Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 87 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. In a semiconductor

a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
d) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductorDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ?

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table.

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which process will increase the temperature of the system without heating it?

a) Adiabatic compression
b) Adiabatic expansion
c) Isothermal compression
d) Isothermal expansionDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A body has its centre of mass at the origin. The x-coordinates to the particles

a) May be all positive
b) May be all negative
c) Maybe positive for same case and negative for the other cases
d) Always zeroDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A particle of mass 200g is dropped from a height of 50m and another particle of mass 100g is simultaneously projected up from the ground along the same line, with speed of 100 m/s, the acceleration of the centre of mass after 1 sec will be

a) 10 m/s²b) 70/3 m/s

c) -70/3 m/s

d) 0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to stop after 2π revolutions is

a) 2 x 10⁶Nm
b) 2 x 10^-6Nm
c) 2 x 10^-3Nm
d) 12 x 10^-4Nm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Initially two stable particles x and y start moving towards each other under mutual attraction. If at one time the velocities of x and y are V and 2V respectively, what will be the velocity of centre of mass of the system?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The grinding stone of a flour mill is rotating at 600 rad/sec for the power of 1.2 K watt is used, the effective torque on stone N-m will be

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t)= 2t³-6t². The torque on the wheel becomes 0 at

a) t= 1s
b) t= 0.5s
c) t= 0.25s
d) t= 2s
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A load of 10 kg is suspended by a metal wire 3 m long and having a cross-sectional area 4mm². Find the elongation in length. Young modulus of the metal is 2.0×1011Nm⁻²a) 2.75 x 10^-4m
b) 3.75 x 10^-4m
c) 4.75 x 10^-4m
d) 5.75 x 10^-4m
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A force of 2 mm is applied to a steel wire with a length of 5 m and a cross-sectional area of 4 mm³. When steel has a Young’s modulus of 2×1011 N/m², the energy found within the wire equals

a) 0.64 J
b) 0.12 J
c) 0.28 J
d) 0.32 J
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Four bodies A, B, C and D are projected with equal velocities having angles of projection 15°,30°,45°and 80° with the horizontal respectively. The body having the shortest range is

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

a) 2J
b) 5J
c) 18J
d) 11JDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index μ is incident at an angle θ on a composite transparent plate consisting of 50 plates of R.I1.01μ,1.02μ,1.03μ………,1.50μ . The ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of refractive index 1.6μ at angle ‘x’ . Then :

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A ray of light, travelling in a medium of refractive index mu, is incident at an angle i on a composite transparent plate consisting of three plates of refractive indices μ1, μ2 and μ3. The ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of refractive index μ4, at angle x. Then,

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The size of the image of an object, which is at infinity, as formed by a convex lens of focal length 30 cm is 2 cm. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed between the convex lens and the image at a distance of 26 cm from the convex lens, calculate the new size of the image

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 35.0cm. It is positioned so that the (upright) image of man’s face is 2.50 times the size of the face. How far is the mirror from the face?

a) 5.25cm
b) 21.0cm
c) 10.5cm
d) 42cm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of 60∘enters a glass sphere with refractive index √3 and it is reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is:

a) 50°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 40°
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 24 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. The force between two small charged spheres having charges of 1 × 10^-7 C and 2 × 10^-7 C placed apart in air is

a) 4.5 × 10^-2 N
b) 4.5 × 10^-3 N
c) 5.4 × 10^-2 N
d) 5.4 × 10^-3 N
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. If a dipole of dipole moment is placed in a uniform electric field E, then torque acting on it is given by
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Gauss’s law is valid for

a) any closed surface
b) only regular close surfaces
c) any open surface
d) only irregular open surfaces
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. 1 C charge is equivalent to charge on how much number of protons?

a) 6 × 10¹⁸
b) 7 × 10¹⁹c) 8 × 10²⁰d) 9 × 10²¹
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of force when the distance r between two charges varies?

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in Brackett series will be

a) 2λ
b) 4λ
c) 9λ
d) 16λ
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The shortest wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen is equal to the shortest wavelength of Balmer series of a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number . The value of is

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Two protons attract each other when

a) The distance between them is 10^-2 m
b) The distance between them is 10^-9m
c) The distance between them is 10^-15 m
d) This will never happen
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following has high penetration power?

a) α-particles
b) β-rays
c) γ-rays
d) X-rays
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following pairs are isotones?

a) ₁H² and ₁H³
b) ₃H³ and ₁H³
c) ₆C¹² and ₇N¹³
a) ₁H¹ and ₂H⁴
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Rutherford’s a-particle experiment showed that the atoms have

a) Proton
b) Nucleus
c) Neutron
d) Electrons
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. As one considers orbits with higher values of in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the atom

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains the same
d) does not increase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the

a) second line of Paschen series
b) second line of Balmer series
c) first line of Pfund series
d) second line of Lyman series
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be

a) –13.6 eV
b) – 27.2 eV
c) – 54.4 eV
d) – 6.8 eV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The longest wavelength of the Balmer series is 6563 Å. The Rydberg’s constant is

a) 1.09 × 10⁵ m^-1
b) 1.09 × 10⁶ m^-1
c) 1.09 × 10⁷ m^-1
a) 1.09 × 10⁸ m^-1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The ionization energy for H-atom is

a) 13.6 𝑒𝑉
b) 27.2 𝑒𝑉
c) 54.4 𝑒𝑉
d) 100 𝑒𝑉
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which of the following pairs are isotones?

(a) ₁H²   and ₁H³
(b) ₃Li³ and ₁H³
(c) ₆C¹² and ₇N¹³
(a) ₁H¹ and ₂H⁴

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Lyman series lies in the

(a) Ultraviolet region
(b) Visible region
(c) Near IR region
(d) Far IR region
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. How many numbers of neutrons are produced when uranium atom is bombarded with a slow moving neutron?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. In a nuclear reaction which of the following is conserved?

(a) Energy
(b) Spin
(c) Charge
(d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 23 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Among the three conformations of butane the order of stability follows the sequence

a) eclipsed > gauche > staggered
b) eclipsed > staggered > gauche
c) staggered > gauche > eclipsed
d) gauche > staggered > eclipsed
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The number of pi bonds in naphthalene is

a) 5
b) 6
c) 3
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which of the following can exhibit geometrical isomerism?

a) But-2-yne
b) But-2-ene
c) But-1-ene
d) Butan-2-ol.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form pent-2-ene is
(i) ẞ-Elimination reaction
(ii) Follows Zaitsev rule
(iii) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(iv) Dehydration reaction

a) (ii), (iii), (iv)
b) (i), (ii), (iv)
c) (i), (ii), (iii)
d) (i), (iii), (iv)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The IUPAC name of the compound :
CH3-CO-CH2-CH2OH is

a) 3-oxobutan-1-ol
b) 1-Hydroxybutan-3-one
c) 4-Hydroxybutan-2-one
d) 2-oxobutan-4-ol
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order

a) NaCl < NH₄Cl < NaCN < HCl
b) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH₄Cl
c) NaCN < NH₄Cl < NaCl < HCl
d) HCl < NH₄Cl <NaCl < NaCN
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A 50 mL solution of strong acid of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 mL solution of strong acid of pH = 2. The pH of the mixture will be nearly?

a) 2.46
b) 12.12
c) 1.26
d) 4.26
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 × 10^-3 g/L at 298 K. The value of solubility product (K_sp) will be (given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g/mol)

a) 1.08 × 10^-10 mol²L^-2
b) 1.08 × 10^-12 mol²L^-2c) 1.08 × 10^-14 mol²L^-2
d) 1.08 × 10^-8 mol²L^-2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following statement is false?

a) ∆G = 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
b) ∆S = 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
c) ∆H ≠ 0 at equilibrium state of a chemical reaction
d) A chemical reaction is in its most stable state at equilibrium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A 0.25 M solution of ammonium chloride, NH₄Cl was found to have a pH of 2.75. What is K_b for ammonia, NH₃?

a) 10^-9.1b) 10^-8.2
c) 10^-6.1d) 10^-5.2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following compounds exhibits geometrical isomerism?

a) C₂H₅Br
b) (CH)₂(COOH)₂
c) CH₃CHO
d) (CH2)₂(COOH)₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

a) CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl
b) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
c) CH₃CH(CH₃)CH₂Cl
d) (CH₃)₃CCl
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Kolbe’s reaction is used in obtaining

a) anisole from phenol
b) salicylaldehyde from phenol and CHI3
c) salicylic acid from sodium phenate and CO2
d) salicylic acid from phenol and CO2.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Phenol gives characteristic colouration with

a) iodine solution
b) bromine water
c) neutral FeCl₃ solution
d) ammonium hydroxide
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which gives iodoform test?

a) Hexan-3-one
b) Pentan-3-one
c) Pentan-2-one
d) Pentanal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. For the reaction, H_2(g) + Br_2(g) → 2HBr_(g), the reaction rate = k[H₂] [Br₍₂₎]^1/2. Which statement is true about this reaction?

(a) The reaction is of second order.
(b) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2.
(c) The unit of k is sec^-1.
(d) Molecularity of the reaction is 2.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. For a reaction A + B → Products, the order w.r.t. A is 1 and w.r.t. B is 2. If concentrations of both are doubled, then rate increases by

(a) 4 times
(b) 6 times
(c) 8 times
(d) 2 times
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 x 10^-2 mol L^-1 min^-1 at 0.5 M concentration of reactant. Half-life of the reaction is

(a) 7.53 min
(b) 0.383 min
(c) 23.1 min
(d) 8.73 min

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Arrhenius equation may not be represented as

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Activation energy of a reaction is determined by

(a) plotting substrate – time graph
(b) plotting rate – time graph
(c) calculating rate constants at two different temperatures
(d) none of these.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 22 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The anther in transverse section appears to be

(a) Diagonal
(b) Tetragonal
(c) Unilobed
(d) Mosaic

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. What are A, B, C and D in this figure?

a) A: Thalamus, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Stigma
b) A: Style, B: Ovary, C: Stigma, D: Thalamus
c) A: Stigma, B: Style, C: Ovary, D: Thalamus
d) A: Ovary, B: Stigma, C: Thalamus, D: Style

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Tetragonal anther consists of

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. How many microsporangia are there in each lobe of anther?

a) One microsporangia
b) Two microsporangia
c) Three microsporangia
d) Four microsporangia

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which one amongst the given perform the function of protection in typical microsporangium?
(A) Epidermis (B) Endothecium
(C) Tapetum (D) Middle layer

(a) A and B
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) A, B and D

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Function performed by the outer three layers of microsporangium?

a) Protection to developing pollen
b) Provides nourishment to developing pollen
c) Helps in the dehiscence of anther to release pollen
d) Both (a) and (c)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Formation of pollen from pollen mother cell is referred to as

a) Pollenogenesis
b) Megasporogenesis
c) Microsporogenesis
d) Ovulation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Male gametophyte in angiosperm is represented by

a) Anther
b) Androecium
c) Microsporangium
d) Pollen grain

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Pollen grains are

a) Spherical
b) Oval
c) Generally spherical
d) Irregular

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Exine of pollen is
(A) Hard outer layer of pollen grain
(B) Most resistant organic matter known.
(C) Layer made up of sporopollenin.
(D) Layer which can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali.
(E) Layer which cannot be degraded by any known enzyme.
Which one of the following is correct?

a) A and B
b) A, B, C and D
c) A, B, C, D and E
d) A, C and E

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. At which sub-stage of prophase-I are homologous chromosomes fully paired and synapsis completed?

(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Assertion: Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Reason: Crossing over occurs in diplotene stage of prophase-I

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Match the features (Column-I) with their stages (Column-II).

Choose the correct answer from the following options.

(a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(i)
(b) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In which stage of meiosis II, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?

(a) Prophase II and Metaphase II
(b) Anaphase II and Telophase II
(c) Prophase II and Telophase II
(d) Metaphase II and Anaphase II
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15 .In which of the following stage, the terminalisation occurs?

(a) Zygotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Diplotene

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The stage of meiosis where centromere divides for the first and the only time, ensuring separation of daughter chromosomes, occur in

(a) anaphase-II
(b) telophase-I
(c) anaphase-I
(d) telophase- II.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Enzyme responsible for fixing crossed over parts of non-sister chromatids is

(a) lipase
(b) recombinase
(c) ligase
(d) endonuclease.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

(a) leptotene
(b) zygotene
(c) pachytene
(d) diakinesis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. In tetrad, crossing over does not take place between

(a) non-sister chromatids of outer group
(b) sister chromatids of dyad
(c) outermost and innermost non-sister chromatids
(d) all of these.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. In meiosis I, nuclear membrane and nucleolus completely disappear during

(a) zygotene
(b) pachytene
(c) diakinesis
(d) metaphase.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 21 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are an example of

a) Natural selection
b) Adaptive radiation
c) Analogous organs
d) Homologous organs

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Theory of panspermia:

a) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
b) Creation of life from chemicals
c) Creation of life from pre-existing life
d) Creation of life from spores

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Chemical evolution theory is also known as

a) Cosmozoic theory
b) Oparin- Haldane’s theory
c) Miller and Urey theory
d) Creation theory

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. What type of selection will be observed if the distribution of neck length shifted to favour individuals with long neck?

a) Stabilising selection
b) Directional selection
c) Disruptive selection
d) Both A and C

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Archaeopteryx fossil shows link between

a) Birds and fishes
b) Reptiles and mammals
c) Fishes and amphibians
d) Reptiles and birds

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following is used to measure pollutants in the water body?

(a) Helium level in the water
(b) Calcium level
(c) BOD
(d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Bacillus thuringiencis kills the pest by releasing toxins in the

(a) Brain of pests
(b) Gut of pests
(c) Heart of pests
(d) Lungs of pests

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides?

(a) Aphids
(b) Grasshoppers
(c) Beetles
(d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The primary treatment of sewage fails to remove

(a) Sand particles
(b) Small pebbles
(c) Pathogens
(d) Plastics

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Aspergillus niger produces

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Fumaric acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Citric acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Integrated Pest Management discourages the use of

(a) Biological methods
(b) Chemical pesticides
(c) Mechanical methods
(d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Cyclosporin A drug is produced by

a) Trichoderma polysporum
b) Penicillium notatum
c) Manascus purpureus
d) Aspergillus niger

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The first antibiotic was discovered by

(a) R Koch
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) A Fleming
(d) W Fleming

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is

(a) Propane
(b) Methane
(c) Butane
(d) Carbon dioxide

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for

a) Biological control of plant disease
b) Killing insects
c) Controlling caterpillars
d) Producing antibiotics

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
Statement II: Use of biocontrol measures will greatly reduce our dependence on toxic chemical and pesticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
d) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which bacteria is involved in biogas production?

(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Methanogens
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Biologists consider flowers to be objects of

a) Morphological marvels
b) Embryological marvels
c) Sites of sexual reproduction
d) All of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. When does plant decides to flower?

a) In embryonic development
b) During the appearance of flower buds
c) Before the actual flower appear on plant
d) All the above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Whorl of carpel in flower represents

a) Gynoecium
b) Androecium
c) Calyx
d) Corolla

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 20 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are

(a) Fibrous root
(b) Primary roots
(c) Prop roots
(d) Lateral roots

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Tap root system is found in

(a) wheat
(b) mustard
(c) grass
(d) Monstera

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Select the group of plants that possess stilt roots

(a) Rhizophora, Hedera
(b) Pandanus, Ficus
(c) Ficus, Pisum
(d) Zea mays, Rhizophora

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. _______develops from the plumule of the embryo of germinating seed

(a) Axillary bud
(b) Petiole
(c) Stem
(d) Root

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. _______are the green stems of limited growth which have taken over the function of photosynthesis from leaves.

(a) phylloclades
(b) Cladodes
(c) phyllodes
(d) Stem thorn

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In Opuntia, the function of photosynthesis is carried out by.

(a) cladode
(b) phyllode
(c) phylloclade
(d) stipules

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Sweet potato is a modified

(a) stem
(b) Adventitious root
(c) Tap root
(d) rhizome.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The region of the stem where leaves are borne are called ______and ______are the portions between two_____

(a) Nodes, nodes and internodes
(b) nodes, internodes and nodes
(c) internodes, nodes and nodes
(d) internodes, internodes and nodes

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The given figure shows the regions of root tip with labelling as A, B and (c) Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of A, B and

a) A-Zone of elongation, B-Zone of meiosis, C Zone of mitosis.
b) A Zone of maturation, B Zone of meristematic activity, C-Zone of elongation.
c) A-Zone of mitosis, B-Zone of elongation, C Zone of root cap.
d) A-Region of maturation, B- Region of elongation, C -Zone of meristematic activity.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. What type of growth are seen in roots

(a) phototropic
(b) ascending growth
(c) geotropic
(d) against gravity

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. What part of the stem are modified for support and climbing called tendrils

(a) nodes
(b) axillary bud
(c) terminal bud
(d) shoot apex

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Pneumatophore are found in

(a) Rhizobium
(b) leguminous plants
(c) Rhizophora
(d) maize

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Who proposed Theory of Biogenesis?

(a) Mendel
(b) Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Aristotle

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Amino acids found in Miller and Urey experiment

a) Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid
b) Alanine, valine, aspartic acid
c) Valine, glycine, proline
d) Valine, glycine, leucine

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Tendrils of cucurbits and thorns of bougainvillea are example of

a) Homologous organ
b) Analogous organ
c) Natural selection
d) Adaptive radiation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Remains or impression of hard parts of ancient organisms are preserved in which type of rocks

(a) Any type of rocks
(b) Igneous
(c) Metamorphic
(d) Sedimentary

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. When selective pressures select against two extremes of a trait, the population experiences

a) Disruptive selection
b) Directional selection
c) Stabilising selection
d) Adaptive radiation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In Miller and Urey experiment, the ratio of Ammonia: Methane: Hydrogen is

(a) 2:1:2
(b) 2:2:1
(c) 1:2:2
(d) 1:2:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Wooly Mammoth found deep frozen in Siberia ice is

(a) Unaltered fossil
(b) Petrified fossil
(c) Coprolites
(d) Mould fossil

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by

(a) Darwin
(b) Von baer
(c) Pasteur
(d) Haeckel

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 19 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The adsorbent used in adsorption chromatography is/are

(a) silica gel
(b) quick lime
(c) magnesia
(d) None of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Example of Vinylic halide is

a)

b)

c)

d)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used to distinguish between.

a) Acid and Alcohol
b) Alkane and Alcohol
c) n-alkane and branched alkane
d) Ketones and Aldehydes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following compounds undergo aldol condensation?

(a) Formaldehyde
(b) Trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) Trimethylacetaldehyde
(d) Acetaldehyde
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The product of Reimer-Tiemann reaction is a

(a) salicylaldehyde
(b) salicuclic acid
(c) hydroyamine
(d) nitroaldehyde
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. When phenol is treated with excess bromine water, it gives:

(a) m-bromophenol
(b) o- and p- bromophenol
(c) 2,4-dibromophenol
(d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following compounds will show metamerism?

(a) CH₃O-CH₃(b) CH₃O-CH₂CH
(c) C₂H₅-S-C₂H₅
(d) CH₃CH₂CH₃

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium is

(a) Uno
(b) Uue
(c) Unp
(d) Uns
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

(a) CO₂(b) H₂O
(c) NH₃
(d) PF₅

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
1) BrF₅ i. Square Pyramidal
2) NH₄⁺ ii. Tetrahedral
3) BF₃ iii. Trigonal Bipyramidal
4) SbCl₅ iv. Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

(a) [Ne] 3s¹(b) [Ne] 3s²3p¹(c) [Xe] 6s¹
(d) [Xe] 6s²

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

(a) X₂ O
(b) P₂O
(c) PX₃(d) P₂X₃

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

(a) I > I⁺> I^–
(b) I > I^–> I⁺(c) I⁺> I^–> I
(d) I^– > I > I⁺

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of rea tants

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Units of rate constant for first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity (M) are respectively

(a) sec^-1, M sec^-1
(b) sec^-1, M
(c) M sec^-1, sec^-1(d) M, sec^-1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. For a reaction, the activation energies of forward and reverse reactions are equal when

(a) ∆H = 0
(b) ∆S = 0
(c) the order is zero
(d) there is no catalyst.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 17 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. In bell shaped age pyramid, population is

(a) Expanding
(b) Stable
(c) Declining
(d) None of above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Estimate of actual number of individuals in a population

(a) Relative density
(b) Absolute density
(c) Partial density
(d) Economic density

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Formula for logistic growth:

a) dN/dt=rN(K-N/K)
b) dN/dt=rN(N-N/K)
c) dN/dt=rN(N-K/K)
d) dN/dt=rN(1-N/K)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Select the negative factor for population density?
1. Emigration 2. Natality
3. Mortality 4. Immigration

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Group of organism of the same species occupying a particular space

(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Biosphere

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following structures in a flower is responsible for the production of male gametes?

(a) Ovary
(b) Anther
(c) Stigma
(d) Style

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. In flowering plants, double fertilization involves:

a) Fusion of one sperm with the egg and another with the polar nuclei
b) Fusion of two sperms with the egg cell
c) Fusion of one sperm with the antipodal cells
d) Fusion of two polar nuclei with the egg

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

(a) Xenogamy
(b) Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy
(d) Cleistogamy

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive unit in angiosperms?

(a) Ovule
(b) Filament
(c) Nucellu
(d) Embryo sac

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Cleistogamous flowers are adapted for:

a) Cross-pollination
b) Self-pollination
c) Wind pollination
d) Water pollination

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an embryo sac, the cells that assist in guiding the pollen tube towards the egg are:

a) Antipodal cells
b) Polar nuclei
c) Synergids
d) Nucellar cells

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. The structure that connects the stigma to the ovary in a flower is:

(a) Filament
(b) Style
(c) Petiole
(d) Pedicel

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following pollinating agents is responsible for hydrophily?

(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Insects
(d) Birds

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. After fertilization, the ovule develops into:

(a) Seed
(b) Fruit
(c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In which type of endosperm development does cell wall formation occur immediately after each nuclear division?

a) Nuclear endosperm
b) Cellular endosperm
c) Helobial endosperm
d) Mosaic endosperm

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. The embryo sac of a typical angiosperm at maturity is:

a) 8-nucleate, 7-celled
b) 7-nucleate, 8-celled
c) 6-nucleate, 7-celled
d) 8-nucleate, 8-celled

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?

(a) Mango
(b) Bamboo
(c) Apple
(d) Papaya

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub-stage of prophase-I of meiosis?

a) Diplotene
b) Zygotene
c) Diakinesis
d) Pachytene

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which one is correct about crossing over/ genetic recombination?
(A) It occurs in tetrad stage. It occurs in pachytene stage of prophase-I of meiosis-I
(B) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(C) It is a recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(D) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes.

(a) All are correct
(b) All except (d)
(c) (b), (c) and (d)
(d) (c) and (d)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Assertion (A): Meiosis maintains a fixed number of chromosomes in sexually reproducing organisms.
Reason (R): First division of meiosis is heterotypic or reductional division.

a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) Assertion is true but Reason is true.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 16 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Oxygenic photosynthesis is found in
(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Methanogens
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Halophiles
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Heterocysts occur in

(a) Bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Cyanobacteria

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Protistans are connecting link between

a) Plants and animals
b) Fungi and plants
c) Monera and multicellular organisms
d) Fungi and animals

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Members of Kingdom Protista are primarily

(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Saprotrophs
(d) Parasites

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Five kingdom classification was proposed by

a) Herbert Copeland
b) Robert H Whittaker
c) Ernst Haeckel
d) Carolus Linnaeus

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following have cellulosic cell wall?

(a) Fungi
(b) Animalia
(c) Plantae
(d) Monera

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Viroids have

a) RNA not enclosed by protein coat
b) DNA enclosed by protein coat
c) DNA not enclosed by protein coat
d) RNA enclosed by protein coat

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following groups are commonly known as imperfect fungi

(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Deuteromycetes

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Thread-like fungal structures are known as

(a) Sclerotia
(b) Phycomycetes
(c) Hyphae
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because they

a) Require both RNA and DNA
b) Both require food molecules
c) Both require oxygen for respiration
d) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The smallest known agents of the infectious diseases are

(a) Viruses
(b) Mycoplasmas
(c) Viroids
(d) Actinomyces

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Main component of cell wall of fungi is

(a) Chitin
(b) Cellulose
(c) Glucose
(d) Pectin

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following structures are produced exogenously in fungus?

(a) Ascus
(b) Conidia
(c) Basidium
(d) Microspores

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which is not character of a population?

(a) Sex ratio
b) Age
(c) Birth rate and death rate
(d) Habitat

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. J-shaped growth curve is observed in

(a) Logistic growth
(b) Exponential growth
(c) Mutualism
(d)None of above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which enzyme is produced by ADA gene?

a) Adenylate
b) Adenine deaminase
c) Adenosine deaminase
d) Adenine

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Gene therapy involves

a) Introduction of normal gene to a cell
b) Replacement of defective gene with normal gene
c) Transfer of gene
d) None of above

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which chain is absent in mature insulin?

(a) Chain A
(b) Chain B
(c) Chain C
(d) Chain A and B

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Human insulin is commercially produced from

a) Rhizobium
b) Mycobacterium
c) Saccharomyces
d) Escherichia

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. What connects peptide chain in mature insulin?

a) Disulphide bridges
b) Ligase
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrogen bond

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 15 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The IUPAC symbol for the element Dubnium is
a) Uno
b) Uue
c) Unp
d) Uns
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following has maximum bond angle ?

a) CO₂b) H₂O
c) NH₃
d) PF₅
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
1. BrF₅ Square Pyramidal
2. NH₄⁺ Tetrahedral
3. BF₃ Trigonal Bipyramidal
4. SbCl₅ Trigonal Planar

a) 1 – i, 2- ii, 3- iii, 4- iv
b) 1- i, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- iii
c) 1- iv, 2- iii, 3- ii, 4- i
d) 1-iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

a) Li₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
b) Al₂O₃ < SiO₂ < P₂O₅ (Acidity)
c) B₂O₃ < Al₂O₃ < Ga₂O₃ < In₂O₃ (Acidity)
d) P₂O₅ > SO₃ > Cl₂O₇ (Basicity)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

a) IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
b) IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
c) IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
d) IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

a) [Ne] 3s
b) [Ne] 3s²3p¹c) [Xe] 6s¹
d) [Xe] 6s²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The natural occurring radioactive is

a) Uranium and Thorium
b) Uranium and Plutonium
c) Uranium and Neptunium
d) Thorium and Plutonium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. An element ‘P’ has atomic number 19.What would be the formula of its oxide?

a) X₂ O
b) P₂O
c) PX₃
d) P₂X₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which one of the following is the correct order of size of the iodine species?

a) I > I⁺> I^–
b) I > I^–> I⁺
c) I⁺> I^–> I
d) I^– > I > I⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the change in the internal energy in Joule is?

a) -50
b) 50
c) 100
d) -175
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Match list II and List II

A) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
B) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
C) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
D) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. In adiabatic reversible conditions, 1 mole of CO₂ gas at 300 K is expanded such that its volume becomes 27 times. Then the work done is? (C_v = 6 cal/mol and γ = 1.33)

a) 900 cal
b) 1000 cal
c) 1200 cal
d) 1400 cal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. What is the value of γ for monoatomic gas (ideal gas)?

a) 7/5
b) 4/3
c) 5/2
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. ∆H and ∆U for the reaction, Fe₂O₃ (s) + 3H₂ (g) ⇢ 2Fe (s) + 3H₂O (l); at constant temperature are related as

(a) ∆H = ∆U
(b) ∆H = ∆U + RT
(c) ∆H = ∆U + 3RT
(d) ∆H = ∆U – 3RT

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. If 10 kJ of work is done on the system then 2 kcal heat is released by the system then change in internal energy is? (1cal = 4.2 J)

a) 1.6 J
b) 1600 J
c) 1.6 cal
d) 1600 cal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 L to 10 L. The ∆E for this process is?

a) 1381.1 cal
b) 163.7 cal
c) zero
d) 9 atm L
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. In which case change in entropy is negative?

a) Sublimation of solid to gas
b) 2H(g)→H₂(g)
c) Evaporation of water
d) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is:

a) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
b) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
c) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0
d) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The less reactivity of chlorine atom in CH₂ = CH -Cl is due to

a) inductive effect
b) resonance stabilisation
c) electromeric effect
d) electronegativity
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Sublimation is a process where a solid

a) melts
b) changes into liquid form
c) boils
d) changes into vapour form directly.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 5, 2025

error: Content is protected !!

Enable Notifications OK No thanks