NEET REVISION TEST -1 20.02.2025

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology).
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited

PHYSICS

1. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and the 25^th division of the circular scale coincides with the reference level of the main scale. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is:

(a) 0.521 cm
(b) 0.529 cm
(c) 0.053 cm
(d) 0.525 cm

2. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its period will:

(a) Remain equal to T
(b) Be less than T
(c) Be greater than T
(d) Be infinite

3. A specimen of silicon is to be made p-type semiconductor. For this one atom of indium, on an average, is doped in 5 X 10⁷ silicon atoms. If the number density of silicon is 5 X 10²⁸ atOms/m², then the number of acceptor atoms per cm³ will be:

(a)  2.5 × 10³⁰ 
(b) 1.0 ×10¹³
(c) 1.0 ×10¹⁵
(d) 2.5× 10³⁶

4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with acceleration 0 ms ^-2. If g = 1.0 ms ^-2, the tension in the supporting cable is:

(a) 8600 N
(b) 9680 N
(c) 11000 N
(d) 1200 N

5. At constant volume, temperature of a cylinder is increased then:

(a) Collision on walls will be less
(b) Collision frequency will increase
(c) Collision will be in straight line
(d) Collision will not change

6. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction equal to

(a) 0°
(b) 15°
(c) 30°
(d) 60°

7. The acceleration due to gravity on planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of planet A. What is the height of the same jump on planet B?

(a) 18 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 2/3 m
(d) 219 m

8. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x₁ and x₂  from the mean position are and respectively. Its time period is:

9. A polarizer is used to

(a) reduce intensity of light.
(b) produce polarized light.
(c) increase intensity of light.
(d) produce unpolarized light.

10. The wet-ability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on:

(a) Density
(b) Angle of contact between surface and liquid
(c) Viscosity
(d) Surface tension

11. A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity “v“. It reaches up to a maximum height of 3v²/ 4g with respect to the initial position. The object is:

(a) Solid sphere
(b) Hollow sphere
(c) Disc
(d) Ring

12. A physical quantity of the dimension of length that can be formed out of c, G and e²/4πε₀ is: [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation, e is charge]

13. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation X = A cos (ωt), where X = displacement at time and t, and ω = frequency of bullet oscillation. Which one of the following graph shows correctly variation of  ‘a‘  with ‘t‘?

14. A plane polarised light coming out of a polarizer with intensity enters an analyser kept at an angle of 45° with the polarizer. What will be the intensity of the light coming out of the analyser?

15. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1) n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The of beats produced per second will be:

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

16. The isothermal elasticity of a gas is equal to:

(a) Density
(b) Volume
(c) Pressure
(d) Specific heat

17. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by [M^a L^b T^c], then the physical quantity will be:

(a) Force if, a = 0 b =-1, c = – 2
(b) Pressure if, a=1, b = – 1, c = -2
(c) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0 ,c= – 1
(d) Acceleration if, a = 1, b = 1 c = – 2

18. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?

19. Velocity of light in glass whose refractive index with respect to air is 1.5 is 2 10⁸ m/s Also in certain unknown liquid the velocity of light is found to be 5 × 10⁸ m/s . The refractive index of the liquid with respect to air is

(a) 0.64
(b) 0.80
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.44

20. A semi-conducting device is connected in a series circuit with a resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be:

(a) A p-n junction
(b) An intrinsic semi-conductor
(c) A p-type semi-conductor
(d) An n-type semiconductor

21. The electric potential at a point on the axis of an electric dipole depends on the distance r of the point from the dipole as:

(a) ∝1/r
(b) ∝1/r²
(c) ∝r
(d) ∝1/r³

22. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of a turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of a turns will be:

(a) nB
(b) n² B
(c) 2nB
(d) 2n² B

23. From the graph between current i and voltage V shown. below, identify the portion corresponding to negative resistance:


(a) DE
(b) CD
(c) BC
(d) AB

24. Workdone in increasing the size of a soap bubble from radius of 3cm to 5cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03Nm ^-1 )

(a) 0.2π mj
(b) 2 π mj
(c) 0.4 π mj
(d) 4 π mj

25. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform velocity v₁. It is given an impulse such that its velocity becomes v₂ . The impulse is equal to:

26. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength, λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V₀ . If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 λ, the stopping potential is V₀. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is:

(a) λ / 4
(b) λ / 6
(c) 6λ
(d) 4λ

27. A sound of wavelength λ travelling in a medium with a speed of v m/s enters into another medium where its speed is 2v m/s. Wavelength of the sound wave in the second medium is

(a) λ
(b) λ / 2
(c) 2λ
(d) 4 λ

28. A man is sitting with folded hands on a revolving table. Suddenly, he stretches his arms, Angular speed of the table would:

(a) Increase           
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Nothing can be said

29. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is . Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 101. The value of ‘n’ is:

(a) 20
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 9

30. Water with a mass of 2.0 kg is held at constant volume in a container while 10.0 kJ of energy is slowly added by a flame. The container is not well insulated, and as a result temperature of water?

(a) 0.28℃
(b) 27℃
(c) 0.96℃
(d) 1.27℃

31. Which of the following statements is true about the indicator diagram of adiabatic and isothermal process?

a) The slope of isothermal is more than that of adiabatic.
b) The slope of adiabatic is more than that of isothermal.
c) Both are parallel straight lines.
d) Both are parallel curves

32. Statement I: A car is moving in a horizontal circular plane with varying speed, then the net frictional force is neither pointing towards the radial direction nor along the tangential direction.
Statement II: Components of the frictional force are providing the necessary tangential and centripetal acceleration, in the above situation.

(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(c) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

33. Through which character we can distinguish the light waves from sound waves:

(a) Interference
(b) Refraction
(c) Polarization
(d) Reflection

34. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating:

a) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
b) Affects only forward resistance
c) Affects only reverse resistance
d) Affects the overall V-I characteristics of P-N junction

35. A charged pendulum bob is oscillating in a region influenced by the gravitational and electrostatic field. The two fields are anti parallel to each other. The charge on the bob is negative. If the electric field is switched off the time period of small oscillations of the pendulum will:

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Depends on the magnitudes of the field

36. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m₁ and m₂ (vertically). If the acceleration of system is g/8 then the ratio of masses is:

(a) 8:1
(b) 9:7
(c) 4:3
(d) 5:3

37. If i₁=3 sin and i₂=4 cos ωt, than i₂ is:


a) 5 sin(ωt+53°)
b) 5 sin(ωt+37°)
c) 5 sin(ωt+45°)
d) 5 cos(ωt+53°)

38. A car of mass 1600 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 160 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45° , the speed of the car is:

(a) 45 m/s
(b) 40 m/s
(c) 20 m/s
(d) 80 m/s

39. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest without sliding is:

(a) √(10gh/7)
(b) √gh
(c) √(6gh/5)
(d) √(4gh/3)

40. A charge of 40 µC is given to a capacitor having capacitance C = 10μF. The stored energy in ergs is:

(a) 80 × 10^-6
(b) 800
(c) 80
(d) 8000

41. A car moving at a speed of 72 km/hr can be stopped in a distance of 40 m after brakes are pressed. If the same car is moving at a speed of 144 km/hr then after how much distance it will stop after braking?

(a) 80 m
(b) 160 m
(c) 200 m
(d) 240 m

42. If two balls are projeted at angles of 45 deg and 60 deg and the maximum heights reached are same, what is the ratio of initial velocities?

(a) 2:3
(b) 3:2
(c) √2:√3
(d) √3:√2

43. In which of the following cases the potential energy is defined

(a) non-conservative forces only
(b) conservative forces only
(c) both conservative and non-conservative forces
(d) none of these

44. A current of 4 × 10^-3 A is flowing in a long straight conductor. The value of line integral of magnetic field around the closed path enclosing the straight conductor will be

(a) 1.6 π× 10⁹ Wbm^-2         
(b) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm^-2
(c) 1.6 × 10⁹ Wbm² 
(d) 1.6 π× 10^-7 Wbm^-2

45. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10 Ω is given by 10t² – 8t + 6 Wb. How much current is induced in the loop after 2s?

(a) 3.2 A
(b) 2.2 A
(c) 4.2 A
(d) 1.2 A

CHEMISTRY

46. A mixture of gases contains and O₂ gases in the ratio of 1:4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

(a) 16:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:4
(d) 4:1

47. In H-atom spectrum electron jumps from 5th excited state to 1^st excited state then total number of spectral lines, number of lines in Lyman series and Paschen series respectively are:

(a) 10,4,3
(b) 15, 0,4
(c) 15, 4,5
(d) 10,0,3

48. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to:

(a) 2√3 h
(b) h
(c) √(6h)
(d) √2h

49. Which of the following is correct with respect to -l effect of the substituents? [R- alkyl]

(a)-NH₂>-OR >-F
(b) -NR₂<-OR <-F
(c) -NH₂<-OR <-F
(d) -NR₂>-OR > -F

50. The species, having bond angles of 120 is:

(a) PH₃
(b) CIF₃
(c) NCI₃
(d) BCI₃

51. The species Ar, K⁺and Ca²⁺ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?

(a)  Ca²⁺< K⁺ < Ar
(b)  K⁺ < Ar <Ca²⁺
(c) Ar < K ⁺<Ca²⁺
(d) Ca²⁺< Ar <K ⁺

52. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 42 ×10^-3 gL^– at 298K. The value of solubility product K_sp) will be [Given molar mass of BaSO_4= 233 g mol^– ]

(a) 1.08 ×10 ^-10  mol² L^-2
(b) 1.08 ×10 ^-12  mol² L^-2
(c) 1.08 ×10 ^-14  mol² L^-2
(d) 1.08 ×10 ^-8  mol² L^-2

53. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol^-1  K^-1)

(a) 342 kj mol_–¹
(b) 269 kJ mol^-1
(c) 34.7 kJ mol^-1
(d) 15.1 kJ mol^-1

54. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
b) Li <Na <K <Rb (increasing metallic radius)
c) Al³⁺<Mg²⁺< Na⁺ < F^– (increasing ionic size)
d) B<C<N<O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)

55. Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current?

(a) Hydrochloric acid, HCI
(b) Ammonia, NH₃
(c) Fructose, C₂ H₂ O₂
(d) Acetic acid, C₂ H₂ O₂

56. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 L^-1 s^-1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L^-1 s^-1 at 20 seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half-life period of the reaction is:

(a) 44.1 s
(b) 54.1 s
(c) 24.1 s  
(d) 34.1 s

57. In acidic medium, H₂O₂, changes Cr₂O₇^2-, to CrO₅ which (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ has two (0-0)1 is:

(a) +5
(b) + 3
(c) + 6
(d) -10

58. The reaction of H₂O, with hydrogen sulphide is an example of …………. reaction:

(a) addition
(b) oxidation
(c) reductio
(d) redox acidic

59. The enthalpy of vaporization of H₂O(1) is x kJ/mol and enthalpy of formation of water vapour y kJ/mol. Enthalpy of formation of H₂O(I), would be

(a) (y – x) kj mol^-1
(b) (x – y)kj mol^-1
(c) (x + y) kJ  mol^-1
(d) (2x – y) kj  mol^-1

60. Equal four acid 1, 2, 3 and 4 are mixed in a container. The concentration of hydrogen ion in the mixture of.

(a) 4.25 ×10^-4  M  
(b) 2.78 ×10^-2  M
(c) 2.30 × 10^-3 M
(d) 1.35 ×10^-2 M

61. A button cell used in watches functions as following:
Zn(s) + Ag₂ O(s) + H₂ O(l) 2 Ag(s)+Zn²⁺ (aq)+2OH^– (aq)
If half-cell potentials are:
Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Zn(s) E° = – 0.76V
Ag₂O(s) + H₂ O(l)+2e^–→2Ag(s)+20H_– (aq), E° = 0.34 V
The cell potential wil be:

(a) 1.10 V
(b) 0.42 V
(c) 0.84 V
(d) 1.34 V

62. The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C-O, C-C and C =C is:

(a) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H
(b) C – O < C – H < C – C < c = C
(c) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C
(d) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

63. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?

(a) Br₂ > I₂  > F₂ > Cl₂
(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ >  I₂
(c) I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
(d) Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ >  I₂

64. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

(a) [Xe]  4f⁸  6s²
(b) [Xe]  4f¹  5s¹
(c) [Xe]  4f⁷ 5d¹  6s²           
(d) [Xe]  4f⁶ 5d²  6s²

65. Propionic acid with Bry/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be:

66. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant, what volume will the oxygen occupy at 760 mm pressure?

(a) 365 ml
(b) 2 ml
(c) 10 ml
(d) 20 ml

67. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of 1-butyne

68.

Which of the above compound(s), on being warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform?

(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (i)
(d) (1) and (ii)

69. Consider the following statements.
(1) XeF₄  is colourless crystalline solid and undergoes sub-limation.
(2) XeOF₂ is colourless volatile liquid.
(3) XeO₃ is colourless explosive solid.
The correct statements are:

(a) (1) and (2) only
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (1) and (3) only
(d) (1), (2) and (3)

70. A solution has 1: 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbons at 20°C are 440 mm of Hg for pentane and 120 mm of Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:

(a) 0.549
(b) 0.200
(c) 0.786
(d) 0.478

71. One mole of Al³⁺ discharged completely by using charge?

(a) 3Fmole of Al³⁺ 
(b) IF
(c) 0.3F
(d) 2F

72. In which of the following molecules/ions BF₃ NO^–₂, NH^–₂and H₂O, the central atom is sp” hybridised?

73. Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction?

74.

(a) CH₂ CH₂ O-CH₂-CH₃
(b) CH₂-CH₂-O-SO₃ H
(c) CH₃ CH₂ OH
(d) CH₂=CH₂

75. Which of the following is an ideal solution?

(a) Ethanol + water
(b) Ethanol + benzene
(c) Nitric acid + water
(d) Benzene + toluene

76. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by:

77. Which of the following will not show cis-trans isomerism ?

78. Among the following compuands, one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

(a) benzoic acid.
(b) nitrobenzene
(c) toluene.
(d) benzene.

79. At 25°C ,the dissociation constant of a base, BOH is 1.0× 10^-12. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be:

(a) 2.0× 10^-6  molL^-1
(b) 1.0× 10^-5  molL^-1
(c) 1.0× 10^-6  molL^-1
(d) 1.0× 10^-7  molL^-1

80. If the enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol^-1 at 27 °C The entropy change for the process would be:

(a) 1.0 J mol^-1  K^-1       
(b) 0.1 J mol^-1  K^-1 
(c) 100 J mol^-1  K^-1

(d) 10 J mol^-1  K^-1

81. In which electrophilic substitution reaction slow step is breaking of C-H bond?

(a) Sulphonation of benzene
(b) Nitration of benzene
(c) Chlorination of benzene
(d) All of these

82. Acetone and ethanol can be chemically distinguished by:

(a) I₂/NaOH
(b) 2, 4 DNP
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) Both (a) and (b)

83. In which of the following reaction C-C bond formation does not take place?

(a) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(b) Étard reaction
(c) Benzoin condensation
(d) Swarts reaction

84. The value of H and S for the reaction,
C _(graphite) (s) + CO₂(g) → 2CO(g) are 170 kj and 170 JK^-1 ,respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at:

(a) 710 K
(b) 910 K
(c) 1110 K
(d) 510 K

85. The experimental data for the reaction 2A + B₂→2AB is:

The rate equation for the above data is:

(a) rate = k[B₂]
(b) rate = k[B₂]²
(c) rate = k[A]² [B]²
(d) rate = k[A]² [B]

86. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: SF₆ exists but SH₆ does not.
Statement II: dπ-pπ bonding cannot take place in SH₆
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
b) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

87. What is the correct IUPAC name of the following coordination compound.
[Cr(py)₃ Cl₃]

a) Trichlorotripyridinium chromium (III)
b) Tripyridiniumtrichloro chromium (III)
c) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (III)
d) Trichlorotripyridine chromium (II)

88. The incorrect statements among the following is:

a) Glucose on oxidation with Br₂ / H₂O gives gluconic acid.
b) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.
c) The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called furanose structure.
d) The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose are anomers of each other.

89. How many isomers are possible for coordination complex [Co(NH₃)₅ (NO₂)] (NO₃)₂.

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) 12

90. The numbers of mole of phenylhydrazine needed to form fructosazone when react with fructose is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

BOTANY

91. Which is less general in characters as compared to genus?

(a) Family
(b) Class
(c) Division
(d) Species

92. Which one is not a hot spot of India?

(a)Western Ghats
(b)Aravalli Hills
(c)Indo-Burma
(d)Himalaya

93. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is:

(a) Mesosome
(b) Lysosome
(c) Microsome
(d) Ribosome

94. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:

(a) Cucumber
(b) Guava
(c) Plum
(d) Brinjal

95. In which one of the following processes, carbon dioxide is not released?

(a) Aerobic respiration in animals
(b) Alcoholic fermentation
(c) Lactate fermentation
(d) Aerobic respiration in plants

96. In Bt Cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to:

(a) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
(b) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(c) Action of gut microorganism
(d) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

97. Which of the given part of oxysome is a peripheral membrane protein and contains the site for ATP synthesis?

(a) Headpiece
(b) Base
(c) Stalk
(d) F₀– part

98. The parasitic fungus on mustard plant is

(a) Albugo
(b) Ustilago
(c) Puccinia
(d)Colletotrichum

99. Chiasmata become clearly visible during …….. stage.

(a) diplotene
(b) metaphase-I
(c) anaphase-
(d) pachytene

100. Place the following event of translation in the correct sequence:
(i) Binding of met-tRNA to the start codon.
(ii) Covalent bonding between two amino acids.
(iii) Binding of second tRNA.
(iv) Joining of small and large ribosome subunits.

(a) iii, iv, i, ii
(b) i, iv, iii, ii
(c) iv, iii, ii, i
(d) ii, iii, iv, i

101. PGA as the first carbon dioxide fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of

(a) Gymnosperm
(b) Angiosperm
(c) Alga
(d) Bryophyte

102. Swiss cheese is ripened with the help of bacterium:

(a) Penicillium roqueforti
(b) Penicillium camembertii
(c) Lactobacillus
(d)Propionibacterium sharmanii

103. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of:

(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Probes
(c) Selectable markers
(d) Ligases

104. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.

a) Chloroplast has 70S ribosomes.
b) Nucleolus is not bound by any membrane.
c) RER helps in synthesis of fats and proteins.
d) Lysosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.

105. Which of the given character of pea plants is seen only in pure lines?

(a) Round seeds
(b) Yellow pods
(c) Full Pods
(d) Violet flowers

106. A pair of plants which can prevent both autogamy as well as geitonogamy is:

(a) Cucurbits and coconut
(b) Coconut and papaya
(c) Cucurbits and date palm
(d) Date palm and papaya

107. Read the following statements.
Statement A: In primary structure of a protein, the left end is represented by the first amino acid and the right. end by the last amino acid.
Statement B: In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called the non-reducing end.
Choose the correct option:

(a) Both the statements are correct
(b) Both the statements are incorrect
(c) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
(d) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

108. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify:

a) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.
c) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones.
d) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively super-coiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

109. The outermost layer of macromolecules in the prokaryotic cell envelope is………

(a) cell wall
(b) cell membrane
(c) glycocalyx
(d) peptidoglycan

110. A typical angiosperm anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?

(a) 200
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 600

111. Match the following microbes with the Microbes Product:
A. Aspergillus niger                 i. Lactic acid
B. Acetobacter aceti                ii. Butyric acid
C. Clostridium butylicum      iii. Acetic acid
D. Lactobacillus                       iv. Citric acid

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

112. Which of the following is not true for an eukaryotic cell?

a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.
b) 80S type of ribosomes are present in the cytoplasm.
c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA.
d) Membrane bound organelles are present.

113. What is the genotypic ratio in test cross for a dihybrid cross if two genes are completely linked?

(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 1:1
(c) 9:3:3:1
(d) 3:1

114. An organic non-protein substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is:

(a) Coenzyme
(b) Apoenzyme
(c) Holoenzyme
(d) Isoenzyme

115. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

(a) Mesophytes
(b) Halophytes
(c) Psammophytes
(d) Hydrophytes

116. In the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were present. The proportion of different bases were: Adenine 29%; Guanine = 17%; Cytosine = 32%, Thymine 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule, it can be concluded that:

(a) It is a single stranded linear RNA.
(b) It is single stranded linear DNA.
(c) It is a double stranded linear DNA.
(d) It is a double stranded circular DNA.

117. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used:

(a) As selectable markers,
(b) To select healthy vectors.
(c) As sequences from where replication starts.
(d) To keep the culture free of infection.

118. Which one of the following organisms is not a eukaryote?

(a) Paramecium caudatum
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Euglena viridis
(d) Amoeba proteus

119. The end products of fermentation is
(1) CO₂                          (2) Ethanol
(3) Oxygen             (4) Acetaldehyde

(a) (1) only
(b) (1) and (2) only
(c) (2) and (3) only
(d) (3) and (4) only

120. The osmotic expansion of a cells kept in water is chiefly regulated by:

(a) Mitochondria
(b) Vacuoles 
(c) Plastids
(d) Ribosomes

121. Feedstock for biodiesel can primarily be obtained from

(a) Nymphaea
(b) Abelmoschus
(c) Triticum
(d) Jatropha

122. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having:

a) Spermatozoids
b) Conducting system
c) Separate gametophytes
d) Archegonia

123. There are three major types of RNAs present in bacteria and each of them has specific functions.
i) mRNA-Provides the template for translation.
(ii) tRNA-Brings polypeptide chain and reads the transcription unit.
(iii) rRNA – Plays structural and catalytic role during translation.
Identify the type(s) of RNA with its incorrect matching of function

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) only (i)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) only (ii)

124. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) (i) and (ii)     
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (iii) and (iv)

125. Which one of the following statements is correct about Bryophytes?

a) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations are independent.
b) Sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte.
c) Gametophyte is dependent upon Sporophyte.
d) Inconspicuous gametophyté is present.

126. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

(a) Lenticels
(b) Complimentary cell
(c) Subsidiary cells
(d) Bulliform cells

127. Which type of diversity is in terms of shown by Rauwolfia vomitoria the potency and concentration of reserpine that it produces?

(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity
(c) ecological diversity
(d) biodiversity

128. Which of the following component of phloem is made up of sclerenchymatous cells?

(a) Companion cells
(b) Bast fiber
(c) Sieve tubes
(d) Xylem fiber

129. Which is the basic requirement for any type of ecosystem. to function and sustain?

(a) Constant output of solar energy
(b) Constant input of solar energy
(e) Organic substances
(d) Organic substances dissolved in water

130. Which is the basic requirement for any type of ecosystem to function and sustain?

(a) Constant output of solar energy
(b) Constant input of solar energy
(c) Organic substance
(d) Organic substances dissolved in water.

131. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to produce enzyme …….

(a) invertase
(b) pectinase
(c) lipase
(d) cellulase

132. Select the wrong statement.

(a) Maximum species diversity is associated with tropical rain forest.
(b) Only biotic factors affect the magnitude of primary productivity.
(c) Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional.
(d) GFC is major conduit of energy flow in aquatic Eco-system.

133. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:

(a) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem.
(b) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
(c) Cambium is absent.
(d) There are no vessels with perforations.

134. Identify free living bacterial biofertlizer………

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Nostoc
(d)Bacillus thuringiensis

135. A template strand of DNA has base sequence CATGATTAC. New strand synthesized on it will be:

(a) GATCAUATG
(b) GТАСТААCG
(c) GAACTAATG
(d) GTACTAATG

ZOOLOGY

136. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Zoological Nomenclature and correctly described?

a) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria.
c) Felis tigris-The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests
d) coli – Full name Entamoeba coli a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.

137. After childbirth a woman is not able to release milk to feed her child. Which hormone could help in milk ejection?

(a) Prolactin
(b) Pitocin
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone

138. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of:

(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) tRNA
(d) hnRNA

139. Find the odd one out.

(a) Sea cucumber
(b) Sea urchin
(c) Sea anemone
(d) Sea lily

140. Neoplastic transformation may occur as a result of:

(a) Non-ionizing radiation like X-rays.
(b) Ionizing radiation like UV-rays.
(c) Non-ionizing gamma rays.
(d) Both ionizing and non-ionizing radiations.

141. Which one is not a feature of Adamsia?

(a) Metagenesis
(b) Gastrovascular cavity
(c) Diploblastic
(d) Cnidoblast

142. Uricotelic mode of excreting nitrogenous wastes is found in:

(a) Reptiles and birds
(b) Birds and annelids
(c) Amphibians and reptile
(d) Insects and amphibians

143. Whose experiments cracked DNA and discovered triplet nature of genetic code?

(a) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(b) Beadle and Tatum
(c) Hershey and Chase
(d) Morgan and Sturtevant

144. Which of the following is a non-medicated IUD?

(a) Lippe’s loop
(b) Multiload-375
(c) LNG-20
(d) Progestasert

145. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

(a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output.
(b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase.
(d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output

146. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to blood.

(a) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
(b) It consists of formed elements and plasma.
(c) Blood cells and plasma both are responsible for trans-portation of O₂ and CO₂
(d) Cells of blood form matrix and structural proteins like other connective tissues.

147. The most abundant protein in animals is ___ and most abundant protein on Earth is ____respectively.
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly.

(a) RuBisCo and Elastin
(b) Collagen and Elastin
(c) RuBisCo and Collagen
(d) Collagen and RuBisCO

148. C-peptide of human insulin is

(a) a part of mature insulin molecule.
(b) responsible for its biological activity.
(c) responsible for formation of disulphide bridges.
(d) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin.

149. Select the Taxon mentioned which represent both marine and fresh water species.

(a) Echinoderms   
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) Cnidaria

150. The figure shows the schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option labelled with its functions.

(a) A – pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, pO₂ = 60 mm Hg
(b) B – pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs, pO₂ = 90 mm Hg
(c) C – vena cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO₂ = 45 mm Hg
(d) D – dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart to partsm pO₂ = 95 mm Hg

151. Select the correct match with respect to infection and its causative agent:

(a) Gonorrhoea – Trichomonas
(b) Genital warts – Treponema
(c) Syphilis – Neisseria
(d) Tetanus – Clostridium

152.What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?

(a) Glucagon is secreted by ẞ-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis.
(b) Secretion of thymosin is stimulated with ageing.
(c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane.
(d) FSH stimulates the secretion of oestrogen and progesterone.

153. Select the correct statement.

(a) Morphine is extracted from the leaves of Cannabis sativa.
(b) Chikungunya and amoebic dysentery are both trans-mitted through mosquito as a vector.
(c) Anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(d) T-lymphocytes act like an HIV factory

154. A plover bird and crocodiles have a particular interaction, that is:

(a) Commensalism   
(b) Protocooperation
(c) Mutualism
(d) Competition

155. In counter current mechanism, the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium is mainly maintained by

(a) HCO, and K     
(b) NaCl and Hо
(c) NaCl and urea
(d) K’ and H

156. Which of the following is not observed during contraction of a muscle fibre?

(a) A bands retain the length.
(b) Shortening of sarcomere.
(c) I band gets reduced.
(d) H zene retains the length.

157. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The most primitive of all craniates are jawless vertebrates.
Statement B: Cyclostomes have paired appendages and sucking circular mouth.

a) Both statements are correct.
b) Both statements are incorrect.
c) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
d) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct

158. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the centre of the visual field where:

(a) High density of cones occur, but has no rods.
(b) The optic nerve leaves the eye.
(c) Only rods are present.
(d) More rods than cones are found.

159. All are functions of Sertoli cells except:

(a) Formation of blood testis barrier
(b) Secretion of smegma.
(c) Secretes Anti Mullerian Factor,
(d) Secretes Androgen Binding Protein.

160. Hypothalmic hormones are transported to neurohypophysis through:

(a) Portal vein
(b) Portal artery
(c) Axons
(d) Lymph vessel

161. What is the minimum number of plasma membrane that oxygen has to diffuse across to pass from air in the alveolus to haemoglobin inside a R.B.C.?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

162. Choose the correct statement regarding mode of transmission of HIV?

a) Drug addicts have least chance to be infected with AIDS.
b) Individuals who need repeated blood transfusion, HIV can be transmitted by sharing needles.
c) Contaminated through saliva.
d) Biting through contaminated mosquito.

163. The genetic disease that transfers from a phenotypically. normal but carrier female to only some of the male progenies. The disease is:

a) Autosomal dominant
b) Autosomal recessive
c) Sex-linked dominant
d) Sex-linked recessive

164. Incorrect question formation:
Which of the following is correct in regards to the diluted urine in the excretory system of human beings?

a) Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
b) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
c) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
d) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO

165. Which of the following is correct regarding throbin?

(a) It is a protein of primary structure
(b) converts solube fibrinogen of plasma into insoluble fibrin
(c) Converts insoluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin
(d) Converts fibrin into fibrinogen

166. If one kidney is removed what will be the immediate effect?

(a) The person will die due to lack of urine formation.
(b) Uremia and death.
(c) Death due to poisoning.
(d) The person may survive

167. Cardiac notch is present in:

(a) Superior lobe of right lung
(b) Inferior lobe of left lung
(c) Superior lobe of left lung
(d) Inferior lobe of right lung

168. The cartilage generally present on long bone terminals is:

(a) Hyaline cartilage
(b) Fibrous cartilage
(c) Hyaline and calcified cartilage
(d) Elastic cartilage

169. Poikilothermic animals having monocondylic skull and amnion belong to the class:

(a) Amphibia
(b) Reptilia
(c) Aves
(d) Mammalia

170. Name the cytokines which is released in response to virus infection.

(a) Monokines
(b) Lymphokines
(c) Interleukins.   
(d) Interferons

171. When does the Oxygen dissociation curve shift to the right?

(a) Decrease in acidity
(b) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration
(c) Decrease in temperature
(d) Decrease in pH

172. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

(a) 4         
(b) ৪        
(c) 2         
(d) 1

173. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by:

(a) p²       
(b) 2pq               
(c) pq    
(d) q²

174. Which one of the following hormones maintains the Pregnancy in second trimester?

a) LH (luteinizing hormone)
b) progesterone
c) estrogen
d) hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin)

175. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is:

(a) FRC
(b) VC
(c) ERV
(d) IRV

176. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the:

(a) Contraction of both atria
(b) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(c) Beginning of the systole
(d) End of the systole

177. Following are the two statements regarding the origin c life:
(i) The earliest organisms that appeared on the eart were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(ii) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautor trophs that never released oxygen.

(a) (ii) is correct but (i) is false
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(d) (i) is correct but (ii) is false

178. MALT is considered as the secondary lymphoid organ which is located within the lining of major tracts in th body. Here, MALT stands for:

(a) Metaderm Associated Lymphoid Tissues
(b) Medulla Associated Lymphoid Tissues
(c) Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues
(d) Mucosal Associated Leukemia Tissues

179. Identify the wrong statement regarding evolution.

a) Darwin’s variations are small and directional.
b) Mutations are random and non-directional.
c) Adaptive radiations leads to divergent evolution.
d) Mutations are non-random and directional.

180. Choose the correct option for P, Q, R and S

(a) ‘P’-A, AB; ‘Q’-B, AB; ‘R’-AB, A, B, O; ‘S’-O
(b) ‘P’-A; ‘Q’-O, A, B, AB; ‘R’-AB, A, B, O; ‘S’-A, B
(c) ‘P’-O; ‘Q’-B, AB; ‘R’-A; ‘S’-AB, A, B, O
(d) ‘P’-O; ‘Q’-O, A, B, AB; ‘R’-B; ‘S’-AB