Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

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Directions (6-13): In the following passage there are highlighted words, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each option. Find out the appropriate word which can replace the highlighted word. If the highlighted word fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct choice.




6.         

7.         

8.         

10.     

11.       

12.    

Directions (14-18): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions based on the passage.

14. In the passage given, a sentence (14) is given in Italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer.

 

15. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank (15) to make it contextually and grammatically meaningful and correct respectively?

16. Which of the following phrase could fit in the blank (16), to make the statement grammatically correct and contextually meaningful?

17. Two sentences are given in italics on both sides of (17). Which of the following statements can come in between the two sentences in place of (17) and maintain the continuity of the paragraph?

18. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank given in (18) to make it contextually correct and
meaningful?

2. How is J related to D?

 

3. How is Q related to M?

 

Directions (4-5): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
D is father of A. D is married to P. P is mother of J. P has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is son of L.

4. How is J related to L?

 

5. How is A related to U?

7. As per the given information, how is R related to Y?

 

9. L is the daughter of K. L is married to D.B is son of D. T is married to B. How is D related to T?

 

Directions (10-12): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

• J is sister of T. T is married to D. D is father of R.
• M is son of H. T is mother-in-law of H
• D has only one son and no daughter.
• J is married to B. L is daughter of B.

10. How is L related to T?

 

12. How is J related to R?

 

Directions (13-15): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
A and Y are brothers of K. Y is son of P and S. P is daughter of X. M is father-in-law of S. Q is son of X.

13. If J is brother of X, then how is J related to Q?

14. How is Y related to M?

 

15. How is K related to Q?

 

Directions (16-18): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
M is the mother of B. A is the husband of M. N is the only brother of B. C is married to N. Q is the only child of C. N does not have any sister. J is the father of A.

16. If A does not have any grandson, then how is Q related to B?

 

17. How is A related to C?

 

18. How is B related to J?

 

Directions (19-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A is maternal grandfather of B, who is daughter of the H who is female D is mother of C, who is maternal uncle of B.

19. How is H related to D?

 

20. Which of the following is a couple?

 

1. A can do a piece of work in 25 days, B can do it in 20 days. They started the work together but A left 5 days before the completion of the work. The work has finished in?

 

2) 8 girls and 12 boys can complete a work in 4 days. If one boy alone completes the work in 60 days, then in how many days a girl will be able to finish the same work alone?

 

3) A and B together can complete the work in 36 days, B and C together can complete the work in 45 days and A, B and C together can complete the work in 24 days. In how many days A and C together can complete the work?

 

4) A alone completes the work in 80 days, B alone complete the work in 64 days and C alone complete the work in 160 days. If A, B and C together can started the work, after20 days A left the work and B left the work 15 days before completion of the work, in how many days the work is completed?

 

5) A, B and C can complete the work in 32 days, 24 days and 30 days respectively. If they started the work together, B left 12 days before completion of the work and C left 6 days before completion of the work and A finished the work. In how many days is the work completed?

 

6) Raj alone completes a piece of work in 10 days. Vel and Yuktha together complete the same in 8 days. If Yuktha and Raj together do the same work in 5 days, then in how many days will Vel alone do the work?

 

7) A alone completes the work in 15 days and B alone completes the work in 30 days. If A started the work and after 6 days B joined, in how many days the total work completed?

 

8) 50 men can do a piece of work in 40days. They start the work after some days 10 men left the work. The remaining work will be completed in 40 days. Find after how many days, 10 men left from the work?

 

9)  A and B can complete the work in 24 days and 16 days respectively. They started the work together and after 6 days B left the work. In how many days A alone complete the remaining work?

 

10) A completes one-third of the work in 20 days and B completes half of the work in 15 days. In how many days required to A and B together can complete the work?

 

11) 18 men and 27 women together can complete a work in 12 days and 24 men and 15 women together can complete the same work in 18 days. In how many days 12 men and 15 women together can complete the work?

 

12) A alone completes the work in 32 days and A and B together can complete the work in 18 days. If B started the work and after 12 days left the work, in how many days A alone completed the remaining work?

 

13) 20 women can complete the work in 26 days. If 32 boys started the work and after x days, 8 more boys joined the work and completed the remaining work in 7 days. Find the value of x.

 

14) Bala and Rahul together can do a work in 9 days, whereas Bala alone can do it in 12 days. If Vinay alone can do the same work in 45 days, then find the ratio of the efficiency of Rahul to that of Vinay?

 

15) A alone can complete a work in 36 days and the ratio of the efficiency of A and B is 7:6. If A and B together started the work and after 12 days A left from the work, in how many days B alone complete the remaining work?

 

16. A and B entered into business my making investment of Rs. 2400 and 2800 respectively. After six months A left the business and after four more months C joined the business with capital 20% more than A’s investment. If at the end of year sum of profit share of A and C is Rs. 4200, then find total profit?

 

17. A & B entered into a business by investing total capital of Rs 17000. B withdraws Rs 1500 after 6 months and gets Rs 8100 as profit out of total profit of Rs 19500 at the end of year. Find capital of B after 6 months from starting.

 

18. Three partners P, Q and R invested their amounts in ratio of 2 : 5 : 7. At the end of 6 months, ‘P’ added some more amount such that his investment become equals to half of sum of ‘Q’ and ‘R’ initial investment. If at the end of the year, Q’s share in profit is Rs 425, then find the total profit

 

19. A invests Rs. X in a business. After four months B joined him with Rs. 2X and A double his investment. If at the end of the years total profit is Rs. 13950, then find the profit share of A?

 

20. ‘A’ invested Rs.4000 and ‘B’ invested Rs.1000 more than A. After eight months ‘C’ invested Rs.3000. If at the end of the year ‘C’ gets profit of Rs.700, then find the total profit.

 

8. For a particle undergoing a uniform circular motion, its angular acceleration along the circular path is

a) constant

b) always positive

c) always negative

d) zero

17. A body is positively charged, it implies that

a) there is only positive charge in the body.

b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is more than negative charge

c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies in the outer regions

d) negative charge is displaced from its position

18. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

a) Its radius decreases
b) Its radius increases
c) The bubble collapses
d) None of these

19. When a body is charged by induction, then the body

a) becomes neutral
b) does not lose any charge
c) loses whole of the charge on it
d) loses part of the charge on it

20. The force of repulsion between two electrons at a certain distance is F. The force between two protons separated by the same distance is (m_p = 1836 m_e)

2. Percentage error in measuring the mass (m) & radius (R) of a solid sphere are 3% & 2% Then error in measurement of moment of inertia about its diameter will be:

a) 5%

b) 7%

c) 4%

d) 8%

 

3. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is √3/2 times its initial speed. If the range of the projectile is ‘P’ times the maximum height attained by it, P is:

4. A homemade rocket is ejecting 0.05 Kg of gases per second at a velocity of 300 m/s. The thrust force on the rocket is:

a) 20 N

b) 15 N

c) 30 N               

d) none

5. A crane lifts 300 kg weight from earth’s surface up to height of 4 m in 1/12^th The average power generated by it will be: (g = 9.8 m/s)

a) 1965 W
b) 2300 W
c) 4520 W
d) 2352 W

6. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 3 kg are moving along the same straight line with speeds 4 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system when particles are moving in opposite directions is V₁ and when particles are moving in same direction is V₂. The ratio V₂ /V₁ is:

a) 1:7
b) 7:1
c) 2:5
d) 5:2

7. In given diagram find out maximum energy stored in spring. Extension in spring is zero initially.


a) 400 J
b) 500 J
c) 300 J
d) 100 J

9. The ratio of the radius of a planet ‘A’ to that of planet ‘B’ is ‘r’. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the planets taken in the same order is ‘x’. The ratio of the escape velocities of planet B to that of planet A is:

10. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. the space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force between bodies will now be:

a) F/2
b) 3F
c) F/3
d) F

11. By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to orbit of radius 5/3 r ? (Mass of earth is M)

13. A ball is thrown on a horizontal surface in such a way that it initially slides with a speed v₀ without rolling. It gradually picks up rotation motion. Find the speed of the ball at which there will be rolling without slipping–

14. A circular disc has a mass of 1 kg and radius 40 cm. It is rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with a speed of 10 rev/s. The work done in joules in stopping it would be approximately:

a) 56 J

b) 147 J

c) 180 J

d) 158 J

15. The time period of an earth satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is 2 days and its orbital velocity is v₁. If time period of another satellite in a circular orbit is 16 days, then

16. If α, β and γ are coefficient of linear, area and volume expansion respectively, then

a) γ = 3α
b) α = 3γ
c) β = 3α
d) γ = 3β

17. If two rods and  of equal length , and different areas of cross-section A₁ and A₂ have one end each at temperature T₁ and T₂, have equal rates of flow of heat, then

18. Heat is associated with

a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules
b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules
c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules
d) kinetic energy of random motion in some cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion in other

19. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is (1 cal = 4.2 J)

a) 2 kJ

b) 8 kJ

c) 3.5 kJ

d) 5.5 kJ

20. If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and the amount of work done on the system is 15 J, then the change in internal energy of the system is

a) –50 J
b) 20 J
c) 30 J
d) 50 J

1. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the Earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be:

(a) 3V/4
(b) 6V
(c) 12V
(d) 3V/2

2. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light of intensity I₀ Now the intensity of light passing through polaroid after polarization would be :

(a) I₀
(b) I₀/ 2
(c) I₀/ 4
(d) Zero

3. If the mass of Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, then which of the following is not correct?

a) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.
b) Walking on the ground would become more difficult.
c) Raindrops will fall faster.
d) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.

4. A body of mass m rises to height h = R/5 from the Earth’s surface, where R is Earth’s radius. If g is the acceleration due to gravity at Earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy is:

5. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as a voltmeter of 30 volt range, the resistance required to be added will be:

(a) 900 Ω

(b) 1800 Ω

(c) 500 Ω

(d) 1000 Ω

6. Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is:

(a) 18 N
(b) 2 N
(c) 6 N
(d) 8 N

7. If x longitudinal strain is produced in a wire of Young’s modulus y, then energy stored per unit volume in the material of the wire is:

8. For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at resonance is:

9. If a block moving up an inclined plane inclined at an angle, θ = 30° with a velocity 5m / s stops after 0.5 sec, then μ is:

(a) 0.5
(b) 1.25
(c) 0.6
(d) none of these

10. When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant K, the capacity:

(a) Decreases K times
(b) Increases K times
(c) Increases K² times
(d) Remains constant

11. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 ×10^-3 The self-inductance of the solenoid is:

(a) 4 H
(b) 3 H
(c) 2 H
(d) 1 H

12. Potential energy of a satellite having mass ‘m’ and rotating at a height of 6.4 10⁶ m from the Earth centre is:

(a) -0.5mgR_e
(b) -mgR_e
(c) -2mgR_e
(d) 4mgR_e

13. The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between

(a) n = 3 and n = 1 states
(b) n = 2 and n = 1 states
(c) n = 4 and n = 3 states
(d) n = 3 and n = 2 states

14. The given electrical network is equivalent to :

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate

15. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:

(a) 4.8π μV
(b) 0.8π μV
(c) 1.6π μV
(d) 3.2π μν

16. An astronaut orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit of radius 120 km above the surface of Earth, gently drops a spoon out of his space-ship. The spoon will:

a) fall vertically down to the Earth.
b) move towards the Moon.
c) move along with the space-ship.
d) move in an irregular way then fall down to the Earth.

17. When a body is lifted from surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius of the earth, then the change in its potential energy is

(a) mgR
(b) 2 mgR
(c) 1/2 mgR
(d) 4 mgR

18. A magnet of magnetic moment M and pole strength m is divided in two equal parts, then magnetic moment of each part will be:

19. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz main frequency, the fundament frequency in the ripple would be

(a) 25Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 70.7 Hz
(d) 100 Hz

20. 70 cal of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2 mol of an ideal gas at constant pressure from C to C The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the same sample of the gas through the same range of temperature ( C to C) at constant volume will be (gas constant = 2cal / mol )

(a) 30 cal
(b) 50 cal
(c) 60 cal
(d) 80 cal

2. In an adiabatic process, the quantity which remains constant is

a) volume
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) total heat of the system

3. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas,

a) heat is gained or lost.
b) heat is neither gained nor lost.
c) temperature is kept constant.
d) volume is kept constant.

4. Indicator diagram is a graph between

a) 𝑃 and 𝑇
b) 𝑉 and 𝑇
c) P and V
d) None of the above

5. The relation 𝑃𝑉=𝑅𝑇 can describe behaviour of a real gas at

a) high temperature and high density
b) high temperature and low density
c) low temperature and low density
d) low temperature and high density

6. The absolute zero is the temperature, at which

a) all substance exist in solid state
b) water freezes
c) molecule motion ceases
d) none of these

7. A gas behave as an ideal gas at

a) low pressure and high temperature
b) low pressure and low temperature
c) high pressure and high temperature
d) high pressure and low temperature

8. The number of degree of freedom for a diatomic gas molecule is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6

13. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The speed of light in air is 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹.

a) 0×10⁸ms⁻¹

b) 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

c) 4.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

d) 5.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

14. Two lenses of power −15D and +5D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination is

a) −20cm
b) −10cm
c) +20cm
d) +10cm

16. A real image is obtained at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 7.5 cm. Find the distance of the object from the lens.

a) -10

b) 10

c) -20

d) 20

17. An object is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. Calculate the magnification of the image?
 
a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.15
d) 0.3

18. A thin prism of 2∘angle gives a deviation of 1∘. What is the value of refractive index of the material of the prism.

a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.5

19. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric circles
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow

20. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
d) scattering of light by the particles of air

2. COLUMN I
(A) The discourse on mainstreaming women in the police
(B) One of the first steps to ensure a level playing field
(C) The impulse to create men-only battalions

COLUMN II
(D) sake of augmenting numbers should be eliminated.
(E) by making policing inclusive is missing in policy circles.
(F) for women in the police is to increase their numbers.

(a) A-E & B-D            (b) A-E & B-F           (c) C-F & A-D
(d) B-E & C-D            (e) None of these

3. COLUMN I
(A) It is well known that the efficiency of a government
(B) In our country during the independence struggle, provincial
(C) Recognising the possibility of imbalance between resources and

COLUMN II
(D) regarded as an integral part of the freedom movement.
(E) responsibilities, many countries have a system of inter-governmental transfers.
(F) depends on, among other factors, its structure.

(a) B-F & C-D            (b) C-E & A-F           (c) B-E & A-D
(d) C-E & B-F            (e) None of these

4. COLUMN I
(A) The Indian Constitution lays down the functions
(B) The Fourteenth Finance Commission
(C) The Planning Commission was replaced by the

COLUMN II
(D) new ground in terms of allocation of resources
(E) as well as taxing powers of the Centre and States
(F) which was simply a think-tank with no powers

(a) C-D                        (b) A-E                       (c) B-E
(d) C-F                        (e) None of these

COLUMN I
(A) There’s a widespread impression
(B) will only be regulate the
(C) of the legacy e-commerce players

COLUMN II
(D) There’s an widespread impression
(E) will only regulate the
(F) of the legacy e-commerce player

(a) A-D & B-E                (b) A-D, B-E & C-F                  (c) B-E                                   
(d) C-F & A-D                (e) no error

COLUMN I
(A) IRDAI is exempted
(B) from issue policy document
(C) to policies issued this

COLUMN II
(D) IRDAI has exempted
(E) from issuing policy document
(F) for policies issued this

(a) A-D & B-E            (b) A-D, B-E & C-F          (c) B-E                                   
(d) C-F & A-D            (e) no error

COLUMN I
(A) By rejecting the three-language
(B) has only reiterated the
(C) on an emotive and political issue

COLUMN II
(D) By rejection the three-language
(E) have only reiterated the
(F) in an emotive and political issue

(a) A-D & B-E            (b) A-D, B-E & C-F         (c) C-F                       
(d) C-F & A-D            (e) no error

10. Prime Minister said India would put to use its _______________ of water from the rivers flowing to Pakistan and _______________ that every single drop was used for the country’s farmers.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(I) contribution (IV) rationalise
(II) share                                             (V) ensure
(III) dominant                                     (VI) tolerate

(a) II-V                       (b) I-V                         (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

11. They were_______________ before a magistrate, who_______________ them to the Central Jail”, Deputy Inspector General V.K Birdi said.
COLUMN A                                       COLUMN B
(I) produced                                       (IV) bound
(II) propound                                      (V) sent
(III) presented                                    (VI) retain
                     
(a) II-V                        (b) I-V                        (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

12. Some______________ in how the job profiles are searched for — with special key words — can help the start-up ______________the search down to candidates who match the requirements more closely.
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(I) finesse (IV) wide
(II) dedication                                                 (V) narrow
(III) smartness                                                (VI) relative

(a) II-V                        (b) I-V                        (c) III-VI
(d) II-IV                      (e) none of these

14. COLUMN I
(A) Only one museum currently has the funding to contend for
(B) Speculators, thieves, and promoters long ago created
(C) Ethical appeals notwithstanding, great

COLUMN II
(D) transfer will disseminate once static fortunes
(E) art will increasingly devolve into big business
(F) and fed a market where cultural icons could be traded like commodities

(a) B-F & C-D            (b) C-E & A-F            (c) B-E & A-D
(d) C-E & B-F            (e) None of these

15. COLUMN I
(A) A lack of meaningful GDPR enforcement by
(B) Neither companies nor CMPs seem keen on
(C) The results of our empirical survey

COLUMN II
(D) shoring up that pathetic 12 percent compliance rate
(E) regulators had already been fairly well established
(F) stop data collection, or misled the end user

(a) A-E & B-D           (b) A-E & B-F            (c) C-F & A-D
(d) B-E & C-D           (e) None of these

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-20): In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

1. Statements: A > B = C < D

Q

   Conclusions:  I. A < D

                         II. P > C

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

2. Statements: A > N = Q > T ≤ Y ≤ S < U
   Conclusions: I. T < S
                        II. T = S

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

3. Statements: K < B M < H ≥ N
    Conclusions: I. K < N
                         II. B < D

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

4. Statements: L = N ≤ R ≤ O ≤ Q ≥ A < C ≤ X
   Conclusions: I. L = Q
                        II. L < Q

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

5. Statements: P ≥ R > Q < T ≤ S
   Conclusions: I. T > Q
                        II. T > R

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c)Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

6. Statements: a > b ≤ c = d > e = f > g
    Conclusions: I. d > g
                        II. a= d

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c)Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

7. Statements: V ≤ B ≤ M = S ≥ F ≥ G = H
   Conclusions: I. M > G
                        II. M = H

(a) Only conclusion I follows 
(b) Only conclusion II follows 
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) Both the conclusions follow 
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

8. Statements: L ≤ C ≥ F > K ≥ D > M
    Conclusions: I. L < F
                         II. C > D

(a) Only conclusion I follows 
(b) Only conclusion II follows 
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) Both the conclusions follow 
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

10. Statements: T > B > N ≥ Y < D S > I < L ≤ Q < G = H
      Conclusions: I. Y > L
                           II. H > I
                          III. W ≥ I

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Both conclusion II and III follow
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) None of the conclusions follow
(e) Both conclusion I and III follow

12. Statements: F T
     Conclusions: I. F > T
                          II. N > T

(a) Only conclusion I follows   
(b) Only conclusion II follows   
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows   
(d) Both the conclusions follow   
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

13. Statements: Z ≥ H, B < H, K < B
      Conclusions: I. K > Z
                           II. K = Z

(a) Only conclusion I follows    
(b) Only conclusion II follows    
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows    
(d) Both the conclusions follow    
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

14. Statements: F T
      Conclusions: I. F = D
                           II. F < D

(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

15. Statements: J > M, N ≤ R, R < M
      Conclusions: I. J > R
                           II. N = R

(a) If I is true
(b) If II is true
(c) If either I or II is true
(d) If neither I nor II is true
(e) If both I and II are true

16. Statements: H ≤ R, R < M, M = J
      Conclusions: I. M > H
                           II. H = J

(a) If I is true 
(b) If II is true 
(c) If either I or II is true 
(d) If neither I nor II is true 
(e) If both I and II are true

17. Statements: B ≤ K, K > M, C ≤ M
      Conclusions: I. B = C
                           II. K = C

(a) If I is true  
(b) If II is true  
(c) If either I or II is true  
(d) If neither I nor II is true   
(e) If both I and II are true

18. Statements: G < L; D ≥ G; H = L; H ≤ B
      Conclusions: I. G > B
                           II. B > D

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

19. Statements: E ≥ Y ≥ Z; P > Q ≥ Y = S
      Conclusions: I. Q ≥ Z
                           II. P > S

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

20. Statements: N ≤ Q; M > B; Q = R < O < M
       Conclusions: I. N < O
                            II. Q ≤ M

(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Both the conclusions follow
(e) Neither of the conclusions follow

QA SECTION

1. The average weight of the 10-person group is 50 kg. A person left the group and the average weight of the group decreased by one kg. If one new person joins the group of remaining people, then the average weight of the group becomes 52 kg. Find the difference between the weight of the person who left the group and the person who joined the group.

(a) 30 kg           (b) 16 kg           (c) 18 kg
(d) 24 kg           (e) 20 kg

2. The ratio of present age of A and B is 1 : 3 respectively and the ratio of present age of A and C is 2 : 3. If the difference between present age of A and C is two years, then find the sum of age of A, B and C fourteen years hence.

(a) 54 years            (b) 20 years       (c) 64 years
(d) 48 years            (e) 60 years

3. The average earning of a group of eight persons is Rs 25 per day. The difference between the person having highest earning and lowest earning in the group is Rs 45. If person having highest and lowest earning are excluded, then the average earning of the group decreased by Rs 2.5. Find the average earning of the group when the three persons whose sum of earnings are equal to the person having highest earning left the group?

(a) Rs 29               (b) Rs 28.5        (c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 29.5            (e) Rs 30.5

4. Average of present age of A, B and C is 15 years. If sum of present age of A and C is 27 years, then find the present age of B.

(a) 16 years            (b) 24 years       (c) 20 years
(d) 18 years            (e) 12 years

5. The average weight of a group of five people is 85 kg. If a new person joined the group and the average weight decreased by 5 kg, then find the weight of the new person.

(a) 45 kg                (b) 58 kg           (c) 61 kg
(d) 42 kg                (e) 55 kg

6. ‘x’ years hence, the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 7 : 5. ‘x+4’ years hence the ratio of age of A to that of B will be 4 : 3. If present age of A is 26 years, then find the present age of B

(a) 21 years            (b) 12 years       (c) 15 years
(d) 18 years           (e) 19 years

7. Five years ago, the average age of A and B was 15 years. The ratio of present age of A and C is 6 : 5 respectively. If B is four years younger than C, then find the sum of present age of B and C (in years).

(a) 34 years            (b) 32 years       (c) 36 years
(d) 24 years           (e) 40 years

8. The average weight of eight people is X kg. Two new people joined them with total weight of 151 kg and average weight of all people increased by 3/2 kg. If the weight of lightest people out of two people joined is X−5 kg, the find the difference between weight these two people who joined later.

(a) 27 kg                (b) 21 kg           (c) 15 kg
(d) 25 kg               (e) 22 kg

9. Average of present age A, B and C is 14 years, while four years ago, average age of B, C and D was 15 years. If the sum of present of A and D is 27 years, then find the age of D five years hence will be (in years).

(a) 21                    (b) 26               (c) 17
(d) 27                    (e) 29

10. A man age is (3p+2q) years and his only son’s age is ‘p’ years while his only daughter’s age is ‘q’ years. Man’s son is three years elder than her sister. If man’s wife is five years younger than her husband who is 34 years old, then find average age of the family (in years).

(a) 14.5                  (b) 19.0            (c) 16.5
(d) 22.5                 (e) 20.5

11. The average of 11 numbers is 71 and average of first five numbers is 67. If average of last four numbers is 91.5 and the ratio of sixth and seventh number is 9 : 7, then find the sixth number.

(a) 54                    (b) 36               (c) 27
(d) 45                    (e) 35

12. The ratio of present ages of A to B is 3:4, X years ago the ratio was 5: 7 and sum of ages of A and B after X years is 48. Find the present age of B.

(a) 16 years              (b) 24 years      (c) 32 years
(d) None of the above                (e) Can’t be determined.

13. The ratio of ages of P and R four years ago was 7:4, respectively, and the present average age of P and Q is 21 years. If Q’s present age is twice that of R, then find the present age of P (in years

(a) 12                    (b) 18               (c) 24
(d) 16                    (e) 20

14. The ratio of the ages of P and Q five years ago was 7:5, respectively, while the ratio of the ages of P and Q after seven years will be 13:11, respectively. If the present ages of P and Q are ‘a’ years and ‘b’ years, respectively, and the present age of R is 20% more than that of Q, then find the age of R after 12 years.

(a) a+b-8               (b) 2b-8            (c) 3a-b
(d) 3b-a                 (e) 2a-8

15. In a class, there are ‘a+10’ students whose average weight is 30 kg. If ‘b’ more students with an average weight of 64 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by four kg. If ‘b+3’ students with an average weight of 38 kg are added, then the average weight of the class is increased by two kg. Find the value of 5 (a + b).

(a) 20                    (b) 50               (c) 45
(d) 35                    (e) 25

16. The ratio of ages of C and D eight year hence will be 25: 29. If B is 11 years younger to C and sum of ages of B and D is 27 years, then find the present age of D (in year

(a) 21                    (b) 25               (c) 22
(d) 29                   (e) 30

17. The average of set A of five consecutive even number is 18 and set B contains three consecutives even number such that ratio of smallest to largest number is 7 : 9. Set C contains six consecutive natural number such that second smallest number of set C is the sum of smallest number of sets A and B. Find the second largest number of set C.

(a) 30                    (b) 20               (c) 31
(d) 15                    (e) 9

18. The age of four sister is in a series of consecutive composite number. The age of the oldest sister is multiple of 25 & less than 100 while the age of second youngest sister eight years ago is 2x where x is a positive integer. Find the age (in years) of youngest sister after seven years.

(a) 77                    (b) 79               (c) 80
(d) 53                    (e) 28

19. The ratio of present age of A to that of B is 5 : 4 respectively. Four years hence, age of A will be three years more than age of B six years hence. Find the present age of B

(a) 12 years            (b) 20 years      (c) 16 years
(d) 24 years           (e) 28 years

20. 3/4th of present age of Ram is equal to 2/3rd of present age of shyam. Four years ago, if sum of age of Ram & Shyam was 60 years, then find the present age of Ram?

(a) 32 years           (b) 28 years       (c) 48 years
(d) 36 years           (e) 54 years

1. The pitch and the number of circular Scale divisions in a screw gauge with least count 0.002 mm are respectively

a) 1mm and 100
b) 0.5 mm and 50
c) 1mm and 50
d) 0.5 mm and 100

2. One centimetre on the main scale of a vernier callipers is divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of vernier coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of vernier callipers is

a) 0.01 cm

b) 0.02 cm

c) 0.05 cm

d) 0.005 cm

3. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is

a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) always more than 1
d) equal to or less than 1

4. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then A. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then

a) T_A > T_B
b) T_A= T_B
c) T_A <  T_B
b) their time of flights depend on their masses.

5. Acceleration due to gravity

a) a scalar
b) a vector
c) a polar vector
d) a pseudo vector

6. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a process
b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take negative values
c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from one point to another in space
d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers with different orientation of the axes

7. No force is required for

a) an object moving in straight line with constant velocity
b) an object moving in circular motion
c) an object moving with constant acceleration
d) an object moving in elliptical path.

9. A planet goes round the sun three times as fast as the earth. If r_p and r_e are the radii of orbit of the planet and the earth respectively then

10. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 5 ×10^–4 K^–1. The fractional change in the density of glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is:

a) 0.020
b) 0.025
c) 0.010
d) 0.015

11. In a reversible cyclic process of a gaseous system

a) ΔQ =ΔU
b) ΔU =ΔW
c) ΔW = 0
d) ΔU = 0

12. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure so as to double its volume. The final temperature of the gas will be, close to

a) 327°C
b) 200°C
c) 54°C
d) 300°C

13. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric intensity at centre O will be

14. Figure shows two hollow charged conductors A and B having same positive surface charge densities. B is placed inside A and does not touches it. On connecting them with a conductor

a) charge will flow from A to B
b) charge will flow from B to A
c) charge oscillates between A and B
d) no charge will flow.

15. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value C is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

a) C/4
b) 3C/4
c) 4C/3
d) 3C

16. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is 𝑅. If its length and radius are both doubled, then

a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled

17. Maximum energy evolved during which of the following transition?

a) n = 1 to n = 2
b) n = 2 to n = 1
c) n = 2 to n = 6
d) n = 6 to n = 2

18. O₂ molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two atoms

a) is not important because nuclear forces are short –ranged
b) is as important as electrostatic force for binding the two atoms
c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei
d) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal number of neutrons and protons

19. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
II. Nuclear density is around 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3.
II. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary matter.
IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.

a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I, II, III and IV