SMATEE MOCK TEST-1 (01.02.2025)

Welcome to your SMATEE MOCK TEST-1 (01.02.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

I. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are
II. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed

PHYSICS

1. The SI unit of force is

a) kg m s^-2
b) kg m² s^-2
c) kg² m s^-2
a) kg m s^-1

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

2. Joule is a unit of

a) Energy
b) Torque
c) Power
d) Force

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

3. The number of significant figures in 0.07200

a) 6
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

4. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and 0.301 in appropriate significant figures is

a) 663.821
b) 663.8
c) 664
d) 663.82

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

5. The mass and volume of a body are 4.237 kg and 2.5 m³ The density of the material of the body in correct significant figures is:

a) 1.6948 kg m^-3
b) 1.69 kg m^-3
c) 1.7 kg m^-3
d) 1.695 kg m^-3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

6. The numbers 3.645 and 3.635 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give

a) 3.65 and 3.64
b) 3.64 and 3.63
c) 3.65 and 3.63
d) 3.64 and 3.64

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

7. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2 m and 10.1 m respectively. The area of the sheet in appropriate significant figures and errors is

a) 164 ± 3 m²
b) 163.62 ± 2.6 m²
c) 163.6 ± 2.6 m²
a) 163.62 ± 3 m²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

8. Which of the following measurements is most precise?

a) 5.00 mm
b) 5.00 𝑐𝑚
c) 5.00 𝑚
d) 5.00 𝑘𝑚

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

9. The mean length of an object is 7 cm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate?

a) 6.9 cm
b) 6.852
c) 7.25
d) 7.5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

10. Which of the following are not unit of time?

a) Second
b) year
c) Light Year
d) Decades

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

11. The radius of the Earth is 𝑅. What will be the distance between the Earth and the Moon, if the diameter of the Earth subtends an angle 2° to an observer on the moon?

a) 30 𝑅
b) 60 R
c) 100 𝑅
d) 180 𝑅

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

12. The dimensional formula of Power is

a) [ML² T^-2]
b) [ML² T^-3]
c) [M²L T^-3]
d) [M²L² T^-3]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

13. The SI unit of solid angle is

a) Steradian
b) Radian
c) Joule per second
d) Newton per coulomb

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

14. The dimensional formula of potential difference is

a) [MLT^-2 A^-2]
b) [ML²T^-2 A^-1]
c) [ML²T^-3 A^-1]
d) [ML²T^-3 A^-2]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

15. Number of fundamental units in SI system is

a) 4
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

16. A particle executes SHM along a straight line so that its period is 12s. The time it takes in traversing a distance equal to half its amplitude from its equilibrium position is –

a) 6s
b) 4s
c) 2s
d) 1s

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

17. Particle moves on the x-axis according to the equation x = A + B sin ωt. The motion is simple harmonic with amplitude.

a) A
b) B
c) A + B
d) A²+ B²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

18. The amplitude and time period in SHM are 0.8 cm and 0.2 sec respectively. If the initial phase is π/2 radian, then the equation representing SHM is –

a) y = 0.8 cos 10πt
b) y = 0.8 sin πt
c) y = 3 × 0.8 sin πt
d) y = 0.8 sin 10 πt

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

19. The equation of SHM of a particle is a + 4π2x = 0 where ‘a’ is instantaneous linear acceleration at displacement x. The frequency of motion is –

a) 1 Hz
b) 4π Hz
c) Hz
d) 4Hz 41

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

20. What is the shortest possible period of an Earth satellite in circular orbit?

a) 2π√R/g
b) zero
c) 1 day
d) 1 year

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

21. On which of the following does the energy of a simple harmonic motion depend.

a) ⍵
b) 1/⍵²
c) 1/a²d) a²

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

22. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is:

a) 8/3
b) 3/8
c) 1/6
d) 1/3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

23. If x = a sin [ωt + (π/3)] and x′ = a cos ωt, then what is the phase difference between two waves?

a) π/3
b) π/6
c) π/2
d) π

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

24. If the successive frequencies in a one end closed organ pipe are 245 and 315 Hz respectively, then the frequency of third overtone will be

a) 105 Hz
b) 175 Hz
c) 245 Hz
d) 315 Hz

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

25. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

a) 12.5
b) 13.3
c) 8
d) 16

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

CHEMISTRY

26. According to Werner’s theory, the primary valency corresponds to:

a) Coordination number
b) Oxidation state of the central metal
c) Covalent bonds
d) Hybridization of metal

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

27. Which of the following ions will be formed in the solution of [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃?

a) [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺ and 3Cl⁻
b) [Cr(H₂O)₃]³⁺ and 6Cl⁻
c) Cr³⁺ and 6H₂O
d) [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]⁺ and Cl⁻

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

28. Which of the following is an example of a homoleptic complex?

a) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
b) [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]⁺
c) [Ni(CO)₄]
d) Both (a) and (c)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

29. Which of the following will show the lowest conductivity in aqueous solution?

a) [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
b) [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂
c) [Cr(H₂O)₆]
d) [Co(NH3)₄Cl₂]Cl

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

30. Which of the following ligands can bind to the central metal through two different atoms, acting as an ambidentate ligand?

a) SCN⁻
b) NH₃
c) CH₃COO⁻
d) H₂O

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

31. In [PtCl₆]²⁻, the coordination number of platinum is:

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

32. What is the IUPAC name of [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl?

a) Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) Dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride
c) Chromium(III) tetraaquadichloride
d) Tetraaquadichlorochromate(III)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

33. An electrophilic reagent is :

a) Electron deficient species
b) Electron rich species
c) Negatively charged species
d) A Lewis base.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

34. Which of the following hybridization has maximum s-character?

a) sp
b) sp²c) sp³
d) All have same s-character

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

35. The IUPAC name of the compound :

a) 3-oxobutan-1-ol
b) 1-Hydroxy butan-3-ol
c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-ol
d) 2-oxobutan-4-ol

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

36. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 CH=CH-C≡CH is

a) Pent-2-en-4-yne
b) Pent-1-en-4-yne
c) Pent-3-en-1-yne
d) Pen-2-en-5-yne

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

37. The shape of carbocation is :

a) Planar
b) Linear
c) Pyramidal
d) Tetrahedral

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

38. The IUPAC name for the structural formula:

a) 3, 4-dimethylhexane
b) 2, 3-diethylbutane
c) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
d) Heptane.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

39. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 32, respectively, are

a) 11, 2, 3
b) 14, 4, 4
c) 12, 3, 4
d) 13, 3, 4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

40. Which of the following is incorrect from the following

a) Unp – Db
b) Uuu – Rg
c) Uuo – Ts
d) Unn – Fm

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

41. The correct order of ionic radius are

a) K⁺ > Na > Mg ²⁺b) Na > Na⁺ > Ca ²⁺
c) O^– < O ^2- < O
d) N^3- > F^– < F

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

42. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not iso-electronics ?

a) Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺
b) Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
c) He, H^–, Li ⁺
d) K⁺, Ca²⁺, Ne

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

43. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

a) B < C O (Ionization Enthalpy)
b) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic Character)
c) O < O^–< O^2- (Ionic Size)
d) F < Cl < Br < I (Electron Gain Enthalpy)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

44. Assertion : Mendeleev’s left the gap under aluminium and silicon and called these Ek – aluminium and Eka – silicon, respectively.
Reason : Dobereiner arranged elements on the basis of increasing atomic number.

a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If both assertion and reason are false.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

45. The number of oxygen atoms present in 5.2 g of SO₃ is:

a)1.24 x 10²³
b) 1.17 x 10²³
c) 6.12 x 10²³
d) 1.26 x 10²³

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

46. Two elements X (at. wt. 75) and Y (at. wt. 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8 % of X. The empirical formula of the compound is?

a) XY
b) X₂Y
c) X₂Y₂d) X₂Y₃

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

47. If N_A is Avogadro number, then the number of valence electrons in 6.4 g of O^2- ion is

a) 4.2 N_A
b) 3.2 N
c) 2.2 N_Ad) 1.2 N_A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

48. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Significant figures for 0.600 are three whereas for 600 is one only.
Statement II: One atomic mass unit is defined as the one tenth of the mass of one carbon-12 atom.

a) Statement I is true but statement II is false
b) Statement I is false but statement II is true
c) Both statement I and statement are true
d) Both statements I and statement II are false

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

49. If 10²¹ molecules are removed from 100 mg CO₂, then numbers of moles of CO₂ left are?

a) 6.10 x 10^-4
b) 2.8 x 10^-3
c) 4.2 x 10^-3
d) 1.6 x 10^-2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

50. A 1000 g sample of NaOH contains 3 mols of O atoms. What is the % purity of NaOH?

a) 14.2 %
b) 10 %
c) 18.4 %
d) 12 %

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

BIOLOGY

51. Linnaeus classification of plant kingdom is based on

a) anatomy of plant
b) phylogenetic relationship
c) number of stamens and carpels
d) mode of nutrition.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

52. An alga, very rich in protein is

a) Chlorella
b) Nostoc
c) Gelidium
d) Fucus.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

53. Brown algae is characterised by the presence of

a) fucoxanthin
b) haematochrome
c) phycocyanin
d) phycoerythrin.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

54. Which of the following groups of algae produces the carrageenan?

a) Red algae
b) Green algae
c) Brown algae
d) Blue green algae

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

55. Peat moss is

a) Polytrichum
b) Funaria
c) Marchantia
d) Sphagnum.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

56. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing

a) gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
b) independent gametophyte and sporophyte
c) sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
d) no sporophyte.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

57. Gemmae are the specialised structures produced in liverworts. These are

a) non-green, multicellular, asexual buds which develop in gemma cups
b) green, multicellular, asexual buds which develop in gemma cups
c) non-green, multicellular, diploid, sexual spores
d) green, unicellular, diploid, sexual spores.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

58. Which of the following is an example of living fossils?

a) Pinus
b) Riccia
c) Gnetum
d) Ginkgo

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

59. Which of the following shows haploid phase in gymnosperm?

a) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf
b) Pollen grain, megaspore, nucleus
c) Pollen grain, megaspore, root
d) Endosperm, pollen grain, megaspore

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

60. In double fertilisation, one male gamete fuses with the _(i)- to form zygote and the other male gamete fuses with _(ii) to form primary endosperm nucleus.

a) (i)synergids (n), (ii) antipodals (n)

b) (i) egg (n), (ii) -antipodals (n)

c) (i) egg (n), (ii) secondary nucleus (2n)

d) (i) egg (n), (ii) synergids (n)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

61. In gymnosperms, the ovules are borne on

a) megasporangium
b) megasporophyll
c) microsporangium
d) microsporophyll.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

62. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Roots of Cycas are associated N₂- fixing cyanobacteria.
Statement II: Roots of Pinus possess fungal associations.

a) Both statements I and II are correct.
b) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

63. In taxonomical hierarchy, common character is maximum at

a) Species
b) Genus
c) Phylum
d) Kingdom

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

64. Genus Panthera is

a) Polytypic
b) Bitypic
c) Monotypic
d) None of above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

65. Arthropoda is to Phylum, while Angiospermae is to

a) Kingdom
b) Phylum
c) Division
d) Class

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

66. Binomial nomenclature indicates

a) Genus and family
b) Genus and order
c) Species and order
d) Species and genus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

67. Anal style in cockroach is

a) Absent in male
b) Present in male only
c) Present in both sexes
d) Present in female only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

68. Organ used for storing food in cockroach

a) Mouth
b) Crop
c) Gizzard
d) Malpighian tubules

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

69. Type of heart in cockroach

a) Neurogenic
b) Myogenic
c) Both A and B
d) None of above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

70. Male gonapophysis is known as

a) Hepatic caeca
b) Malpighian tubules
c) Spermatheca
d) Phallomeres

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

71. Wings arising from metathorax is called

a) Forewing
b) Hindwing
c) Both A and B
d) None of above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

72. Select the odd one out:

a) Tight junction
b) Gap junction
c) Adhering junction
d) Cross junction

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

73. Muscular tissue originates from which of the following

a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All germ layers

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

74. Structural and functional unit of nervous tissue

a) Nephrons
b) Neurons
c) Blood
d) Lymph

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

75. Which of the following enzymes is considered the pacemaker of glycolysis in plant cells?

a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d) Aldolase

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

76. During aerobic respiration in plants, how many molecules of ATP are directly produced from one molecule of glucose via substrate level phosphorylation?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

77. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

a) It produces oxygen as the end product.
b) It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
c) It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
d) It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

78. The respiratory quotient (RQ) of a plant respiring a carbohydrate substrate is:

a) 0.7
b) 0.9
c) 1.0
d) 1.3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

79. What is produced when oxygen is not available during respiration?

a) Ethanol or lactic acid
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Glucose
d) Water

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

80. One molecule of NADH and FADH is equivalent to how many ATP:

a) 2 and 1
b) 3 and 2
c) 4 and 3
d) 3 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

81. In plant respiration, the number of carbon dioxide molecules released per glucose molecule during complete aerobic respiration is:

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

82. The respiratory substrate with the highest respiratory quotient (RQ) in plants is:

a) Fat
b) Protein
c) Organic acid
d) Carbohydrate

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

83. How many ATP molecules is used in glycolysis ?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 1

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

84. The process of breaking down glucose without oxygen is called:

a) Aerobic respiration
b) Fermentation
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Photophosphorylation

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

85. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required to fix one molecule of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle?

a) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH
b) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
c) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
d) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

86. In which part of the mitochondria does electron transport system occur

a) Cytoplasm
b) Outer membrane
c) Inner membrane
d) Matrix

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

87. What is the other name for Krebs cycle

a) Glycolytic cycle
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Calvin cycle
d) Plastocyanin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

88. Diseases which are present from birth are

a) Acquired diseases
b) Congenital diseases
c) Contagious diseases
d) Infectious diseases

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

89. Interferons are examples of

a) Physical barrier
b) Physiological barrier
c) Cellular barrier
d) Cytokine barrier

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

90. The widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is

a) PCR
b) MRI
c) ELISA
d) Radiography

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

91. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
b) A-(i), B(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

92. In which disease does mosquito transmitted\ pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

a) Ascariasis
b) Elephantiasis
c) Ringworm disease
d) Amoebiasis

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

93. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of

a) Plague
b) Diptheria
c) Pneumonia
d) Typhoid

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

94. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is

a) Trophozoites
b) Gametocytes
c) Sporozoites
d) Schizont

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

95. The diseases which spread through a vector contaminated water and food are known as

a) Non-contagious diseases
b) Contagious diseases
c) Non-communicable diseases
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

96. Cholera is caused by

a) Bacteria
b) Rhinovirus
c) Protozoa
d) Variola virus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

97. The function of IgE is

a) Activation of B-cells
b) Protection of inhaled and ingested pathogen
c) To mediate allergic response
d) Formed during RH incompatibility

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

98. The drug obtained from hemp plant Cannabis sativa is

a) Morphine
b) Cannabinoid
c) Cocaine
d) Heroin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

99. Read the following statements
i. Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigen IgA
ii. Formation of memory cells is an example of innate immunity
iii. Injection of dead/attenuated pathogen causes active immunity
How many of the above statements are true?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

100. The humoral mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by

a) Erythrocytes
b) T-lymphocytes
c) B-lymphocytes
d) Thrombocytes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

SMATEE MOCK TEST-1 (01.02.2025)

More posts

Economics Videos

Economics