SMATEE FULL TEST (08.03.2025)

Welcome to your SMATEE FULL TEST (08.03.2025)

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SMATEE

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 400
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc.

PHYSICS

1. In an isothermal change of an ideal gas. The change in heat energy 𝛥𝑄 is equal to

a) 0.5 ΔW
b) ΔW
c) 1.5 ΔW
d) 2 ΔW

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2. In an adiabatic process, the quantity which remains constant is

a) volume
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) total heat of the system

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3. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas,

a) heat is gained or lost.
b) heat is neither gained nor lost.
c) temperature is kept constant.
d) volume is kept constant.

None

4. Indicator diagram is a graph between

a) 𝑃 and 𝑇
b) 𝑉 and 𝑇
c) P and V
d) None of the above

None

5. The relation 𝑃𝑉=𝑅𝑇 can describe behaviour of a real gas at

a) high temperature and high density
b) high temperature and low density
c) low temperature and low density
d) low temperature and high density

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6. The absolute zero is the temperature, at which

a) all substance exist in solid state
b) water freezes
c) molecule motion ceases
d) none of these

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7. A gas behave as an ideal gas at

a) low pressure and high temperature
b) low pressure and low temperature
c) high pressure and high temperature
d) high pressure and low temperature

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8. The number of degree of freedom for a diatomic gas molecule is

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6

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9. The degree of freedom of a triatomic gas is

a) 1
b) 2
c) 6
d) 8

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10. The translation kinetic energy of gas molecule for one mole of the gas is equal to

None

11. The combination of which of the following processes results in the formation of a rainbow?

a) Dispersion and Total Internal Reflection
b) Dispersion and Absorption
c) Refraction and Scattering
d) Dispersion and Focussing

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12. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s wave theory?

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Photoelectric effect

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13. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. Calculate the speed of light in glass. The speed of light in air is 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹.

a) 0×10⁸ms⁻¹

b) 3.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

c) 4.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

d) 5.0×10⁸ms⁻¹

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14. Two lenses of power −15D and +5D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination is

a) −20cm
b) −10cm
c) +20cm
d) +10cm

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15. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact. The focal length of this combination is

None

16. A real image is obtained at 30 cm from a convex lens of focal length 7.5 cm. Find the distance of the object from the lens.

a) -10

b) 10

c) -20

d) 20

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17. An object is placed at a distance of 10cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15cm. Calculate the magnification of the image?

a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.15
d) 0.3

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18. A thin prism of 2∘angle gives a deviation of 1∘. What is the value of refractive index of the material of the prism.

a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.5

None

19. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric circles
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow

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20. The phenomena involved in the reflected of radio waves by ionosphere is similar to.

a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow
d) scattering of light by the particles of air

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21. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to

a) wave nature
b) wavelengths
c) velocity
d) frequency

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22. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film are due to

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Dispersion

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23. Which phenomenon leads us to the conclusion that light is transverse in nature?

a) refraction of light
b) diffraction of light
c) dispersion of light
d) polarization of light.

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24. The angular resolution of a 10cm diameter telescope at a wavelength 5000Å is of the order

a) 10⁶rad
b) 10⁻²rad
c) 10⁻⁴rad
d) 10⁻⁶ rad

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25. A double convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.55 with both faces of same radius of curvature. Find the radius of curvature required, if focal length is 20cm.

a) 22 cm
b) 44 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 33cm

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CHEMISTRY

26. If 250 ml of 0.25 M NaCl solution is diluted with water to a volume of 500 ml, the new concentration of the solution is

a) 16 7
b) 0.125 M
c) 0.082 M
d) 0.016

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27. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute ( K_bfor benzene = 2.53 K kg mol^-1)

a) 57.5 g
B. 64.2 g
c) 79. 6 g
d) 91.3 g

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28. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M Mg Cl₂ solution is

a) the same
b) about twice
c) about three times
d) about six times

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29. Colligative properties depends on

a) The nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
b) The number of solute particles in solution
c) The physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
d) The nature of solvent particles

None

30. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point

a) 1.0 M NaOH
b) 1.0 M NH₄NO₃
c) 1.0 M KNO₃
d) 1.0 M Na₂SO₄

None

31. A solution of sulphuric acid in water exhibits

a) negative deviation from Raoult’s law
b) positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) ideal properties
d) the applicability of Henry’s law

None

32. A solution has 4 : 2 molar ratio of propane to heptane. If their P° values are 200 and 400 mm Hg. Calculate the mole fraction of heptane in vapour phase

a) 0.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.5
d) 0.7

None

33. Acetic acid dimerized in benzene upto 10%, find Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’

a) 2.12
b) 1.26
c) 0.95
d) 0.0

None

34. Homolytic fission of a covalent bond leads to the formation of

a) electrophile
b) nucleophile
c) free radical
d) carbocation

None

35. Aniline is separated from aniline-water mixture by

a) crystallization
b) steam distillation
c) solvent extraction
d) sublimation

None

36. The most stable carbocation is:

a) CH₃⁺
b) (CH₃)₃C⁺
c) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺
d) (CH₃)₂CH⁺

None

37. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of the following

a) sigma – sigma
b) sigma – p
c) p – p
d) pi – pi

None

38. Which of the following compounds will be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation?

None

39. Benzene molecule has

a) 6sigma-bonds and 6 π-bonds
b) 12sigma-bonds and 6 π – bonds
c) 6sigma- bonds and 3 π- bonds.
d) 12sigma -bonds and 3 π- bonds

None

40. Which of the following is an electrophile ?

a) CN^–
b) ROH
c) AlCl₃d) NH₃

None

41. Methoxy methane and ethanol are

a) Functional isomers
b) Optical isomers
c) Position isomers
d) Chain isomers

None

42. CO is isolectronic with

a) SnCl₂
b) NO⁺
c) NO₂^–
d) O₃

None

43. For which of the following hybridization the bond angle is maximum ?

a) sp
b) sp²c) sp³
d) dsp²

None

44. What is the Geometry of ClF3 (including the lone pair of electrons)

a) See saw
b) T shape
c) Trigonal bipyramidal
d) Tetrahedral

None

45. The shape of XeF4 molecule is

a) Octahedral
b) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal bipyramidal

None

46. Which of the following has maximum covalent character ?

a) LiF
b) LiBr
c) LiCl
d) LiI

None

47. Which among the following are diamagnetic?

a) O₂
b) N₂c) O₂⁺d) N₂^2-

None

48. Hybridization involves

a) Addition of electron pair
b) Mixing of atomic orbitals
c) Removal of electrons
d) Separation of orbitals

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49. The correct order of dipole moment is

a) CH₄ < NH₃ > NF₃ > H₂O
b) H₂O < NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄
c) NF₃ > NH₃ > H₂O > CH₄
d) CH₄ < NF₃ < NH₃ < H₂O

None

50. Which of the following molecules is not an exception to octet rule?

a) BF₃
b) PF₅
c) IF₇_d)CO₂

None

BOTANY

51. In which part of the plant cell does photosynthesis primarily occur?

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Chloroplast
d) Ribosome

None

52. What are the two main products of photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen and glucose
b) Carbon dioxide and water
c) ATP and NADPH
d) Starch and cellulose

None

53. Which gas is taken in by plants during photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen’
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

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54. Which of the following is NOT required for photosynthesis?

a) Sunlight
b) Water
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon dioxide

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55. What is the role of water in photosynthesis?

a) It provides oxygen for the plant.
b) It is split to release electrons and protons.
c) It is the final product of photosynthesis.
d) It absorbs sunlight.

None

56. Which of the following is a byproduct of photosynthesis?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Glucose
d) Water

None

57. The Calvin cycle is termed “light-independent,” but it cannot occur in prolonged darkness. Why?

a) It requires CO₂ only available during the day.
b) It depends on ATP and NADPH from light reactions.
c) RuBisCO functions only in the presence of light.
d) Stomata close at night, blocking CO₂ entry.

None

58. What is the primary pigment responsible for capturing light energy in plants?

a) Chlorophyll
b) Carotenoid
c) Xanthophyll
d) Phycobilin

None

59. Whatis the primary enzyme used in the C4 cycle for carbon fixation?

a) Rubisco
b) PEP Carboxylase
c) Pyruvate Kinase
d) ATPase

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60. In the C3 cycle, how many carbon atoms does the initial compound (RuBP) have?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

None

61. How many carbon atoms does the first stable compound in the C4 cycle have?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

None

62. Which of the following processes directly requires ATP and NADPH?

a) Photolysis of water
b) Electron transport chain
c) Fixation of carbon dioxide in the Calvin cycle
d) Absorption of light by chlorophyll

None

63. Epididymis lies between

a) Vasa efferentia and rete testis
b) Vasa efferentia and vas deferens
c) Vas deferens and ejaculatory duct
d) Seminiferous tubules and rete testis

None

64. Which of the following cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?

a) Spermatogonial cells
b) Germinal epithelial cells
c) Secondary spermatocytes
d) Primary spermatocytes

None

65. Release of seminal fluid in the vagina of female is

a) Ejaculation
b) Implantation
c) Insemination
d) Copulation

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66. Stage of embryo development at which implantation occurs in human female is

a) Morula
b) Zygote
c) Blastocyst
d) Neurula

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67. The nebenkern of sperm is located in

a) Head portion
b) Principal piece of tail
c) End piece
d) Middle piece

None

68. Withdrawal of which hormone is the cause of menstruation?

a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) LH
d) FSH

None

69. Site of fertilization in humans is

a) Ampulla-isthmus junction of oviduct
b) Isthmus-uterine part
c) Infundibulum-ampulla junction of fallopian tube
d) Ovary

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70. The stage in woman’s life when ovulation and menstruation stops is

a) Menarche
b) Ovulatory phase
c) Menopause
d) Parturition

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71. The number of sperms produced by secondary spermatocyte is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

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72. The placenta of females developed from

a) Inner cell mass
b) Trophoblast
c) Amniotic cavity
d) Zono pellucida

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73. The developing spermatozoa receives majority of its nutrition from

a) Sertoli cells
b) Leydig cells
c) Interstitial cells
d) Granulosa cells

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74. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by placenta

a) Hcg
b) hPL
c) Relaxin
d) GH

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75. Who proposed Chromosomal theory of inheritance?

a) Sutton and Boveri
b) Flemming and Boveri
c) Morgan
d) Sturtevant

None

76. What is the phenotypic and genotypic ration for Mendel’s monohybrid cross?

a) 1:2:1 and 1:1
b) 1:1 and 1:2:1
c) 3:1 and 1:2:1
d) 9:3:3:1 and 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1

None

77. Red color is completely dominant over white color. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white flowered plant. What will be the characteristic of offspring?

a) All red colored
b) All white colored
c) Half red colored
d) Half white colored

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78. How many contrasting characters of pea plant were studied by Mendel?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

None

79. An example of co-dominance is

a) Eye colour in Drosophila
b) Roan coat in cattle
c) Haemophilia in man
d) Pink flower in Snapdragon

None

80. Select the incorrect pair:

a) Yellow pod- Dominant
b) Yellow seed- Dominant
c) White flower- Recessive
d) Terminal position- Recessive

None

81. Dorsolateral folds or thickening on back of skin is known as

a) Nictitating membrane
b) Vocal sacs
c) Dermal plicae
d) Copulatory organ

None

82. During hibernation, respiration occurs through

a) Lungs
b) Skin
c) Buccopharyngeal
d) None of above

None

83. Heart chamber in frog:

a) Two atria and one ventricle
b) Two atria and two ventricles
c) One atrium and two ventricles
d) One atrium and one ventricle

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84. Number of cranial nerves in frog

a) 7 pairs
b) 8 pairs
c) 9 pairs
d) 10 pairs

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85. Fertilization in frog is

a) Internal
b) External
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

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86. Which of the following is used to find out unknown genotype of a character?

a) Back cross
b) Hybrid cross
c) Test cross
d) All of above

None

87. Frogs display which of the following to avoid predators’

a) Mimicry
b) Blending
c) Immobility
d) Hiding

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88. Fern prothallus develops from

a) oospore
b) antherozoid
c) elater
d) spore.

None

89. Sporangia bearing leaves in pteridophytes are called

a) protonema
b) strobili
c) sporophylls
d) none of these.

None

90. The tallest tree is

a) Pinus
b) Cycas
c) Sequoia sempervirens
d) Zamia pygmaea.

None

91. Coralloid roots with symbiotic blue-green alga are found in

a) Pinus
b) Araucaria
c) Cedrus
d) Cycas.

None

92. Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?

a) Eucalyptus is the tallest species of gymnosperms.
b) The needle like leaves of conifers reduce the surface area.
c) Sunken stomata present in gymnosperms help to reduce water loss.
d) The pollen grains are carried by air.

None

93. Select the option which completes the following table with reference to classes of algae and their main characteristics.

a) (a)-Starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Floridean starch
b) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Starch
c) (a)-Starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Floridean starch
d) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Starch

None

94. Agar-agar which is extensively used in all microbiological studies and culture media is an important product of sea resources and is obtained from which group of algae?

a) Brown algae
b) Green algae
c) Red algae
d) Diatoms and dinoflagellates

None

95. Protonema is structure found in bryophytes

a) which is sporophytic in moss
b) which is gametophytic in moss
c) which is sporophytic in liverwort
d) which is gametophytic in liverwort.

None

96. In gymosperm, the endosperm is formed by

a) fusion of two polar nuclei
b) fertilised egg
c) fusion of one polar nucleus
d) germination of one megaspore.

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97. A gymnospermic leaf carries 16 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be

a) 24
B. 12
c) 16
d) 8

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98. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P and Q.

a) P could be an alga or a bryophyte whereas Q could be a pteridophyte.
b) True roots, stems and leaves are present in P but absent in Q.
c) Antheridium in Q is sessile whereas that in P (if present) is stalked.
d) P is exclusively xerophytic whereas Q is amphibious by nature.

None

99. Floridean starch has structure similar to

a) starch and cellulose
b) amylopectin and glycogen
c) mannitol and algin
d) laminarin and cellulose

None

100. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure.

a) i
b) ii
c) iii
d) iv

None

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