NEET FULL TEST (08.02.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST (08.02.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

FULL TEST – I

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).

2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.

3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

PHYSICS

1. The pitch and the number of circular Scale divisions in a screw gauge with least count 0.002 mm are respectively

a) 1mm and 100
b) 0.5 mm and 50
c) 1mm and 50
d) 0.5 mm and 100

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2. One centimetre on the main scale of a vernier callipers is divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of vernier coincide with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of vernier callipers is

a) 0.01 cm

b) 0.02 cm

c) 0.05 cm

d) 0.005 cm

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3. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is

a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) always more than 1
d) equal to or less than 1

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4. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then A. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If TA and TB are their respective time of flights then

a) T_A > T_B
b) T_A= T_B
c) T_A< T_B
b) their time of flights depend on their masses.

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5. Acceleration due to gravity

a) a scalar
b) a vector
c) a polar vector
d) a pseudo vector

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6. Which one of the following statements is true?

a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a process
b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take negative values
c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from one point to another in space
d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers with different orientation of the axes

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7. No force is required for

a) an object moving in straight line with constant velocity
b) an object moving in circular motion
c) an object moving with constant acceleration
d) an object moving in elliptical path.

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a) 10 kg
b) 10√2 kg
c) 10√3 kg
d) 200 kg

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9. A planet goes round the sun three times as fast as the earth. If r_p and r_e are the radii of orbit of the planet and the earth respectively then

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10. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 5 ×10^–4 K^–1. The fractional change in the density of glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is:

a) 0.020
b) 0.025
c) 0.010
d) 0.015

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11. In a reversible cyclic process of a gaseous system

a) ΔQ =ΔU
b) ΔU =ΔW
c) ΔW = 0
d) ΔU = 0

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12. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure so as to double its volume. The final temperature of the gas will be, close to

a) 327°C
b) 200°C
c) 54°C
d) 300°C

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13. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric intensity at centre O will be

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14. Figure shows two hollow charged conductors A and B having same positive surface charge densities. B is placed inside A and does not touches it. On connecting them with a conductor

a) charge will flow from A to B
b) charge will flow from B to A
c) charge oscillates between A and B
d) no charge will flow.

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15. A network of six identical capacitors, each of value C is made as shown in the figure. Equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

a) C/4
b) 3C/4
c) 4C/3
d) 3C

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16. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is 𝑅. If its length and radius are both doubled, then

a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled

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17. Maximum energy evolved during which of the following transition?

a) n = 1 to n = 2
b) n = 2 to n = 1
c) n = 2 to n = 6
d) n = 6 to n = 2

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18. O₂ molecule consists of two oxygen atoms. In the molecule, nuclear force between the nuclei of the two atoms

a) is not important because nuclear forces are short –ranged
b) is as important as electrostatic force for binding the two atoms
c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the nuclei
d) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal number of neutrons and protons

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19. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
II. Nuclear density is around 2.3 × 1017 kg/m3.
II. Nuclear density is very large compared to ordinary matter.
IV. Mass of ordinary matter is mainly due to nucleus.

a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I, II, III and IV

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a) 46 MeV
b) 5.6 MeV
c) 3.9 MeV
d) 23 MeV

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21. In a semiconductor

a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
d) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductor

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22. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ?

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)

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23. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table.

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)

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24. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

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25. Which process will increase the temperature of the system without heating it?

a) Adiabatic compression
b) Adiabatic expansion
c) Isothermal compression
d) Isothermal expansion

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26. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

a) May be all positive
b) May be all negative
c) Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases
d) Always zero

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27. A particle of mass 200g is dropped from a height of 50m and another particle of mass 100g is simultaneously projected up from the ground along the same line, with speed of 100 m/s, the acceleration of the centre of mass after 1 sec will be

a) 10 m/s²b) 70/3 m/s

c) -70/3 m/s

d) 0

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28. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is

a) 2 x 10⁶Nm
b) 2 x 10^-6Nm
c) 2 x 10^-3Nm
d) 12 x 10^-4Nm

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29. Initially two stable particles x and y start moving towards each other under mutual attraction. If at one time the velocities of x and y are V and 2V respectively, what will be the velocity of centre of mass of the system?

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30. The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at 600 rad/sec for the power of 1.2 K watt is used, the effective torque on stone N-m will be

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

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31. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t)= 2t³-6t². The torque on the wheel becomes 0 at

a) t= 1s
b) t= 0.5s
c) t= 0.25s
d) t= 2s

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32. A load of 10 kg is suspended by a metal wire 3 m long and having a cross-sectional area 4mm². Find the elongation in length. Young modulus of the metal is 2.0×1011Nm⁻²a) 2.75 x 10^-4m
b) 3.75 x 10^-4m
c) 4.75 x 10^-4m
d) 5.75 x 10^-4m

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33. A force of 2 mm is applied to a steel wire with a length of 5 m and a cross-sectional area of 4 mm³. When steel has a Young’s modulus of 2×1011 N/m², the energy found within the wire equals

a) 0.64 J
b) 0.12 J
c) 0.28 J
d) 0.32 J

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34. Four bodies A, B, C and D are projected with equal velocities having angles of projection 15°,30°,45°and 80° with the horizontal respectively. The body having the shortest range is

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

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a) 2J
b) 5J
c) 18J
d) 11J

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36. A ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index μ is incident at an angle θ on a composite transparent plate consisting of 50 plates of R.I1.01μ,1.02μ,1.03μ………,1.50μ . The ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of refractive index 1.6μ at angle ‘x’ . Then :

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37. A ray of light, travelling in a medium of refractive index mu, is incident at an angle i on a composite transparent plate consisting of three plates of refractive indices μ1, μ2 and μ3. The ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of refractive index μ4, at angle x. Then,

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38. The size of the image of an object, which is at infinity, as formed by a convex lens of focal length 30 cm is 2 cm. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed between the convex lens and the image at a distance of 26 cm from the convex lens, calculate the new size of the image

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39. A concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 35.0cm. It is positioned so that the (upright) image of man’s face is 2.50 times the size of the face. How far is the mirror from the face?

a) 5.25cm
b) 21.0cm
c) 10.5cm
d) 42cm

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40. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of 60∘enters a glass sphere with refractive index √3 and it is reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is:

a) 50°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 40°

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41. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium f refractive index μ, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following value of μ the ray can undergo total internal reflection?

a) μ=1.33
b) μ=1.40
c) μ=1.50
d) μ=1.25

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42. The peak voltage of an ac supply is 440 V, then its rms voltage is

a) 31.11V
b) 311.1V
c) 41.11V
d) 411.1V

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43. In series LCR circuit, the phase angle between supply voltage and current is

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44. A metal surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but none when hit by yellow light. The electrons will be ejected when the surface is hit by

a) blue light
b) heat rays
c) infrared light
d) red light

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45. In photoelectric effect, stopping potential depends on

a) frequency of incident light
b) nature of the emitter material
c) intensity of incident light
d) both (a) and (b)

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CHEMISTRY

46. A compound H₂X with molar weight of 80 g is dissolved in a solvent having density of 0.4 g mL^-1. Assuming no change in volume upon dissolution, the molality of a 3.2 molar solution is

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

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47. If liquid A and B form an ideal solution

a) the entropy of mixing is zero
b) the free energy of mixing is zero
c) the free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero.
d) the enthalpy of mixing is zero

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a) ≃10⁻⁴
B. ≃10⁺⁴
c) ≃10⁻⁷
d) ≃10⁺⁶

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49. 2mol of N₂is mixed with 6 mol of H₂ in a closed vessel of one litre capacity. If 50% N₂ is converted into NH₃ at equilibrium, the value of K_c for the reaction
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) is

a) 4/27
B. 27/4
c) 1/27
d) 27

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50. Calculate the entropy change in surroundings when 1.00 mol of H₂O (l) is formed under standard conditions at 298 K. Given Δ_fH⁰ = – 286 kJ mol⁻¹

a) 949.7 JK^-1mol^-1b) 959.7 JK^-1mol^-1c) 939.7 JK^-1mol^-1

d) 950.7 JK^-1mol^-1

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51. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂. When 0.1 mole of XY₂ weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

a) 40, 30
B. 60, 40
c) 20, 30
d) 30, 20

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52. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L⁻¹s⁻¹at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is?

a) 54.1 s
b) 44.1 s
c) 23.8 s
d) 34.1 s

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53. The correct figure representing isothermal and adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas from a particular initial state is:

a) (B)
b) (A)
c) (D)
d) (C)

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a) − 0.403 V
b) 0.385 V
c) 0.986 V
d)– 0.270 V

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55. The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero order with respect to B. The value of x, y and r are respectively?

a) 0.2, 0.1 and 8×10⁻²
b) 0.1 , 0.2 and 8×10⁻²
c) 1.2, 1.0 and 4×10⁻²
d) 1.0, 1.2 and 4×10⁻²

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56. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will

a) decrease twice
b) increase two fold
c) remain unchanged
d) be a function of the molecular mass of the substance

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57. The vapour pressure of pure liquid A at 310 °C is 120 torr. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is 72 torr. Calculate the mole fraction of A in solution if the mixture obeys Raoult’s law.

a) 0.06
b) 0.9
c) 0.3
d) 0.6

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58. The amount of electrical energy produced during the passage of 2 ampere current for 150 s under a potential of 125 volt is

a) 9.375 kJ
b) 37.5 kJ
c) 75 kJ
d) 3.75 kJ

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59. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume and simultaneously heated to twice its initial temperature, the change in entropy (△S) is?

a) C_vln2
b) Rln2
c) C_pln2
d) (C_v-R) ln2

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60. A vessel of 1 L capacity containing 1 mole of SO₂ is heated till a state of equilibrium is attained, 2SO₃ (g) ⇌ 2SO₂ (g) + O₂ (g). If 0.6 moles of SO₂ had formed at equilibrium, the value of K is

a) 2.18
B. 1.36
c) 0.68
d) 0.05

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61. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has

a) sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
b) sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
c) 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
d) sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond

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62. The order of stability of the following carbocations is

a) III>I>II
b) III>II>I
c) II>III>I
d) I> II > III

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63. The dipole moment is shown by

a) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene
b) cis-1,2-Dichloroethene
c) trans-1,2-Dichloroethene
d) cis-1,2-Dichloro-1-pentene

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64. Aniline is separated from aniline-water mixture by

a) Crystallization
b) steam distillation
c) solvent extraction
d) sublimation

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65. The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with:

a) H₂- Pd/C, BaSO4
b) NaBH4\
c) Na/liq. NH₃
d) Sn-HCl

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66. What final product will form when alcoholic KOH is treated with 1,1-dichloroethane?

a) Ethane-1,2-diol
b) Ethene
c) Ethyne
d) Acetaldehyde

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67. The decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds is

a) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2
b) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2
c) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
d) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3

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a) CH₃CHO
b) CH₄c) C. C₂H₆d) CH₃COCH₃

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69. The end product (B) in the following sequence of reactions is

a) CH₃COOH
b)HCOOH
c) CH₃NH₂d) CH₃COCH₃

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a) Benzaldehyde
b) Benzoic acid
c) Benzene
d) Toluene

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a) Benzylalcohol
b) Iodobenzene
c) Phenol
d) Toluene

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72. The products obtained on ozonolysis of 2-ethylbut-1-ene are:

a) Propanone and ethanal
b) Ethanal and 3-pentanone
c) Butanal and ethanal
d) Methanal and 3-pentanone

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73. Arrange the following acids in order of their increasing acidity

a) A < B < C < D
b) B < C < A < D
c) C < B < D < A
d) C < D < B < A

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74. The product of the following reaction

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75. Aniline is treated with bromine water to give an organic compound ‘X’ which when treated with NaNO2 and HCl at 0°C gives a water soluble compound ‘Y’. Compound Y on treatment with Cu₂Cl₂ and HCl gives compound ‘Z’. Compound ‘Z’ is

a) o-bromochlorobenzene

b) p-bromochlorobenzene

c) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

d) 2, 4, 6-tribromochlorobenzene

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76. The IUPAC symbol for the element Nobelium is

a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unb
d) Uns

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77. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)

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78. Three cyclic structures of monosaccharides are given below which of these are anomers.

(1) (2)

(3)

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 is anomer of 1 and 2

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79. Which one of the following ring is present in the histidine?

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80. Choose the incorrect statement regarding KMnO₄ and K₂Cr₂O₇
a) The oxidation state of Cr in Chromate ion and dichromate ion are same ( +6)
b) When Manganate ion changes to permanganate ion the colour changes from green to purple.
c) The Cr-O bond length in Cr₂O₇^2- are equivalent.
d) KMnO₄ is a powerful oxidising agent in Acidic medium

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81. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Oxidation state of d-block

a) Within a group, the maximum oxidation state increases with atomic number.
b) In the +2 and +3 oxidation states, the bonds formed are mostly ionic.
c) In Group 6, Mo (IV) are less stable than Cr (IV).
d) Ti (IV) is more stable than Ti (II)

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82. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Lanthanoids?

a) Ln (III) compounds are predominantly ionic in character.
b) Ce⁴⁺ can act as an oxidizing agent
c) La(OH)₃ is the least basic among hydroxides of lanthanides.
d) Zr⁴⁺ and Hf⁴⁺ possess almost the same ionic radii

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83. Which of the following pair of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural ?

a) IF₃, XeF₂
b) BeCl₂, XeF₂
c) TeI₂, XeF₂d) IBr₂^–, XeF₂

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84. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

a) CO₂
b) H₂O
c) NH₃ d) PF₅

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85. Choose the most volatile hydride among group 16?

a) H₂O
b) H₂S
c) H₂Se
d) H₂Te

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86. The stability of Oxidation state increases in the order

a) SiX₂ > GeX₂> Sn X₂ > Pb X₂
b) SiX₂ < GeX₂ < Sn X₂ < Pb X₂
c) SiX₂ > GeX₂ < Sn X₂ < Pb X₂
d) SiX₂ < GeX₂ < Sn X₂ > Pb X₂

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87. Choose the correct statement about Boric acid

a) It act as tribasic acid
b) It is formed by hydrolysis of Boron halides
c) It does not have vacant p- orbital
d) It act as tetrabasic acid

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88. In case of d_x2–_y2orbital

a) Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
b) Probability of finding the electron along y -axis is zero
c) Probability of finding the electron along x- axis is zero
d) Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y- axis

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89. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He⁺ is

a) 52.9
b) 0.529
c) 26.9
d) 92.7

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90. Match List 1 and List 2
List 1 List 2
1) BrF₅ i) Square Pyramidal
2) NH₄⁺ ii) Tetrahedral
3) AlCl₃ iii) Trigonal Bipyramidal
4) SbCl₅ iv) Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i

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BOTANY

91. In C₄ plants, why does the initial CO₂ fixation occur in mesophyll cells rather than bundle sheath cells?

a) Mesophyll cells have higher O₂ concentration.
b) PEP carboxylase has a higher affinity for CO₂ than RuBisCO.
c) Bundle sheath cells lack chloroplasts.
d) C₄ plants do not perform the Calvin cycle

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92. A plant’s action spectrum shows peaks at 450 nm and 650 nm but minimal activity at 550 nm. What explains this?

a) Chlorophyll-a absorbs blue and red light, not green.
b) Carotenoids reflect green light.
c) PS-I only uses far-red light.
d) Green light is absorbed by phycobilins.

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93. A mutant C₄ plant lacks bundle sheath cells. What is the consequence?

a) Increased photorespiration.
b) Enhanced Calvin cycle efficiency.
c) PEP carboxylase becomes non-functional.
d) CO₂ fixation switches to the C₃ pathway.

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94. When a leaf is exposed to UV light, chlorophyll emits red fluorescence. What does this indicate about energy utilization?

a) Excess light energy is converted to heat.
b) Photosystems are damaged.
c) Energy is lost as photons instead of driving photosynthesis.
d) The leaf is undergoing photorespiration

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95. If 8 photons are absorbed in cyclic photophosphorylation, how many ATP molecules are produced?

a) 8 ATP
b) 4 ATP
c) 2 ATP
d) 0 ATP

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96. A herbicide blocks the regeneration of RuBP in the Calvin cycle. Which metabolite accumulates immediately?

a) 3-PGA
b) G3P
c) RuBP
d) Glucose

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97. When chloroplasts are exposed to light wavelengths of 680 nm and 700 nm simultaneously, the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the sum of individual rates. Why?

a) Cyclic photophosphorylation is activated.
b) Both PS-I and PS- II are excited cooperatively.
c) Carotenoids absorb excess light energy.
d) Photolysis of water doubles.

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98. In an experiment, C₃ and C₄ plants are exposed to 21% O₂ and 0.04% CO₂. Which plant shows higher photorespiration, and why?

a) C₃ plant – RuBisCO binds O₂ due to low CO₂ : O₂ ratio.
b) C₄ plant-PEP carboxylase fixes O₂ instead of CO₂.
c) Both equally High O₂ inhibits Calvin cycle.
d) Neither – Photorespiration requires light.

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99. A mutation disrupts the cytochrome b₆f complex in the chloroplast. What would be the immediate consequence?

a) Only ATP synthesis stops.
b) Both ATP and NADPH synthesis stop.
c) PS-I becomes non-functional.
d) Oxygen evolution ceases.

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100. At high light intensities, the rate of photosynthesis is limited by:

a) Light intensity
b) CO₂ concentration
c) Temperature
d) Both (b) and (c)

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101. Which of the following is a limiting factor for photosynthesis at low light intensities?

a) CO₂ concentration
b) Temperature
c) Light intensity
d) Water availability

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102. The action spectrum of photosynthesis closely matches the absorption spectrum of:

a) Chlorophyll a and carotenoids
b) Chlorophyll b and xanthophylls
c) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
d) Carotenoids and phycobilins

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103. The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:

a) CO₂b) H₂O
c) Glucose
d) ATP

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104. The rate of photosynthesis is highest in which range of the light spectrum?

a) Green
b) Blue and red
c) Yellow
d) Orange

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105. The primary function of the C₄ pathway is to:

a) Increase photorespiration
b) Concentrate CO₂ around RuBisCO
c) Reduce ATP consumption
d) Increase oxygen production

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106. Which of the following is the primary electron donor in PSII during the light-dependent reactions?

a) Water
b) NADP+
c) Plastoquinone
d) Ferredoxin

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107. The byproduct of aerobic respiration is:

a) Lactic acid
b) Ethanol
c) CO₂ and H₂O
d) Acetaldehyde

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108. The number of ATP molecules produced from one molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is approximately:

a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
d) 48

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109. If a plant is respiring a mixture of carbohydrates and fats, what will happen to its RQ?

a) RQ will be exactly 1.0.
b) RQ will be between 0.7 and 1.0.
c) RQ will be greater than 1.0.
d) RQ cannot be determined

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110. Why do plants switch to anaerobic respiration in waterlogged soils?

a) Oxygen is limited, and aerobic respiration cannot occur.
b) Water inhibits glycolysis.
c) Ethanol production is more efficient than aerobic respiration.
d) Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP.

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111. If cyanide is introduced to a plant cell, what will happen to ATP production?

a) Increase, as electrons flow faster through the ETC.
b) Decrease, as cytochrome c oxidase is inhibited.
c) Remain the same, as glycolysis will compensate.
d) Stop completely, as NADH cannot be oxidized

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112. If the supply of oxaloacetate is reduced in the Krebs cycle, what will happen?

a) Acetyl-CoA will accumulate, and the -cycle will slow down.
b) Citrate production will increase.
c) NADH and FADH₂ production will increase.
d) The cycle will continue unaffected.

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113. A C₄ plant is grown in low How will it adapt compared to a C₃ plant?

a) It will perform more photorespiration.
b) It will concentrate in bundle heath cells.
c) It will switch to the CAM pathway.
d) It will stop photosynthesis.

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114. If RuBisCO is inhibited in a plant, which of the following will occur?

a) Increased production of 3-PGA.
b) Accumulation of RuBP and decreased
c) Increased photorespiration.
d) Enhanced ATP synthesis.

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115. In an experiment, a plant is exposed to light of wavelength 700 nm (far-red light). What will happen to the rate of photosynthesis, and why?

a) Increase, because PSI is activated.
b) Decrease, because PSII is not activated.
c) Remain the same, as both PSI and PSII are activated.
d) Stop completely, as chlorophyll cannot absorb far-red light

None

116. In certain xerophytic plants, stems undergo modification to become flattened, unlimited growth, green, and photosynthetic, taking over the functions of leaves. What are these structures called?

a) phylloclades
b) scales
c) cladodes
d) phyllodes

None

117. In some plants, the ovary contains a persistent septum-like structure that remains after seed dispersal, aiding in fruit dehiscence. In which of the following plants is this structure, known as a replum, found?

a) Sunflower
b) Pea
c) Lemon
d) Mustard

None

118. In a flower, the arrangement of sepals or petals shows overlapping margins, but without a specific directional pattern. What is this type of aestivation called?”

a) Vexillary
b) Imbricate
c) Twisted
d) Valvate

None

119. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is

a) monadelphous
b) polyandrous
c) diadelphous
d) polyadelphous.

None

120. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called

a) vexillum
b) corona
c) carina
d) pappus

None

121. In an ovule, the structure that serves as the point of attachment between the body of the ovule and the funicle, playing a key role in nutrient transfer, is known as?

a) Hilum
b) Micropyle
c) Nucellus
d) Chalaza

None

122. In wheat grains, the embryo contains a single, large, shield-shaped cotyledon that plays a crucial role in absorbing and transferring nutrients from the endosperm during germination. What is this specialized structure called?

a) Scutellum
b) Coleoptile
c) Aleurone
d) Coleorhiza

None

123. Edible part of mango is

a) endocarp
b) receptacle
c) mesocarp
d) epicarp

None

124. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of

a) maize
b) pea
c) coconut
d) castor

None

125, In some plant families, the stamens are fused to the petals and the anthers are fused into a tube-like structure. In which of the following families are both characteristics commonly found?

a) Solanaceae
b) Fabaceae
c) Brassicaceae ‘
d) Asteraceae.

None

a) Liliaccae
b) Solanaceae
c) Asteraceae
d) Fabaceae.

None

127. Pruning of plants stimulates lateral branching by making the dormant axillary buds more active. Which plant hormone is responsible for this sensitization of axillary buds after pruning?

a) Ethylene

b) Gibberellin

c) Cytokinin

d) Auxin

None

128. The simplest expression of arithmetic growth is exemplified by

a) living organism growing in a natural environment
b) typically all cells, tissues and organs of a plant
c) root elongation at a constant rate
d) both (a) and (b).

None

129. In plants, the differentiation of the shoot is influenced by the balance of various hormones. Which of the following hormonal combinations is primarily responsible for promoting shoot differentiation?

a) High gibberellin: low abscisic acid
b) High auxin: low abscisic acid
c) High cytokinin: low auxin
d) High gibberellin: low auxin

None

130. When a plant experiences physical damage or environmental stress, which hormone plays a central role in managing the response and repair processes?

a) Growth promoting
b) Growth neutralizing
c) Growth inhibiting
d) None of these

None

131. In double fertilisation, one male gamete fuses with the _(i)- to form zygote and the other male gamete fuses with _(ii) to form primary endosperm nucleus.

a) (i)synergids (n), (ii) antipodals (n)
b) (i) egg (n), (ii) -antipodals (n)
c) (i) egg (n), (ii) secondary nucleus (2n)
d) (i) egg (n), (ii) synergids (n)

None

132. Which of the following shows diploid phase in gymnosperm?

a) Megaspore mother cell, root, leaf
b) Pollen grain, megaspore, nucleus
c) Pollen grain, megaspore, root
d) Endosperm, pollen grain, megaspore

None

133. Before cells enter into M phase from G₂ phase-

a) cyclin M is degraded
b) CDK binds to G₁ cyclin
c) CDK binds to M cyclin
d) CDK becomes inactive.

None

134. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because

a) crossing over does not occur
b) karyokinesis cannot occur
c) chromosomes do not replicate
d) not all the chromosomes can form homologous pairs.

None

135. Which of the following division will help a diploid female lizard to produce a diploid offspring that are genetically identical to herself?

a) Meiosis only
b) Mitosis only
c) First mitosis, then meiosis
d) First meiosis, then mitosis

None

Zoology

136. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Animals accumulate only ammonia, urea, uric acid
Statement II: Accumulation of substances take place either by metabolic activities or by other means like excess ingestion
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

a) Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

None

137. Assertion (A): Henle’s loop and vasa recta are in proximity
Reason (R): The counter current mechanism helps in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium

a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

None

138. Troponin

a) Produces sliding movement of microtubules
b) Contains globular head movement of
c) Is distributed at regular intervals in the filamentous actin
d) Covers the active site of actin

None

139. In which of the following the number of bones of two corresponding parts are not the same?

a) Thigh and upper arm
b) Sole and palm
c) Ankle and wrist
d) Leg and arm

None

140. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

a) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes, spermatids
b) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
c) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
d0 Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa, spermatids

None

141. Seminal plasma in human is rich in

a) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
b) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
c) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
d) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

None

142. In human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

a) Combination of FSH and LH
b) Combination of progesterone
c) FSH only
d) LH only

None

143. Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to

a) Trisomy
b) Monosomy
c) Tetrasomy
d) Polyploidy

None

144. If a normal woman marries a colour blind man, the female progenies will be

a) 50% normal, 50% carrier
b) 100% colour blind
c) 100% carrier
d) 25% colour blind

None

145. Which of the following zones in a biosphere reserve is where human activity is not allowed?

a) Core zone
b) Buffer zone
c) Transition zone
d) All of these

None

146. All monerans are

a) Rod-shaped
b) Autotrophic
c) Bacteria
d) All of these

None

147. The chief producers in oceans are

a) Dinoflagellates
b) Diatoms
c) Cyanobacteria
d) Euglenoids

None

148. Which of the following phylum are pseudocoelomates

a) Porifera
b) Ctenophora
c) Echinodermata
d) Aschelminthes

None

149. Important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is

a) Ventral tubular nerve chord
b) Pharynx with gill slits
c) Pharynx without gill slits
d) Absence of notochord

None

150. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

a) No sperm occurs in epididymis
b) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
d) Irreversible sterility

None

151. Amniocentesis is a process to

a) Determine any disease in heart
b) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
c) Know about the disease of brain
d) All of the above

None

152. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which of the following technique will be suitable for fertilization?

a) IUT
b) GIFT
c) ICSI
d) AI

None

153. Match the following

a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

None

154. Bottled fruit juice bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at home as they are clarified using

a) Lipase and pectinase
b) Proteases and pectinase
c) Streptokinase and pectinase
d) Amylase and pectinase

None

155. Assertion (A): Benign tumors exhibit metastasis
Reason (R): The rate of growth of benign tumor is usually slow

a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

None

156. A person developed difficulty in breathing after getting exposed to pollens. The antibody produced by the person is

a) IgE
b) IgM
c) IgG
d) IgA

None

157. The widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is

a) ELISA
b) MRI
c) Biopsy
d) Radiography

None

158. Which karyotype represent monosomy?

a) 2n + 1
b) 2n – 2
c) 2n – 1
d) 2n + 2

None

159. Blood pressure in mammalian aorta is maximum during

a) Systole of left atrium
b) Systole of left ventricle
c) Diastole of right ventricle
d) Diastole of right atrium

None

160. Which of the following will not coagulate?

a) Whole blood
b) Blood serum
c) Blood plasma
d) Lymph

None

161. Match the following:
I. Thyroid gland i) Diabetes insipidus
II. Pituitary gland ii) Addison’s disease
III. Pancreas iii) Grave’s disease
IV. Adrenal gland iv) Diabetes mellitus

Options:
a) I – ii, II – i, III – iv, IV – iii
b) I – iii, II – iv, III – ii, IV – i
c) I – iii, II – i, III – iv, IV – ii
d) I – ii, II – iv, III – i, IV – iii

None

162. Which of the following ecological pyramid is generally inverted?

a) Pyramid of energy
b) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
c) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
d) Pyramid of biomass in a forest

None

163. Match the following:
I. Mutualism – i) -, –
II. Predation – ii) +,+
III. Parasitism – iii) +, –
IV. Competition – iv) -,+

Options:
a) I – ii, II – iv, III – i, IV – iii
b) I – ii, II – iii, III – iv, IV – i
c) I – iii, II – i, III – iv, IV – ii
d) I – iv, II – iii, III – i, IV – ii

None

164. If 10 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 100 died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week

a) 0
b) 0.1
c) 1.0
d) 10

None

165. Regarding lysing enzymes, Lysozyme is used for dissolving bacterial cell wall, while A and B are used for plant cell and fungal cell.

a) A – Cellulase, B – Lysozyme
b) A – Mutanolysin, B – Chitinase
c) A- Chitinase, B – Mutanolysin
d) A- Cellulase, B – Chitinase

None

166. Two recognition sites for restriction endonuclease locating within the ampRgene are

a) PstI and PvuI
b) BamHI and SalI
c) PvuII and PstI
d) ClaI and HindII

None

167. Assertion (A): DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it cannot pass through membrane. Bacterial cells must be made to take up DNA.

Reason (R): In rDNA technology, bacterial cells are incubated with rDNA on ice, followed by placing at 42⁰C and then on ice again.

a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect

d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

None

168. In PCR technique, the desired segment of the target DNA molecule that is to be amplified

a) Primers
b) Enzymes
c) Template
d) Vector

None

169. Statement I: The main drawback of simple stirred tank bioreactor is that it is relatively expensive to run
Statement II: Simple stirred tank bioreactor requires high energy to drive the agitators

a) Both Statements I and II are correct
b) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

None

170. Gene therapy involves

a) Treating defective gene with radiations
b) Replacement of defective gene with normal gene
c) Introduction of a normal gene into a cell
d) Eliminating defective gene

None

171. Human insulin is commercially produced from:

a) Rhizobium
b) Mycobacterium
c) Escherichia
d) Saccharomyces

None

172. Biopatents are usually awarded for
I. Cell lines
II. DNA sequences
III. Strains of microorganism
IV. Known inventions

Options:
a) I, II, III
b) II, III, IV
c) I only
d) I, II, III, IV

None

173. RNAi involves the silencing of a specific A due to a complementary B molecule that binds to and prevents silencing

a) A- mRNA, B- dsDNA
b) A- mRNA, B- ssDNA
c) A- tRNA, B- dsDNA
d) A- tRNA, B- ssDNA

None

174. Identify product A from the given figure:

a) Polypeptide chain C
b) Polypeptide chain B
c) Polypeptide chain A
d) All of above

None

175. The correct sequence of periods in Mesozoic era, beginning with the earliest

a) Jurassic, cretaceous, triassic
b) Triassic, jurassic, cretaceous
c) Cretaceous, triassic, jurassic
d) Jurassic, triassic, cretaceous

None

176. Smallest brain capacity is observed on:

a) Homo sapiens
b) Homo erectus
c) Homo habilis
d) Homo neanderthalensis

None

177. Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a placental mammal. This shows

a) Divergent evolution
b) Inheritance of acquired character
c) Convergent evolution
d) All of above

None

178. Three genes a,b,c show crossing over 15% between a and b, 32% between b and c and 10% between a and c. Sequence of genes will be

a) a b c
b) b a c
c) a c b
d) c a b

None

179. With respect to productivity level, savannah are place under

a) High productivity ecosystem
b) Average productivity ecosystem
c) Low productivity ecosystem
d) Less productivity ecosystem

None

180. Secondary productivity refers to

a) The amount of energy available at consumer level for transfer to next trophic level
b) The amount of energy available at producer level for transfer to next trophic level
c) The rate of energy production by green plants during photosynthesis
d) The amount of energy left after respiration

None

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