Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

SMATEE TEST SERIES 11 PHYSICS

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Email

1. Those units, which can neither be derived from one another, nor can they be further resolved into any other units are called
a) derived units
b) fundamental units
c) physical units
d) elementary units
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Steradian is an example of

a) fundamental units
b) derived units
c) supplementary units
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The dimensional formula of Voltage is

a) [ML² T^-3 A^-1]
b) [ML³ T^-2 A^-1]
c) [ML² T^-1 A^-3]
d) [ML³ T^-2 A^-2]Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. If a body changes its velocity in equal intervals of time, it is said to have

a) uniform motion
b) uniformly accelerated motion
c) uniform velocity
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. The slope of the position-time graph of an object in uniform motion gives

a) displacement
b) distance
c) velocity
d) speedDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The distance covered by a body initially at rest, which accelerates to a speed of 144 kmh^-1, in 20s is

a) 800 m
b) 200 m
c) 400 m
d) 500 mDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. For a non-uniform circular motion in a circle of radius r, the angular acceleration α is

a) a constant
b) 0
c) always varying
d) noneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. A transverse wave consists of

a) only crests
b) only troughs
c) both crests and troughs
d) rarefactions and compressionsDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. De Broglie wavelength of 0.05 eV thermal neutron is

a) 1.3Å
b) 2Å
c) 5.4Å
d) 8ÅDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The line that draws power supply to your house from street has

a) 220√2V average voltage.
b) 220 V average voltage.
c) Voltage and current out of phase by π/2.
d) Voltage and current possibly differing in phase ϕ such that |ϕ|<π/2.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A passenger in an aeroplane shall

a) never see a rainbow
b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow is concentric arcs.
c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric arcs.
d) shall never see a secondary rainbow.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because

a) it is monochromatic
b) it is not chromatic
c) it is not observed
d) it has small angular spreadDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a constant force acts on a particle, its acceleration will

a) remain constant
b) gradually decreases
c) gradually increases
d) be undefinedDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The maximum value of photoelectric current is called

a) base current
b) saturation current
c) collector current
d) emitter currentDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A moving charge produces

a) electric field only
b) magnetic field only
c) both of them
d) none of them.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Energy is emitted when electron jumps from

a) Lower orbit to higher orbit
b) Higher orbit to lower orbit
c) Ground state to first excited state
d) Second excited state to infinityDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. In a nuclear reaction which of the following is conserved?

a) Energy
b) Spin
c) Charge
d) All of theseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Balmer series lies in the

a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Near IR region
d) Far IR regionDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. How many spectral lines are observed for Hydrogen atom when electron jump from to in visible range?

a) 10
b) 3
c) 6
d) 15Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 1, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 9 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The shape of XeO₂F₂ molecule is
a) Octahedral
b) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal bipyramidal

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. What is the Geometry of SF4 (excluding the lone pair of electrons)

a) T shape
b) See saw
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal bipyramidal

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which of the following molecule does not contain unpaired electrons ?

a) N₂⁺
b) O₂^2-
c) B₂
d) O₂

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following pair of species have the same bond order ?

a) O₂, NO⁺
b) CN^–, CO
c) CO, NO
d) N₂, O₂^–

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l=2, n=3 is

a) 8
b) 10
c) 18
d) 32

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals
n=3, l=2, m_l =0

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Choose the incorrect statements about Cathode Rays

a) Cathode Rays Travel in a straight line
b) They are not visible
c) It Produce mechanical effect
d) It depend upon the nature of electrodes.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Two electrons occupying the same orbitals are distinguished by

a) Principal quantum numbers
b) Azimuthal quantum numbers
c) Magnetic quantum numbers
d) Spin quantum numbers.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. The bond strength is maximum in

a) O₂⁺b) O₂^–
c) O₂^2-d) O₂

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The K_p expression for the reactions CaCO₃ (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO₂ (g) and N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) ⇌ 2NH₃ (g) in terms of K_c are respectively

a) Kp = Kc (RT)-2 and Kp = Kc RT
b) Kp = Kc RT and Kp = Kc (RT)-2
c) Kp = Kc and Kp = Kc RT
d) Kp = Kc RT and Kp = Kc

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. If K₁and K₂ are the equilibrium constant for the two reactions A + B ⇌ C + D and C + D ⇌ E + F respectively. What will be the equilibrium constant (K₃) when the two reactions are added?

a) K₃ = K₁ + K₂
b) K₃ = K₁ – K₂
c) K₃ = K₁/K₂d) K₃ = K₁.K₂

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. For reaction 2NOCl (g) ⇌ 2NO (g) + Cl₂ (g), K_cat 427⁰C is 3 x 10^-6 L mol^-1. The value of K_p is nearly: (R = 0.0821)

a) 7.5 x 10^-6b) 2.5 x 10^-5c) 1.72 x 10^-4d) 2.5 x 10^-4

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. In which of the following equilibrium K_c and K_p are not equal ?

a) 2NO (g) ⇌ N₂(g) + O₂(g)
b) SO₂ (g) + NO₂ (g) ⇌ SO₃ (g) + NO (g)
c) H₂ (g) + I₂ (g) ⇌ 2HI (g)
d) 2C (g) + O₂ (g) ⇌ 2CO₂(g)

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In the following equilibrium reaction 2A ⇌ B + C, the equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C are 1 x 10^-3 M, 2 x 10^-3 M and 3 x 10^-3 M respectively at 300 K. The value of K_c for this equilibrium at the same temperature is

a) 1/6
b) 6
c) 1/36
d) 36

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. What is the pH of 10^-7 M H₂SO₄?

a) 4.7
b) 5.7
c) 6.7
d) 7.7

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. What is the pH of solution obtained by dissolving 0.1 mol of CH₃COONa in water to get 100 L of solution? Take K_a of CH₃COOH as 2 x 10^-5
a) 6.42
b) 7.84
c) 8.42
d) 10.24

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which of the following favours backward reaction in a chemical equilibrium?

a) Increasing concentration the product
b) Increasing concentration of the reactant
c) Removal of at least one of the products at regular intervals
d) Increasing the pressure

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Which of the following is most stable carbocation?

a) Ph₂CH⁺
b) PhCH₂⁺
c) Ph₃C⁺ d) Ph⁺

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Aniline is purified by

a) Extraction with solvent
b) Steam distillation
c) Vacuum distillation
d) Sublimation.

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Which of the following hybridization has maximum s-character?

a) sp
b) sp₂
c) sp₃
d) All have same s-character

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 30, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 7 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Coralloid roots with symbiotic blue-green alga are found in

a) Pinus
b) Araucaria
c) Cedrus
d) Cycas.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?

a) Eucalyptus is the tallest species of gymnosperms.
b) The needle like leaves of conifers reduce the surface area.
c) Sunken stomata present in gymnosperms help to reduce water loss.
d) The pollen grains are carried by air.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Select the option which completes the following table with reference to classes of algae and their main characteristics.

a) (a)-Starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Floridean starch
b) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Starch
c) (a)-Starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Floridean starch
d) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Starch
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Agar-agar which is extensively used in all microbiological studies and culture media is an important product of sea resources and is obtained from which group of algae?

a) Brown algae
b) Green algae
c) Red algae
d) Diatoms and dinoflagellates
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Protonema is structure found in bryophytes

a) which is sporophytic in moss
b) which is gametophytic in moss
c) which is sporophytic in liverwort
d) which is gametophytic in liverwort.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. In gymosperm, the endosperm is formed by

a) fusion of two polar nuclei
b) fertilised egg
c) fusion of one polar nucleus
d) germination of one megaspore.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A gymnospermic leaf carries 16 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be

a) 24
b) 12
c) 16
d) 8
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P and Q.

a) P could be an alga or a bryophyte whereas Q could be a pteridophyte.
b) True roots, stems and leaves are present in P but absent in Q.
c) Antheridium in Q is sessile whereas that in P (if present) is stalked.
d) P is exclusively xerophytic whereas Q is amphibious by nature.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Floridean starch has structure similar to

a) starch and cellulose
b) amylopectin and glycogen
c) mannitol and algin
d) laminarin and cellulose
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure.

a) i
b) ii
c) iii
d) iv
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. If a colour blind man marries a woman withmhomozygous normal vision, the chances of their son being color blind is

(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. In honey bee, an unfertilized egg develops as a male by means of

a) Fertilization
b) Parthenogenesis
c) Sexual reproduction
d) None of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following represents monosomy

(a) 2n – 1
(b) 2n + 1
(c) n – 1
(d) n + 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Sex chromosomes of birds are

(a) ZZ – WW
(b) XX – XY
(c) XX – XO
(d) ZW – ZZ
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. A person with karyotype of XXY is affected by

a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
b) Down’s syndrome
c) Turner’s syndrome
d) Thalassemia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following diseases is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition

a) Haemophilia
b) Colour blindness
c) Myotonic dystrophy
d) Sickle-cell anaemia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of which of the following disorder

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Cystic fibrosis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Male is haploid in

a) Drosophila
b) Cockroach
c) Butterfly
d) Honey bee
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Sex determination in grasshoppers, drosophila and human is similar because

a) Females are heterozygous
b) Males have one X-chromosome and females have two X-chromosomes
c) All males always have one Y-chromosome in all three species
d) The ratio of autosomes to sex chromosomes is the same in all three organisms
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Flat hand with a characteristic palm crease is observed in

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Thalassemia
c) Down’s syndrome
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 30, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 6 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The number of sperms produced by secondary spermatocyte is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The placenta of females developed from

a) Inner cell mass
b) Trophoblast
c) Amniotic cavity
d) Zono pellucida
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The developing spermatozoa receives majority of its nutrition from

a) Sertoli cells
b) Leydig cells
c) Interstitial cells
d) Granulosa cells
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by placenta

a) Hcg
b) hPL
c) Relaxin
d) GH
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Who proposed Chromosomal theory of inheritance?

a) Sutton and Boveri
b) Flemming and Boveri
c) Morgan
d) Sturtevant
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. What is the phenotypic and genotypic ration for Mendel’s monohybrid cross?

a) 1:2:1 and 1:1
b) 1:1 and 1:2:1
c) 3:1 and 1:2:1
d) 9:3:3:1 and 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Red color is completely dominant over white color. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white flowered plant. What will be the characteristic of offspring?

a) All red colored
b) All white colored
c) Half red colored
d) Half white colored
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. How many contrasting characters of pea plant were studied by Mendel?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. An example of co-dominance is

a) Eye colour in Drosophila
b) Roan coat in cattle
c) Haemophilia in man
d) Pink flower in Snapdragon
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Select the incorrect pair:

a) Yellow pod- Dominant
b) Yellow seed- Dominant
c) White flower- Recessive
d) Terminal position- Recessive
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Dorsolateral folds or thickening on back of skin is known as

a) Nictitating membrane
b) Vocal sacs
c) Dermal plicae
d) Copulatory organ
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. During hibernation, respiration occurs through

a) Lungs
b) Skin
c) Buccopharyngeal
d) None of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Heart chamber in frog:

a) Two atria and one ventricle
b) Two atria and two ventricles
c) One atrium and two ventricles
d) One atrium and one ventricle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Number of cranial nerves in frog

a) 7 pairs
b) 8 pairs
c) 9 pairs
d) 10 pairs
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Fertilization in frog is

a) Internal
b) External
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following is used to find out unknown genotype of a character?

a) Back cross
b) Hybrid cross
c) Test cross
d) All of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Frogs display which of the following to avoid predators’

a) Mimicry
b) Blending
c) Immobility
d) Hiding
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Fern prothallus develops from

a) oospore
b) antherozoid
c) elater
d) spore.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Sporangia bearing leaves in pteridophytes are called

a) protonema
b) strobili
c) sporophylls
d) none of these.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The tallest tree is

a) Pinus
b) Cycas
c) Sequoia sempervirens
d) Zamia pygmaea.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 30, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 5 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. In which part of the plant cell does photosynthesis primarily occur?

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Chloroplast
d) Ribosome

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. What are the two main products of photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen and glucose
b) Carbon dioxide and water
c) ATP and NADPH
d) Starch and cellulose

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which gas is taken in by plants during photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen’
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following is NOT required for photosynthesis?

a) Sunlight
b) Water
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon dioxide
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. What is the role of water in photosynthesis?

a) It provides oxygen for the plant.
b) It is split to release electrons and protons.
c) It is the final product of photosynthesis.
d) It absorbs sunlight.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which of the following is a byproduct of photosynthesis?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Glucose
d) Water
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The Calvin cycle is termed “light-independent,” but it cannot occur in prolonged darkness. Why?

a) It requires CO₂ only available during the day.
b) It depends on ATP and NADPH from light reactions.
c) RuBisCO functions only in the presence of light.
d) Stomata close at night, blocking CO₂ entry.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. What is the primary pigment responsible for capturing light energy in plants?

a) Chlorophyll
b) Carotenoid
c) Xanthophyll
d) Phycobilin
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Whatis the primary enzyme used in the C4 cycle for carbon fixation?
a) Rubisco
b) PEP Carboxylase
c) Pyruvate Kinase
d) ATPase

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. In the C3 cycle, how many carbon atoms does the initial compound (RuBP) have?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. How many carbon atoms does the first stable compound in the C4 cycle have?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following processes directly requires ATP and NADPH?

a) Photolysis of water
b) Electron transport chain
c) Fixation of carbon dioxide in the Calvin cycle
d) Absorption of light by chlorophyll
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Epididymis lies between

a) Vasa efferentia and rete testis
b) Vasa efferentia and vas deferens
c) Vas deferens and ejaculatory duct
d) Seminiferous tubules and rete testis
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which of the following cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells?

a) Spermatogonial cells
b) Germinal epithelial cells
c) Secondary spermatocytes
d) Primary spermatocytes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Release of seminal fluid in the vagina of female is

a) Ejaculation
b) Implantation
c) Insemination
d) Copulation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Stage of embryo development at which implantation occurs in human female is

a) Morula
b) Zygote
c) Blastocyst
d) Neurula
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. The nebenkern of sperm is located in

a) Head portion
b) Principal piece of tail
c) End piece
d) Middle piece
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Withdrawal of which hormone is the cause of menstruation?

a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) LH
d) FSH
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Site of fertilization in humans is

a) Ampulla-isthmus junction of oviduct
b) Isthmus-uterine part
c) Infundibulum-ampulla junction of fallopian tube
d) Ovary
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The stage in woman’s life when ovulation and menstruation stops is

a) Menarche
b) Ovulatory phase
c) Menopause
d) Parturition
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

71. The number of sperms produced by secondary spermatocyte is

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

72. The placenta of females developed from

a) Inner cell mass
b) Trophoblast
c) Amniotic cavity
d) Zono pellucida
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

73. The developing spermatozoa receives majority of its nutrition from

a) Sertoli cells
b) Leydig cells
c) Interstitial cells
d) Granulosa cells
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

74. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by placenta

a) Hcg
b) hPL
c) Relaxin
d) GH
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

75. Who proposed Chromosomal theory of inheritance?

a) Sutton and Boveri
b) Flemming and Boveri
c) Morgan
d) Sturtevant
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

76. What is the phenotypic and genotypic ration for Mendel’s monohybrid cross?

a) 1:2:1 and 1:1
b) 1:1 and 1:2:1
c) 3:1 and 1:2:1
d) 9:3:3:1 and 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

77. Red color is completely dominant over white color. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white flowered plant. What will be the characteristic of offspring?

a) All red colored
b) All white colored
c) Half red colored
d) Half white colored
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

78. How many contrasting characters of pea plant were studied by Mendel?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

79. An example of co-dominance is

a) Eye colour in Drosophila
b) Roan coat in cattle
c) Haemophilia in man
d) Pink flower in Snapdragon
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

80. Select the incorrect pair:

a) Yellow pod- Dominant
b) Yellow seed- Dominant
c) White flower- Recessive
d) Terminal position- Recessive
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

81. Dorsolateral folds or thickening on back of skin is known as

a) Nictitating membrane
b) Vocal sacs
c) Dermal plicae
d) Copulatory organ
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

82. During hibernation, respiration occurs through

a) Lungs
b) Skin
c) Buccopharyngeal
d) None of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

83. Heart chamber in frog:

a) Two atria and one ventricle
b) Two atria and two ventricles
c) One atrium and two ventricles
d) One atrium and one ventricle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

84. Number of cranial nerves in frog

a) 7 pairs
b) 8 pairs
c) 9 pairs
d) 10 pairs
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

85. Fertilization in frog is

a) Internal
b) External
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

86. Which of the following is used to find out unknown genotype of a character?

a) Back cross
b) Hybrid cross
c) Test cross
d) All of above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

87. Frogs display which of the following to avoid predators’

a) Mimicry
b) Blending
c) Immobility
d) Hiding
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

88. Fern prothallus develops from

a) oospore
b) antherozoid
c) elater
d) spore.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

89. Sporangia bearing leaves in pteridophytes are called

a) protonema
b) strobili
c) sporophylls
d) none of these.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

90. The tallest tree is

a) Pinus
b) Cycas
c) Sequoia sempervirens
d) Zamia pygmaea.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

91. Coralloid roots with symbiotic blue-green alga are found in

a) Pinus
b) Araucaria
c) Cedrus
d) Cycas.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

92. Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms?

a) Eucalyptus is the tallest species of gymnosperms.
b) The needle like leaves of conifers reduce the surface area.
c) Sunken stomata present in gymnosperms help to reduce water loss.
d) The pollen grains are carried by air.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

93. Select the option which completes the following table with reference to classes of algae and their main characteristics.

a) (a)-Starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Floridean starch
b) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Starch
c) (a)-Starch, (b)-Fucoxanthin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d)-Floridean starch
d) (a)-Floridean starch, (b)-Phycoerythrin, (c) Fucoxanthin, (d)-Starch
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

94. Agar-agar which is extensively used in all microbiological studies and culture media is an important product of sea resources and is obtained from which group of algae?

a) Brown algae
b) Green algae
c) Red algae
d) Diatoms and dinoflagellates
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

95. Protonema is structure found in bryophytes

a) which is sporophytic in moss
b) which is gametophytic in moss
c) which is sporophytic in liverwort
d) which is gametophytic in liverwort.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

96. In gymosperm, the endosperm is formed by

a) fusion of two polar nuclei
b) fertilised egg
c) fusion of one polar nucleus
d) germination of one megaspore.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

97. A gymnospermic leaf carries 16 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be

a) 24
B. 12
c) 16
d) 8
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

98. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct option regarding P and Q.

a) P could be an alga or a bryophyte whereas Q could be a pteridophyte.
b) True roots, stems and leaves are present in P but absent in Q.
c) Antheridium in Q is sessile whereas that in P (if present) is stalked.
d) P is exclusively xerophytic whereas Q is amphibious by nature.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

99. Floridean starch has structure similar to

a) starch and cellulose
b) amylopectin and glycogen
c) mannitol and algin
d) laminarin and cellulose
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

100. Select the option that correctly identifies A and B in the given figure.

a) i
b) ii
c) iii
d) iv
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 30, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 4 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. If 250 ml of 0.25 M NaCl solution is diluted with water to a volume of 500 ml, the new concentration of the solution is
a) 16 7
b) 0.125 M
c) 0.082 M
d) 0.016
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80 g of a non volatile solute was dissolved in 90 g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute ( K_bfor benzene = 2.53 K kg mol^-1)

a) 57.5 g
B. 64.2 g
c) 79. 6 g
d) 91.3 g
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M Mg Cl₂ solution is

a) the same
b) about twice
c) about three times
d) about six times
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Colligative properties depends on

a) The nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution
b) The number of solute particles in solution
c) The physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution
d) The nature of solvent particles
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point

a) 1.0 M NaOH
b) 1.0 M NH₄NO₃
c) 1.0 M KNO₃
d) 1.0 M Na₂SO₄
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A solution of sulphuric acid in water exhibits

a) negative deviation from Raoult’s law
b) positive deviation from Raoult’s law
c) ideal properties
d) the applicability of Henry’s law
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. A solution has 4 : 2 molar ratio of propane to heptane. If their P° values are 200 and 400 mm Hg. Calculate the mole fraction of heptane in vapour phase

a) 0.1
b) 0.3
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Acetic acid dimerized in benzene upto 10%, find Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’

a) 2.12
b) 1.26
c) 0.95
d) 0.0
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Homolytic fission of a covalent bond leads to the formation of

a) electrophile
b) nucleophile
c) free radical
d) carbocation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Aniline is separated from aniline-water mixture by

a) crystallization
b) steam distillation
c) solvent extraction
d) sublimation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The most stable carbocation is:

a) CH₃⁺
b) (CH₃)₃C⁺
c) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺
d) (CH₃)₂CH⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of the following

a) sigma – sigma
b) sigma – p
c) p – p
d) pi – pi
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following compounds will be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation?

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Benzene molecule has

a) 6sigma-bonds and 6 π-bonds
b) 12sigma-bonds and 6 π – bonds
c) 6sigma- bonds and 3 π- bonds.
d) 12sigma -bonds and 3 π- bonds
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following is an electrophile ?

a) CN^–
b) ROH
c) AlCl₃d) NH₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Methoxy methane and ethanol are

a) Functional isomers
b) Optical isomers
c) Position isomers
d) Chain isomers
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. CO is isolectronic with

a) SnCl₂
b) NO⁺
c) NO₂^–
d) O₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. For which of the following hybridization the bond angle is maximum ?

a) sp
b) sp²c) sp³
d) dsp²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. What is the Geometry of ClF3 (including the lone pair of electrons)

a) See saw
b) T shape
c) Trigonal bipyramidal
d) Tetrahedral
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The shape of XeF4 molecule is

a) Octahedral
b) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal bipyramidal
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

April 30, 2025
SMATEE TEST SERIES 2 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. On which of the following does the energy of a simple harmonic motion depend.

a) ⍵
b) 1/⍵²
c) 1/a²d) a²
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is:

a) 8/3
b) 3/8
c) 1/6
d) 1/3
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. If x = a sin [ωt + (π/3)] and x′ = a cos ωt, then what is the phase difference between two waves?

a) π/3
b) π/6
c) π/2
d) π
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. If the successive frequencies in a one end closed organ pipe are 245 and 315 Hz respectively, then the frequency of third overtone will be

a) 105 Hz
b) 175 Hz
c) 245 Hz
d) 315 Hz
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

a) 12.5
b) 13.3
c) 8
d) 16
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to

a) wave nature
b) wavelengths
c) velocity
d) frequency
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film are due to

a) Diffraction
b) Interference
c) Polarisation
d) Dispersion
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Which phenomenon leads us to the conclusion that light is transverse in nature?

a) refraction of light
b) diffraction of light
c) dispersion of light
d) polarization of light.
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The angular resolution of a 10cm diameter telescope at a wavelength 5000Å is of the order

a) 10⁶rad
b) 10⁻²rad
c) 10⁻⁴rad
d) 10⁻⁶ rad
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. A double convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.55 with both faces of same radius of curvature. Find the radius of curvature required, if focal length is 20cm.

a) 22 cm
b) 44 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 33cm
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. The force between two small charged spheres having charges of 1 × 10^-7 C and 2 × 10^-7 C placed apart in air is

a) 4.5 × 10^-2 N
b) 4.5 × 10^-3 N
c) 5.4 × 10^-2 N
d) 5.4 × 10^-3 N
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. If a dipole of dipole moment is placed in a uniform electric field E, then torque acting on it is given

Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Gauss’s law is valid for

a) any closed surface
b) only regular close surfaces
c) any open surface
d) only irregular open surfaces
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. 1 C charge is equivalent to charge on how much number of protons?

a) 6 × 10¹⁸
b) 7 × 10¹⁹c) 8 × 10²⁰d) 9 × 10²¹
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of force when the distance r between two charges varies?

A) (a)
B) (b)
C) (c)
D) (d)
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series is . The shortest wavelength in Brackett series will be

a) 2λ
b) 4λ
c) 9λ
d) 16λ
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. The shortest wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen is equal to the shortest wavelength of Balmer series of a hydrogen-like atom of atomic number . The value of is

a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Two protons attract each other when

a) The distance between them is 10^-2 m
b) The distance between them is 10^-9m
c) The distance between them is 10^-15 m
d) This will never happen
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Which of the following has high penetration power?

a) α-particles
b) β-rays
c) γ-rays
d) X-rays
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. Which of the following pairs are isotones?

a) ₁H² and ₁H³
b) ₃H³ and ₁H³
c) ₆C¹² and ₇N¹³
a) ₁H¹ and ₂H⁴
Deselect Answer

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

April 29, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 85 BIOLOGY

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April 29, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 83 CHEMISTRY

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April 29, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (03.05.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (03.05.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

ENGLISH SECTION

Directions: In this question, a part of the sentence is made bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no replacement is needed, mark (E) as your answer.

(1). BJP is the only political party in the country which has a trained political human resource and this will form the backing bone in the organization’s workforce in the days to come.

(A). the backing bone of the organization’s

(B). the backbone in the organization’s

(C). the backbone of the organization’s

(D). the backbones of the organization’s

(E). No correction required
None

(2). The rise in petrol prices did not lead to a proportionate cut off in consumption.

(A).   proportionate cutting off in

(B).   proportionate cut down in

(C).   proportionate cut through in

(D).   proportionately cut off in

(E).   No correction required
None

(3). Hardly had the thieves seen the polices than they started running towards the black van.

(A).   thieves seen the police than

B).   thiefs seen the polices when

(C).   thieves seen the police when

(D).   thieves seeing the polices when

(E).   No correction required
None

(4). It is difficult to predict what Minister Sitharaman will do in her new role as finance minister.

(A).   will do in her newer role as

(B).   will do with her new role as

(C).   will be done in her new role as

(D).   will be doing with her new role of

(E).   No correction required
None

(5). Khurshid said that a heckler’s freedom of speech and expression would have to be consistent for the right to movement and privacy of the recipient.

(A).   have to be inconsistent for the

(B).   have to be inconsistent with the

(C).   have to be in consistency for the

(D).   have to be consistent with the

(E).   No correction required
None

(6). The police looked for the fraud jeweller all over the country but drew back.

(A).   Countries but drew back

(B).   Country but drew a blank

(C).   Country but drew a circle

(D).   Country but drew black

(E).   No correction required
None

(7). It is difficult to take sides when both the parties present spacious arguments.

(A).   party presents spacious arguments

(B).   parties presenting specious arguments

(C).   parties present specious arguments

(D).   parties presenting spacious arguments

(E).   No correction required
None

(8). One should clear one’s mind instead of beaten one’s brains in trying to solve life’s mysteries during meditation.

(A).   beating ones brains out

(B).   beat one’s brains out

(C).   beating one’s brains out

(D).   beating one’s brains in

(E).   No correction required
None

(9). Nationalisation of banks in the 1970s was undertaken by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

(A).   1970’s was undertaken by then

(B).   1970s were undertaken by then

(C).   1970s was undertaken by the

(D).   1970s was undertaking by then

(E).   No correction required
None

(10). The assailant made a cleaning breast with his offence and implored the judge for mercy.

(A).   made a clean breast with

(B).   made a cleaning breast of

(C).   made a clean breast of

(D).   makes a clean breast of

(E).   No correction required
None

Direction: In each of these questions, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as A, B, C and D. One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelled or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelled or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelled and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) “All correct” as your answer.

11. What makes the 2019 election unprecedented is not that inappropriate words were used and misinformation spread, but the fact that India witnesses an increasing tendency to normalise these.

A. Unprecedented

B. Inappropriate

C. Spread

D. Witnesses

E. All are correct
None

12. On the one hand, inform discussions have become difficult, and on the other, social tensions have risen.

A. On

B. inform

C. become

D. risen

E. All are correct
None

13. With stronger headwind ahead in the form of an escalating trade war between the U.S. and China, and the imbroglio in the Middle East, the outlook for export demand is far from reassuring.

A. headwind

B. escalating

C. imbroglio

D. reassuring

E. All are correct
None

14. Australia, among the world’s largest wheat exporters, has been forced to take recours to bulk imports of the grain, consequent to severe droughts in its eastern states over two years.

A. Among

B. Forced

C. Recours

D. Consequent

E. All are correct
None

15. As with several industrialised democracies, voter disillusionment with the principal parties is yielding a fragmented polity.

A. Several

B. Disillusionment

C. Yielding

D. Fragmented

E. All are correct
None

16. The greatest achievement of modern medecines has been to save us from premature death and allow us to enjoy the full measure of our years.

A. Achievement

B. Medecines

C. Premature

D. Measure

E. All are correct
None

17. The panel decided to investigate the fraud charges against the company, which has always been reticent about its internal operations.

A. Investigate

B. Fraud

C. Reticent

D. Operations

E. All are correct.
None

18. Educating girls have proven to be one of the world’s best-ever ideas.

A. Educating

B. Have

C. Proven

D. Ideas

E. All are correct
None

19. The researchers had collected all the Ebola data since the start of the epidemic and used it to calculete the expected number of new cases.

A. Researchers

B. Epidemic

C. Calculete

D. Expected

E. All are correct
None

20. Climate change is way too important a global risk to be ignore or denied, and the vast majority of the world knows that.

A. Climate

B. Important

C. Ignore

D. Majority

E. All are correct
None

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-10): In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three paragraphs. You have to find the paragraph(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as your choice.

1. Jagan Mohan Reddy is showcasing his widened social base with his choice of Ministers

(1) The constitution of Mr. Reddy’s Council of Ministers , include a Dalit woman, as the Home Minister and five Deputy CMs are from the Scheduled Caste (K. Narayana Swamy), Scheduled Tribe (Pamula Pushpa Sreevani), backward caste (Pilli Subhash Chandrabose), Muslim (Amzath Basha) and Kapu (Alla Kali Krishna Srinivas) communities.

(2) While naming five deputy chief ministers, one each from SC, ST, BC, Kapu and Muslim communities, was a surprise, giving home ministry to Mekathoti Sucharitha was another surprise. Jagan’s choice of ministers is being called an excellent example of ‘social engineering’. While choosing Sucharitha gave representation to women and to the SC-s, Jagan also tried to keep the presence of Reddy-s to a minimum. He chose only four Reddy-s in his cabinet.

(3) Several aspirants are lobbying for the cabinet berths through the close confidantes of Jagan. According to party sources, Jagan Mohan Reddy may choose two or three members each from the districts with more number of YSRC MLAs and one member each from the districts with less number of party legislators.

(a) only 2

(b) only 1

(c) both 1 and 2

(d) only 3

(e) None of these
None

2. India needs to strengthen and implement regulations on antibiotic misuse

(1) “India is in the centre of a perfect storm,” said Ramanan Laxminarayan. Since antibiotics have contributed significantly to a broad rise in life expectancy, and are used for everything from preventing infections during surgeries to protecting cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy, the weakening defences will leave a ripple effect on the entire healthcare chain.

(2) In a recent investigation, it was found that the world’s largest veterinary drug-maker, Zoetis, was selling antibiotics as growth promoters to poultry farmers in India, even though it had stopped the practice in the U.S. India is yet to regulate antibiotic-use in poultry, while the U.S. banned the use of antibiotics as growth- promoters in early 2017. As the country takes its time to formulate regulations, the toll from antibiotic-misuse is growing at an alarming rate.

(3) India is one of the largest consumers of antibiotics in the world. And its misuse and overuse is rampant. As a result, ‘super bugs’ that are resistant to all known types of antibiotics are starting to thrive. Infection-causing pathogens have been pinging away at humanity’s defences ever since Penicillin was discovered in 1928.
Prolonged exposure to any drug allows certain strains of bacteria to acquire resistance.

(a) only 2

(b) only 1

(c) both 2 and 3

(d) only 3

(e) None of these
None

3. The RBI makes a valid case against the proposal for a separate payments regulator

(1) There is definite overlapping between the current regulatory powers of the RBI and the proposed regulations for the payments industry. A unified regulator can thus help in lowering the compliance costs and enabling the seamless implementation of rules unlike the separate ones which is why RBI seems ambivalent about the latter.

(2) The RBI’s demand for the centralisation of regulatory powers also brings with it the need for exercising a greater degree of responsibility. At a time when there are increasing risks to the stability of the domestic financial system, both the government and the RBI must look to work together to tackle these risks.

(3) There is the real risk that a brand new separate payment regulator may be unable to match the expertise of the RBI in carrying out necessary regulatory duties which it performs with ease in case of unified regulators. So it makes better sense to have the RBI take charge of the rapidly growing payments industry which can ill- afford regulatory errors at this point.

(a) only 2

(b) only 1

(c) both 2 and 3

(d) both 1 and 3

(e) None of these
None

4. Strong unified actions are an important protection against child labor.

(1) Following the ratification of the Optional Protocol on the involvement of children in armed conflict in 2001, Guinea had taken steps to prohibit the recruitment of persons under the age of 18 and their direct involvement in armed conflict. The provisions of the Children’s Code protected and afforded all possible guarantees to refugee children affected by armed conflict. The provisions of the Optional Protocol had been taken into account both in the Constitution and in the Child Code Act.

(2) Since 2015, Pact and Microsoft have been working together to address the issue through the Children out of Mining pilot project in Katanga. The project uses interventions that are deeply embedded in communities and local institutions to address the economic and social root causes that lead to child labor in mining. In mines where the project has been active, Pact has found a reduction in child labor of between 77 to 97 percent, with variation influenced by seasonal factors and the influx of new conflict- displaced families, among others.

(3) In 2001 factory monitors confirmed illegal union-busting and other violations—including employment of 13-15 year-old children—at a Mexican factory sewing clothing with university logos for Nike and other U.S. companies.
Thousands of American students, workers, and consumers wrote letters to corporate CEOs protesting worker treatment. The international solidarity campaign helped factory workers overcome violence, intimidation, and mass firings when they tried to organize, and after months of struggle, workers won an independent union.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (2)

(c) Both (1) and (2)

(d) Both (2) and (3)

(e) All of the above
None

5. Political parties should come up with smarter solutions to gain farmer’s electoral clout.

(1) It makes sense for the government to procure directly from farmers at MSP and, instead of hoarding and resorting to open market sales at a later date, introduce it under the subsidized public distribution system. This will not only help farmers growing pulses with better prices, but also improve India’s terrible nutritional indicators—about 38% of our under-five children are stunted.

(2) That rural anger can cause noticeable political damage was proved beyond doubt when the ruling Bhartiya Janata Party performed poorly in rural areas in the Gujarat elections. Ground reports from the current phase of state elections suggest that farmers in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan have set the tone of electoral discourse in these states. Simultaneously, they are also setting the stage for the general elections next year to remind governments that there is a political cost to ignoring rural India.

(3) Indian farmer face a pressing problem that they are often at a loss about what to plant without any useful market intelligence. They take the previous year’s prices for a particular crop as a market signal, not where prices will be when they harvest their crop.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (2)

(c) Both (2) and (3)

(d) Both (1) and (3)

(e) None of these
None

6. ISRO’s recent accomplishments pronounce the autarky of Indian space prowess.

(1) Success upon success has visited ISRO in the past several years. It successfully put into orbit its spacecraft around Mars in its first attempt on September 24, 2014. The spacecraft completed 1,000 earth days in its orbit on June 19, 2017, well beyond its designated mission life of six months. Its mission to the moon, Chandrayaan- 1, was the first to discover the presence of water molecules on the lunar surface soil and rocks. Majority of the mission was financed by Isro’s commercial arm antrix which generates a profit of more than 28 million dollar a year by launching various foreign satellites.

(2) The GSLV Mk III, part of the GSLV launchers, carried India’s heaviest satellite, GSAT-19 weighing 3136 kg for 16.20 minutes, will continue to be an operating launch. This was the first such launch from India. Earlier, India used to ask foreign space organizations to launch heavy satellites/orbiters. With this development, India will now be able to save crores. The GSLV Mk-III will continue to be a launch vehicle in the future.

(3) A key focus area of ISRO is building reusable launch vehicles (RLVs). In fact, the RLV program crossed a milestone on May 23, 2016, with the launch and return of a winged RLV-TD in a scaled configuration that flew at hypersonic speed. On August 28, 2016, ISRO took the next steps towards reducing the cost of access to space when a modified two-stage vehicle developed by the VSSC (Kerala, India) used air- breathing propulsion in its scramjet engine.

(a) Only (2)

(b) Both (1) and (2)

(c) Both (2) and (3)

(d) Both (1) and (3)

(e) All (1), (2) and (3)
None

7. Most NGOs in India lack leaders to succeed Current Management.

(1) NGOs lack a foundational, leadership development culture and often do not have a shared understanding of what this should look like. Pushed in part by donors to focus almost exclusively on delivering programs, NGOs do not emphasize talent development and often shortchange themselves by under-investing in people.

(2) For the not-for-profit sector to play a far larger role in narrowing the social development deficit in India, prioritizing and investing in developing leaders needs to be a concerted effort from all sector stakeholders—NGO leaders, funders, and intermediaries.

(3) If India’s NGOs are to make real strides toward ambitious goals such as providing equitable healthcare, ensuring high-quality education for children, or providing access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation, they will have to confront the unassailable fact that exceptional organizations rely on exceptional leaders—and they need to grow more of them.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (3)

(c) Both (1) and (2)

(d) Both (2) and (3)

(e) All (1), (2) and (3)
None

8. India owes its present economic progress to LPG reforms.

(1) India’s annual average growth rate from 1990 – 2010 has been 6.6 % which is almost double than pre reforms era. GDP growth rate surpassed 5% mark in early 1980’s. This made impact of 1990’s reforms on growth unclear. Some believe that 1980’s reforms were precursor to LPG reforms. Other things apart, it is clear that 1980 reforms led to crash of economy in 1991, which was remedied by LPG reforms which were quite more comprehensive.

(2) The fruits of LPG’s reforms of 1990 have reached their peak in 2007, when India recorded its highest GDP growth rate of 9%. With this, India became the second fastest growing major economy in the world, next only to China. There has been significant debate, however, around liberalization as an inclusive economic growth strategy. Since 1992, income inequality has deepened in India. Whereas consumption is among the poorest staying stable while the wealthiest generate consumption growth.

(3) The LPG reforms were aimed at ending the licence-permit raj by decreasing the government intervention in the business, thereby pushing economic growth through reforms.India’s GDP stood at Rs 5,86,212 crore in 1991. About 25 years later, it stands at Rs 1,35,76,086 crore, up 2216 percent. In dollar terms, India’s GDP crossed the $2 trillion mark in 2015-16. Currently, the country is ranked ninth in the world in terms of nominal GDP.
India is tipped to be the second largest economy in the world by 2050.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (2)

(c) Only (3)

(d) Both (1) and (3)

(e) All of the above
None

9. Strong unified actions are an important protection against child labor.

(1) Following the ratification of the Optional Protocol on the involvement of children in armed conflict in 2001, Guinea had taken steps to prohibit the recruitment of persons under the age of 18 and their direct involvement in armed conflict. The provisions of the Children’s Code protected and afforded all possible guarantees to refugee children affected by armed conflict. The provisions of the Optional Protocol had been taken into account both in the Constitution and in the Child Code Act.

(2) Since 2015, Pact and Microsoft have been working together to address the issue through the Children out of Mining pilot project in Katanga. The project uses interventions that are deeply embedded in communities and local institutions to address the economic and social root causes that lead to child labor in mining. In mines where the project has been active, Pact has found a reduction in child labor of between 77 to 97 percent, with variation influenced by seasonal factors and the influx of new conflict- displaced families, among others.

(3) In 2001 factory monitors confirmed illegal union-busting and other violations—including employment of 13-15 year-old children—at a Mexican factory sewing clothing with university logos for Nike and other U.S. companies.
Thousands of American students, workers, and consumers wrote letters to corporate CEOs protesting worker treatment. The international solidarity campaign helped factory workers overcome violence, intimidation, and mass firings when they tried to organize, and after months of struggle, workers won an independent union.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (2)

(c) Both (1) and (2)

(d) Both (2) and (3)

(e) All of the above
None

10. Electrification, in contemporary times, is a basic human necessity.

(1) The Saubhagya scheme will help India, the world’s third-largest energy consumer after the US and China, to help meet its global climate change commitments as electricity will substitute kerosene for lighting purposes. Lighting in turn will also help in improving education, health, connectivity with the multiplier effect of increased economic activities and job creation.

(2) After launching the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana for universalizing electricity access, the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) government is readying a raft of power sector structural reforms including legal provisions to drive electricity demand, promoting retail competition and tariff slab rationalization to drive manufacturing.

(3) Despite the government’s aggressive village electrification programme, the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojana launched in July 2015, under which 78% of 18,000 villages have been electrified, it was realised that the problem of electricity ‘access’ wasn’t resolved. A village is declared to be electrified if 10% of the households are given electricity along with public places such as schools, panchayat office, health centers, dispensaries and community centers.

(a) Only (1)

(b) Only (3)

(c) Both (1) and (2)

(d) Both (2) and (3)

(e) All of the above
None

Directions (11-20): In each of the given questions an inference is given in bold which is then followed by three paragraph. You have to find the paragraph(s) from where it is inferred. Choose the option with the best possible outcome as your choice.

11. A Popular Leader

I. Despite allegations of a rigged election in Pakistan in which the army is said to have enabled Mr. Khan’s victory, it is widely recognised that there was a major groundswell of support for him.

II. The interlude between the general elections in Pakistan and India is a period of extreme caution and careful domestic calculations, and hence not conducive for bold foreign policy initiatives, especially on something as fraught as India-Pakistan relations.

III. The fact that his PTI left the rival Pakistan Muslim League (Nawaz) far behind in terms of seat share, and that the PTI, until recently a provincial party, made stunning inroads in all of Pakistan’s provinces shows that the big story is also the rise of a charismatic Pakistani political leader seen as incorruptible and visionary by young voters.

(a) I, II

(b) II

(c) I, III

(d) III

(e) All are correct
None

12. A material basis for unity

I. Mere anti-BJP-ism or anti-Modi-ism is just not good enough either to hold the Opposition together, or to defeat the BJP in 2019. To stand a fighting chance of achieving either, the alliance must address a genuine political need gap, and in the current juncture, the most obvious one is the absence of a platform at the national level for constituencies whose interests cannot be seriously represented by the BJP, given the constraints of the politics it espouses.

II. These constituencies are the social and geographical inverse of the BJP’s core electoral base, which consists of the savarnas (forward castes) and the urban middle and upper classes, primarily from the Hindi-speaking belt.

III. The idea seems to be to hammer away at his failures and hope that anti-incumbency does the rest.

(a) I, II

(b) III

(c) II

(d) I

(e) All are correct
None

13. The strategy of containment

I. When a constitutional challenge pits individuals against the state, the court’s task is clear: if it finds that there has been a breach by the state, it must strike down the offending law (or rules), and vindicate the rights at issue.

II. When, however, the court is called upon to settle a battle in the culture wars, the task is fraught with greater complexity. This is because these conflicts often represent deep, long-standing and irreconcilable divisions in society, touching issues of personal belief and conviction.

III. Constitutional documents often consciously refrain from directly addressing them: for example, the framers of the Constitution deliberately placed the provision for a uniform civil code in the unenforceable “Directive Principles” chapter, thinking that it was too divisive to be made a fundamental right.

(a) II

(b) I, II

(c) III

(d) I, III

(e) All are correct
None

14. Reframing the Right

I. It is not often that nine judges of the Supreme Court assemble and pronounce a unanimous judgment without dissent. The promise of such a holding becomes more critical when it concerns the liberty of individuals and an attempt to correct an imbalance of power which exists against them. This is why the right to privacy judgment was celebrated last year. It signified hope that things could get better, that values of freedom, autonomy and dignity would be realised.

II. It is the report’s approach to rights that is perhaps of most concern for the health of our democracy. Its statement that rights are not “deontological categories” is both unnecessarily complicated in its wording and patently untrue in its content.

III. Our fundamental rights, whether to speech, equality or practice our religion or profession, are all essential facets that make life worth living and are held up by the right to privacy with regard to information about us. In stating that rights are not things which are essential in themselves is an unacceptable position to take under our Constitution.

(a) II, III

(b) I

(c) I, III

(d) II

(e) All are correct
None

15. Roots of the Process

I. The recent history of the NRC can be traced to the public interest litigation filed in the Supreme Court by Assam Public Works seeking the removal of “illegal voters” from the electoral rolls of Assam and the preparation of the NRC as required under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and its rules.

II. The NRC was supposed to be prepared as a consequence of the Assam Accord signed between the Union government and the All-Assam Students’ Union to end the agitation against “outsiders”, promising to identify and remove any foreigners from Assam who had entered the State after 1971.

III. Although political leaders and the Supreme Court itself have assured everyone that this is only a draft and everyone will be given an opportunity to prove his or her citizenship in accordance with the law before any “action” is taken, this is unlikely to inspire much confidence given what has transpired thus far.

(a) III

(b) II, III

(c) I, II, III

(d) I, II

(e) All are correct
None

16. Lost interpretation

I. Widespread condemnation of his refusal to endorse the findings of U.S. intelligence agencies has compelled him to walk back his statements at Helsinki. Yet, critics of the President conveniently forget that it was only 15 years ago that these same intelligence agencies fraudulently claimed that Iraq’s Saddam Hussain had weapons of mass destruction.

II. Of course, whether Mr. Trump should have gone to Helsinki to meet Mr. Putin at all amidst these allegations is another issue. Perhaps the closest parallel was the 1960 Paris summit between the leaders of France, the U.K., the U.S. and the USSR after the U.S. had lied that its spy plane that had been shot down over the USSR had been a weather plane. Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev’s outburst there against U.S. President Dwight Eisenhower led to a collapse of the summit.

III. Two further points are lost in the firestorm of protests over the press conference. First, there is no instance that I can recall when journalists have accused one president – especially a President of a state as large and powerful as Russia of interfering in the elections of another country in a joint press conference between the two Presidents. In joint press conferences, one head of government is not typically called on to label the other head of government a liar. Rather than discussing global issues, ranging from nuclear disarmament to conflicts in Syria and the Ukraine, journalists were focused on a domestic issue in the U.S.

(a) II, III

(b) I

(c) I, III

(d) II

(e) All are correct
None

17. The China Question

I. Yet another angle that needs to be factored in while engaging Naya Pakistan is the rising regional influence of China and the further strengthening of China-Pakistan ties.

II. Both the Pakistan army and the political class in Pakistan are upbeat about the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and Chinese investments in Pakistan, notwithstanding Mr. Khan’s initial reservations about China.

III. Can this new-found civil-military equation in Pakistan withstand the force of Mr. Khan’s personality traits and Pakistan’s political dynamics in the days ahead?

(a) II, III

(b) I

(c) I, II

(d) III

(e) All are correct
None

18. Attitude to Time

I. An Indian Edmund Burke is unthinkable. Beyond its corrosive communalism, the BJP has no idea of the right as a systematic ideology. The Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh’s idea of capitalism is adequate.

II. Oddly, for all its fetishisation of 2019, the BJP is one party that has no systemic idea of the future. It might borrow a few glib ideas such as smart cities, yet it has no sense of the future as a set of strategies. The fetishisation of 2019 has to be understood in this context 2019 is its end of history thesis.

III. It has no sense of the future except of the NRI who combines modern consumerism with ancient history. The future is 2019 repeated. The attitude to time is best caught in the complete absence of ecological thinking. It is content with linear time and progress. It dissolves the Planning Commission not because it was a Congress idea but because it was a futurist notion.

(a) I, II

(b) III

(c) I

(d) II, III

(e) All are correct
None

19. The Trump Road Map

I. The cornerstone of Mr. Trump’s West Asia policy, as it appears, is Israel’s security, and the containment of Iran is a subplot of this approach. America’s traditional allies, Israel and the Sunni Arab world (read Saudi Arabia), were upset with Mr. Obama’s outreach to Iran.

II. His approach was focussed on restoring some balance in the region, which was shaken up by revolts in the Arab world and civil wars. The Obama administration could persuade Iran to give up its nuclear ambitions in return for the lifting of international sanctions.

III. The 2015 nuclear deal with Iran had at least opened new avenues for both Washington and Tehran to reimagine their relations. Those avenues have been closed, at least for now.

(a) I, II

(b) III

(c) I

(d) II, III

(e) All are correct
None

20. Strong Leaders

I. Strong leadership and summit diplomacy do not necessarily translate into appropriate responses. Mr. Trump, hardly constrained by diplomatic etiquette, firmly believes in the aphorism, ‘what starts with him changes the world’. He hardly ever debates the question, ‘what will the world look like after you change it?’

II. Summit styles are personal to each leader. One common feature, however, is that Foreign Office mandarins and ministers in charge of foreign affairs are being pushed into the background. Nuanced negotiating stances are no longer the flavour of diplomatic intercourse.

III. Mr. Putin is less mercurial than Mr. Trump. He is, nevertheless, unflinching in his belief that he has the answers to Russia’s problems, and how to take Russia from the low point of the Yelstin years to future glory. Having established an entente with China, he is now intent on raising Russia’s stakes in Europe by confronting the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), and also hopes to establish itself as a key player in Eurasia.

(a) I, III

(b) II

(c) II, II

(d) I

(e) All are correct
None

QA SECTION

1. If circumference of the base of a right circular cone is 220 cm and volume of the cone is 15400 cm³, then slant height of the cone is:

A) 39 cm

B) 38 cm

C) 41 cm

D) 37 cm

E) None of these
None

2: The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangular field is 27 m. If the cost of fencing the field at the rate of Rs. 2/metre is Rs. 492, then find the ratio of the length to breadth of the field.

A) 26:15

B) 24:17

C) 2:1

D) 12:5

E) 25:16
None

3: A cube having each edge equals to 20 cm is cut into several smaller cubes having each edge equals to 4 cm. Find the number of smaller cubes which are the part of the faces of the larger cube but not the part of edges of the larger cube.

A) 56

B) 64

C) 32

D) 54

E) 72
None

4: Each side of square ‘A’ is 6 cm less than that of square ‘B’. The perimeter of a rectangle is 3 times the difference of the perimeters of the two squares. If the length of the rectangle is 20 cm, then find its breadth.

A) 19 cm

B) 14 cm

C) 12 cm

D) 18 cm

E) None of these
None

5: Ratio of radius to height of right circular cylinder is 4:9 respectively. Find the area of a rectangle whose breadth is 37.5% more than radius of the cylinder while ratio of length of rectangle to height of cylinder is 3:4 respectively. Given that curved surface area of the cylinder is 3456 cm². (Take π = 3)

A) 884 cm

B) 584 cm2

C) 594 cm2

D) 624 cm2

E) None of these
None

6: The diagonal of a square is 24√2 cm. The perimeter of the square is 24 cm less than a rectangle whose length to breadth ratio is 7:5. Find the area of the rectangle.

A) 725 cm2

B) 875 cm2

C) 915 cm2

D) 625 cm2

E) 1015 cm2
None

7: The ratio of length to breadth of a rectangle is 8:5. When the length and breadth of the rectangle is increased by 25% and decreased by 40% respectively, then its perimeter becomes 390 cm. Find the original area of the rectangle.

A) 8400 cm2

B) 9000 cm2

C) 7200 cm2

D) 6400 cm2

E) 10500 cm2
None

8: The perimeter of a square is 36 metres more than that of a rectangle. The ratio of the length to breadth of the rectangle is 9:4. If the area of the square is 3721 m², then find the cost of painting one surface of the rectangle at the rate of Rs. 2.5/m².

A) Rs. 5760

B) Rs. 4320

C) Rs. 5220

D) Rs. 6300

E) Rs. 5040
None

9: Volume of a cylinder is 4928 m³ while cost of painting its outer surface (except base and top) at a rate of Rs. 8 per m²is Rs. 5632. Find the ratio of radius of base to height of the cylinder.

A) 7:6

B) 7:8

C) 7:4

D) 7:2

E) None of these
None

10: Area of the base of a cone is 616 cm² and curved surface area of a cylinder is 3168 cm². Find the height of the cylinder if radius of base of cylinder is 4 cm more than that of the cone.

A) 21 cm

B) 35 cm

C) 28 cm

D) 24 cm

E) None of these
None

April 25, 2025

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