Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

REASONING SECTION

1 If in the number ‘73548961’ all the digits are arranged in descending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(a) None          (b) One               (c)Two
(d) Three         (e) More than three 

2. If in the number ‘68715492’ all the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(a) None           (b) One        (c)Two
(d) Three          (e) More than three 

3. How many such digits are there in the number ‘56298732’ each of which as far away from the beginning of the numbers as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order?

(a) None            (b) One         (c)Three
(d) Four             (e) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GOLDEN’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) Two              (b) None            (c) One
(d) Three           (e) None of these

5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERFECTION’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(a) Two                (b) None             (c) One
(d) Three             (e) None of these

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MISUNDERSTANDING’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabet?

(a) One               (b) Two           (c) Three
(d) Four              (e) More than Four

7. If the letters at odd positions in the word “PARAMETER” starting from ​left are changed to their next letter according to the English alphabet, ​then how many vowels are there after rearrangement?

(a) One              (b) Two          (c) Three
(d) Four             (e) Five​

8. If it is possible to make only one 7-letter meaningful English word from the 2nd, the 3rd, the 4th, 6th, 8th, 9th and the 11th letters of the word TRANSPARENT, using each letter only once, the last letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made mark ‘X’ as your answer, and if more than one such word can be formed mark ‘Y’ as your answer.

(a) X                (b) Y              (c) T
(d) R                (e) E

9. If a five-letter meaningful word can be formed by using the first, third, fifth, sixth and eighth letters from the word “HALLOWEEN”, then ​what is the last letter of the newly formed word?​ Mark X as your answer if more than one word is formed. Mark Z if no ​meaningful word can be formed.

(a) Z                  (b) L            (c) W
(d) E                  (e) X

10. If the positions of the 1st and 2nd letters of the word “DESPERATELY” are interchanged; similarly the positions of the 3rd and 4th letters are interchanged and so on, then which of the following letters will be 8th from the left end after arrangement?

(a) R             (b) S           (c) E
(d) T             (e) A​

11. In a code language if a ‘rat’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is ‘mongoose’, ‘mongoose’ is​ ‘lion’, ‘lion’ is ‘snake’ and ‘snake’ is ‘elephant’, then, which will be a domestic​ animal?​

(a) Mongoose                  (b) Lion                 (c) Rat
(d) Dog                            (e) None of these

12. If ‘cat’ is called ‘horse’, ‘horse’ is called ‘mouse’, ‘mouse’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘lion’ and ‘lion’ is called ‘ant’, then which animal barks?​

(a) Horse              (b) Ant              (c) Dog
(d) Lion                (e) Mouse

13. If ‘bear’ is called ‘fish’, ‘fish’ is called ‘crow’, ‘crow’ is called ‘dog’, ‘dog’ is called ‘elephant’ and ‘elephant’ is called ‘ass’, then who cannot remain alive in other place than water?​

(a) Fish                 (b) Crow             (c) Ass
(d) Elephant         (e) None of these

15. If in a certain code, ‘RESPONSES’ is written as ‘ESRONPESS’, then how can ‘SIGNATURE’ be written in that​ code?​

(a) ISNGTARUE                    (b) ERUTANGIS            (c) GISTANERU
(d) IGSATNREU                    (e) None of these

16. In a certain language, ‘CHAMPION’ is coded as ‘HCMAIPNO’, how is ‘NEGATIVE’ coded in that code?​

(a) ENAGITEV                (b) NEAGVEIT               (c) MGAETVIE
(d) EGAITEVN                (e) None of these

18. If ‘JDINHPE’ codes for ‘MINIMAL’, what is the possible code for ‘PATTERN’?

(a) LUAYNGH                (b) LAUYNGH            (c) LUAYNHH
(d) LUAYNGG                (e) None of these

19. If ‘ENTRY’ is coded as ‘12345’ and ‘STEADY’ is coded as​ ‘931785’, then what is the correct code for ‘NEATNESS’?

(a) 21733199                      (b) 21712299                (c) 21732199  ​
(d) 21713399                      (e) None of these

20. If CAT=12 and GIRL=23, then RABBIT=?

(a) 24               (b) 28            (c) 25 
(d) 27               (e) 26

 

1. In an election only two candidates participate and candidate ‘P’ got 50% less votes than ‘Q’. If Q got 200 votes less, then there would have been a tie. Find the total number of total votes polled?

(a) 800                   (b) 2000             (c) 1600
(d) 1200                 (e) 1400

2. A annually saves 15% and 20% of his income in 2017 and 2018 respectively. If A annually saves Rs. 45000 in 2017, then find the amount saved by A in 2018.

(a) 40000 Rs.                  (b) 36000 Rs.           (c) 60000 Rs.

(d) Can’t determine       (e) 48000 Rs

3. A spend 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the remaining on food and 50% of the remaining on travelling. If the difference between the amount he spends on travelling and that on rent is Rs.13000, then find the monthly income (in Rs.) of A?

(a) Rs.40000                (b) Rs.50000          (c) Rs.30000
(d) Rs.20000                (e) Rs.55000

4. P scored 20% more marks than Q in an exam. If both scored four marks more, then the sum of marks scored by P and Q together would have been 20% more than the passing marks of the exam. If passing marks of the exam is 80, then find the marks scored by P?

(a) 52                (b) 48            (c) 46

(d) 54                (e) 50

5. Out of the total population in a city, 25% casted invalid votes and the winning candidate received 14  2/7% more than votes received by the loosing candidate. Find the percentage of votes received by winning candidate with respect to the total votes in the city (only two candidates participated in the elections).

(a) 40%               (b) 25%            (c) 50%

(d) 75%               (e) 60%

6. The ratio of income of P to that of Q is 2:3 and the ratio of expenditure of P to that Q is 5:6. If the income of Q is increased by 50% and expenditure is same, then the saving of Q becomes Rs.12000. If saving of P is Rs.3000, then find the income of P.

(a) Rs.10500              (b) Rs.9500          (c) Rs.7000
(d) Rs.5000               (e) Rs.8000

7. If 25% & 50% of total residents of wings A and B respectively do not watch a newly arrived web shows ‘M’. Total number of residents do not watch web show ‘M’ from wing C are equal to the average number of residents watch the web show ‘M’ in wings A & B. Find the percentage of total number of residents watch web show ‘M’ from wing C with respect of total number of people in the society

(a) 12.5%             (b) 14.5%            (c) 15.5%

(d) 20.5%            (e) 30%

8. A spend 25 % of her monthly salary on house rent. From the remaining, he spends 30% on food, 10% on grocery, 40% on miscellaneous. If the amount he saves is Rs.9150, then find the monthly salary of A (in Rs.).

(a) Rs.60000            (b) Rs.61000             (c) Rs.51000

(d) Rs.40000            (e) Rs.45000

9. A spend 25% of his monthly salary on household and 20% of the remaining salary spend on rent. A spend remaining salary on travelling and food in the ratio of 2:3 respectively. Difference between amounts spend on food and household is Rs.1540, then find the monthly expenditure of A.

(a) Rs.18000            (b) Rs.15600            (c) Rs.12100

(d) Rs.14000            (e) Rs.9050

10. If 45% of X is equal to 60% of Y and the average of both the numbers is 20 less than the X, then find 60% of Y.

(a) 108            (b) 64          (c) 72

(d) 96             (e) 80

11. The ratio of income & savings of a man is in ratio of 16:3 respectively. If his savings increases by 1/3^rd and expenditure increased by 1/2 , then find the ratio of new income to earlier income of man?

(a) 39 : 32               (b) 23 : 16            (c) 47 : 32
(d) 32 : 19               (e) 47 : 36

12. In an election only two candidates participate. Candidate ‘P’ got 50% less votes than ‘Q’. Had Q got 200 votes less there would have been a tie. What is the 8 times of the number of total votes polled.

(a) 800                (b) 7200             (c) 3200

(d) 9600              (e) 3600

14. Ram spend 20% of his monthly income on rent, 10% from the remaining income he spends on food, 30% on travel and 2/5^th amount he gives to his mother. If the difference between amount he spends on travel & amount he gives to his mother is Rs. 11200, then find the monthly income of Ram.

(a) 120000 Rs.                  (b) 140000 Rs.           (c) 150000 Rs.

(d) 180000 Rs.                  (e) 130000 Rs

15. A man spent 20% of his monthly income on house rent, 20% of the remaining income on Food. If from the remaining income, ratio of amount spent on clothing to saving of a man is 7: 9 and difference between amount spent on Food and clothing is Rs.1080, then find income of man for nine months.

(a) Rs. 81000              (b) Rs.70000           (c) Rs.68000

(d) Rs.96000              (e) Rs.108000

16. The population of city P decreased by 20% every year and population of city Q decreased by 8% every year. If after two years population of city Q was 22088 more than that of city P and initially it was 20000 more than that of population of city P, then find the population of city Q initially.

(a) 30000                 (b) 45000               (c) 42000

(d) 36000                 (e) 54000

17. If we add 7 to the numerator of the fraction and increases denominator by 100% then both become equal. And when the numerator is increased by 300% and denominator is increased by 5 then it becomes twice of the original fraction. What will be the half of original fraction?

(a) 3/8              (b) 5/12             (c) 3/10

(d) 5/16            (e) 4/15

18. A man spends 25% of his monthly salary on Rent and 32% on Groceries. He invests remaining salary in the ratio of 11: 5 in Mutual Funds and Fixed Deposits. If difference between his yearly mutual funds and fixed deposit amount is Rs.77400, then find the amount he spends each month on Groceries.

(a) Rs.12800             (b) Rs.9600             (c) Rs.6400

(d) Rs.7200               (e) Rs.11200

19. Total population of town A is 25% less than that of town B. Female in town A are 40% of total population. Male of town B is 1320 more than that of town A. Female in town B are 46.01% of total population of town A. Find the total population (approx.) of both towns together

(a) 86000            (b) 96000         (c) 14400

(d) 11200             (e) 74000

20. Asha’s monthly income is 60% of Deepak’s monthly income, 120% of Maya’s monthly income. What is Maya’s monthly income, if Deepak’s monthly income is Rs. 78000?

(a) Rs. 39000                                (b) Rs. 42000            (c) Rs. 36000
(d) Cannot be determined          (e) None of these

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited

PHYSICS

1. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m². Initially, the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule, an angular acceleration of 25 rad/s² must be applied about that axis for a duration of:

(a) 4 seconds
(b) 2 seconds
(c) 8 seconds
(d) 10 seconds

2. During the production of X-rays, if voltage is increased, then the

a) minimum wavelength decreases
b) minimum wavelength increases
c) intensity decreases
d) intensity increases

3. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal:

a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
b) the antimony become an acceptor atom
c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
d) its resistance is increased

4. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the Sun at a distance r₁ and farthest away at a distance of r₂. If v₁ and v₂ are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio v₁ /v₂ is:

(a) (r₁/r₂)²
(b) r₂/r₁
(c) (r₂/r₁)²
(a) r1/r₂

5. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and the internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be:

(a) 2.0 A
(b) 1.0 A     
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.1 A

6. A gas is found to obey the law P²V = constant. The initial temperature and volume are T₀ and V₀. If the gas expands to a volume 3V₀ , its final temperature becomes:

7. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is:

(a) 5R
(b) 15R               
(c) 3R
(d) 4R

8. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a steady current I₁ at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience:

a) a net repulsive force away from the conductor.
b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
c) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
d) a net attractive force towards the conductor.

9. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0
(b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(c) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(d) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

10. Electric field strength due to a point charge of 5 μC at a distance of 80 cm from the charge is:

(a) 8 × 10⁴ N/C
(b) 7 × 10⁴ N/C
(c) 5 × 10⁴ N/C
(d) 4 × 10⁴ N/C

11. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has:

a) low retentivity and high coercive force
b) high retentivity and high coercive force
c) low retentivity and low coercive force
d) high retentivity and low coercive force

12. An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver?

(a) 350 Nm
(b) 440 Nm
(c) 531 Nm
(d) 628 Nm

13. In the given figure, equivalent resistance between A and B will be:

14. A second’s pendulum is mounted in a rocket. Its period of oscillation decreases when the rocket

a) comes down with uniform acceleration
b) moves up with a uniform velocity.
c) moves around the Earth in a geostationary orbit.
d) moves up with uniform acceleration.

15. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of He⁺ ion in the first excited state will be:

(a) –13.6 eV
(b) –27.2 e
(c) –54.4 eV
(d) –6.8 eV

16. A fly wheel rotating about a fixed axis has a kinetic energy of 360 joule when its angular speed is 30 rad/s. The moment of inertia of the wheel about the axis of rotation is:

(a) 0.6 kg/m²
(b) 0.15 kgm²
(c) 0.8 kg ms²
(a) 0.7 kg m²

17. A particle of mass moves in an XY plane with a velocity ‘v’ along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is L_A when it is at  and L_B when it is at B then:

(a) L_A = L_B
(b) The relationship between L_A and L_B  depends upon the slope of the line
(c) L_A < L_B
(d) L_A > L_B

18. Two wires are held perpendicular to the plane of paper 5 m apart. They carry currents of 2.5 A and 5 A in the same direction. Then the magnetic field strength B at a point midway between the wires will be:

19. In the given figure, a diode is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω and an e.m.f of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be:

(a) 35 mA
(b) 30 mA
(c) 40 mA
(d) 20 mA

20. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?


(b) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(c) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.
(d) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.

21. The unit of Young’s modulus of elasticity is:

(a) N/m
(b) N · m
(c) N/m²
(d) N · m²

22. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 10⁴ turns per metre. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π²Ω, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

(a) 16 μC
(b) 32 μC
(c) 16 πμC
(d) 32 πμC

23. Two closed end pipes when sounded together produce 5 beat per second. If their length are in the ratio 100 : 101, then fundamental notes produced by them are:

(a) 245, 250
(b) 250, 255
(c) 495, 500
(d) 500, 505

24. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4. The minimum distance covered before attaining a speed of 72 km/hr starting from rest is [g = 10 m/s²]

(a) 25 m
(b) 50 m        
(c) 12.5 m
(d) 100 m

25. In a cylindrical vessel containing liquid of density p, there are two holes in the side walls at heights of h₁ and h₂ respectively such that the range of efflux at the bottom of the vessel is same. The height of a hole for which the rage of efflux would be maximum, will be:

26. You measure two quantities as A = 1.0 m± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m± 0.2 m. You should report correct value for √AB as

(a) 1.4 ± 0.4 m
(b) 1.41 ± 0.15 m
(c) 1.4 ± 0.3 m
(d) 1.4 ± 0.2 m

28. Water rises to height ‘h’ in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made less than ‘h’, then:

(a) water does not rise at all.

(b) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain.

(c) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.

(d) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there.

29. A body dropped from a height H reaches the ground with a speed of 12.√gH. Calculate the work done by air-friction.

(a) 2.8 mgH
(b) –1.3 mgH
(c) 1.3 mgH
(d) –0.28 mgH

30. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral lines emitted in the resulting spectrum will be:

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 3
(d) 2

31. Choose the only false statement from the following:

a) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
c) The resistivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
d) The conductivity of semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.

32. A parachutist is in free fall before opening her parachute. The net force on her has a magnitude F and is directed downwards. This net force is somewhat less than, her weight w because of air resistance. Then, she opens her parachute. At the instant after her parachute fully inflates, the net force on her would be

(a) Greater than F and still directed downwards
(b) Less than F and still directed downwards
(c) Zero
(d) Directed upwards, but could be more or less than

33. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t is:

34. The angular velocity of a rotating body changes uniformly from 1/100 rad/s to 10 rad/s without applying any torque but only by changing its radius of gyration. The ratio of radius of gyration in two cases (initial : final) will be:

(a) 10
(b) √10
(c) 10√10
(d) 100

35. A fish in water looking up sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. Given the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 24 cm below the water surface, the radius of the circle in cm is:

(a) 27 cm
(b) 24 cm     
(c) 32 cm
(d) 16 cm

36. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressure P₁ and P₂?

(a) Cannot be predicted
(b) P₂ = P₁ 
(c) P₂ > P₁
(d) P₂ < P₁

37. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 4 MHz enters from vacuum into a medium having permittivity, ε = 9. Then its

a) Wavelength triples and the frequency remains constant
b) Wavelength triples and frequency becomes one third
c) Wavelength becomes one third and frequency remains unchanged
d) Wavelength and frequency remain unchanged

38. A simple pendulum executing small oscillations has period T. If now the length of the pendulum is made 4 times, mass of the bob doubled and amplitude made one-fourth, the new period becomes:

39. A gas is taken through the cycle A-B-C-A, as shown, what is the net work done by the gas?

(a) –2000 J
(b) 2000 J
(c) 1000 J
(d) 0 J

40. A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is:

(a) 3.6 ampere
(b) 2.8 ampere
(c) 2.5 ampere
(d) 5.0 ampere

41. The work function of a metal is 1 eV. If light of wavelength 3000 is incident on this metal surface, the velocity of emitted electrons will be:

(a) 10 m/s
(b) 10³ m/s
(c) 10⁴ m/s
(d) 10⁶ m/s

42. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I respectively are super imposed on each other. Then the resulting maximum and minimum intensities are:

(a) 5I and 3I
(b) 9I and 3I
(c) 4I and I
(d) 9I and I

43. Four plates of same area of cross section are joined as shown in the figure. The distance between each plate is d. The equivalent capacity between A and B will be:

62. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): CO and N₂ are isosteres.

Reason (R): The molecules or ions with similar shape and electronic properties are called isosteres.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.

b) A is false but R is true.

c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

63. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence:

(a) Al < Ga < In < TI
(b) TI < In < Ga < Al
(c) In < TI < Ga < AI
(d) Ga < In < AI < TI

64. Which product is not formed in the following reaction?

65. Which of the following reactions is correct?

66. Predict the major product in the following reaction:

71. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): For a spontaneous reaction, at a particular temperature ∆G 0

Reason (R): Spontaneity criteria can be predicted by Gibb’s equation, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.

b) A is false but R is true.

c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

72. Which of the following when heated with KOH and primary amine gives carbylamine test?

(a) CHCI₃
(b) CH₂ Cl₂
(c) CH₃ OH
(d) CCI₄

73. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation

a) (+)-lactose
b) (+) – maltose
c) (-)- fructose
d) (₊)- sucrose

74. Which property decreases from left to right across the periodic table and increases from top to bottom respectively?
(I) Atomic radius         (ΙΙ) Ε.Ν
(III) Ι.Ε.                      (IV) Metallic character

Options:
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (IV)

75. Which of the following statements are False?

a) Hydrolysis of sucrose gives dextrorotatory glucose and laevorotatory fructose
b) Oxidation of glucose with bromine water gives glutamic acid
c) The two six-membered cyclic hemiacetal forms of D-(+)-glucose are called anomers
d) Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolysed to give polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones

76. Which pair is Amphoteric in nature

a) N₂O and CO₂
b) Al₂O₃ and P₄O₁₀
c) SiO₂ and GeO₂
d) Al₂O₃ and PbO₂

77. Which of the following will give curdy white precipitate with AgNO₃ solution?

78. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): For an elementary reaction, order and molecularity have the same value.
Reason (R): Order of a reaction can be zero, positive, negative or fractional.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

90. In a container 96 g O₂, and 335 g Ne is present. If total pressure of gaseous mixture is 25 atm then what will be the partial pressure of Ne?

(a) 21.20 atm
(b) 15.7 atm
(c) 42.6 atm
(d) 3.56 atm

BOTANY

91. In the Krebs cycle of plant respiration, the conversion of isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate involves:

(a) Substrate-level phosphorylation
(b) Oxidative decarboxylation
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Reduction of FAD⁺

92. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed colour the F2 progeny produced with genotype RrYy: rrYy: Rryy: rryy are respectively.

(a) 4:2:2:1
(b) 2:4:2:1
(c) 2:2:4:1
(d) 1:2:2:4

93. Assertion (A): The inner mitochondrial membrane in plant cells is impermeable to NADH.
     Reason (R): Shuttle mechanisms like the malate-aspartate shuttle are used to transport electrons from cytoplasmic NADH into the mitochondria.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

94. Cells of which of the following regions of root, undergo rapid enlargement and are responsible for the growth of root in length?

(a) Maturation region
(b) Elongation region
(c) Root cap
(d) Meristematic region

95. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are:

(a) Sub-metacentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Acrocentric
(d) Telocentric

96. Palmitic acid is a/an___ fatty acid with____ carbon atoms. The option that fills the blanks correctly respectively is

(a) Unsaturated, 16
(b) Saturated, 18
(c) Unsaturated, 18
(d) Saturated, 16

97. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II products if the meiocyte contains 40 pg DNA in G1-phase?

(a) 20 pg
(b) 40 pg
(c) 10 pg
(d) 30 pg

98. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial chromosome.

(a) They are metacentric chromosome.
(b) The centromere is present at the centre.
(c) During anaphase, these chromosomes are divided into two equal arms.
(d) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.

99. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is:

(a) Kingdom
(c) Genus
(b) Species
(d) Order

100. Which of the following is a non proteinaceous enzyme?

(a) Lysozyme
(b) Ribozyme
(c) Deoxyribonuclease
(d) Carboxypeptidase

101. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis and catalysed by hexokinase?

(a) Glucose →Glucose-6-phosphate
(b) Glucose-6-phosphate→ Fructose-6 phosphate
(c) Fructose-6-phosphate→Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
(d) 2-phosphoglycerate→ phosphoenolpyruvate

102. Ethidium bromide gives_________ colour in ultraviolet radiations.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.

(a) Bright orange
(b) Purple
(c) Green
(d) Violet

103. Causal agent of mumps is

(a) Rubeola virus
(b) Corynebacterium
(c) Paramyxo
(d) Yersinia pestis.

104. How many hot spots of biodiversity in India have been identified?

(a) 25
(c) 43
(b) 3
(d) 17

105. Which of these bonds is least likely to stabilize the three-dimensional folding of proteins?

(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Hydrophobic interactions
(c) Electrostatic interactions
(d) Ester bonds

106. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
(b) Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(c) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(d) Uracil is a pyrimidine.

107. What is wrong about mycoplasma?

(a) They are called PPLO.
(b) They are pleomorphic.
(c) They are sensitive to penicillin.
(d) They produce diseases in plants.

108. Which of the following statements is not an adaptation of the desert plants?

(a) Desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
(b) Desert plants have their stomata arranged in sunken pits.
(c) Desert plants have a special photosynthetic pathway called CAM.
(d) Desert plants have soft stems and large leaves.

109. During aerobic respiration in plants, how many molecules of ATP are directly produced from one molecule of glucose via substrate level phosphorylation?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

110. NADP reductase enzyme is located on __A____ Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of ___B__

(a) A: Stroma lamellae, B: energy
(b) A: Grana lamellae, B: electrons
(c) A: Grana lamellae, B: energy
(d) A: Stroma lamellae, B: electrons

111. Which of the following group exhibits more species diversity?

(a) Gymnosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi

112. Which of the following statements is true regarding anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a) It produces oxygen as the end product.
(b) It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
(c) It yields ethanol and carbon dioxide.
(d) It generates more ATP than aerobic respiration.

113. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This protein:

(a) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it.
(b) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
(c) Is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself resistance to its toxin.

114. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is:

(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Sulphanilamide
(c) Malonate
(d) α-ketoglutarate

115. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as:

(a) Plastidome
(b) Polyhedral bodies
(c) Polysome
(d) Nucleosome

116. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of:

(a) Bats
(b) Water
(c) Insects or winds
(d) Birds

117. Protonema is:

(a) Haploid and is found in mosses
(b) Diploid and is found in liverworts
(c) Diploid and is found in mosses
(d) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes

118. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands?
5’__________GAATTC_________3’
3’__________CTTAAG_________5’
What is so special shown in it?

(a) Replication completed
(b) Deletion mutation
(c) Start codon at the 5’ end
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs

119. Nuclear membrane is absent:

(a) 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑜𝑥
(b) 𝑁𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑐
(c) 𝑃𝑒𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑢𝑚
(d) 𝐴𝑔𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑠

120. During secondary treatment of sewage, the anaerobic methanogenic bacteria in the anaerobic sludge digesters, digest the:

(a) Organic matter only
(b) Organic matter and aerobic bacteria only
(c) Inorganic matter and aerobic bacteria
(d) Organic matter, aerobic bacteria, fungi and other aerobic microbes

121. Mannitol is stored food in:

(a) 𝑃𝑜𝑟𝑝ℎ𝑦𝑟𝑎
(b) 𝐹𝑢𝑐𝑢𝑠
(c) 𝐺𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎
(d) 𝐶ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑎

122. Among the situation given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy:

(a) Monoecious plants bearing unisexual flowers.
(b) Dioecious plants bearing only male or female flower.
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.

123. The enzyme that hydrolyses phosphodiester bonds within a polynucleotide chain is:

(a) Endonuclease
(b) Exonuclease
(c) Carboxypeptidase
(d) Aminopeptidase

124. Frustule is the name of cell wall present in___:

(a) Slime molds
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Dinoflagellates
(d) Diatoms

125. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of:

(a) Broad hardy leaves
(b) Superficial stomata
(c) Thick cuticle
(d) Presence of vessels

126. India has deserts, rainforests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of biodiversity is depicted in this statement?

(a) Geographic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecological diversity
(d) Genetic diversity

127. During chemiosmosis in mitochondria, all protons are channelled from:

(a) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by F0 part of oxysome.
(b) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by F0 part of oxysome.
(c) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by complex IV.
(d) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by complex V.

128. Lenticels are involved in:

(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Transpiration
(c) Gaseous exchange
(d) Food transport

129. Select the incorrect statement regarding humus.

(a) Essential for nutritional cycling.
(b) Is light coloured amorphous substance.
(c) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as reservoir of nutrients.
(d) Is highly resistant to microbial action.

130. A female is mentally retarded with small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. What will be the karyotype analysis of such an individual?

(a) Trisomy of chromosome 21
(b) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
(c) 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
(d) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes

131. A couple has a child with Down syndrome (Trisomy 21).
What is the most likely cause of this genetic disorder?

(a) Autosomal recessive inheritance
(b) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(c) Chromosomal nondisjunction during gamete formation
(d) X-linked recessive inheritance

132. Stele is constituted by all given tissues, except:

(a) Vascular bundles
(b) Endodermis
(c) Pericycle
(d) Medulla

133. Insectivorous plants occupy the trophic level:

(a) T₁
(b) T₄
(c) T₁ and T₃ simultaneously
(d) T₂ only

134. Which step of Krebs cycle operates substrate level phosphorylation?

(a) α-ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA
(b) Succinyl CoA → succinate
(c) Succinate → fumarate
(d) Fumarate → malate

135. Which type of spatial patterns is noticed in ecosystem structure?

(a) Zonation
(b) Stratification and layering
(c) Zonation and stratification
(d) Zonation, stratification and distribution

Zoology

136. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the testis, spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone secretion takes place in the Sertoli cells.
Statement II: Testosterone brings growth and maturation of primary sex organs and also the development of accessory sex characters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

137. Match the following columns:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(a) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

138. The antibodies produced by a group of identical B-cells against a single single epitope of an antigen is called:

(a) Somaclonal antibodies
(b) Polyclonal antibodies
(c) Monoclonal antibodies
(d) Anti-hapten antibodies

139. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world.
Statement II: MTPs are considered relativel safe during the second trimester.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
d) Both statement I and Statement II are false

140. Label the diagram:


(a) A Formation of cross bridge, B→ Sliding/ Rotation, C→ Breaking of cross bridge
(b) A Sliding/Rotation, B→ Formation of Cross bridge, C→ Breaking of cross bridge
(c) A→ Formation of cross bridge, B→ Breaking of cross bridge, C→ Sliding/Rotation
(d) A Breaking of cross bridge, B Sliding/ Rotation, C→ Formation of cross bridge

141. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)(1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(b)(1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(i) (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i) (4)-(ii)
(d)(1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iii)

142. Number of bones in human appendicular skeleton is:

(a) 80
(b) 106
(c) 206
(d) 126

143. Fill in the blank spaces:
(I) All mammals (except a few) have _____ cervical vertebra.
(II) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is_______.
(III) ____ and____ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
(IV) The human cranium is made of ____ bones

(a) 22, 14, 12^th and 11^th, 7
(b) 14, 7, 11^th and 12^th, 22
(c) 7, 14, 11^th and 12^th, 8 (6+2)
(d) 12^th, 14, 22 and 7, 11^th

144. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Non-striated muscles are said to be voluntary in nature.
Reason (R): Non-striated muscles can be moved according to will.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

145. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1) (iii); (2)-(ii); (3) -(i) ; (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iii) ;(2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(i)
(d) (a)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i);(4)-(ii)

146. Which one of the following is the most likely reason of not occurring regular menstruation cycle in females?

(a) Fertilisation of the ovum.
(b) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometriallining.
(c) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream.
(d) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum.

147. Pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron may or may not be separated by a gap called:

(a) Synaptic knob               
(b) Neuroreceptor gap
(c) Synapse
(d) Synaptic cleft

148. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iii); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1)(iv); (2)(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)
(c) (1)-(iii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(d) (1)(ii); (2)(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

149. Which of the following operates to eliminate intermediate phenotype?

(a) Stabilising selection
(b) Directional selection
(c) Disruptive selection
(d) All of above

150. Amenorrhoea most commonly occur:

(a) after menarche
(b) before menopause
(c) during pregnancy
(d) All of these

151. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The ADA gene provides instruction for producing the enzyme adenosine deaminase.
Statement II: This enzyme is found throughout the body but is most active in lymphocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

152. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one has to produce a recombinant protein or enzyme on a large scale, using microbial plants/ animal/human cell?

(a) Stirred-tank bioreactor
(b) Electrophoresis
(c) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(d) All of these

153. The main objective of production of herbicide resistant genetically modified crops is to:

(a) eliminate weeds from fields without the use of herbicides.
(b) eliminate weeds from fields without the use of manual labour.
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides.
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety.

154. With regards to insulin choose the correct options:
(I) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(II) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(III) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(IV) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by bridges. disulphide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (I) and (IV) only
(b) (II) and (IV) only
(c) (II) and (III) only (IV) only
(d) (I), (III) and

155. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

156. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Natural selection is the outcome of differences in survival and reproduction among individuals that show variations in one or more traits.
Statement II: Adaptive forms of a given trait tend to become more common; less adaptive ones become common or disappear.
In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

157.  Which of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?

(a) Over-production, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection.
(b) Variations, natural selection, over production, constancy of population size.
(c) Over-production, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection.
(d) Variations, constancy of population size, over- selection.

158. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this bacterium is associated with roots of all cereals and pulse crops.
Statement II: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

159. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Patients, who had undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
(b) Benign tumors show the property of metastasis.
(c) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(d) Malignant tumors may exhibit metastasis.

160. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrheal diseases.
Statement II: Dehydration is common to all types of diarrheal diseases and adequate supply of fluids and electrolytes should be ensured.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the given options:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

161. Match column-I with column-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)-(iv); (3-(i); (4)-(iii)
(b) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii);(4)-(i)
(c) (1)-(v); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv);(4)-(ii)
(d) (1) (ii); (2)-(v); (3)-(iv);(4)-(iii)

162. In a 35 days menstrual cycle ovulation will occur on:

(a) 14th day
(b) 17th day
(c) 21st day
(d) 12th day

163. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given. below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)(iv); (3)-(i); (d)-(iii)
(b) (1)-(i); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (d)-(ii)
(c) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (d)-(i)
(d) (1)-(iii);(2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)

164. Match column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(ii); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iii); (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)

165. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Enzymes that recognize the same sequences but are derived from different organisms are termed isoschizomers.
Reason (R): They exist exclusively in eukaryotic organisms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

166. ______ is the process by which white blood cells engulf and digest bacteria.

(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Pinocytosis
(c) Osmosis
(d) Hematopoiesis

167. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A is true but R is false.
b) A is false but R is true.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

168. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be transmitted through blood transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, tears, intravenous drug abuse, tattooing, ear and nose peircing, sharing of razors etc.
(b) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the second generation vaccine produced from transgenic yeast by recombinant DNA technology.
(c) Hepatitis B virus vaccine is the first commercially available human vaccine produced by genetic engineering.
(d) All of these

169. Which of the following is a basic feature of all the organisms of Animalia?

(a) Multicellular structure
(b) Sensory and neuromotor system
(c) Terrestrial habitat
(e) Locomotion

170. Match the column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1)-(iv); (2)(ii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iii)
(b) (1) (iii); (2)(i); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i);(4)-(ii)
(d) (1)-(iii); (2)-(i); (3)-(ii);(4)-(iv)

171. Which of the following statements are correct?
(I) An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
(II) ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.
(III) ANF causes vasodilation.
(IV) ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
(V) ADHL is responsible for decrease in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (II), (III) and (IV) only
(b) (I), (II) and (V) only
(c) (III), (IV) and (V) only
(d) (I) and (II) only

172. A, B and C are found in:


(a) Annelids, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively
(b) Platyhelminthes, Annelids, Aschelminthes respectively
(c) Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, Annelids respectively
(d) Sponges, Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes respectively

173. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?
(I) Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.
(II) Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
(III) Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
(IV) M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) (II) and (III) only
(b) (I), (III) and (IV) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (I), (II) and (III) only

174. Match the column-I with column-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (1) (ii); (2)-(iii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(b) (1)-(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-(iii); (2)(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iv); (4)-(iii)

175. Class Amphibia:
(I) has body divisible into head and trunk. Tail is present in some amphibians.
(II) shows respiration by gills, lungs and through skin.
(III) has scales in all its members.
(IV) can lead dual life (aquatic and terrestrial).
(V) has eyelids.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) All are correct
(b) (I) and (IV) are correct
(c) Only (III) is incorrect
(d) Only (II) is incorrect

176. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Arrival of an impulse at the axon terminal stimulates the release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft.
Statement II: These neurotransmitters are responsible for the opening of ion channels.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

177. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?
(I) Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
(II) Regulation of basal metabolic rate.
(III) Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
(IV) Development of immune system.
(V) Support the process of RBCs formation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (II) and (III) only
(b) (III) and (IV) only
(c) (IV) and (V) only
(d) (I) and (IV) only

178. A jawless fish, which lay eggs in fresh water whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is:

(a) Myxine
(c) Petromyzon
(b) Neomyxine
(d) Eptatretus

179. Match the columns-I with column-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(b) (a)-(i); (b)(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(iv); (b)(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
(a) (a)-(ii); (b)(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(iii)

180. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) Urea is the primary nitrogenous waste product in birds and reptiles.
(II) The process of ultrafiltration in the nephron occurs in the Bowman’s capsule.
(III) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to water, promoting water reabsorption.
(IV) The formation of urine involves three main. processes: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion, which
occur in the renal tubules.
Options:

(a) (II) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (III)

1. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and the 25^th division of the circular scale coincides with the reference level of the main scale. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is:

(a) 0.521 cm
(b) 0.529 cm
(c) 0.053 cm
(d) 0.525 cm

2. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its period will:

(a) Remain equal to T
(b) Be less than T
(c) Be greater than T
(d) Be infinite

3. A specimen of silicon is to be made p-type semiconductor. For this one atom of indium, on an average, is doped in 5 X 10⁷ silicon atoms. If the number density of silicon is 5 X 10²⁸ atOms/m², then the number of acceptor atoms per cm³ will be:

(a)  2.5 × 10³⁰ 
(b) 1.0 ×10¹³
(c) 1.0 ×10¹⁵
(d) 2.5× 10³⁶

4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with acceleration 0 ms ^-2. If g = 1.0 ms ^-2, the tension in the supporting cable is:

(a) 8600 N
(b) 9680 N
(c) 11000 N
(d) 1200 N

5. At constant volume, temperature of a cylinder is increased then:

(a) Collision on walls will be less
(b) Collision frequency will increase
(c) Collision will be in straight line
(d) Collision will not change

6. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction equal to

(a) 0°
(b) 15°
(c) 30°
(d) 60°

7. The acceleration due to gravity on planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of planet A. What is the height of the same jump on planet B?

(a) 18 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 2/3 m
(d) 219 m

8. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x₁ and x₂  from the mean position are and respectively. Its time period is:

9. A polarizer is used to

(a) reduce intensity of light.
(b) produce polarized light.
(c) increase intensity of light.
(d) produce unpolarized light.

10. The wet-ability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on:

(a) Density
(b) Angle of contact between surface and liquid
(c) Viscosity
(d) Surface tension

11. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity “v“. It reaches up to a maximum height of 3v²/ 4g with respect to the initial position. The object is:

(a) Solid sphere
(b) Hollow sphere
(c) Disc
(d) Ring

12. A physical quantity of the dimension of length that can be formed out of c, G and e²/4πε₀ is: [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation, e is charge]

13. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation X = A cos (ωt), where X = displacement at time and t, and ω = frequency of bullet oscillation. Which one of the following graph shows correctly variation of  ‘a‘  with ‘t‘?

14. A plane polarised light coming out of a polarizer with intensity enters an analyser kept at an angle of 45° with the polarizer. What will be the intensity of the light coming out of the analyser?

15. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1) n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The of beats produced per second will be:

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

16. The isothermal elasticity of a gas is equal to:

(a) Density
(b) Volume
(c) Pressure
(d) Specific heat

17. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by [M^a L^b T^c], then the physical quantity will be:

(a) Force if, a = 0 b =-1, c = – 2
(b) Pressure if, a=1, b = – 1, c = -2
(c) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0 ,c= – 1
(d) Acceleration if, a = 1, b = 1 c = – 2

18. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?

19. Velocity of light in glass whose refractive index with respect to air is 1.5 is 2 10⁸ m/s Also in certain unknown liquid the velocity of light is found to be 5 × 10⁸ m/s . The refractive index of the liquid with respect to air is

(a) 0.64
(b) 0.80
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.44

20. A semi-conducting device is connected in a series circuit with a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be:

(a) A p-n junction
(b) An intrinsic semi-conductor
(c) A p-type semi-conductor
(d) An n-type semiconductor