NEET FULL TEST II (15.02.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST II (15.02.2025)

Name

ZZR ID

Important Instructions:

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited

PHYSICS

1. In the relation y=r sin(ωt-kx), the dimensions of ω/k are

a) [M⁰ L¹ T⁰]
b) [M⁰ L⁰ T¹]
c) [M⁰ L⁰ T⁰]
d) [M⁰ L¹ T^-1]

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2. Percentage error in measuring the mass (m) & radius (R) of a solid sphere are 3% & 2% Then error in measurement of moment of inertia about its diameter will be:

a) 5%

b) 7%

c) 4%

d) 8%

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3. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is √3/2 times its initial speed. If the range of the projectile is ‘P’ times the maximum height attained by it, P is:

None

4. A homemade rocket is ejecting 0.05 Kg of gases per second at a velocity of 300 m/s. The thrust force on the rocket is:

a) 20 N

b) 15 N

c) 30 N

d) none

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5. A crane lifts 300 kg weight from earth’s surface up to height of 4 m in 1/12^th The average power generated by it will be: (g = 9.8 m/s)

a) 1965 W
b) 2300 W
c) 4520 W
d) 2352 W

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6. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 3 kg are moving along the same straight line with speeds 4 m/s and 5 m/s respectively. The speed of COM of system when particles are moving in opposite directions is V₁ and when particles are moving in same direction is V₂. The ratio V₂ /V₁ is:

a) 1:7
b) 7:1
c) 2:5
d) 5:2

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7. In given diagram find out maximum energy stored in spring. Extension in spring is zero initially.

a) 400 J
b) 500 J
c) 300 J
d) 100 J

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9. The ratio of the radius of a planet ‘A’ to that of planet ‘B’ is ‘r’. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the planets taken in the same order is ‘x’. The ratio of the escape velocities of planet B to that of planet A is:

a) x/r
b) r/x
c) (xr)^1/2d) (xr)^-1/2

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10. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. the space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force between bodies will now be:

a) F/2
b) 3F
c) F/3
d) F

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11. By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to orbit of radius 5/3 r ? (Mass of earth is M)

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12.

a) k/4
b) -k/4
c) k/9
d) -k/9

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13. A ball is thrown on a horizontal surface in such a way that it initially slides with a speed v₀ without rolling. It gradually picks up rotation motion. Find the speed of the ball at which there will be rolling without slipping–

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14. A circular disc has a mass of 1 kg and radius 40 cm. It is rotating about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane with a speed of 10 rev/s. The work done in joules in stopping it would be approximately:

a) 56 J

b) 147 J

c) 180 J

d) 158 J

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15. The time period of an earth satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is 2 days and its orbital velocity is v₁. If time period of another satellite in a circular orbit is 16 days, then

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16. If α, β and γ are coefficient of linear, area and volume expansion respectively, then

a) γ = 3α
b) α = 3γ
c) β = 3α
d) γ = 3β

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17. If two rods and of equal length , and different areas of cross-section A₁ and A₂ have one end each at temperature T₁ and T₂, have equal rates of flow of heat, then

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18. Heat is associated with

a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules
b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules
c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules
d) kinetic energy of random motion in some cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion in other

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19. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is (1 cal = 4.2 J)

a) 2 kJ

b) 8 kJ

c) 3.5 kJ

d) 5.5 kJ

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20. If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and the amount of work done on the system is 15 J, then the change in internal energy of the system is

a) –50 J
b) 20 J
c) 30 J
d) 50 J

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21. At a given temperature which of the following gases possesses maximum r.m.s. velocity?

a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

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22. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are

a) circular anticlockwise
b) circular clockwise
c) radial, inwards
d) radial, outwards

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23. The electric potential inside a conducting sphere

a) increases from centre to surface
b) decreases from centre to surface
c) remains constant from centre to surface
d) is zero at every point inside

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24. A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, is

a) 3Ω
b) 6πΩ
c) 6Ω
d) 0. 6πΩ

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25. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, its radius is

a) four times, it ground state radius
b) twice times, it ground state radius
c) same times, it ground state radius
d) half times, it ground state radius.

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26. Taking the Bohr radius as a₀ = 53 pm, the radius of Li⁺⁺ ion in its ground state, on the basis of Bohr’s model, will be about

a) 53 pm
b) 27 pm
c) 18 pm
d) pm

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27. Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.

a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

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28. The current through an ideal PN-junction shown in the following circuit diagram will be

a) zero
b) 1 mA
c) 10 mA
d) 30 mA

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29. In a p-type semiconductor the acceptor level is situated 60 meV above the valence band. The maximum wavelength of light required to produce a hole will be

a) 0.207 × 10^-5 m
b) 2.07 × 10^-5 m
c) 20.7 × 10^-5 m
d) 2075 × 10^-5 m

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30. Which logic gate with inputs and performs the same operation as that performed by the following circuit?

a) NAND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate
d) AND gate

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31. A body is executing S.H.M. when its displacement from the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the corresponding velocity of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the time period of the body is

a) π sec
b) 2π sec
c) 3π sec
d) 4π sec

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32. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V4. The threshold wavelength surface is:

a) 5λ
b) 2λ
c) 3λ
d) 4λ

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33. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

a) 12
b) 16
c) 8
d) 10

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34. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁=12000Å and λ₂=10000Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

a) 8mm

b) 6mm
c) 4mm
d) 3mm

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35. An inductor 20mH, a capacitor 50μF and a resistor 40Ω are connected in series across of emf V=10sin340t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is

a) 0.67 W
b) 0.76 W
c) 0.89 W
d) 0.51 W

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36. The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4μH carrying a current of 2 A is:

a) 4mJ
b) 8mJ
c) 8μJ
d) 4μJ

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37. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

a) 1.389 H
b) 138.88 H
c) 0.138 H
d) 13.89 H

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38. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is E_rms=6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is

a) 2.83×10⁻⁸T
b) 0.70×10⁻⁸T
c) 4.23×10⁻⁸T
d) 1.41×10⁻⁸T

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39. Which of the following magnetic material is temperature dependent?

a) Diamagnetism
b) Ferromagnetism
c) Paramagnetism
d) None of these

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40. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by Δx on applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?

a) 4F
b) 6F
c) 9F
d) F

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41. A galvanometer has a resistance 100Ω and gives a full-scale deflection for a current of 0.1 A. It is to be converted into a voltmeter of range of 50 V. The resistance of voltmeter so formed is

a) 400Ω
b) 500Ω
c) 200Ω
d) 80Ω

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42. In an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus of the material of a wire, the length of the wire and the suspended mass are doubled. Then the Young’s modulus of the wire

a) becomes double’s
b) becomes four time
c) remains unchanged
d) becomes half

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43. The refracting angle of the prismis60°.What is the angle of incidence for minimum deviation? The refractive index of material of prism is√2.

a) 45
b) 30
c) 60
d) 50

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44. Three sound sources A, B and C have frequencies 400, 401 and 402HZ, respectively. Calculate the number of beats noted per second.

a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0

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45. If the kinetic energy of a particle is doubled, by what factor the de Broglie wavelength of the particle increase or decrease?

a) increase by factor 2
b) decrease by factor 2
c) increase by factor 4
d) decrease by factor 4

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CHEMISTRY

46. The conductivity of 0.001028 mol L⁻¹acetic acid is 4.95×10−5 S cm⁻¹. Find out its dissociation constant if Λ⁰_m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm⁻² mol⁻¹.

a) 2.18×10⁻⁵mol⁻¹L⁻¹b) 1.78×10⁻⁵mol⁻¹L⁻¹c) 3.72×10⁻⁴mol⁻¹L⁻¹
d) 2.37×10⁻⁴mol⁻¹L⁻¹

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47. An unknown chlorohydrocarbon has 3.55% of chlorine. If each molecule of the hydrocarbon has one chlorine atom only, then chlorine atoms present in 1 g of chlorohydrocarbon are:
[Atomic wt. of Cl = 35.5 u; Avogadro constant =6.023×10²³mol⁻¹]

a) 6.023×10⁹b) 6.023×10²³c) 6.023×10²¹d) 6.023×10²⁰

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48. The rate constant of a reaction at 227⁰C and 427⁰C are 0.02 s⁻¹and 0.2 s⁻¹. Calculate the activation energy of reaction.

a) 100 J
b) 300 J
c) 500 J
d) 700 J

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49. The solubilities of AgCl in H₂O, 0.01M CaCl₂, 0.01 M NaCl and 0.05 M AgNO₃are denoted by S₁, S₂, S₃and S₄ Which of the following relationships is correct?

a) S₁> S₂> S₃> S₄b) S₁ > S₃ > S₂ > S₄c) S₁ > S₂= S₃ > S₄
d) S₁ > S₃> S₄> S₂

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50. 6 grams of magnesite mineral on heating liberated carbon dioxide which measures 1.12 L at STP. What is the percentage purity of mineral?

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%

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51. The diagram given below is a vapour pressure-composition diagram for a binary solution of A and B

In the solution, A—B interactions are

a) similar to A—A and B—B interactions
b) greater than A—A and B— B interactions
c) smaller than A—A and B— B interactions
d) unpredictable

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52. The solubility (S) of solute in water varies with temperature as given by S=Ae^−ΔH/RT, ΔH being the enthalpy of solution. For a given solute, variation of ln S with temperature is as shown in figure. The solute is expected to be

a) CaO
b) MgSO₄
c) CuSO₄
d) CuSO₄.5H₂O

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53. 1g H₂gas STP is expanded so that the volume is doubled. Hence, work done is

a) 22.4 L -atm
b) 5.6 L -atm
c) 11.2 L -atm
d) 44.8 L -atm

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54. Benzene burns according to the following equation at 300K (R=8.314 Jmol⁻¹K⁻¹)
2C₆H₆(l) + 15O₂(g) →12CO₂(g) + 6H₂O (l); ΔH⁰ = − 6542kJ/mol
What is the ΔU for the combustion of benzene at 25⁰C

a) – 6534 kJ
b) – 9813 kJ
c) – 4906.5 kJ
d) – 3271 Kj

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55. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg (s) + 2Ag⁺(0.0001 M) → Mg²⁺ (0.130M) +2Ag(s)
Calculate its E_(cell) if E⁰_(cell) = 3.17 V

a) 2.959 V
b) 4.26 V
c) 12.2 V
d) 16.4 V

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56. Which of the following statement is false?

a) Raoult’s law is obeyed only when solution is very dilute
b) Both Raoult’s law and Henry’s law law says that P α X
c) Increase in temperature decreases solubility of solid in liquid for endorthermic reaction
d) Increase in temperature inecreases solubility of solid in liquid for endorthermic reaction

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57. The time needed for the completion of 2/3^rd of a 1^st order reaction, when rate constant is 771×10⁻² min⁻¹is

a) 23.03 min
b) 2.303 min
c) 6.93 min
d) 69.3 min

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58. The equilibrium constant for the reversible reaction, N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) is K and for reaction 1/2 N₂ (g) + 3/2 H₂ (g) ⇌ NH₃(g), the equilibrium constant is K’, where K and K’ are related as:

a) K x K’ = 1
b) K = K’
c) K’ = √K
d) K = √K’

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59. For a zero order reaction 2A ⇢ P, t_1/2= 120 s and its initial concentration is 2 M. Calculate its rate constant

a) 1/240 mol^-1s^-1
b) 1/170 mol^-1s
c) 1/120 mol^-1s^-1d) 1/80 mol^-1s^-1

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60. In a solvent 50% of benzoic acid dimerises while rest ionises, determine molar mass of acid which is observed and also its van’t Hoff factor.

a) (Molar mass of acid)_cal> (Molar mass of acid)_obs, i = 4.21
b) (Molar mass of acid)_cal> (Molar mass of acid)_obs, i = 1.25
c) (Molar mass of acid)_obs> (Molar mass of acid)_cal, i = 4.21
d) (Molar mass of acid)_obs> (Molar mass of acid)_cal, i = 1.25

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61. Which one of the following processes proceeds with the absorption of energy ?

a) Cl + e^– → Cl-
b) F + e^– → F-
c) O^– + e^– → O^2-
d) O + e^– → O-

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62. Which of the following statements are not correct ?

a) Gallium wes earlier called eka –aluminium
b) 4^th period begins with Rubidium
c) 14 elements of 6^th period are called Lanthanoids
d) Henry Moseley discovered the relationship between X-ray spectra and atomic number of the elements.

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63. Which of the following molecules have the highest Dipole moment ?

a) HCl
b) HF
c) H₂O
d) H₂

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64. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Hybridisation ?

a) The type of Hybridisation indicates the geometry of the molecule.
b) The hybridized orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape.
c) Promotion of electrons is not essential condition prior to hybridization.
d) In dsp³ hybridization the orbital uses in d is d_z²

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65. Bond order of CO⁺ is

a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 3
d) 3.5

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66. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4p orbital are

a) 2, 0
b) 2, 1
c) 2, 2
d) 3, 1

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67. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where the Balmer series lines appear is

a) Infrared
b) Visible
c) Microwaves
d) Ultra Violet

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68. Match column I and II

I II

a) N₂O 1. Acidic oxide
b) Mn₂O₇ 2. Mixed oxide
c) Bi₂O₃ 3. Neutral oxide
d) Pb₃O₄ 4. Basic oxide

a) A- 1, B-3, C-2, D- 4
b) A-4, B-3, C-1,D-2
c) A-3, B-1,C-4, D-2
d) A-2, B- 1, C- 4, D-3

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69. Nitrogen Oxides that contain N-N bonds is

a) NO
b) N₂O
c) NH₃
d) N₂O₅

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70. Among the following which is the strongest Oxidising agent ?

a) Cl₂b) F₂
c) Br₂d) I₂

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71. Which of the following ions show highest spin only magnetic moment value ?

a) V²⁺b) Mn²⁺
c) Fe²⁺d) Zn²⁺

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72. Choose the most basic pair among the following oxides.

a) Mn₂O₇, CrO
b) CrO, V₂O₃
c) V₂O₃, V₂O₅d) V₂O₅, Mn₂O₇

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73. +4 Oxidation state is shown by

a) La, Lu
b) Ce, Tb
c) Eu, Yb
d) Gd, Tm

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74. How many chiral carbon are present in α-D- Glucose

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

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75. The correct order of ionic character is

a) BeH₂< CaH₂< BaH₂
b) BeH₂> CaH₂> BaH₂
c) CaH₂< BeH₂< BaH₂
d) BaH₂> BeH₂< BaH₂

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76. Which of the following statement is not correct?

a) Ethylamine is more basic than aniline
b) o-methylaniline has lower pKb value than aniline
c) p-methylaniline is less basic than m-methylaniline
d) Aniline has lower pKb value than o-nitroaniline

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77. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B is soluble in dil, NaOH solution. Compound A is:

a) C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂
b) C₆H₅-NHCH₂CH₃
c) C₆H₅ – CH₂NHCH₃
d) C₆H₅CH(CH₃)NH₂

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78.

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79. Major products of the following reaction are:

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80. Find the product C

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81. Ethanol on warming with conc. H₂SO₄ at 413 K gives

a) ethene
b) diethyl ether
c) dimethyl ether
d) ethylhydrogen sulphate

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82. Identify A in the given reaction

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83. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting point due to hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
b) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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84. Which of the following will NOT undergo SN1 reaction with OH?

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85. The reagents for the following conversions is/are

a) alcoholic KOH
b) Zn| CH₃OH
c) KOH followed by NaNH₂
d) alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH₂.

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86.

a) CH₃C
b) CH₃CH₂CH=CH₂
c) CH₃COCH₃
d) CH₃CH₂CHO

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87. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used to estimate nitrogen for which of the following compounds?

a) C₆H₅NO₂b) C₆H₅NH₂
c) CH₃CH₂CN
d) NH₂-CO-NH₂

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88. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by

a) steam distillation
b) vacuum distillation
c) fractional distillation
d) sublimation

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89. The hybridisation state of carbon in the carbocation C₆H₅CH₂⁺ is

a) sp
b) sp₂
c) sp₃ d) sp or sp₂

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90. Which of the following does not obey Huckel rule ?

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BOTANY

91. Which of the following is a reducing sugar

a) Sucrose
b) Glucose
c) Starch
d) Glycogen

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92. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

a) The three dimensional folding stabilized by hydrogen bonds
b) The sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bonds
c) The interaction between multiple polypeptide chains
d) The alpha-helix configuration or beta-sheet

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93. Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in living organisms?

a) Energy storage
b) Structural component of cell membranes
c) Catalyzing biochemical reactions
d) Insulation and protection of organs

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94. In DNA, the base pairing between adenine and thymine is stabilized by:

a) Three hydrogen bonds
b) Two hydrogen bonds
c) Ionic bonds
d) Covalent bonds

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95. Which of the following statements about enzymes is INCORRECT?

a) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction
b) Enzymes are highly specific to their substrates
c) Enzymes are consumed during the reaction they catalyze
d) Enzymes can function outside a narrow pH and temperature range

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96. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of phospholipids?

a) They are completely hydrophobic
b) They have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
c) They are primarily used for energy storage
d) They form micelles in non-polar solvents

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97. DNA fingerprinting involves the use of:

a) mRNA sequences
b) Restriction enzymes and VNTRs
c) tRNA molecules
d) rRNA sequences

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98. Which of the following is an example of a frameshift mutation?

a) Substitution of one nucleotide
b) Insertion of three nucleotides
c) Deletion of one nucleotide
d) Inversion of a chromosome segment

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99. A point mutation involves:

a) Insertion of a nucleotide
b) Deletion of a nucleotide
c) Change in a single nucleotide
d) Inversion of a chromosome segment

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100. Which of the following is a feature of the lac operon in E. coli?

a) It is an example of positive gene regulation.
b) It is always turned on.
c) It is regulated by lactose and glucose levels.
d) It codes for proteins involved in glycolysis.

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101. What is the function of single-strand binding proteins (SSBs) in DNA replication?

a) Synthesize new DNA strands
b) Prevent reannealing of separated DNA strands
c) Remove RNA primers
d) Relieve torsional strain

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102. During translation in eukaryotes, what is the role of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

a) It signals the termination of translation.
b) It facilitates the binding of the small ribosomal subunit to mRNA.
c) It is absent, and the 5′ cap serves a similar purpose.
d) It recruits tRNA to the P site of the ribosome.

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103. In the lac operon of E. coli, under which condition will transcription occur at the maximum rate?

a) High glucose and high lactose
b) Low glucose and low lactose
c) Low glucose and high lactose
d) High glucose and low lactose

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104. Which of the following modifications occurs to eukaryotic mRNA Post transcriptionally to ensure stability and translation efficiency?

a) Addition of a 5′ cap and a poly-A tail
b) Removal of exons by splicing
c) Methylation of the promoter region
d) Addition of a 5′ poly-A tail

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105. In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, after two rounds of replication in a 14N medium starting with fully 15N-labeled DNA, what is the expected composition of DNA molecules?

a) All DNA molecules will have both strands labelled with 14N.
b) Half will have both strands 15N, and half will have both strands 14N.
c) All DNA molecules will have one 15N strand and one 14N strand.
d) Half will have one 15N and one 14N strand, and half will have both 14N strands.

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106. The DNA strand which is oriented in 5′ → 3′ direction and is not involved in RNA synthesis is called

a) terminator strand
b) sense strand
c) antisense strand
d) template strand.

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107. RNA expresses itself through

a) peptidyl transferase
b) amino acids
c) proteins
d) carbohydrates.

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108. Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all and ensure self-pollination.

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

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109. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of the pollen tube?

a) Generative cell
b) Vegetative cell
c) Synergid
d) Egg cell

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110. The phenomenon of pollen grains germinating on the stigma of the same flower is called:

a) Autogamy
b) Geitonogamy
c) Xenogamy
d) Cleistogamy

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111. In a typical embryo sac, the number of nuclei and cells are:

a) 8 nuclei and 7 cells
b) 8 nuclei and 8 cells
c) 7 nuclei and 7 cells
d) 6 nuclei and 6 cells

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112. In a typical embryo sac, the antipodal cells are:

a) Haploid and located at the chalazal end
b) Diploid and located at the micropylar end
c) Triploid and located at the chalazal end
d) Haploid and located at the micropylar end

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113. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is formed by the fusion of:

a) One male gamete and two polar nuclei
b) One male gamete and one egg cell
c) Two male gametes and one polar nucleus
d) One male gamete and one synergid

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114.In angiosperms, various stages of reductional division can best be studied in

a) young anthers
b) young ovules
c) mature anthers
d) endosperm cells.

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115. Pick out the wrong statement

a) Histones are rich in Lysine and Arginine
b) Histones contain 8 molecules
c) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
d) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.

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116. A plant exhibits simple leaves arranged in a whorled pattern with a characteristic reticulate venation. Which of the following plants possesses this leaf morphology?”

a) Calotropis

b) Neem

c) China rose

d) Alstonia

None

117. Which of the following plants exhibits axile placentation?

a) pea
b) Argemone
c) Dianthus
d) lemon.

None

118. In plant growth, cells originating from the root apical meristem, shoot apical meristem, and cambium undergo a process where they acquire specific structures and functions. This process, leading to the specialization of these cells, is known as?”

a) Differentiation
b) Dedifferentiation
c) Redifferentiation
d) Heterophylly

None

119. Study the given flow chart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z?

None

120. Which of the following correctly differentiates the reproductive strategies of Fucus and Volvox?

a) Volvox exhibits oogamy, whereas Fucus follows isogamy.
b) Both Fucus and Volvox produce motile gametes of equal size.
c) Fucus exhibits oogamy with distinct male and female gametes, while Volvox may show isogamy or anisogamy.
d) Both Fucus and Volvox undergo anisogamy, producing gametes.

None

121. In which of the following plants does the gametophyte remain nutritionally dependent on the sporophyte throughout its life cycle?

a) Polytrichum and Funaria
b) Cedrus and Pteris
c) Cedrus only
d) Pteris and Funaria

None

122. Assertion: Porphyra is an edible marine brown alga.
Reason: It is popularly known as kelp.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true

None

123. Select the incorrect statement with respect to given type of life cycle.

a) A Meiosis occurs at the time of spore formation in sporophytic plant.
b) Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
c) This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed bearing plants.
d) This life cycle is exhibited by many bryophytes and pteridophytes.

None

124. How much time will it take to fill half of the cup if a bacterial cell divides mitotically once in a minute and it takes one hour to fill the cup?

a) 30 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 59 minutes

None

125. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

a) leptotene
b) zygotene
c) pachytene
d) diakinesis

None

126. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the G2/M checkpoint in the cell cycle?

a) A Ensures proper attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers
b) Checks for DNA replication errors before mitosis
c) Determines if the cell should enter G0 phase
d) Monitors external growth signals before DNA replication

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127. Refer to the given stages A, B, C and D of meiosis I and select the incorrect statement regarding them.

a) The last stage of A is diakinesis which is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
b) In stage B, microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.
c) In stage C, homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
d) In stage D, separation of chromosomes takes place, cytokinesis follows this stage and this is called as dyad of cells.

None

128. A defect in the Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) of a human cell leads to the failure of securin degradation. Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of this defect during mitosis?

a) The metaphase plate will fail to form.
b) Chromatids will not separate during anaphase.
c) The spindle fibers will not attach to kinetochores.
d) Sister chromatids will undergo recombination.

None

129. Which of the following best describes the role of ethylene in fruit ripening?

a) Ethylene is a growth promoter that inhibits the breakdown of starch into sugars.
b) Ethylene accelerates the breakdown of starch into sugars and initiates fruit ripening.
c) Ethylene prevents fruit ripening by inhibiting the activity of amylase.
d) Ethylene has no significant role in fruit ripening.

None

130. In the context of apical dominance, what role does cytokinin play when applied to a plant?

a) A It enhances the growth of the apical bud.
b) It inhibits lateral bud growth.
c) It promotes the growth of lateral buds.
d) It prevents the formation of the apical bud.

None

131. The term ‘precursor of auxin’ refers to

a) A a compound that activates auxin’s biological function
b) a raw material converted into auxin through biochemical processes
c) a chemical that inhibits auxin’s action in plants
d) the final active molecule produced after auxin synthesis

None

132. Given below are a few floral diagrams of some well known plants. Choose floral formula from these diagrams.

None

133. Assertion: Trachea is the common passage for food and air.
Reason: Cartilaginous ring of trachea prevents its collapse during breathing.

None

134. The alveolar epithelium in the lung is

a) Non-ciliated columnar
b) Non- ciliated squamous
c) Ciliated columnar
d) Ciliated squamous

None

135. Reduction in pH of blood will

a) Decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
b) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
c) reduce the rate of heartbeat
d) reduce the blood supply to the brain

None

ZOOLOGY

136. Assertion (A): In barrier method, ovum and sperms are prevented from physical meetings
Reason (R): Barrier methods are used during coitus, to prevent the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

None

137. The following figure shows the stage of an embryo formed from IVF. Identify the stage and the procedure which is used to transfer this stage to carry out the further process of in vitro fertilization.

a) Stage: Morula; Procedure: IUI
b) Stage: Gastrula; Procedure: ZIFT
c) Stage: Blastocyst; Procedure: IUT
d) Stage: Secondary oocyte; Procedure: ICSI

None

138. The maximum number of species among vertebrates are

a) Amphibians
b) Fishes
c) Reptiles
d) Mammals

None

139. Respiratory track is an example of

a) Cellular barrier
b) Cytokine barrier
c) Physical barrier
d) Physiological barrier

None

140. A patient suffers rejection after receiving donor’s kidney. Which of the following is responsible for this

a) T_H cells
b) Memory cells
c) Plasma cells
d) T_K cells

None

141. Identify the given diagram and its effect

a) Cannabinoid – Hallucination
b) Morphine – Painkiller
c) Cocaine – Analgesic
d) Smack – CNS depressant

None

142. Drugs like griseofulvin and miconazole are used in the treatment of

a) Ascariasis
b) Hansen’s disease
c) Ringworm
d) Poliomyelitis

None

143. Coenocytic mycelium is seen in

a) Deuteromycetes
b) Phycomycetes
c) Ascomycetes
d) Basidiomycetes

None

144. Study the given pedigree chart and select the mode of inheritance

a) Autosomal recessive
b) Autosomal dominant
c) Y-link recessive
d) X-link dominant

None

145. Male is haploid in

a) Honeybee
b) Cockroach
c) Drosophila
d) Grasshopper

None

146. Select the homologous pair from the following

a) Scrotum and labia majora
b) Glans penis and labia minora
c) Penis shaft and mons pubis
d) Testis and clitoris

None

147. The characteristic feature of luteal phase of menstrual cycle is

a) Endometrium breaks down
b) FSH and estrogen secretion increases
c) Both LH and FSH attain peak level
d) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone

None

148. Solid ball of 8-16 cells formed by cleavage

a) Blastula
b) Morula
c) Gastrula
d) Blastomere

None

149. Assertion (A): Myometrium is important component of uterus
Reason (R): Myometrium produces strong contractions during parturition

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

None

150. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one

a) Both fat and fascia help to protect the kidney
b) A kidney has about 10 lakh nephrons
c) The concave side of each kidney faces outwards and convex side inwards
d) Male urethra opens out at the tip of the penis by urinogenital aperture

None

151. Which part of the kidney is impermeable to electrolytes?

a) Proximal convoluted tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule
c) Ascending loop of Henle
d) Descending loop of Henle

None

152. Ilium is a part of

a) Pelvic girdle
b) Pectoral girdle
c) Skull
d) Sternum

None

153. Acidic pH of muscles is due to

a) Lactic acid
b) Ketone
c) O₂
d) Argine

None

154. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sponges?

a) Diploblastic
b) Aquatic
c) Connecting link between living and non-living
d) Body has pores

None

155. Which of the following helps Taenia solium in osmoregulation?

a) Comb plates
b) Parapodia
c) Flame cells
d) Nephridia

None

156. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a) Cnidoblasts – Coelenterates
b) Gastro vascular cavity – Echinoderms
c) Parapodia – Annelids
d) Metameric segmentation – Arthropods

None

157. Omnis cellula-e cellula was given by

a) Lamarck
b) Dutrochet
c) Leeuwenhoek
d) Virchow

None

158. In which type of culture, the nutrients and microbes are added in closed chamber and not replaced continuously?

a) Batch culture
b) Continuous culture
c) Full culture
d) Period culture

None

159. Match the following:
1. Extension – i) 95⁰C
2. Denaturation – ii) 50⁰C
3. Annealing – iii) 72⁰C

Options:
a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-I
b) 1-iii, 2- i, 3-ii
c) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-I
d) 1-ii, 2-i, 3- iii

None

160. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is able to deliver a piece of DNA to transform normal plant cell. Here, a piece of DNA is

a) R-DNA
b) Z-DNA
c) T-DNA
d) Ti-DNA

None

161. If a plasmid vector is digested with EcoR1 at a single site, then

a) Four sticky ends will be produced
b) One sticky ends will be produced
c) Two sticky ends will be produced
d) One blunt end will be produced

None

162. Bt corn has been made resistant from corn borer disease by introduction of the gene

a) cryIIA
b) cryIAc
c) cryIIAc
d) cryIAb

None

163. RNA interference involves

a) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
b) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
c) Silencing of tRNA due to complementary RNA
d) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

None

164. Which of the following are GMO?
I. Golden rice II. Flavr savr
III. Bell peppers IV. Poplar trees

Options:
a) I, II , III
b) IV only
c) I, II, IV
d) II, III, IV

None

165. Select the correct option for the production of Humulin.
i. Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli
ii. Artificial synthesis of human insulin gene
iii. Purification of Humulin
iv. Culturing recombinant E.coli
v. Extraction of recombinant gene product from E.coli
vi. Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid

Options:
a) II, VI, I, IV, V, III
b) I, IV, V, III, II, VI
c) II, IV, VI, I, III, V
d) I, V, VI, III, II, IV

None

166. Which of the following is used as bioweapon?

a) Escherichia coli
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d) Bacillus thuringiensis

None

167. Which is not chief objectives of transgenic cattle production?

a) Increased meat or milk production
b) Molecular farming
c) Improved coat quality
d) Regulate milk content

None

168. Select the correct match.

a) Primata- Order
b) musca- species
c) Tigris- Genus
d) Arthropoda- Class

None

169. The exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid is by

a) NArterioles
b) Capillaries
c) Veins
d) Arteries

None

170. Pulmonary artery is different from pulmonary vein in

a) Presence of valves
b) Absence of endothelium
c) Its broad lumen
d) Its thick wall

None

171. Pacemaker is placed on/in

a) Interauricular septum
b) Interventricular septum
c) Wall of left atrium
d) Wall of right atrium

None

172. Which of the following decreases in size with increasing age?

a) Pituitary
b) Thymus
c) Adrenal
d) Thyroid

None

173. Thyroid is derived from which of the following?

a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) All of these

None

174. Intake of ORS causes secretion of

a) Oxytocin
b) Melatonin
c) Epinephrine
d) Vasopressin

None

175. Match the following:
1. Testis – i) Two pairs
2. Thymus – ii) one pair
3. Adrenal – iii) unpaired
4. Parathyroid
5. Thyroid

Options:
a) i – 4, ii- 3, ii- 2, iii- 1, iii- 5
b) i – 5, i- 1, ii- 4, iii- 2, iii- 3
c) i – 4, ii – 1, ii- 3, iii- 2, iii-5
d) i – 4, i – 1, ii- 5, iii- 2, iii-3

None

176. Assertion(A): Hormones are similar to enzymes in their action and chemical nature.
Reason ( R): Hormones and enzymes cannot speed accelerate a specific reactions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) Both A and R are false
d) A is true but R is false

None

177. In frog, columnae carneae is present on

a) Inner surface of ventricle
b) Outer surface of ventricle
c) Inner surface of auricle
d) Outer surface of auricle

None

178. Select the incorrect pair

a) Lymph vessel – simple squamous epithelium
b) Choroid and iris of eye – simple columnar epithelium
c) Salivary and pancreatic ducts – simple cuboidal epithelium
d) Ventricles of brain – simple ciliated epithelium

None

179. In a food chain, maximum energy is stored in

a) Primary consumer
b) Secondary consumer
c) Producer
d) Decomposer

None

180. Movement of individuals from one place to another, which add new alleles to local gene pool

a) Gene recombination
b) Hybridisation
c) Gene flow
d) Genetic drift

None

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