NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY 22.02.2025

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY 22.02.2025

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1. The allele for pointed ear (E) in a cat is completely dominant to the allele for rounded ear (e). The alleles for grey fur (F) and white fur (F’) show co- dominance, so that FF’ individuals possess brown fur. If cats heterozygous for both pairs of genes are mated, what is the expected proportion of offspring for pointed ear and brown fur and pointed ear and white fur?

a) 6/16 and 3/16

b) 3/16 and 2/16

c) 6/16 and 1/16

d) 2/16 and 6/16

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

2. The parental type percentage found when wild type male is crossed with white eye miniature wing female is

a) 98.7
b) 61.4
c) 62.8
d) 37.2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

3. A male cat of genotype AABBCCDDEE is crossed with a female cat of genotype aabbccddee to produce F1 offspring. How many genetically different gametes can be produced by F1 offspring?

a) 16
b) 21
c) 32
d) 45

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

4. If 3n is the theoretically possible number of different genotypes, the different genotypes produced by pea plant is taking traits studied by Mendel

a) 21
b) 243
c) 729
d) 2187

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

5. A dihybrid plant on self pollination produces 800 offspring. How many seeds will have genotype TtRr and TTrr?

a) 300 and 100
b) 200 and 50
c) 100 and 50
d) 50 and 30

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

6. If a very dark skinned man marries a very light skinned woman, what will be the result of skin colour in F1 generation if there are 5 children.

a) All intermediate
b) 50 white:50 dark
c) All dark since dark skin is dominant to light skin
d) 3 (dark):1 (light)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

7. A set of genes will be in complete linkage when the progeny phenotypes for parental (P) and recombinants (R) types are

a) P=0%, R=50%
b) P=0%, R=100%
c) P=100%, R=0%
d) P=50%, R=0%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

8. Assertion(A): Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome
Reason(R): All genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
d) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

9. A plant of F1-generation with genotype “AABbCC”. On selfing on this plant what is the phenotypic ratio in F2 -genaration?

a) 1:1
b) 3:1
c) 9:3:3:
d) 1:2:1

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

10. What is the percentage of F² progeny with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross experiment involving pea plants with green coloured, inflated pod and yellow coloured constricted pod?

a) 9%
b) 100%
c) 18.75%
d) 56.75 %

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

11. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?

a) A unit of distance between two expressed genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
b) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 10% cross over
c) A unit of distance between two expressed genes representing 100% cross over
d) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

12. Genetic map is one that:

a) Establishes the various stages of gene evolution.
b) Establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome.
c) Shows the stages during the cell division.
d) Shows the distribution of various species in region.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

13. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to:

a) Linkage
b) Recombination
c) Crossing over
d) Repulsion

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

14. When AABBcc is crossed with AaBbCc then the ratio of hybrid for all the three genes is:

a) 1/8
b) 1/4
c) 1/16
d) 1/32

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

15. A plant homozygous for yellow and red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous for green seeds and white flowers. The F1 plants had yellow seeds and pink flowers. On selfing F1 plants, how many phenotypes are expected in F2 generation?

a) 6
b) 9
c) 12
d) 16

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

16. Pleiotropism refers to

a) more than two genes affecting single character
b) single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression
c) more than two genes affecting multiple character
d) single gene affecting single phenotypic expression

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

17. A gene showing co-dominance has phenotypic and genotypic ratio as

a) 1:2:1 and 3:1
b) 1:1 and 3:1
c) 1:2:1 and 1:2:1
d) 9:3:3:1 and 1:1

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

18. A polygenic inheritance in human being is

a) PKU
b) Skin color
c) Colour blindness
d) Sickle cell anaemia

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

19. Select the incorrect statement.

a) IAIA and IAIO is the blood group A genotype
b) IAIB and IBIA is the blood group A and B genotype
c) IBIB is the blood group B genotype
d) IBIO is the blood group AB genotype

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

20. What will be the percentage of recombinants from the following observation?
Parents: Red eye- Black body and White eye- Brown body
Offspring: Red eye- Black body-20, Red eye-Brown body- 31, White eye-Black body 40 and White eye- Brown body- 29

a) 59.16
b) 40.9
c) 70
d) 30

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

21. A person with karyotype XXY is affected by

a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Down’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Thalassemia

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

22. Criss-cross pattern of inheritance is observed in

a) Sickle cell anaemia
b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Haemophilia
d) Phenylketonuria

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

23. Which of the following is considered as a mutagen?

a) α-rays
b) Dimethyl nitrosamine
c) 5-bromouracil
d) All of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

24. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is

a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Down’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Sickle cell anaemia

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

25. Assertion(A): Down’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome and Turner’s syndrome are chromosomal disorder
Reason(R): In Klinefelter’s syndrome, females are sterile

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) Both A and R are false

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

26. In sickle cell anaemia, Adenine in the 6th position of mRNA is replaced by

a) Guanine
b) Uracil
c) Valine
d) Glutamic acid

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

27. Assertion (A): XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is an example of female heterogamety and is found in drosophila
Reason (R): Male heterogamy is seen in moths where males produce two different types of gametes

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) Both A and R are false

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

28. Turner’s syndrome occurs due to

a) Monosomy
b) Trisomy
c) Polyploidy
d) Tetrasomy

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

29. Henking observed a structure in the sperms of insects and called it

a) X-chromosome
b) X-structure
c) X-body
d) X-piece

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

30. ZZ-ZW type of sex determination is observed in

a) Moth
b) Drosophila
c) Chicken
d) Cockroach

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

31. When mutation occurs in the nucleotides of a gene, it is called

a) Gene mutation
b) Chromosomal mutation
c) Genomatic mutation
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

32. In which of the following organism male individual develops by parthenogenesis?

a) Grasshopper
b) Birds
c) Reptiles
d) Honeybee

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

33. The fetus of honeybees which are fed with royal jelly develops into

a) Sterile worker bee
b) Fertile queen
c) Sterile queen
d) Bisexual bee

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

34. Sex chromosome of male is heteromorphic and female is homomorphic in

a) Grasshopper
b) Birds
c) Butterflies
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

35. If a normal (non-carrier) woman marries a colour blind man, what is the probability that\ their son is colour blind?

a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

36. The frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than that in the females because

a) Colour blindness is a mendelian disorder
b) Males are more susceptible to eye infections
c) Presence of a single recessive allele in sex chromosome is enough to express itself in male
d) It follows criss-cross pattern of inheritance

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

37. Choose the correct match

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

38. Mutual exchange between non-homologous chromosomes is called

a) Inversion
b) Translocation
c) Duplication
d) Deficiency

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

39. Analyze the given pedigree chart and select the correct mode of inheritance

a) X-link recessive
b) X-link dominant
c) Autosomal recessive
d) Autosomal dominant

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

40. Analyze the given pedigree chart and select the correct mode of inheritance

a) Autosomal dominant
b) X-link dominant
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

41. Which of the following groups are all polysaccharides?

a) Glycogen, cellulose and starch
b) Maltose, lactose and fructose
c) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose
d) Sucrose, glucose and fructose

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

42. The specificity, as well as the physical and enzymatic properties of any protein, is determined by

a) Sequence of amino acids in a chain
b) linear sequence of amino acids
c) number of amino acids.
d) both A and B

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

43. Pentoses and hexoses are the most prevalent

a) disaccharides
b) oligosaccharides
c) monosaccharides
d) polysaccharides.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

44. Which of the following sugars cannot be broken down farther into simpler sugars?

a) Maltose
b) Ribose
c) Cellulose
d) Glucosamine

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

45. Which of the statements about carbohydrates is incorrect

a) The general formula is CnH2n0n
b) Glucose is the most significant building block of carbohydrates.
c) Ribose is a pentose sugar
d) Exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of lignin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

46. Which one of the following natural polymers is found both in insects and fungi

a) Lignin
b) Chitin
c) Cellulose
d) Glycogen

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

47. Cellulose is the polymer of

a) Glucose
b) Ribose
c) Fructose
d) Sucrose

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

48. Which one value is required for enzyme action

a) Low K_m value
b) High K_m value
c) Low K_ivalue
d) High K_i value

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

49. A working combination of an apoenzyme and a coenzyme is termed as

a) prosthetic group
b) enzyme substrate complex
c) holoenzyme
d) enzyme product complex

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

50. Co enzymes NAD and NADP are made up of

a) Niacin
b) Biotin
c) Thiamine
d) Vitamin A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

51. Enzyme amylase is

a) Hydrolases
b) Transferases
c) Oxidoreductase
d) Isomerases

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

52. Enzymes are

a) Effective even in tiny amounts
b) Only functional in minimal quantities
c) Functional only in large quantities
d) Active in the absence of H₂O

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

53. With reference to enzymes, turnover number means

a) The number of substrate molecules an enzyme transforms into products every hour.
b) The number of substrate molecules, that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per second
c) The number of substrate molecules an enzyme transforms into products every minute
d) The number of substrate molecules an enzyme transforms into products every day.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

54. When does plant decides to flower?

a) In embryonic development
b) During the appearance of flower buds
c) Before the actual flower appear on plant
d) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

55. Pollen grains are mature when

a) It contains vegetative and generative cell
b) It contains only single haploid cell
c) Contains two haploid cell
d) Both (A) and (C)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

56. Select the false statement from the following.

a) Persistent nucleus is the perisperm

b) Integuments of ovule harden as though protective seed coat

c) Micropyle remains as a small pore in seed coat and facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into seed during germination

d) General metabolic activity of embryo is high

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

57. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively

a) 12,24, 12
b) 24, 12,12
c) 12,24, 24
d) 24, 12, 14

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

58. Select the correct statement.

a) Embryogenesis refers to the process of development of embryo from the zygote
b) Isogametes are morphologically dissimilar.
c) Chlamydomonas and Fucus exhibit both homogamy and heterogamy.
d) In algae female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

59. Which of the following yield genetically similar plants?
(i) Rhizome (ii) Seed production
(iii) Parthenogenesis (iv) Eye bud

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
b) (ii), (it) and (iv)
c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
d) (i), (i) and (iv)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

60. Which of the following is a parameter of senescence or old age?

a) End of reproductive phase
b) Slowing of metabolism
c) End of juvenile phase
d) Both (A) and (B)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

61. In organisms having internal fertilisation number of

a) sperm produced are less than egg
b) sperm and egg are equal
c) sperm produced are more than egg
d) none of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

62. A farmer notices that his cucumber plants are producing fewer female flowers than expected. To enhance fruit yield, which plant growth regulator should he apply to promote the development of more female flowers?

a) Gibberellin
b) Ethylene
c) Auxin
d) Cytokinin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

63. Which of the following events marks the initiation of seed germination?”

a) Activation of a previously dormant embryo
b) Emergence of cotyledons above the ground
c) Growth of hypocotyl or epicotyl above the soil surface
d) Onset of fluid transport through vascular tissues

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

64. Plant exhibits enhanced growth and development when two hormones interact. If their combined effect is greater than the sum of their individual effects, which of the following terms best describes this interaction?

a) Redundant hormone action, where multiple hormones independently contribute to the same function.
b) Synergistic hormone action, where two hormones work together to amplify a shared function
c) Pleiotropic hormone action, where one hormone regulates multiple physiological processes
d) Antagonistic hormone action, where two hormones work against each other

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

65. Scientists discovered two plant growth hormones, one originally isolated from a fungal source and the other from fish-derived materials. Which of the following correctly identifies these hormones?

a) Gibberellins and zeatin
b) Ethylene and cytokinin
c) Auxin and 2,4-D
d) Gibberellin and kinetin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

66. A botanist observes a plant species that remains vegetative for several years and then flowers only once before dying. How would this plant be classified?

a) A plant that produces flowers with a single ovary
b) A plant that completes its life cycle by flowering once and then dying
c) A plant that produces only a single flower in its lifetime
d) A plant that exhibits all of the above characteristics

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

67. In flowering plants, senescence is considered an active developmental process that plays a crucial role in regulating growth and function. Which of the following processes best exemplifies senescence?

a) Shedding of leaves due to programmed cell death
b) Differentiation of vessels and tracheids for water conduction
c) Wilting and degeneration of floral structures after pollination
d) The completion of the life cycle in annual plants, leading to whole-plant death

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

68. Plant hormone which is not translocated to other parts for growth of the plant is

a) indole-3-acetic acid
b) gibberellins
c) cytokinins
d) ethylene.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

69. Consider the given graphical representation of effect of auxin concentration on growth of root and stem.

Select the correct statement explaining it.
a) The optimum auxin concentration required for root and shoot elongation is almost same.
b) The lower concentration of auxin ranging between 1 to 10 ppm inhibits growth of stem.
c) Higher concentration of auxin is required for growth of stem, as compared to root.
d) Auxin inhibits the growth of roots but stimulates the growth of shoot/stem.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

70. Cytokinins are plant hormones known for promoting cell division and delaying senescence. Which of the following methods is NOT commonly used as a bioassay for cytokinin activity?

a) Observing the increase in cell size rather than cell division
b) Measuring growth stimulation in dwarf maize seedlings
c) Assessing the impact on seed germination rates
d) Evaluating chlorophyll retention in detached leaves

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

71. Match the plant hormones in Column I with their correct descriptions in Column II and select the appropriate combination

A) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
B) (a)-ii, (b)-i, (c)-iii, (d)-iv
C) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d) – iv
D) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

72. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

73. Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

a) Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
b) Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
c) Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
d) Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

74. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II
B) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
C) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
D) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

75. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
B) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
C) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
D) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

76. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:
A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV node D. Bundle branches
E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below:

a) E-A-D-B-C
b) E-C-A-D-B
c) A-E-C-B-A-D
d) B-D-E-C-A

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

77. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
B) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
C) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
D) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

78. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II: The proximal convoluted tubule Is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Statement 1 is false but Statement II is true
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

79. Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
A .Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) C, D & E only
(b) A, B & D only
(c) A, B & E only
(d) B, C & E only

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

80. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV
B) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
C) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
D) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

81. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone

a) Glucagon
b) Cortisol
c) Testosterone
d) Progesterone

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

82. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

a) Low pCO₂ and High temperature
b) High pO₂ and High pCO₂
c) High pO₂ and Lesser H⁺ concentration
d) Low pCO₂ and High H⁺concentration

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

83. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney tubules is regulated by

a) STH
b) TSH
c) ADH
d) ANF

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

84. A large quantity of fluid is filtered every day by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate

a) is stored in the urinary bladder

b) is reabsorbed into the blood

c) gets collected in the renal pelvis

d) is lost as sweat.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

85. The number of floating ribs in the human body is:

a) 3 pairs
b) 2 pairsA
c) 6 pairs
d) 5 pairs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

86. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

a) Aldosterone and Prolactin
b) Progesterone and Aldosterone
c) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
d) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

87. What is the function of pneumotaxic centre?

a) To reduce duration of expiration
b) To increase duration of expiration
c) To reduce duration of inspiration
d) To increase duration of inspiration

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

88. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to

a) absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
b) absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
c) absence of antigens A and B in plasma
d) presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

89. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O₂) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are

a) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
b) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
c) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
d) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

90. Oxygen is soluble in _______ to a small extent

a) RBC
b) WBC
c) Platelets
d) Plasma

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

None

NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY 22.02.2025

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