.690×10³ is

a) 3
b) 4
c) 7
d) 6

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The area under velocity-time graph gives

a) distance travelled
b) displacement
c) acceleration
d) deceleration

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The acceleration of a body having displacement y=-5t³+2t-65 is

a) -15t
b) -15t²c) -30t
d) -30t²

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 0º
b) 90º
c) 180º
d) 45º

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The trajectory of a body fired at an angle to the horizontal follows a

a) circular path
b) parabolic path
c) hyperbolic path
d) elliptical path

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For a particle undergoing a uniform circular motion, its angular acceleration along the circular path is

a) constant

b) always positive

c) always negative

d) zero

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. SI unit of magnetic flux is

a) Weber
b) Ohm
c) Tesla
d) Voltage

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The peak voltage of an ac supply is 440 V, then its rms voltage is

a) 31.11V
b) 311.1V
c) 41.11V
d) 411.1V

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the photoelectric experiment?

a) The photocurrent increases with intensity of light.
b) Stopping potential increases with increase in intensity of incident light.
c) The photocurrent increases with increase in frequency.
d) All of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because

a) it is monochromatic
b) it is not chromatic
c) it is not observed
d) it has small angular spread

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. For a total internal reflection, which of the following is correct?

a) Light travel from rarer to denser medium.
b) Light travel from denser to rarer medium.
c) Light travels in air only.
d) Light travels in water only.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The breaking stress of a wire depends on

a) material of the wire
b) length of the wire
c) radius of the wire
d) shape of the cross section

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which one of the following is not a periodic motion?

a) Rotation of the earth about its axis.
b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N-S direction and released.
c) Motion of hands of a clock.
d) An arrow released from a bow

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The sound waves travel fastest in:

a) liquids
b) solids
c) gases
d) vacuum

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A body is positively charged, it implies that

a) there is only positive charge in the body.

b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is more than negative charge

c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies in the outer regions

d) negative charge is displaced from its position

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

a) Its radius decreases
b) Its radius increases
c) The bubble collapses
d) None of these

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. When a body is charged by induction, then the body

a) becomes neutral
b) does not lose any charge
c) loses whole of the charge on it
d) loses part of the charge on it

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The force of repulsion between two electrons at a certain distance is F. The force between two protons separated by the same distance is (m_p = 1836 m_e)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 14, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 89 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. In the relation y=r sin(ωt-kx), the dimensions of ω/k are
a) [M⁰ L¹ T⁰]
b) [M⁰ L⁰ T¹]
c) [M⁰ L⁰ T⁰]
d) [M⁰ L¹ T^-1]Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Percentage error in measuring the mass (m) & radius (R) of a solid sphere are 3% & 2% Then error in measurement of moment of inertia about its diameter will be:

a) 5%

b) 7%

c) 4%

d) 8%

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is √3/2 times its initial speed. If the range of the projectile is ‘P’ times the maximum height attained by it, P is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A homemade rocket is ejecting 0.05 Kg of gases per second at a velocity of 300 m/s. The thrust force on the rocket is:

a) 20 N

b) 15 N

c) 30 N

d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A crane lifts 300 kg weight from earth’s surface up to height of 4 m in 1/12^th The average power generated by it will be: (g = 9.8 m/s)

a) 1965 W
b) 2300 W
c) 4520 W
d) 2352 W
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 3 kg are moving along the same straight line with speeds 4 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system when particles are moving in opposite directions is V₁ and when particles are moving in same direction is V₂. The ratio V₂ /V₁ is:

a) 1:7
b) 7:1
c) 2:5
d) 5:2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In given diagram find out maximum energy stored in spring. Extension in spring is zero initially.

a) 400 J
b) 500 J
c) 300 J
d) 100 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The ratio of the radius of a planet ‘A’ to that of planet ‘B’ is ‘r’. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the planets taken in the same order is ‘x’. The ratio of the escape velocities of planet B to that of planet A is:

a) x/r
b) r/x
c) (xr)^1/2d) (xr)^-1/2Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. the space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force between bodies will now be:

a) F/2
b) 3F
c) F/3
d) F
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to orbit of radius 5/3 r ? (Mass of earth is M)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12.

a) k/4
b) -k/4
c) k/9
d) -k/9Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A ball is thrown on a horizontal surface in such a way that it initially slides with a speed v₀ without rolling. It gradually picks up rotation motion. Find the speed of the ball at which there will be rolling without slipping–

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A circular disc has a mass of 1 kg and radius 40 cm. It is rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with a speed of 10 rev/s. The work done in joules in stopping it would be approximately:

a) 56 J

b) 147 J

c) 180 J

d) 158 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The time period of an earth satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is 2 days and its orbital velocity is v₁. If time period of another satellite in a circular orbit is 16 days, then

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. If α, β and γ are coefficient of linear, area and volume expansion respectively, then

a) γ = 3α
b) α = 3γ
c) β = 3α
d) γ = 3β
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. If two rods and of equal length , and different areas of cross-section A₁ and A₂ have one end each at temperature T₁ and T₂, have equal rates of flow of heat, then

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Heat is associated with

a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules
b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules
c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules
d) kinetic energy of random motion in some cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion in other
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is (1 cal = 4.2 J)

a) 2 kJ

b) 8 kJ

c) 3.5 kJ

d) 5.5 kJ
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and the amount of work done on the system is 15 J, then the change in internal energy of the system is

a) –50 J
b) 20 J
c) 30 J
d) 50 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 13, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 131 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the Earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be:

(a) 3V/4
(b) 6V
(c) 12V
(d) 3V/2

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light of intensity I₀ Now the intensity of light passing through polaroid after polarization would be :

(a) I₀(b) I₀/ 2
(c) I₀/ 4
(d) Zero

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. If the mass of Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, then which of the following is not correct?

a) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.
b) Walking on the ground would become more difficult.
c) Raindrops will fall faster.
d) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the Earth’s surface, where R is Earth’s radius. If g is the acceleration due to gravity at Earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy is:
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be:

(a) 900 Ω

(b) 1800 Ω

(c) 500 Ω

(d) 1000 Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is:

(a) 18 N
(b) 2 N
(c) 6 N
(d) 8 N

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. If x longitudinal strain is produced in a wire of Young’s modulus y, then energy stored per unit volume in the material of the wire is:
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at resonance is:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. If a block moving up an inclined plane inclined at an angle, θ = 30° with a velocity 5m / s stops after 0.5 sec, then μ is:

(a) 0.5
(b) 1.25
(c) 0.6
(d) none of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant K, the capacity:

(a) Decreases K times
(b) Increases K times
(c) Increases K² times
(d) Remains constant

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 ×10^-3 The self-inductance of the solenoid is:

(a) 4 H
(b) 3 H
(c) 2 H
(d) 1 H

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Potential energy of a satellite having mass ‘m’ and rotating at a height of 6.4 10⁶ m from the Earth centre is:

(a) -0.5mgR_e(b) -mgR_e(c) -2mgR_e(d) 4mgR_e

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between

(a) n = 3 and n = 1 states
(b) n = 2 and n = 1 states
(c) n = 4 and n = 3 states
(d) n = 3 and n = 2 states
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The given electrical network is equivalent to :

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:

(a) 4.8π μV
(b) 0.8π μV
(c) 1.6π μV
(d) 3.2π μν
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. An astronaut orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius 120 km above the surface of Earth, gently drops a spoon out of his space-ship. The spoon will:

a) fall vertically down to the Earth.
b) move towards the Moon.
c) move along with the space-ship.
d) move in an irregular way then fall down to the Earth.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. When a body is lifted from surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius of the earth, then the change in its potential energy is

(a) mgR
(b) 2 mgR
(c) 1/2 mgR
(d) 4 mgR
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A magnet of magnetic moment M and pole strength m is divided in two equal parts, then magnetic moment of each part will be:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz main frequency, the fundament frequency in the ripple would be

(a) 25Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 70.7 Hz
(d) 100 Hz
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. 70 cal of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant pressure from C to C The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the same sample of the gas through the same range of temperature ( C to C) at constant volume will be (gas constant = 2cal / mol )

(a) 30 cal
(b) 50 cal
(c) 60 cal
(d) 80 cal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 8, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 3 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. In an isothermal change of an ideal gas. The change in heat energy 𝛥𝑄 is equal to

a) 0.5 ΔW
b) ΔW
c) 1.5 ΔW
d) 2 ΔW
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. In an adiabatic process, the quantity which remains constant is

a) volume
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) total heat of the system
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas,

a) heat is gained or lost.
b) heat is neither gained nor lost.
c) temperature is kept constant.
d) volume is kept constant.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Indicator diagram is a graph between

a) 𝑃 and 𝑇
b) 𝑉 and 𝑇
c) P and V
d) None of the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The relation 𝑃𝑉=𝑅𝑇 can describe behaviour of a real gas at

a) high temperature and high density
b) high temperature and low density
c) low temperature and low density
d) low temperature and high density
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The absolute zero is the temperature, at which

a) all substance exist in solid state
b) water freezes
c) molecule motion ceases
d) none of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A gas behave as an ideal gas at

a) low pressure and high temperature
b) low pressure and low temperature
c) high pressure and high temperature
d) high pressure and low temperature
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The number of degree of freedom for a diatomic gas molecule is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The degree of freedom of a triatomic gas is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 6
d) 8Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The translation kinetic energy of gas molecule for one mole of the gas is equal to
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The combination of which of the following processes results in the formation of a rainbow?

a) Dispersion and Total Internal Reflection
b) Dispersion and Absorption
c) Refraction and Scattering
d) Dispersion and FocussingDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s wave theory?

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Photoelectric effectDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The speed of light in air is 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹.

a) 0×10⁸ms⁻¹

b) 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

c) 4.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

d) 5.0×10⁸ms⁻¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Two lenses of power −15D and +5D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination is

a) −20cm
b) −10cm
c) +20cm
d) +10cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact. The focal length of this combination is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A real image is obtained at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 7.5 cm. Find the distance of the object from the lens.

a) -10

b) 10

c) -20

d) 20
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. An object is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. Calculate the magnification of the image?

a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.15
d) 0.3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A thin prism of 2∘angle gives a deviation of 1∘. What is the value of refractive index of the material of the prism.

a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric circles
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
d) scattering of light by the particles of air
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 7, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (08.03.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (08.03.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

1. COLUMN I
(A) Cochin Port is being skipped following the confirmation of two cases of COVID-19
(B) Mr. Abdullah’s supporters held violent demonstrations before the U.S. to
(C) The JSW Group set up its first largest and fully- automated industrial coil coatings
COLUMN II
(D) with most of them abstaining from voting in the lacklustre.
(E) facility with an annual capacity of 25,000 kilolitre (KL) in Mumbai.
(F) have two plants and are planning to expand their business.

(a) A-F                        (b) B-D                       (c) C-E
(d) C-D & B-E (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

2. COLUMN I
(A) The discourse on mainstreaming women in the police
(B) One of the first steps to ensure a level playing field
(C) The impulse to create men-only battalions
COLUMN II
(D) sake of augmenting numbers should be eliminated.
(E) by making policing inclusive is missing in policy circles.
(F) for women in the police is to increase their numbers.

(a) A-E & B-D            (b) A-E & B-F           (c) C-F & A-D
(d) B-E & C-D            (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

3. COLUMN I
(A) It is well known that the efficiency of a government
(B) In our country during the independence struggle, provincial
(C) Recognising the possibility of imbalance between resources and

COLUMN II
(D) regarded as an integral part of the freedom movement.
(E) responsibilities, many countries have a system of inter-governmental transfers.
(F) depends on, among other factors, its structure.

(a) B-F & C-D            (b) C-E & A-F           (c) B-E & A-D
(d) C-E & B-F            (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

4. COLUMN I
(A) The Indian Constitution lays down the functions
(B) The Fourteenth Finance Commission
(C) The Planning Commission was replaced by the

COLUMN II
(D) new ground in terms of allocation of resources
(E) as well as taxing powers of the Centre and States
(F) which was simply a think-tank with no powers

(a) C-D (b) A-E                       (c) B-E
(d) C-F                        (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

COLUMN I
(A) India is considered measures
(B) goods to India in little
(C) amid strained ties with Beijing

COLUMN II
(D) India is considering measures
(E) goods to India with little
(F) amid strained ties for Beijing

(a) A-D & B-E (b) A-D, B-E & C-F (c) B-E
(d) C-F & A-D (e) no error

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

COLUMN I
(A) There’s a widespread impression
(B) will only be regulate the
(C) of the legacy e-commerce players

COLUMN II
(D) There’s an widespread impression
(E) will only regulate the
(F) of the legacy e-commerce player

(a) A-D & B-E (b) A-D, B-E & C-F (c) B-E
(d) C-F & A-D (e) no error

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

COLUMN I
(A) IRDAI is exempted
(B) from issue policy document
(C) to policies issued this

COLUMN II
(D) IRDAI has exempted
(E) from issuing policy document
(F) for policies issued this

(a) A-D & B-E            (b) A-D, B-E & C-F (c) B-E
(d) C-F & A-D (e) no error

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

COLUMN I
(A) By rejecting the three-language
(B) has only reiterated the
(C) on an emotive and political issue

COLUMN II
(D) By rejection the three-language
(E) have only reiterated the
(F) in an emotive and political issue

(a) A-D & B-E            (b) A-D, B-E & C-F (c) C-F
(d) C-F & A-D (e) no error

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

9. Cryptocurrencies have now been ________________ by international trading firms for use in lending, raising funds for other crypto projects besides __________________ easier cross-border payments.

COLUMN I COLUMN II
(A) return (D) detained
(B) adopted (E) facilitating
(C) allied (F) expedite

(a) A-D                       (b) C-D                       (c) B-E
(d) C-F                        (e) C-E and B-F

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

10. Prime Minister said India would put to use its _______________ of water from the rivers flowing to Pakistan and _______________ that every single drop was used for the country’s farmers.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(I) contribution (IV) rationalise
(II) share                                             (V) ensure
(III) dominant                                     (VI) tolerate

(a) II-V                       (b) I-V                         (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

11. They were_______________ before a magistrate, who_______________ them to the Central Jail”, Deputy Inspector General V.K Birdi said.
COLUMN A                                       COLUMN B
(I) produced (IV) bound
(II) propound                                      (V) sent
(III) presented (VI) retain

(a) II-V                        (b) I-V                        (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

12. Some______________ in how the job profiles are searched for — with special key words — can help the start-up ______________the search down to candidates who match the requirements more closely.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(I) finesse (IV) wide
(II) dedication                                                 (V) narrow
(III) smartness (VI) relative

(a) II-V                        (b) I-V                        (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

13. COLUMN I
(A) If organizations or states do not learn from one another,
(B) Wide collaboration means including everyone
(C) The more we talk about the importance of cybersecurity

COLUMN II
(D) generations of cybersecurity professionals we very much need
(E) the same attacks will needlessly take down countless entities
(F) repositories that are part of our operational systems

(a) C-D & B-F            (b) A-E                       (c) B-D
(d) C-F & A-E            (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

14. COLUMN I
(A) Only one museum currently has the funding to contend for
(B) Speculators, thieves, and promoters long ago created
(C) Ethical appeals notwithstanding, great

COLUMN II
(D) transfer will disseminate once static fortunes
(E) art will increasingly devolve into big business
(F) and fed a market where cultural icons could be traded like commodities

(a) B-F & C-D            (b) C-E & A-F            (c) B-E & A-D
(d) C-E & B-F (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

15. COLUMN I
(A) A lack of meaningful GDPR enforcement by
(B) Neither companies nor CMPs seem keen on
(C) The results of our empirical survey

COLUMN II
(D) shoring up that pathetic 12 percent compliance rate
(E) regulators had already been fairly well established
(F) stop data collection, or misled the end user

(a) A-E & B-D           (b) A-E & B-F            (c) C-F & A-D
(d) B-E & C-D (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-20): In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

1. Statements: A > B = C < D
Q

Conclusions: I. A < D

II. P > C

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

2. Statements: A > N = Q > T ≤ Y ≤ S < U
Conclusions: I. T < S
II. T = S
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

3. Statements: K < B M < H ≥ N
Conclusions: I. K < N
II. B < D
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

4. Statements: L = N ≤ R ≤ O ≤ Q ≥ A < C ≤ X
Conclusions: I. L = Q
II. L < Q
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

5. Statements: P ≥ R > Q < T ≤ S
Conclusions: I. T > Q
II. T > R
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c)Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

6. Statements: a > b ≤ c = d > e = f > g
Conclusions: I. d > g
II. a= d
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c)Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

7. Statements: V ≤ B ≤ M = S ≥ F ≥ G = H
Conclusions: I. M > G
II. M = H
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

8. Statements: L ≤ C ≥ F > K ≥ D > M
Conclusions: I. L < F
II. C > D

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

9. Statements: N > V ≥ L ≥ O ≤ W ≤ A > D
Conclusions: I. N > O
II. A > O
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

10. Statements: T > B > N ≥ Y < D S > I < L ≤ Q < G = H
Conclusions: I. Y > L
II. H > I
III. W ≥ I
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusion II and III follow
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follow
(e) Both conclusion I and III follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

11. Statements: J > M, N ≤ R, R < M
Conclusions: I. N < J
II. N < M
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

12. Statements: F T
Conclusions: I. F > T
II. N > T
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

13. Statements: Z ≥ H, B < H, K < B
Conclusions: I. K > Z
II. K = Z
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

14. Statements: F T
Conclusions: I. F = D
II. F < D

(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

15. Statements: J > M, N ≤ R, R < M
Conclusions: I. J > R
II. N = R
(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

16. Statements: H ≤ R, R < M, M = J
Conclusions: I. M > H
II. H = J
(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

17. Statements: B ≤ K, K > M, C ≤ M
Conclusions: I. B = C
II. K = C
(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

18. Statements: G < L; D ≥ G; H = L; H ≤ B
Conclusions: I. G > B
II. B > D
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

19. Statements: E ≥ Y ≥ Z; P > Q ≥ Y = S
Conclusions: I. Q ≥ Z
II. P > S
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

20. Statements: N ≤ Q; M > B; Q = R < O < M
Conclusions: I. N < O
II. Q ≤ M
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

QA SECTION

1. The average weight of the 10-person group is 50 kg. A person left the group and the average weight of the group decreased by one kg. If one new person joins the group of remaining people, then the average weight of the group becomes 52 kg. Find the difference between the weight of the person who left the group and the person who joined the group.

(a) 30 kg (b) 16 kg           (c) 18 kg
(d) 24 kg           (e) 20 kg

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

2. The ratio of present age of A and B is 1 : 3 respectively and the ratio of present age of A and C is 2 : 3. If the difference between present age of A and C is two years, then find the sum of age of A, B and C fourteen years hence.

(a) 54 years            (b) 20 years       (c) 64 years
(d) 48 years            (e) 60 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

3. The average earning of a group of eight persons is Rs 25 per day. The difference between the person having highest earning and lowest earning in the group is Rs 45. If person having highest and lowest earning are excluded, then the average earning of the group decreased by Rs 2.5. Find the average earning of the group when the three persons whose sum of earnings are equal to the person having highest earning left the group?

(a) Rs 29               (b) Rs 28.5        (c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 29.5 (e) Rs 30.5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

4. Average of present age of A, B and C is 15 years. If sum of present age of A and C is 27 years, then find the present age of B.

(a) 16 years            (b) 24 years       (c) 20 years
(d) 18 years (e) 12 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

5. The average weight of a group of five people is 85 kg. If a new person joined the group and the average weight decreased by 5 kg, then find the weight of the new person.

(a) 45 kg                (b) 58 kg           (c) 61 kg
(d) 42 kg                (e) 55 kg

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

6. ‘x’ years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 7 : 5. ‘x+4’ years hence the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 4 : 3. If present age of A is 26 years, then find the present age of B

(a) 21 years            (b) 12 years       (c) 15 years
(d) 18 years           (e) 19 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

7. Five years ago, the average age of A and B was 15 years. The ratio of present age of A and C is 6 : 5 respectively. If B is four years younger than C, then find the sum of present age of B and C (in years).

(a) 34 years            (b) 32 years       (c) 36 years
(d) 24 years (e) 40 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

8. The average weight of eight people is X kg. Two new people joined them with total weight of 151 kg and average weight of all people increased by 3/2 kg. If the weight of lightest people out of two people joined is X−5 kg, the find the difference between weight these two people who joined later.

(a) 27 kg                (b) 21 kg           (c) 15 kg
(d) 25 kg (e) 22 kg

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

9. Average of present age A, B and C is 14 years, while four years ago, average age of B, C and D was 15 years. If the sum of present of A and D is 27 years, then find the age of D five years hence will be (in years).

(a) 21                    (b) 26               (c) 17
(d) 27                    (e) 29

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

10. A man age is (3p+2q) years and his only son’s age is ‘p’ years while his only daughter’s age is ‘q’ years. Man’s son is three years elder than her sister. If man’s wife is five years younger than her husband who is 34 years old, then find average age of the family (in years).

(a) 14.5                  (b) 19.0            (c) 16.5
(d) 22.5                 (e) 20.5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

11. The average of 11 numbers is 71 and average of first five numbers is 67. If average of last four numbers is 91.5 and the ratio of sixth and seventh number is 9 : 7, then find the sixth number.

(a) 54                    (b) 36               (c) 27
(d) 45 (e) 35

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

12. The ratio of present ages of A to B is 3:4, X years ago the ratio was 5: 7 and sum of ages of A and B after X years is 48. Find the present age of B.

(a) 16 years (b) 24 years      (c) 32 years
(d) None of the above (e) Can’t be determined.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

13. The ratio of ages of P and R four years ago was 7:4, respectively, and the present average age of P and Q is 21 years. If Q’s present age is twice that of R, then find the present age of P (in years

(a) 12                    (b) 18               (c) 24
(d) 16                    (e) 20

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

14. The ratio of the ages of P and Q five years ago was 7:5, respectively, while the ratio of the ages of P and Q after seven years will be 13:11, respectively. If the present ages of P and Q are ‘a’ years and ‘b’ years, respectively, and the present age of R is 20% more than that of Q, then find the age of R after 12 years.

(a) a+b-8               (b) 2b-8            (c) 3a-b
(d) 3b-a                 (e) 2a-8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

15. In a class, there are ‘a+10’ students whose average weight is 30 kg. If ‘b’ more students with an average weight of 64 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by four kg. If ‘b+3’ students with an average weight of 38 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by two kg. Find the value of 5 (a + b).

(a) 20                    (b) 50               (c) 45
(d) 35                    (e) 25

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

16. The ratio of ages of C and D eight year hence will be 25: 29. If B is 11 years younger to C and sum of ages of B and D is 27 years, then find the present age of D (in year

(a) 21                    (b) 25               (c) 22
(d) 29 (e) 30

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

17. The average of set A of five consecutive even number is 18 and set B contains three consecutives even number such that ratio of smallest to largest number is 7 : 9. Set C contains six consecutive natural number such that second smallest number of set C is the sum of smallest number of sets A and B. Find the second largest number of set C.

(a) 30                    (b) 20               (c) 31
(d) 15 (e) 9

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

18. The age of four sister is in a series of consecutive composite number. The age of the oldest sister is multiple of 25 & less than 100 while the age of second youngest sister eight years ago is 2x where x is a positive integer. Find the age (in years) of youngest sister after seven years.

(a) 77 (b) 79               (c) 80
(d) 53                    (e) 28

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

19. The ratio of present age of A to that of B is 5 : 4 respectively. Four years hence, age of A will be three years more than age of B six years hence. Find the present age of B

(a) 12 years            (b) 20 years      (c) 16 years
(d) 24 years (e) 28 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

20. 3/4th of present age of Ram is equal to 2/3rd of present age of shyam. Four years ago, if sum of age of Ram & Shyam was 60 years, then find the present age of Ram?

(a) 32 years           (b) 28 years       (c) 48 years
(d) 36 years (e) 54 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

1 out of 11

March 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 86 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The pitch and the number of circular Scale divisions in a screw gauge with least count 0.002 mm are respectively

a) 1mm and 100
b) 0.5 mm and 50
c) 1mm and 50
d) 0.5 mm and 100
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. One centimetre on the main scale of a vernier callipers is divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of vernier coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of vernier callipers is

a) 0.01 cm

b) 0.02 cm

c) 0.05 cm

d) 0.005 cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is

a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) always more than 1
d) equal to or less than 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then A. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then

a) T_A > T_B
b) T_A= T_B
c) T_A< T_B
b) their time of flights depend on their masses.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Acceleration due to gravity

a) a scalar
b) a vector
c) a polar vector
d) a pseudo vector
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a process
b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take negative values
c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from one point to another in space
d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers with different orientation of the axes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. No force is required for

a) an object moving in straight line with constant velocity
b) an object moving in circular motion
c) an object moving with constant acceleration
d) an object moving in elliptical path.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 10 kg
b) 10√2 kg
c) 10√3 kg
d) 200 kgDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A planet goes round the sun three times as fast as the earth. If r_p and r_e are the radii of orbit of the planet and the earth respectively then

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 5 ×10^–4 K^–1. The fractional change in the density of glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is:

a) 0.020
b) 0.025
c) 0.010
d) 0.015
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In a reversible cyclic process of a gaseous system

a) ΔQ =ΔU
b) ΔU =ΔW
c) ΔW = 0
d) ΔU = 0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure so as to double its volume. The final temperature of the gas will be, close to

a) 327°C
b) 200°C
c) 54°C
d) 300°C
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric intensity at centre O will be

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Figure shows two hollow charged conductors A and B having same positive surface charge densities. B is placed inside A and does not touches it. On connecting them with a conductor

a) charge will flow from A to B
b) charge will flow from B to A
c) charge oscillates between A and B
d) no charge will flow.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value C is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

a) C/4
b) 3C/4
c) 4C/3
d) 3C
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is 𝑅. If its length and radius are both doubled, then

a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Maximum energy evolved during which of the following transition?

a) n = 1 to n = 2
b) n = 2 to n = 1
c) n = 2 to n = 6
d) n = 6 to n = 2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. O₂ molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two atoms

a) is not important because nuclear forces are short –ranged
b) is as important as electrostatic force for binding the two atoms
c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei
d) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal number of neutrons and protons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
II. Nuclear density is around 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3.
II. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary matter.
IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.

a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I, II, III and IV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 46 MeV
b) 5.6 MeV
c) 3.9 MeV
d) 23 MeVDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

March 6, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 1 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The SI unit of force is

a) kg m s^-2
b) kg m² s^-2
c) kg² m s^-2
a) kg m s^-1
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Joule is a unit of

a) Energy
b) Torque
c) Power
d) ForceDeselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The number of significant figures in 0.07200

a) 6
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and 0.301 in appropriate significant figures is

a) 663.821
b) 663.8
c) 664
d) 663.82Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 kg and 2.5 m³ The density of the material of the body in correct significant figures is:

a) 1.6948 kg m^-3
b) 1.69 kg m^-3
c) 1.7 kg m^-3
d) 1.695 kg m^-3Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The numbers 3.645 and 3.635 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give

a) 3.65 and 3.64
b) 3.64 and 3.63
c) 3.65 and 3.63
d) 3.64 and 3.64Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2 m and 10.1 m respectively. The area of the sheet in appropriate significant figures and errors is

a) 164 ± 3 m²

b) 163.62 ± 2.6 m²

c) 163.6 ± 2.6 m²

a) 163.62 ± 3 m²
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Which of the following measurements is most precise?

a) 5.00 mm
b) 5.00 𝑐𝑚
c) 5.00 𝑚
d) 5.00 𝑘𝑚Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The mean length of an object is 7 cm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate?

a) 6.9 cm
b) 6.852
c) 7.25
d) 7.5Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Which of the following are not unit of time?

a) Second
b) year
c) Light Year
d) DecadesDeselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. The radius of the Earth is 𝑅. What will be the distance between the Earth and the Moon, if the diameter of the Earth subtends an angle 2° to an observer on the moon?

a) 30 𝑅
b) 60 R
c) 100 𝑅
d) 180 𝑅Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. The dimensional formula of Power is

a) [ML² T^-2]
b) [ML² T^-3]
c) [M²L T^-3]
d) [M²L² T^-3]
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. The SI unit of solid angle is

a) Steradian
b) Radian
c) Joule per second
d) Newton per coulomb
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. The dimensional formula of potential difference is

a) [MLT^-2 A^-2]
b) [ML²T^-2 A^-1]
c) [ML²T^-3 A^-1]
d) [ML²T^-3 A^-2]
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Number of fundamental units in SI system is

a) 4
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. A particle executes SHM along a straight line so that its period is 12s. The time it takes in traversing a distance equal to half its amplitude from its equilibrium position is –

a) 6s
b) 4s
c) 2s
d) 1s
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. Particle moves on the x-axis according to the equation x = A + B sin ωt. The motion is simple harmonic with amplitude.

a) A
b) B
c) A + B
d) A²+ B²
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. The amplitude and time period in SHM are 0.8 cm and 0.2 sec respectively. If the initial phase is π/2 radian, then the equation representing SHM is –

a) y = 0.8 cos 10πt
b) y = 0.8 sin πt
c) y = 3 × 0.8 sin πt
d) y = 0.8 sin 10 πt
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. The equation of SHM of a particle is a + 4π2x = 0 where ‘a’ is instantaneous linear acceleration at displacement x. The frequency of motion is –

a) 1 Hz
b) 4π Hz
c) Hz
d) 4Hz 41
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. What is the shortest possible period of an Earth satellite in circular orbit?

a) 2π√R/g
b) zero
c) 1 day
d) 1 year
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

March 1, 2025
BANKING 09 WEEKLY TEST 01.03.2025

Welcome to your BANKING 09 WEEKLY TEST 01.03.2025

Name

Email

ZZR ID

REASONING SECTION

1 If in the number ‘73548961’ all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(a) None (b) One (c)Two
(d) Three (e) More than three

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

2. If in the number ‘68715492’ all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(a) None (b) One (c)Two
(d) Three (e) More than three

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

3. How many such digits are there in the number ‘56298732’ each of which as far away from the beginning of the numbers as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

(a) None (b) One (c)Three
(d) Four (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GOLDEN’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) Two (b) None (c) One
(d) Three (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERFECTION’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) Two (b) None (c) One
(d) Three (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MISUNDERSTANDING’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) More than Four

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

7. If the letters at odd positions in the word “PARAMETER” starting from left are changed to their next letter according to the English alphabet, then how many vowels are there after rearrangement?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Three
(d) Four (e) Five

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

8. If it is possible to make only one 7-letter meaningful English word from the 2nd, the 3rd, the 4th, 6th, 8th, 9th and the 11th letters of the word TRANSPARENT, using each letter only once, the last letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made mark ‘X’ as your answer, and if more than one such word can be formed mark ‘Y’ as your answer.

(a) X (b) Y (c) T
(d) R (e) E

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

9. If a five-letter meaningful word can be formed by using the first, third, fifth, sixth and eighth letters from the word “HALLOWEEN”, then what is the last letter of the newly formed word? Mark X as your answer if more than one word is formed. Mark Z if no meaningful word can be formed.

(a) Z (b) L (c) W
(d) E (e) X

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

10. If the positions of the 1st and 2nd letters of the word “DESPERATELY” are interchanged; similarly the positions of the 3rd and 4th letters are interchanged and so on, then which of the following letters will be 8th from the left end after arrangement?

(a) R (b) S (c) E
(d) T (e) A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

11. In a code language if a ‘rat’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is ‘mongoose’, ‘mongoose’ is ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is ‘snake’ and ‘snake’ is ‘elephant’, then, which will be a domestic animal?

(a) Mongoose (b) Lion (c) Rat
(d) Dog (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

12. If ‘cat’ is called ‘horse’, ‘horse’ is called ‘mouse’, ‘mouse’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘lion’ and ‘lion’ is called ‘ant’, then which animal barks?

(a) Horse (b) Ant (c) Dog
(d) Lion (e) Mouse

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

13. If ‘bear’ is called ‘fish’, ‘fish’ is called ‘crow’, ‘crow’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘elephant’ and ‘elephant’ is called ‘ass’, then who cannot remain alive in other place than water?

(a) Fish (b) Crow (c) Ass
(d) Elephant (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

14. In a certain code ‘GIGANTIC’ is written as ‘GIGTANCI’. How is ‘MIRACLES’ written in that code?

(a) MIRLCAES (b) MIRLACSE (c) RIMCALSE
(d) RIMLCAES (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

15. If in a certain code, ‘RESPONSES’ is written as ‘ESRONPESS’, then how can ‘SIGNATURE’ be written in that code?

(a) ISNGTARUE (b) ERUTANGIS (c) GISTANERU
(d) IGSATNREU (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

16. In a certain language, ‘CHAMPION’ is coded as ‘HCMAIPNO’, how is ‘NEGATIVE’ coded in that code?

(a) ENAGITEV (b) NEAGVEIT (c) MGAETVIE
(d) EGAITEVN (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

17. If in a certain language, ‘GAMBLE’ is coded as ‘FBLCKF’, how is ‘FLOWER’ coded in that code?

(a) GKPVFQ (b) EMNXES (c) GMPVDS
(d) HNQYGT (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

18. If ‘JDINHPE’ codes for ‘MINIMAL’, what is the possible code for ‘PATTERN’?

(a) LUAYNGH (b) LAUYNGH (c) LUAYNHH
(d) LUAYNGG (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

19. If ‘ENTRY’ is coded as ‘12345’ and ‘STEADY’ is coded as ‘931785’, then what is the correct code for ‘NEATNESS’?

(a) 21733199 (b) 21712299 (c) 21732199
(d) 21713399 (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

20. If CAT=12 and GIRL=23, then RABBIT=?

(a) 24 (b) 28 (c) 25
(d) 27 (e) 26

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

QA SECTION

1. In an election only two candidates participate and candidate ‘P’ got 50% less votes than ‘Q’. If Q got 200 votes less, then there would have been a tie. Find the total number of total votes polled?

(a) 800 (b) 2000 (c) 1600
(d) 1200 (e) 1400

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

2. A annually saves 15% and 20% of his income in 2017 and 2018 respectively. If A annually saves Rs. 45000 in 2017, then find the amount saved by A in 2018.

(a) 40000 Rs. (b) 36000 Rs. (c) 60000 Rs.

(d) Can’t determine (e) 48000 Rs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

3. A spend 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the remaining on food and 50% of the remaining on travelling. If the difference between the amount he spends on travelling and that on rent is Rs.13000, then find the monthly income (in Rs.) of A?

(a) Rs.40000 (b) Rs.50000 (c) Rs.30000
(d) Rs.20000 (e) Rs.55000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

4. P scored 20% more marks than Q in an exam. If both scored four marks more, then the sum of marks scored by P and Q together would have been 20% more than the passing marks of the exam. If passing marks of the exam is 80, then find the marks scored by P?

(a) 52 (b) 48 (c) 46

(d) 54 (e) 50

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

5. Out of the total population in a city, 25% casted invalid votes and the winning candidate received 14 2/7% more than votes received by the loosing candidate. Find the percentage of votes received by winning candidate with respect to the total votes in the city (only two candidates participated in the elections).

(a) 40% (b) 25% (c) 50%

(d) 75% (e) 60%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

6. The ratio of income of P to that of Q is 2:3 and the ratio of expenditure of P to that Q is 5:6. If the income of Q is increased by 50% and expenditure is same, then the saving of Q becomes Rs.12000. If saving of P is Rs.3000, then find the income of P.

(a) Rs.10500 (b) Rs.9500 (c) Rs.7000
(d) Rs.5000 (e) Rs.8000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

7. If 25% & 50% of total residents of wings A and B respectively do not watch a newly arrived web shows ‘M’. Total number of residents do not watch web show ‘M’ from wing C are equal to the average number of residents watch the web show ‘M’ in wings A & B. Find the percentage of total number of residents watch web show ‘M’ from wing C with respect of total number of people in the society

(a) 12.5% (b) 14.5% (c) 15.5%

(d) 20.5% (e) 30%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

8. A spend 25 % of her monthly salary on house rent. From the remaining, he spends 30% on food, 10% on grocery, 40% on miscellaneous. If the amount he saves is Rs.9150, then find the monthly salary of A (in Rs.).

(a) Rs.60000 (b) Rs.61000 (c) Rs.51000

(d) Rs.40000 (e) Rs.45000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

9. A spend 25% of his monthly salary on household and 20% of the remaining salary spend on rent. A spend remaining salary on travelling and food in the ratio of 2:3 respectively. Difference between amounts spend on food and household is Rs.1540, then find the monthly expenditure of A.

(a) Rs.18000 (b) Rs.15600 (c) Rs.12100

(d) Rs.14000 (e) Rs.9050

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

10. If 45% of X is equal to 60% of Y and the average of both the numbers is 20 less than the X, then find 60% of Y.

(a) 108 (b) 64 (c) 72

(d) 96 (e) 80

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

11. The ratio of income & savings of a man is in ratio of 16:3 respectively. If his savings increases by 1/3^rd and expenditure increased by 1/2 , then find the ratio of new income to earlier income of man?

(a) 39 : 32 (b) 23 : 16 (c) 47 : 32
(d) 32 : 19 (e) 47 : 36

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

12. In an election only two candidates participate. Candidate ‘P’ got 50% less votes than ‘Q’. Had Q got 200 votes less there would have been a tie. What is the 8 times of the number of total votes polled.

(a) 800 (b) 7200 (c) 3200

(d) 9600 (e) 3600

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

13. 40% of ‘x’ is equal to 30% of ‘y’. If average of x & y is 30 more than x, then find 75% of the ‘y’.

(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 240
(d) 210 (e) 360

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

14. Ram spend 20% of his monthly income on rent, 10% from the remaining income he spends on food, 30% on travel and 2/5^th amount he gives to his mother. If the difference between amount he spends on travel & amount he gives to his mother is Rs. 11200, then find the monthly income of Ram.

(a) 120000 Rs. (b) 140000 Rs. (c) 150000 Rs.

(d) 180000 Rs. (e) 130000 Rs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

15. A man spent 20% of his monthly income on house rent, 20% of the remaining income on Food. If from the remaining income, ratio of amount spent on clothing to saving of a man is 7: 9 and difference between amount spent on Food and clothing is Rs.1080, then find income of man for nine months.

(a) Rs. 81000 (b) Rs.70000 (c) Rs.68000

(d) Rs.96000 (e) Rs.108000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

16. The population of city P decreased by 20% every year and population of city Q decreased by 8% every year. If after two years population of city Q was 22088 more than that of city P and initially it was 20000 more than that of population of city P, then find the population of city Q initially.

(a) 30000 (b) 45000 (c) 42000

(d) 36000 (e) 54000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

17. If we add 7 to the numerator of the fraction and increases denominator by 100% then both become equal. And when the numerator is increased by 300% and denominator is increased by 5 then it becomes twice of the original fraction. What will be the half of original fraction?

(a) 3/8 (b) 5/12 (c) 3/10

(d) 5/16 (e) 4/15

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

18. A man spends 25% of his monthly salary on Rent and 32% on Groceries. He invests remaining salary in the ratio of 11: 5 in Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits. If difference between his yearly mutual funds and fixed deposit amount is Rs.77400, then find the amount he spends each month on Groceries.

(a) Rs.12800 (b) Rs.9600 (c) Rs.6400

(d) Rs.7200 (e) Rs.11200

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

19. Total population of town A is 25% less than that of town B. Female in town A are 40% of total population. Male of town B is 1320 more than that of town A. Female in town B are 46.01% of total population of town A. Find the total population (approx.) of both towns together

(a) 86000 (b) 96000 (c) 14400

(d) 11200 (e) 74000

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

20. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income, 120% of Maya’s monthly income. What is Maya’s monthly income, if Deepak’s monthly income is Rs. 78000?

(a) Rs. 39000 (b) Rs. 42000 (c) Rs. 36000
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
None

February 28, 2025
NEET MOCK TEST 2 ANSWER AWMLO

Welcome to your NEET MOCK TEST 2 ANSWER AWMLO

Name

Email

ZZR ID

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited

PHYSICS
1. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m². Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule, an angular acceleration of 25 rad/s² must be applied about that axis for a duration of:

(a) 4 seconds
(b) 2 seconds
(c) 8 seconds
(d) 10 seconds

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. During the production of X-rays, if voltage is increased, then the

a) minimum wavelength decreases
b) minimum wavelength increases
c) intensity decreases
d) intensity increases

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal:

a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
b) the antimony become an acceptor atom
c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
d) its resistance is increased

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at a distance r₁ and farthest away at a distance of r₂. If v₁ and v₂ are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio v₁ /v₂ is:

(a) (r₁/r₂)²
(b) r₂/r₁
(c) (r₂/r₁)²
(a) r1/r₂

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and the internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be:

(a) 2.0 A
(b) 1.0 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.1 A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. A gas is found to obey the law P²V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T₀ and V₀. If the gas expands to a volume 3V₀ , its final temperature becomes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is:

(a) 5R
(b) 15R
(c) 3R
(d) 4R

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I₁ at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience:

a) a net repulsive force away from the conductor.
b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
c) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
d) a net attractive force towards the conductor.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Electric field strength due to a point charge of 5 μC at a distance of 80 cm from the charge is:

(a) 8 × 10⁴ N/C
(b) 7 × 10⁴ N/C
(c) 5 × 10⁴ N/C
(d) 4 × 10⁴ N/C

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has:

a) low retentivity and high coercive force
b) high retentivity and high coercive force
c) low retentivity and low coercive force
d) high retentivity and low coercive force

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver?

(a) 350 Nm
(b) 440 Nm
(c) 531 Nm
(d) 628 Nm

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. In the given figure, equivalent resistance between A and B will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. A second’s pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its period of oscillation decreases when the rocket

a) comes down with uniform acceleration
b) moves up with a uniform velocity.
c) moves around the Earth in a geostationary orbit.
d) moves up with uniform acceleration.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of He⁺ ion in the first excited state will be:

(a) –13.6 eV
(b) –27.2 e
(c) –54.4 eV
(d) –6.8 eV

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. A fly wheel rotating about a fixed axis has a kinetic energy of 360 joule when its angular speed is 30 rad/s. The moment of inertia of the wheel about the axis of rotation is:

(a) 0.6 kg/m²
(b) 0.15 kgm²
(c) 0.8 kg ms²
(a) 0.7 kg m²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. A particle of mass moves in an XY plane with a velocity ‘v’ along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is L_A when it is at and L_B when it is at B then:

(a) L_A = L_B(b) The relationship between L_A and L_B depends upon the slope of the line
(c) L_A < L_B
(d) L_A > L_B

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Two wires are held perpendicular to the plane of paper 5 m apart. They carry currents of 2.5 A and 5 A in the same direction. Then the magnetic field strength B at a point midway between the wires will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. In the given figure, a diode is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an e.m.f of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be:

(a) 35 mA
(b) 30 mA
(c) 40 mA
(d) 20 mA

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

(b) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(c) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.
(d) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

21. The unit of Young’s modulus of elasticity is:

(a) N/m
(b) N · m
(c) N/m²(d) N · m²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

22. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 10⁴ turns per metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π²Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

(a) 16 μC
(b) 32 μC
(c) 16 πμC
(d) 32 πμC

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

23. Two closed end pipes when sounded together produce 5 beat per second. If their length are in the ratio 100 : 101, then fundamental notes produced by them are:

(a) 245, 250
(b) 250, 255
(c) 495, 500
(d) 500, 505

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

24. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4. The minimum distance covered before attaining a speed of 72 km/hr starting from rest is [g = 10 m/s²]

(a) 25 m
(b) 50 m
(c) 12.5 m
(d) 100 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

25. In a cylindrical vessel containing liquid of density p, there are two holes in the side walls at heights of h₁ and h₂ respectively such that the range of efflux at the bottom of the vessel is same. The height of a hole for which the rage of efflux would be maximum, will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

26. You measure two quantities as A = 1.0 m± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m± 0.2 m. You should report correct value for √AB as

(a) 1.4 ± 0.4 m
(b) 1.41 ± 0.15 m
(c) 1.4 ± 0.3 m
(d) 1.4 ± 0.2 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

27. For a crown glass prism ηv = 1.523 and ηr = 1.513 and mean η = 1.518 respectively. Dispersive power of the prism is

(a) 1.9 × 10^-4
(b) 1.9 × 10^-2
(c) 2.6 × 10^-3
(d) 2.6 × 10^-2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

28. Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then:

(a) water does not rise at all.

(b) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain.

(c) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.

(d) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

29. A body dropped from a height H reaches the ground with a speed of 12.√gH. Calculate the work done by air-friction.

(a) 2.8 mgH
(b) –1.3 mgH
(c) 1.3 mgH
(d) –0.28 mgH

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

30. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines emitted in the resulting spectrum will be:

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 3
(d) 2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

31. Choose the only false statement from the following:

a) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
c) The resistivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
d) The conductivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

32. A parachutist is in free fall before opening her parachute. The net force on her has a magnitude F and is directed downwards. This net force is somewhat less than, her weight w because of air resistance. Then, she opens her parachute. At the instant after her parachute fully inflates, the net force on her would be

(a) Greater than F and still directed downwards
(b) Less than F and still directed downwards
(c) Zero
(d) Directed upwards, but could be more or less than

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

33. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

34. The angular velocity of a rotating body changes uniformly from 1/100 rad/s to 10 rad/s without applying any torque but only by changing its radius of gyration. The ratio of radius of gyration in two cases (initial : final) will be:

(a) 10
(b) √10
(c) 10√10
(d) 100

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

35. A fish in water looking up sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. Given the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 24 cm below the water surface, the radius of the circle in cm is:

(a) 27 cm
(b) 24 cm
(c) 32 cm
(d) 16 cm

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

36. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressure P₁ and P₂?

(a) Cannot be predicted
(b) P₂= P₁
(c) P₂> P₁
(d) P₂< P₁

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

37. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 4 MHz enters from vacuum into a medium having permittivity, ε = 9. Then its

a) Wavelength triples and the frequency remains constant
b) Wavelength triples and frequency becomes one third
c) Wavelength becomes one third and frequency remains unchanged
d) Wavelength and frequency remain unchanged

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

38. A simple pendulum executing small oscillations has period T. If now the length of the pendulum is made 4 times, mass of the bob doubled and amplitude made one-fourth, the new period becomes:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

39. A gas is taken through the cycle A-B-C-A, as shown, what is the net work done by the gas?

(a) –2000 J
(b) 2000 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) 0 J

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

40. A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is:

(a) 3.6 ampere
(b) 2.8 ampere
(c) 2.5 ampere
(d) 5.0 ampere

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

41. The work function of a metal is 1 eV. If light of wavelength 3000 is incident on this metal surface, the velocity of emitted electrons will be:

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 10³ m/s
(c) 10⁴ m/s
(d) 10⁶ m/s

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

42. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I respectively are super imposed on each other. Then the resulting maximum and minimum intensities are:

(a) 5I and 3I
(b) 9I and 3I
(c) 4I and I
(d) 9I and I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

43. Four plates of same area of cross section are joined as shown in the figure. The distance between each plate is d. The equivalent capacity between A and B will be:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

44.

(a) 100 unit
(b) 80 unit
(c) 180 unit
(d) 360 unit

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

45. A vessel contains 1 mole of O₂ gas at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is P. An identical vessel containing one mole of He gas at temperature 2T has a pressure:

(a) 2P
(b) P/2
(c) 8P
(d) P/8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

CHEMISTRY
46. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Molarity of a solution depends on temperature.
Statement II: Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute present per kg of a solvent. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

47. Identify the correct set of isoelectronic species among the following:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

48. The kinetic energy of one electron is 8 × 10^-13J What will be the de-Broglie wavelength?

a) 9.25 × 10^-18 m
b) 9.25 × 10^-16 m
c) 9.25 × 10^-13 m
d) 18.5 × 10^-12 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

49. For which of the following reaction, K_p = K_c?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

50.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

51. In the laboratory, N₂ is prepared by heating a mixture of

a) NH₄Cl + NaOH
b) NH₄Cl + NaNO₂
c) NH₄OH + NaCl
d) NH₄NO₃ + NaCl

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

52. Of the following species which has the highest bond order and shortest bond length?
NO, NO⁺, NO²⁺a) NO only
b) Bond order of NO is highest and bond length of NO²⁺ is shortest
c) NO⁺ only
d) NO²⁺ only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

53. The number of lone pairs on Xe in XeF₂, XeF₄, and XeF₆, respectively are

(a) 3, 2, 1
(b) 2, 4, 6
(c) 3, 2, 0
(d) 6, 4, 2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

54. Which of the following halides is not hydrolysed?

(a) NCl₃(b) SiCl₄(c) CCI₄(d) PCl₃

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

55. The correct order of acidic strength is:

a) (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)
b) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)
c) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
d) (II) > (III) > (I) > (IV)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

56.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

57. Which of the following alcohol will be most reactive towards anhy. ZnCl₂ + HCl (lucas reagent)?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

58.

Product is:
a) 1, 3, 5-trichlorobenzene
b) Benzene hexachloride
c) Hexa chlorobenzene
d) Chlorobenzene

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

59. Match the enzymes in column I with their enzymatic reaction in column II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii)
b) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii)
c) (1)-(ii), (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(iii)
d) (1)-(iii), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

60. Given below are statements regarding Ionic or Electrovalent Bond and choose the incorrect option:
(I) Bond is formed between two or more atoms by mutual contribution and sharing of electrons.
(II) Formed between metals and non-metals.
(III) It is the electrostatic force of attraction which holds the oppositely charged ions together.
(IV) Example: NaCl

Options:
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

61. Which of the following curve represent the variation of λ_m with √(C )for AgNO₃?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

62. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): CO and N₂ are isosteres.

Reason (R): The molecules or ions with similar shape and electronic properties are called isosteres.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.

b) A is false but R is true.

c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

63. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

(a) Al < Ga < In < TI
(b) TI < In < Ga < Al
(c) In < TI < Ga < AI
(d) Ga < In < AI < TI

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

64. Which product is not formed in the following reaction?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

65. Which of the following reactions is correct?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

66. Predict the major product in the following reaction:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

67.

a) Product (P) is salicylaldehyde
b) Product (P) contains CHCl₂ group
c) Product (P) is salicylic acid
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

68. Given below are statements regarding bond angle and choose the incorrect option:
(I) Defined as the angle between the lines representing the orbitals containing the bonding-electrons.
(II) Bond angles cannot be calculated using spectroscopic methods.
(III) Unit of bond angle = kJ mol^-1Options:
(a) Only (I)
(b) (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

69. When ethly chloride and n-propyl chloride under- goes Wurtz reaction ……. is not obtained.

(a) n-butane
(b) n-pentane
(c) n- hexane
(d) isobutene

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

70. The radius of which of the following orbits is same as that of first orbit of H-atom?

(a) He⁺(n = 2)
(b) Li⁺²(n = 2)
(c) Li⁺²(n = 3)
(d) Be⁺³(n = 2)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

71. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): For a spontaneous reaction, at a particular temperature ∆G 0

Reason (R): Spontaneity criteria can be predicted by Gibb’s equation, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.

b) A is false but R is true.

c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

72. Which of the following when heated with KOH and primary amine gives carbylamine test?

(a) CHCI₃(b) CH₂ Cl₂(c) CH₃ OH
(d) CCI₄

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

73. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation

a) (+)-lactose
b) (+) – maltose
c) (-)- fructose
d) (₊)- sucrose

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

74. Which property decreases from left to right across the periodic table and increases from top to bottom respectively?
(I) Atomic radius         (ΙΙ) Ε.Ν
(III) Ι.Ε.                      (IV) Metallic character

Options:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

75. Which of the following statements are False?

a) Hydrolysis of sucrose gives dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose
b) Oxidation of glucose with bromine water gives glutamic acid
c) The two six-membered cyclic hemiacetal forms of D-(+)-glucose are called anomers
d) Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolysed to give polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

76. Which pair is Amphoteric in nature

a) N₂O and CO₂
b) Al₂O₃ and P₄O₁₀
c) SiO₂ and GeO₂
d) Al₂O₃ and PbO₂

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

77. Which of the following will give curdy white precipitate with AgNO₃ solution?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

78. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): For an elementary reaction, order and molecularity have the same value.
Reason (R): Order of a reaction can be zero, positive, negative or fractional.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

79.

Identify the above named reaction:

(a) Wurtz -Fittig reaction
(b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) Aldol reaction
(d) Étard reaction

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ on reaction with AgNO₃ gives AgCl
Statement II: AgNO₃ react with Cl to give AgCl (ppt)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both Statement and Statement S

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

81. Which of the following gives RNC, when reacted with CHCl, and KOH?

(a) RNH₂(b) R₂ NH
(c) R₃ N
(d) R₄ NCI

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

82. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Unit of rate constant for zero order reaction is mol L^-1 sec^-1.
b) Molecularity can be fractional.
c) Both order and molecularity can be zero.
d) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

83. Two liquids A and B form ideal solution at 300 K. The vapour pressure of a solution containing one mole of A and four moles of B is 560 mm of Hg. At the same temperature if one mole of B is taken out from the solution, the vapour pressure of solution decreases by 10 mm of Hg. Vapour pressures of A and B in pure state will be:

(a) 330, 550
(b) 200, 300
(c) 400, 600
(d) 800, 1200

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

84.

Identify the functional groups in A, B, C and D:

a) – NO₂, -NH₂, – N =N-,-OH
b) OH, -NH₂, -N=N-, -NO
c) – NO₂, -NH₂, – NH-NH-,-OH
d) -NO₂, -Cl, -ONO, -OH

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

85.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

86. In solid state PCl₅ is

a) Exist as covalent and Ionic
b) It has trigonal bypyramidal structure
c) Ionic solid with [ PCl₆]⁺ tetrahedral and [PCl₄]^– octahedral
d) Ionic solid with [ PCl₆]- octahedral and [PCl₄]⁺ tetrahedral

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

87. Which of the following is a buffer solution?

a) 500 mL of 0.1N CH₃ COOH + 500 mL of 0.1 NaOH
b) 500 mL of 0.1N CH₃ COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N HCI
c) 500 mL of 0.1N CH₃ COOH + 500 mL of 0.2 N NaOH
d) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH₃ COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N NaOH

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

88. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay process, the products that are recycled are:
(I) CO₂                                (II) NH₄ CI
(III) NH₃                            (IV) CaO
Options:
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (IV)
(d) (III) and (IV)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

89. Match the compounds of boron in column-I with their chemical formula in column-II.

Options:
a) (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii)
b) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii)
c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
d) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

90. In a container 96 g O₂, and 335 g Ne is present. If total pressure of gaseous mixture is 25 atm then what will be the partial pressure of Ne?

(a) 21.20 atm
(b) 15.7 atm
(c) 42.6 atm
(d) 3.56 atm

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

BOTANY

91. In the Krebs cycle of plant respiration, the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate involves:

(a) Substrate-level phosphorylation
(b) Oxidative decarboxylation
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Reduction of FAD⁺

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

92. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed colour the F2 progeny produced with genotype RrYy: rrYy: Rryy: rryy are respectively.

(a) 4:2:2:1
(b) 2:4:2:1
(c) 2:2:4:1
(d) 1:2:2:4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

93. Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane in plant cells is impermeable to NADH.
Reason (R): Shuttle mechanisms like the malate-aspartate shuttle are used to transport electrons from cytoplasmic NADH into the mitochondria.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

94. Cells of which of the following regions of root, undergo rapid enlargement and are responsible for the growth of root in length?

(a) Maturation region
(b) Elongation region
(c) Root cap
(d) Meristematic region

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

95. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are:

(a) Sub-metacentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Acrocentric
(d) Telocentric

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

96. Palmitic acid is a/an___ fatty acid with____ carbon atoms. The option that fills the blanks correctly respectively is

(a) Unsaturated, 16
(b) Saturated, 18
(c) Unsaturated, 18
(d) Saturated, 16

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

97. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II products if the meiocyte contains 40 pg DNA in G1-phase?

(a) 20 pg
(b) 40 pg
(c) 10 pg
(d) 30 pg

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

98. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial chromosome.

(a) They are metacentric chromosome.
(b) The centromere is present at the centre.
(c) During anaphase, these chromosomes are divided into two equal arms.
(d) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

99. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is:

(a) Kingdom
(c) Genus
(b) Species
(d) Order

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

100. Which of the following is a non proteinaceous enzyme?

(a) Lysozyme
(b) Ribozyme
(c) Deoxyribonuclease
(d) Carboxypeptidase

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

101. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis and catalysed by hexokinase?

(a) Glucose →Glucose-6-phosphate
(b) Glucose-6-phosphate→ Fructose-6 phosphate
(c) Fructose-6-phosphate→Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
(d) 2-phosphoglycerate→ phosphoenolpyruvate

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

102. Ethidium bromide gives_________ colour in ultraviolet radiations.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.

(a) Bright orange
(b) Purple
(c) Green
(d) Violet

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

103. Causal agent of mumps is

(a) Rubeola virus
(b) Corynebacterium
(c) Paramyxo
(d) Yersinia pestis.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

104. How many hot spots of biodiversity in India have been identified?

(a) 25
(c) 43
(b) 3
(d) 17

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

105. Which of these bonds is least likely to stabilize the three-dimensional folding of proteins?

(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Hydrophobic interactions
(c) Electrostatic interactions
(d) Ester bonds

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

106. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
(b) Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(c) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(d) Uracil is a pyrimidine.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

107. What is wrong about mycoplasma?

(a) They are called PPLO.
(b) They are pleomorphic.
(c) They are sensitive to penicillin.
(d) They produce diseases in plants.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

108. Which of the following statements is not an adaptation of the desert plants?

(a) Desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
(b) Desert plants have their stomata arranged in sunken pits.
(c) Desert plants have a special photosynthetic pathway called CAM.
(d) Desert plants have soft stems and large leaves.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

109. During aerobic respiration in plants, how many molecules of ATP are directly produced from one molecule of glucose via substrate level phosphorylation?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

110. NADP reductase enzyme is located on __A____ Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of ___B__

(a) A: Stroma lamellae, B: energy
(b) A: Grana lamellae, B: electrons
(c) A: Grana lamellae, B: energy
(d) A: Stroma lamellae, B: electrons

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

111. Which of the following group exhibits more species diversity?

(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

112. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a) It produces oxygen as the end product.
(b) It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
(c) It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
(d) It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

113. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein:

(a) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it.
(b) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
(c) Is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself resistance to its toxin.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

114. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is:

(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Sulphanilamide
(c) Malonate
(d) α-ketoglutarate

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

115. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as:

(a) Plastidome
(b) Polyhedral bodies
(c) Polysome
(d) Nucleosome

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

116. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of:

(a) Bats
(b) Water
(c) Insects or winds
(d) Birds

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

117. Protonema is:

(a) Haploid and is found in mosses
(b) Diploid and is found in liverworts
(c) Diploid and is found in mosses
(d) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

118. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands?
5’__________GAATTC_________3’
3’__________CTTAAG_________5’
What is so special shown in it?

(a) Replication completed
(b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5’ end
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

119. Nuclear membrane is absent:

(a) 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑜𝑥
(b) 𝑁𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑐
(c) 𝑃𝑒𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑢𝑚
(d) 𝐴𝑔𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑠

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

120. During secondary treatment of sewage, the anaerobic methanogenic bacteria in the anaerobic sludge digesters, digest the:

(a) Organic matter only
(b) Organic matter and aerobic bacteria only
(c) Inorganic matter and aerobic bacteria
(d) Organic matter, aerobic bacteria, fungi and other aerobic microbes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

121. Mannitol is stored food in:

(a) 𝑃𝑜𝑟𝑝ℎ𝑦𝑟𝑎
(b) 𝐹𝑢𝑐𝑢𝑠
(c) 𝐺𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎
(d) 𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑎

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

122. Among the situation given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy:

(a) Monoecious plants bearing unisexual flowers.
(b) Dioecious plants bearing only male or female flower.
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

123. The enzyme that hydrolyses phosphodiester bonds within a polynucleotide chain is:

(a) Endonuclease
(b) Exonuclease
(c) Carboxypeptidase
(d) Aminopeptidase

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

124. Frustule is the name of cell wall present in___:

(a) Slime molds
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Dinoflagellates
(d) Diatoms

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

125. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of:

(a) Broad hardy leaves
(b) Superficial stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) Presence of vessels

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

126. India has deserts, rainforests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement?

(a) Geographic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecological diversity
(d) Genetic diversity

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

127. During chemiosmosis in mitochondria, all protons are channelled from:

(a) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by F0 part of oxysome.
(b) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by F0 part of oxysome.
(c) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by complex IV.
(d) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by complex V.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

128. Lenticels are involved in:

(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Gaseous exchange
(d) Food transport

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

129. Select the incorrect statement regarding humus.

(a) Essential for nutritional cycling.
(b) Is light coloured amorphous substance.
(c) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as reservoir of nutrients.
(d) Is highly resistant to microbial action.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

130. A female is mentally retarded with small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. What will be the karyotype analysis of such an individual?

(a) Trisomy of chromosome 21
(b) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
(c) 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
(d) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

131. A couple has a child with Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).
What is the most likely cause of this genetic disorder?

(a) Autosomal recessive inheritance
(b) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(c) Chromosomal nondisjunction during gamete formation
(d) X-linked recessive inheritance

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

132. Stele is constituted by all given tissues, except:

(a) Vascular bundles
(b) Endodermis
(c) Pericycle
(d) Medulla

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

133. Insectivorous plants occupy the trophic level:

(a) T₁(b) T₄(c) T₁ and T₃ simultaneously
(d) T₂ only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

134. Which step of Krebs cycle operates substrate level phosphorylation?

(a) α-ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA
(b) Succinyl CoA → succinate
(c) Succinate → fumarate
(d) Fumarate → malate

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

135. Which type of spatial patterns is noticed in ecosystem structure?

(a) Zonation
(b) Stratification and layering
(c) Zonation and stratification
(d) Zonation, stratification and distribution

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Zoology
136. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the testis, spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone secretion takes place in the Sertoli cells.
Statement II: Testosterone brings growth and maturation of primary sex organs and also the development of accessory sex characters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

137. Match the following columns:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

138. The antibodies produced by a group of identical B-cells against a single single epitope of an antigen is called:

(a) Somaclonal antibodies
(b) Polyclonal antibodies
(c) Monoclonal antibodies
(d) Anti-hapten antibodies

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

139. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
Statement II: MTPs are considered relativel safe during the second trimester.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both statement I and Statement II are false

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

140. Label the diagram:

(a) A Formation of cross bridge, B→ Sliding/ Rotation, C→ Breaking of cross bridge
(b) A Sliding/Rotation, B→ Formation of Cross bridge, C→ Breaking of cross bridge
(c) A→ Formation of cross bridge, B→ Breaking of cross bridge, C→ Sliding/Rotation
(d) A Breaking of cross bridge, B Sliding/ Rotation, C→ Formation of cross bridge

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

141. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)(1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(b)(1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(i) (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i) (4)-(ii)
(d)(1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

142. Number of bones in human appendicular skeleton is:

(a) 80
(b) 106
(c) 206
(d) 126

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

143. Fill in the blank spaces:
(I) All mammals (except a few) have _____ cervical vertebra.
(II) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is_______.
(III) ____ and____ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
(IV) The human cranium is made of ____ bones

(a) 22, 14, 12^th and 11^th, 7
(b) 14, 7, 11^th and 12^th, 22
(c) 7, 14, 11^th and 12^th, 8 (6+2)
(d) 12^th, 14, 22 and 7, 11^th

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

144. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Non-striated muscles are said to be voluntary in nature.
Reason (R): Non-striated muscles can be moved according to will.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

145. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1) (iii); (2)-(ii); (3) -(i) ; (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iii) ;(2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(i)
(d) (a)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i);(4)-(ii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

146. Which one of the following is the most likely reason of not occurring regular menstruation cycle in females?

(a) Fertilisation of the ovum.
(b) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometriallining.
(c) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream.
(d) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

147. Pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron may or may not be separated by a gap called:

(a) Synaptic knob
(b) Neuroreceptor gap
(c) Synapse
(d) Synaptic cleft

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

148. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iii); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1)(iv); (2)(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)
(c) (1)-(iii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(d) (1)(ii); (2)(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

149. Which of the following operates to eliminate intermediate phenotype?

(a) Stabilising selection
(b) Directional selection
(c) Disruptive selection
(d) All of above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

150. Amenorrhoea most commonly occur:

(a) after menarche
(b) before menopause
(c) during pregnancy
(d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

151. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ADA gene provides instruction for producing the enzyme adenosine deaminase.
Statement II: This enzyme is found throughout the body but is most active in lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

152. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one has to produce a recombinant protein or enzyme on a large scale, using microbial plants/ animal/human cell?

(a) Stirred-tank bioreactor
(b) Electrophoresis
(c) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

153. The main objective of production of herbicide resistant genetically modified crops is to:

(a) eliminate weeds from fields without the use of herbicides.
(b) eliminate weeds from fields without the use of manual labour.
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides.
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

154. With regards to insulin choose the correct options:
(I) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(II) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(III) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(IV) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by bridges. disulphide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (I) and (IV) only
(b) (II) and (IV) only
(c) (II) and (III) only (IV) only
(d) (I), (III) and

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

155. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

156. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Natural selection is the outcome of differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that show variations in one or more traits.
Statement II: Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common; less adaptive ones become common or disappear.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

157. Which of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?

(a) Over-production, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection.
(b) Variations, natural selection, over production, constancy of population size.
(c) Over-production, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection.
(d) Variations, constancy of population size, over- selection.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

158. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Statement II: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

159. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Patients, who had undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
(b) Benign tumors show the property of metastasis.
(c) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(d) Malignant tumors may exhibit metastasis.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

160. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrheal diseases.
Statement II: Dehydration is common to all types of diarrheal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the given options:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

161. Match column-I with column-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)-(iv); (3-(i); (4)-(iii)
(b) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii);(4)-(i)
(c) (1)-(v); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv);(4)-(ii)
(d) (1) (ii); (2)-(v); (3)-(iv);(4)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

162. In a 35 days menstrual cycle ovulation will occur on:

(a) 14th day
(b) 17th day
(c) 21st day
(d) 12th day

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

163. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given. below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)(iv); (3)-(i); (d)-(iii)
(b) (1)-(i); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (d)-(ii)
(c) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (d)-(i)
(d) (1)-(iii);(2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

164. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iii); (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

165. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Enzymes that recognize the same sequences but are derived from different organisms are termed isoschizomers.
Reason (R): They exist exclusively in eukaryotic organisms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

166. ______ is the process by which white blood cells engulf and digest bacteria.

(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Pinocytosis
(c) Osmosis
(d) Hematopoiesis

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

167. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

168. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be transmitted through blood transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, tears, intravenous drug abuse, tattooing, ear and nose peircing, sharing of razors etc.
(b) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the second generation vaccine produced from transgenic yeast by recombinant DNA technology.
(c) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the first commercially available human vaccine produced by genetic engineering.
(d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

169. Which of the following is a basic feature of all the organisms of Animalia?

(a) Multicellular structure
(b) Sensory and neuromotor system
(c) Terrestrial habitat
(e) Locomotion

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

170. Match the column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(iv); (2)(ii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iii)
(b) (1) (iii); (2)(i); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i);(4)-(ii)
(d) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(ii);(4)-(iv)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

171. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
(II) ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
(III) ANF causes vasodilation.
(IV) ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
(V) ADHL is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(b) (I), (II) and (V) only
(c) (III), (IV) and (V) only
(d) (I) and (II) only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

172. A, B and C are found in:

(a) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively
(b) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes respectively
(c) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids respectively
(d) Sponges, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

173. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
(I) Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
(II) Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
(III) Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
(IV) M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) (II) and (III) only
(b) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (I), (II) and (III) only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

174. Match the column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1)-(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-(iii); (2)(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

175. Class Amphibia:
(I) has body divisible into head and trunk. Tail is present in some amphibians.
(II) shows respiration by gills, lungs and through skin.
(III) has scales in all its members.
(IV) can lead dual life (aquatic and terrestrial).
(V) has eyelids.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) All are correct
(b) (I) and (IV) are correct
(c) Only (III) is incorrect
(d) Only (II) is incorrect

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

176. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Arrival of an impulse at the axon terminal stimulates the release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.
Statement II: These neurotransmitters are responsible for the opening of ion channels.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

177. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
(I) Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
(II) Regulation of basal metabolic rate.
(III) Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
(IV) Development of immune system.
(V) Support the process of RBCs formation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (II) and (III) only
(b) (III) and (IV) only
(c) (IV) and (V) only
(d) (I) and (IV) only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

178. A jawless fish, which lay eggs in fresh water whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is:

(a) Myxine
(c) Petromyzon
(b) Neomyxine
(d) Eptatretus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

179. Match the columns-I with column-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(i); (b)(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(iv); (b)(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(a) (a)-(ii); (b)(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

180. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) Urea is the primary nitrogenous waste product in birds and reptiles.
(II) The process of ultrafiltration in the nephron occurs in the Bowman’s capsule.
(III) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water, promoting water reabsorption.
(IV) The formation of urine involves three main. processes: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion, which
occur in the renal tubules.
Options:

(a) (II) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (III)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

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February 27, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES BIOLOGY 84

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February 21, 2025

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