Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

NEET TEST SERIES 128 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The enzyme used in laundry to clear oil stains is

(a) Lactase
(c) Pectinase
(b) Streptokinase
(d) Lipase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Methanogens are mostly present in

a) Anaerobic sludge of sewage and rumen of cattle
b) Primary sludge
c) The fermentation of toddy
d) Swiss cheese
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon become extinct due to

a) Alien species invasion
b) Co-extinction
c) Habitat loss and fragmentation
d) Over exploitation
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Major cause of cancer is

a) Polyploidy
b) Chromosomal aberration
c) Frame-shift mutation
d) Aneuploidy
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in

a) Single gene
b) Two genes
c) Half of the chromosomes
d) Entire chromosome
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. When the volume of body fluid falls below normal, the ADH will

a) Decrease the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
b) Increases the permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
c) Has nothing to do with permeability of convoluted tubule
d) Decreases permeability of proximal convoluted tubule
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which one of the following is a vasoconstrictor?

(a) Angiotensin II
(c) ANF
(b) Renin
(d) Histamine
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Assertion (A): Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints
Reason (R): Synovial fluid is present here

a) Both (a) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (a) is true but (R) is false
d) (a) is false but (R) is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In the exponential growth equation, N1=N0 ert, e represents

a) The base of geometric logarithms
b) The base of exponential logarithms
c) The base of natural logarithms
d) The base of number logarithms
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Identify the incorrect statements about frog.
i. Oesophagus is short tube
ii. Tadpole is carnivorous
iii. Dorsal side of body is olive greenish in colour
iv. Hind brain consist of cerebellum and medulla oblongata

(a) II only
(b) I and iii
(c) I, ii and iii
(d) I, ii and iv
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Assertion(A): Competitive Exclusion principle applies to those species who compete for the same resources for their survival
Reason (R): Competition result in extinction if one species

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A Is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Choose the correct statements.
i. Exponential growth occurs when resources are abundant
ii. Logistic growth results in J-shaped curve
iii. Carrying capacity is the maximum limit beyond which no further growth is possible.
iv. Logistic growth model is considered more realistic than exponential growth

(a) i, iii and iv
(c) iii only
(b) i, ii and iii
(d) i and ivDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Ciliated epithelial cells are mainly present in

a) Bile duct and bronchioles
b) Fallopian tube and pancreatic duct
c) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
d) Salivary duct and pancreatic ductDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. In adipocytes, nucleus and cytoplasm are at

(a) Terminal
(b) Centre
(c) Periphery
(d) All of aboveDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following are directly involved in systemic circulation?

a) Superior vena cava, right ventricle, left ventricle
b) Right atrium, pulmonary trunk, left ventricle
c) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
d) Left ventricle, aorta, inferior vena cavaDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

(a) Ecdysone
(b) Estriol
(c) Epinephrine
(d) EstradiolDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Select the correct pair.

a) Corpus luteum – temporary endocrine gland
b) Thyroid – thymosins
c) Epiphysis cerebri – pituitary gland
d) Thymus gland – Collip’s hormoneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Statement I: Interferons are proteins produced by infected cells in response to viral infections
Statement II: Interferons are members of large group of proteins called cytokines.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II are correctDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A cross was performed between individuals with AABB and aabb genotypes. The F1 progeny were self-fertilise(d) What is the probability that the F2 progeny will have the same phenotype as their parents?

(a) 1/16

(c) 6/16

(b) 3/16

(d) 9/16
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The DNA that is isolated from desired organism and transferred from that organism to another by combining with vehicle DNA is

(a) Carrier DNA
(b) Amplified DNA
(c) Transform DNA
(d) Passenger DNA
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 127 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Shedding of leaves, flowers and fruits due to change in hormone balance in plants is:

(a) Senescence
(b) Abscission
(c) Photorespiration
(d) RipeningDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Assertion (A): The Cycas have pinnate leaves for a few years, while in Conifers, the leaves have a needle like structure with reduced surface are (A)
Reason (R): The leaves have a sunken stoma, which reduces water loss from the surface of the leaves.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Read the following five statements and select the option with all correct statements:
(I) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise bare rock.
(II) Selaginella pteridophyte. is a homosporous
(III) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(IV) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic
(V) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on the sporophyte

(a) (II), (III), and (IV)
(b) (I), (IV), and (V)
(c) (II), (III), and (V)
(d) (I), (III), and (IV)Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem and then come obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoot. These branches are called:

(a) Stolon

(b) Sucker

(c) Runner

(d) Offset
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Consider the following set of plants: Funaria, Selaginella, Cycas, Marchantia, Riccia, Azolla, Salvinia, Polytrichum, Psilotum Anthoceros, How many of the above plants are heterosporous?

(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Two
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rasping organ for feeding called radula is present in the phylum

a) Echinodermata
b) Arthropoda
c) Mollusca
d) Chordata
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following characteristic distinguish arthropoda from annelids and molluscs?

a) An external skeleton made of chitin (a polysaccharide) and protein rather than a shell made chiefly of mineral salts
b) Subdivision of the legs into movable segments
c) Distinct group of muscles, derived from many body segments that move the separate part of the exoskeleton
d) All of the above
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system
b) In coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex
c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworm and leeches are dioecious
d) Simple and compound eyes are present in the animals of those phylum whose over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following undergoes the meiosis -I division?

a) Primary spermatocytes
b) Secondary spermatocytes
c) Spermatids
d) Spermatogonia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Menstrual cycle is divided into different phases in which follicular phase is also known as

a) Secretory phase
b) Luteal phase
c) Proliferative phase
d) Menstrual phase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which of the following is a finger-like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening

(a) Oviduct
(b) Clitoris
(c) Mons pubis
(d) Chorionic villi
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis

a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
c) Sex of the unborn child
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which method is used to have a child through GIFT?

a) Transfer of embryo with upto 8 blastomeres in fallopian tube
b) Transfer of sperm and unfertilized oocyte in fallopian tube
c) Insertion of sperm into cytoplasm of oocyte through zona pellucida
d) Introduction of sperm into uterus
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Select the incorrect statement regarding health

a) Health can be defined as absence of disease
b) Healthy people are more efficient at work
c) Health increases productivity
d) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Choose the incorrect statement from the given options

a) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic system
b) The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a healthy person through houseflies
c) Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm
d) Amoebiasis is a protozoan disease
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Match the following

a) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(i)
b) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(iii)
c) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(i)
d) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Our immune system plays an important role in

a) Allergic reactions
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Organ transplantation
d) All of these
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Assertion (A): X-rays and γ-rays are called carcinogens
Reason (R): Carcinogens transform normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells

a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Phytoplankton belongs to the kingdom

(a) Plantae
(b) Protista
(c) Monera
(d) Fungi
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Alexander Fleming noticed the chemical produced by a mould could check the growth of bacterium on which he worke(d) The bacterium mentioned was

(a) Streptococcus
(b) Streptobacillus
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Streptomyces
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 126 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. In the majority of higher animals and plants, and are mutually exclusive events.

(a) growth; nutrition
(b) nutrition; consciousness
(c) growth; reproduction
(d) reproduction; consciousness
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Colchicine interferes with the cell because of;

(a) splitting of chromosomes
(b) non-pairing of chromosomes
(c) double replication of chromosomes
(d) non-formation of spindle
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Match the following column:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(b) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(iii); (4)-(ii); (5)-(i)
(c) (1)-(i); (2)-(iii); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)
(d) (1)-(i); (2)-(ii); (3)-(iii); (4)-(iv); (5)-(v)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(a) Phaeophyceae only
(b) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(d) Rhodophyceae only
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:

(a) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields.
(b) speed up the malting process.
(c) promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface.
(d) help overcome apical dominance
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Match the following columns:

(a) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(i); (4)-(ii)
(b) (1)-(iii); (2)-(ii); (3)-(i); (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(ii); (2)-(i); (3)-(v); (4)-(iii)
(d) (1)-(v); (2)-(iv); (3)-(ii); (4)-(iii)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. In plant, development refers to the formation of specialised tissues and organs from undifferentiated cells.

(a) germination
(b) morphogenesis
(c) differentiation
(d) senescence
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of:

(a) Cyanobacteria
(b) Mycorrhizae
(c) Bacteria
(d) Light
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which feature is NOT related to vacuole in plant cells?

(a) Its cell sap is hypertoni(c)
(b) Its membrane is called tonoplast.
(c) It is not an endomembrane system.
(d) It can occupy upto 90 the percent of the volume of the cell.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Assertion (A): Growth in living organism refers to increase in body mass, increase in size and increase in number of cells.
Reason (R): Growth in living organism occurs by accumulation of material by external agency.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of (a)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (a)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Assertion (A): Dispersal is the spreading or dissemination of fruits and seeds from the parent plants to various distances.
Reason (R): Dispersal is important to prevent overcrowding and decrease competition for nutrients.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both A and Rare true but R is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Zaminkand – Corn
(b) Replum – Mustard
(c) Twisted Aestivation – China rose
(d) Phyllode – Acacia
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called as amphibian of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): The plant body is haplontic

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R explanation of (A) are true and R is the correct
(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Nissl’s granules are irregular masses of ribosomes and:

(a) SER
(b) RER
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Cytoplasm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Plant growth regulators are organic compounds synthesized in minute quantities.
Statement II: PGRs are simple, small molecules having composition. diverse chemical
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the given options:

(a) Statement I is true but Statement Il is false.
(b) Statement I is false but Statement Il is true.
(c) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Chromosomes are long, thin and slender and chromatin network exposes and threads appear clear in which stage?

(a) Leptotene
(c) Pachytene
(b) Zygotene
(d) Diplotene
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Characteristics of Mitosis-l stages are given:
(I) Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.
(II) Fully condensed chromosomes.
(III) Spindle is assemble(d)
(IV) Nucleolus and NM breaks down.
Above characterisitics belong to:

(a) Zygotene
(b) Diakinesis
(c) Diplotene
(d) Metaphase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Select the incorrect pair:

(a) Axile placentation – Tomato
(b) Jasmine, colocasia – Runner
(c) Mango fruit – Mesocarp is edible
(d) Scutellum – Shield shape cotyledon in seed of grassDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 8, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A proton and an α – particle have kinetic energy in the ratio 16:1. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated with them is.

(a) 4:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 7:2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted? e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹(c)

(a) 2.4 eV
(b) 1.5 eV
(c) 3.1 eV
(d) 4.5 eV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A ray of light when falls on a liquid A-air interface at angle 45°, it just gets total reflection. When a ray of light falls on liquid B -air interface at angle 30°, it does not emerge out. We can infer that

(a) μ_A>μ_B
(b) μ_A<μ_B(c) μ_A=μ_B
(d) can’t be inferred

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In going from a rarer to a denser medium, light loses some spee(d) What happens to energy carried by light waves?

a) Greater in rarer medium
b) Greater in denser medium
c) equal in both mediums
d) cannot be said
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(a) I₁+I₂(b) (√I₁+√I₂)²(c) (√I₁−√I₂)²(d) 2(I₁+I₂)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm×2cm) to (5cm×4×cm). If the work done is 3×10⁻⁴J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250Nm⁻¹
(b) 0.125Nm⁻¹(c) 0.2Nm⁻¹
(d) 8.0Nm⁻¹

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. When two displacements represented by y₁=asin (ωt) and y₂=bcos (ωt) are superimposed, the motion is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In an SHM, x is the displacement and a is the acceleration at time t. the plot of a against x for one complete oscillation will be

(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a sinusoidal curve
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following statements are true wave motion?

a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through all mediums
b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through solids only
d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. To determine Young’s modulus of the material of a wire,

a) two wires of same length and radius are taken.
b) Single straight wire of uniform cross section is taken.
c) three wires of different lengths but of same material are taken.
d) two springs of same length but different materials are taken.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V= (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) (a) The value of the resistance is:

(a) (10±0.5)Ω
(b) (10±0.3)Ω
(c) (10±0.4)Ω
(d) (10±0.1)Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 12 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed in rad/s is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.8
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal groun(d) The magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force F_c=-k/r² , the total energy is

(a) -k/r
(b) k/r
(c) -k/2r
(d) k/2r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 40s
(b) 80s
(c) 20s
(d) 50sDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A 60 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body in m/s2 is

(a) 5.2

(b) 2.5

(c) 4.3

(d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A body of 10 kg is acted by a force of 129.4 N. If g =8 m/s². The acceleration of the block is 10 m/s². What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?

(a) 0.03
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum p. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road be m, then the stopping distance is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally opposite point. The work done in this case is

(a) 0
(b) mgh
(c) -mgh
(d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The force constants of two springs are k₁ and k₂ respectively. Both are stretched till their potential energies are equal. The forces f₁ and f₂ applied on them are in the ratio

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 125 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. In maize seed, the layer separating the endosperm from the embryo is rich in
(a) proteins
(b) carbohydrates
(c) hormones
(d) enzymes
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The cell wall of Chlamydomonas is made up of:

(a) hemicellulose
(b) proteins
(c) glycoproteins
(d) both (b) and (c)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. The function of the cambium in a plant is:

(a) water absorption
(b) lateral growth
(c) food storage
(d) photosynthesis

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. The primary function of the cuticle on the surface of leaves is:

(a) exchange of gases
(b) protection
(c) water retention
(d) nutrient absorption

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following cell organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes?

(a) Ribosome
(b) Mesosome
(c) Lysosome
(d) Microsome

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It involves:

a) reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane.
b) breakdown of proton gradient.
c) breakdown of electron gradient.
d) movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following is the process of respiration that involves the breakdown of fatty acids to generate ATP?

(a) Glycolysis
(b) B-oxidation
(c) Fermentation
(d) Kreb’s cycle

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?

a) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity.
b) To provide the site for photorespiratory pathway.
c) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle.
d) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. What is a fat molecule made of

a) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
b) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
c) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
d) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecules

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Phosphoglyceride is made up of

a) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
b) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
c) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which fatty acid can detect spoilage of oil

(a) Oleic acid
(b) Linoleic acid
(c) Erucic acid
(d) Linolenic acid

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: A protein can be visualized as a line, with the left end representing the first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end representing the last amino acid (N-terminal).
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin is composed of four subunits: two alpha (α) subunits and two beta (β) subunits
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a) Both statement I and statement II are false
b) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
c) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following is least likely to be involved in stabilising the three-dimensional folding of most proteins

(a) Ester bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Electrostatic interaction
(d) Hydrophobic interaction

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. Which two functional groups are typical of sugars?

(a) Carbonyl and phosphate
(b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Hydroxyl and methyl
(d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of

a) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
b) D-glucosamine
c) N-acetyl glucosamine
d) lipoglycans

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by

(a) NAD⁺(b) ATP
(c) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
(d) Molecular oxygen

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. During the light dependent reactions, water is split into oxygen, protons, and electrons. What is the fate of the electrons?

(a) Used to reduce CO2
(b) Used to generate ATP
(c) Release of O
(d) Transferred to chlorophyll
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires

(a) calcium
(b) iron
(c) cobalt
(d) magnesium
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. Which one of these statements is incorrect?

a) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
c) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial
d) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in matrix in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

a) lactate dehydrogenase
b) isocitrare dehydrogenase
c) malate dehydrogenase
d) succinate dehydrogenase
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 124 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. pK_a for NH₄⁺ion is 8.24 at 100 ⁰(c) A solution of 0.2M NH₄OH and a solution of 0.1M HCI are mixed together in equivolume proportion. The pH of the resulting mixture at
100 ⁰C (K_w = 10⁻¹²) will be
(a) 8.24
(b) 10.24
(c) 3.76
(d) 77

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. A solution contains Pb²⁺ and Fe²⁺ ions. To it some quantity of Fe and Pb is added Then

a) concentration of Pb2+ ions will remain unaffected
b) concentration of Pb2+ ions will increase
c) concentration of Fe2+ ions will increase
d) concentration of Fe2+ ions will decrease.Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. On which of the following factors, the rate constant does not depend?

(a) Temperature
(b) Concentration
(c) Presence of catalyst
(d) Nature of reactantsDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. According of Kohlrausch’s law, the limiting value of molar conductivity of an electrolyte A₂B is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen.

(a) 44.8 L

(b) 22.4 L

(c) 89.6 L

(d) 67.2 L
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Identify the product, P for the following reaction

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Statement I: Among halogens, Iodine is the best oxidant.
Statement II: Iodine is the least electronegative atom among halogens.
Choose the correct answer from the given options.

a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
b) Both statement I and statement II are true.
c) Both statement I and statement II are false.
d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4 kg/mol. The depression in the freezing point of solvent for 0.03 mol/kg solution of will be:

(a) 0.24 K
(b) 0.36 K
(c) 0.18 K
(d) 0.12 K

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is 1.4 Sm^-1. The resistance of 0.5M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of 0.5M solution of the electrolyte is Sm² mol^-1.

(a) 5 × 10^-3(b) 5 × 10²(c) 5 × 10³(d) 5 × 10^-4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answer from the given options.
(a) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(c) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
(d) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 123 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. Statement I : Osmium exhibits a maximum oxidation state of +6
Statement II : Osmium is a 4d block element.

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
c) Statement I is true but Statement II are False
d) Statement I is False but Statement II are TrueDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The correct order of increasing bond length is

a) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ < F₂
b) O₂ > N₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
c) O₂ < N₂ < Cl₂ > F₂
d) N₂ < O₂ < F₂ < Cl₂Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Which one is the most Acidic among the following oxide

(a) MgO
(b) P₄O₁₀(c) Tl₂O₃(d) SO₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Uuu

(a) Copernicium
(b) Meitnerium
(c) Darmstadium
(d) RontgeniumDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Zero electron gain enthalpy is shown by

(a) B, N and O
(b) Na, Mg and Al
(c) H, He and Ne
(d) Be, Mg and PDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which Hybridisation is not match with the following compound?

(a) SF₄ – sp³d
(b) NH₃ – sp³(c) BrF₅ – sp³d³(d) SF₆ – sp³d²
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. The geometry of XeOF₂ is

(a) Octahedral
(b) T-shape
(c) Square Planar
(d) Tetrahedral
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Magnesium reacts with an elements X to form an ionic compoun(d) If the ground state electronic configuration of X is 1s² 2s² 2p³ , the simplest formula for this compound is

(a) Mg₂X₃(b) MgX₂(c) Mg₂X
(d) Mg₃X₂
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following ion has the maximum polarizing power ?

(a) Na⁺(b) Mg²⁺(c) Ca²⁺
(d) Al³⁺
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Dinitrogen is relatively inactive because

a) It has high Electronegativity
b) It has high bond dissociation enthalpy
c) High Melting and Boiling point
d) Stable electronic configurationDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction are 30.5 and 45.5 KJ/mol, respectively . The reaction is?

(a) exothermic

(b) endothermic

(c) neither exothermic

(d) independent of temperature
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 0.9555 M and 1.910 M
(b) 1.910 M and 0.955 M
(c) 1.90 M and 1.090 M
(d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. The freezing point of 4% aqueous solution of ‘A’ is equal to the freezing point 10% aqueous solution of ‘B’. If the molecules mass of ‘A’ is

(a) 160

(b) 90

(c) 45

(d) 180
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. A milli molar solution of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is 70% dissociate(d) Find out the osmotic pressure of the solution at 27⁰C

(a) 0.076 atm
(b) 2.76 atm
(c) 3.67 atm
(d) 9.67 atm
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) -1/2
(d) 3/2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. 15 grams of methyl alcohol is dissolved in 35 grams of water. What is the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution?

(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. What is the final temperature of 0.10 mole monoatomic ideal gas that performs 75 cal of work adiabatically if the initial temperature is 227 ⁰C? (use R = 2 cal/K mol)

(a) 250 K

(b) 300 K

(c) 350 K

(d) 750 K
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following half cells are given as
Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ Zn(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.762 V
Cr³⁺(aq) + 3e⁻⇢ Cr(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.740 V
2H⁺(aq) + 2e⁻⇢ H₂(g) ; E⁰ = 0.000 V
Fe³⁺(aq) + e⁻⇢ Fe²⁺(aq) ; E⁰ = – 0.770 V
The strongest reducing agent is?

(a) Zn(s)
(b) Cr(s)
(c) H₂(s)
(d) Fe²⁺(aq)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. For an ideal gas, consider only P−V work in going from an initial state X to the final state Z. The final state Z can be reached by either of the two paths shown in the figure. Which of the following choice(s) is (are) correct? [Take ΔS as change in entropy and w as work done]


Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. In the dissociation of PCl₅, as PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) if the degree of dissociation is α at equilibrium pressure P, then the equilibrium constant for the reaction is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 122 CHEMISTRY

Name

Email

1. The suitable indicator for the titration of weak acid and strong base should have a pH range between :
(a) 3-5
(b) 7-11
(c) 4-6
(d) 2-3
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. An alkene ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives a mixture of ethanal and pentane-3-one. The alkene ‘A’ is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. An organic compound having molecular formula CHO, gives silver mirror test with tollen’s reagent and shows 2,4-DNP test. Compound is. D) Both b and c

a)
b)
c)
d) Both b and c
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following reagents will convert A to B?

a) PCC
b) Ozonolysis
c) BH₃ ; H₂O₂/OH followed by PCC oxidation.
d) HBr, hydrolysis followed by oxidation by K₂Cr₂O₇
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which of the following gives yellow precipitate with I₂/NaOH.

a) CH₃CHCOCH₂CH₃
b) CH₃COOCOCH₃
c) CH₃CONH₂
d) CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their basic strength :-
(I) C6H5NH2 (II) C2H5NH2
(III) (C2H5)2NH2 (IV)NH3

(a) II > III > IV > I
(b) III > II > IV > I
(c) III > IV > II > I
(d) II > IV > III > I
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points :-
(i) CH3CHO (II) CH3CH3–OH
(III) CH3O–CH3 (IV) CH3CH2CH3

(a) II > IV > I > III
(b) II > III > I > IV
(c) II > I > III > IV
(d) I > II > III > IV
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. Complex [Co(NH3)5(NO2)2]Cl2 can show :

a) Only ionisation isomerism
b) Only linkage isomerism
c) Both linkage and ionisation isomerism
d) Linkage and coordination isomerism
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Assertion (A) :- [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagneti(c)
Reason (R) :- In presence of strong field ligand H2O, electrons get paired in [Fe(H2O)6] while in weak field ligand CN- , electrons don’t pair up.

a) (a) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
b) (a) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
c) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
d) Both (a) and (R) correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. Assertion (A) :- Benzaldehyde is more reactive than propanal for NAR. (Nucleophilic addition reaction)
Reason (R) :- The carbon atom of carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophillic than carbon atom of carbonyl group present in propanal.

a) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
c) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
d) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Which statement is NOT correct for benzene sulphonyl chloride?

a) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent.
b) It is used to distinguish, primary and secondary amines
c) On treatment with secondary amine it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali.
d) It doesn’t react with tertiary amine.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

In the above reaction compound C is

a) CH₃–COOH, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
b) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–CN
c) CH₃–CO–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NC
d) CH₃–CH₂–NH₂, CH₃–NH₂and CH₃–NCDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Which of the following compound act as a poison in Lindlar catalyst ?

(a) Sulphur compound
(b) Quinoline
(c) Both
(d) NoneDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. IUPAC name of aspirin is :

a) 2-Ethanoyloxy benzoic acid
b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Aspirin
d) 2-methoxy carboxyl benzoic acidDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. Which of the following nitrogen containing compound does not give Lassaigne’s test ?

(a) Phenyl hydrazine
(b) Glycine
(c) Urea
(d) HydrazineDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Choose the correct order of atomic size ?

a) Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
b) Lu > Yb > La > Lr
c) Ce > Pm > Yb > Lu
d) Lu > Yb > Ce > LaDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Electron gain enthalpy is the amount of energy released when an electron is _____ to the outermost shell of an elements in its _____ state. It becomes more _____ across a period and less ____ down a group.

a) Added, gaseous, negative, negative
b) Remove, liquid, positive, negative
c) Added, liquid, negative, positive
d) Removed, gaseous, positive, positiveDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Identify the one which reduced Tollen’s reagent ?

(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Maltose
(d) SucroseDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. The correct Lewis acid order for boron halide is

a) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃
b) BF₃ < BCl₃ < BBr₃ < BI₃
c) BF₃ > BI₃ > BBr₃ > BCl₃
d) BF₃ >BCl₃ > BBr₃ > BI₃Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Catalyst used in contact process is is

(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) V₂O₅(c) Cr₂O₃
(d) CrO₃
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 121 PHYSICS

Name

Email

1. A proton and an α – particle have kinetic energy in the ratio 16:1. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated with them is.

(a) 4:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 7:2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5V. What is the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted? e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹(c)

(a) 2.4 eV
(b) 1.5 eV
(c) 3.1 eV
(d) 4.5 eV

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. A ray of light when falls on a liquid A-air interface at angle 45°, it just gets total reflection. When a ray of light falls on liquid B -air interface at angle 30°, it does not emerge out. We can infer that

(a) μ_A>μ_B
(b) μ_A<μ_B(c) μ_A=μ_B
(d) can’t be inferred

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. In going from a rarer to a denser medium, light loses some spee(d) What happens to energy carried by light waves?

a) Greater in rarer medium
b) Greater in denser medium
c) equal in both mediums
d) cannot be said
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

(a) I₁+I₂(b) (√I₁+√I₂)²(c) (√I₁−√I₂)²(d) 2(I₁+I₂)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm×2cm) to (5cm×4×cm). If the work done is 3×10⁻⁴J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

(a) 0.250Nm⁻¹
(b) 0.125Nm⁻¹(c) 0.2Nm⁻¹
(d) 8.0Nm⁻¹

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. When two displacements represented by y₁=asin (ωt) and y₂=bcos (ωt) are superimposed, the motion is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In an SHM, x is the displacement and a is the acceleration at time t. the plot of a against x for one complete oscillation will be

(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) an ellipse
(d) a sinusoidal curve
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Which of the following statements are true wave motion?

a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through all mediums
b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through solids only
d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. To determine Young’s modulus of the material of a wire,

a) two wires of same length and radius are taken.
b) Single straight wire of uniform cross section is taken.
c) three wires of different lengths but of same material are taken.
d) two springs of same length but different materials are taken.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is measured as V= (200 ± 4) volt and the current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) (a) The value of the resistance is:

(a) (10±0.5)Ω
(b) (10±0.3)Ω
(c) (10±0.4)Ω
(d) (10±0.1)Ω
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by means of a string at an initial speed of 12 rpm. If the tension in the string is quadrupled while keeping the radius constant, the new speed in rad/s is

(a) 1.5
(b) 1.8
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.2
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. A wheel of radius 1 meter rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal groun(d) The magnitude of the displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force F_c=-k/r² , the total energy is

(a) -k/r
(b) k/r
(c) -k/2r
(d) k/2r

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

(a) 40s
(b) 80s
(c) 20s
(d) 50sDeselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. A 60 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static friction and sliding friction are 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. The acceleration of the body in m/s2 is

(a) 5.2

(b) 2.5

(c) 4.3

(d) 1
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. A body of 10 kg is acted by a force of 129.4 N. If g =8 m/s². The acceleration of the block is 10 m/s². What is the coefficient of kinetic friction?

(a) 0.03
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.04
(d) 0.4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum p. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road be m, then the stopping distance is

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches diagonally opposite point. The work done in this case is

(a) 0
(b) mgh
(c) -mgh
(d) none
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. The force constants of two springs are k₁ and k₂ respectively. Both are stretched till their potential energies are equal. The forces f₁ and f₂ applied on them are in the ratio

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 119 BIOLOGY

Name

Email

1. Column-I contains organisms and column-II contains their excretory structures. Choose the correct match form the options given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

2. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

3. Match the column I w ith column II and mark the answer:

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

4. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology
(ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vecto
(iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
(iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for staining DNA.
(v) Restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of DNA sequence.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) All of these
(d) None of these

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

5. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?

(a) Lubb – Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systol
(b) Dup – Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(d) Purkinje fibers – Initiation of the heart beat

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

6. Which one of the components of ECG in human is correctly interpreted below?

(a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Syslolic and diastolic blood pressures
(d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

7. Which of the following statement is correct regarding blood cells?
(i) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 200ml of blood.
(ii) RBC as an average life span of 120 days after which they are destroyed in the spleen.
(iii) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body
(iv) A reduction in the number of WBC leads to clotting disorders which will lead to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only(ii)
(c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i) and (iv)

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

8. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organ, the target organ will

(a) continue to respond to hormone.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but requires higher concentration.
(d) continue to respond but in the opposite way.
Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

9. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of air

(a) that can be tilled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(b) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
(c) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(d) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

10. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

11. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using which of the following?
1. dNTPs 2. Mg²+
3. dATPs 4. Ca²+

Options:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

12. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) Transformation is the procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into host bacterium.
b) If many copies of target DNA are to be achieved, then it should be cloned in vector with high copy number.
c) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to ampicillin is transferred into E.coli cells, then the host cells become transformed into any antibiotic resistant cells.
d) Presence of many recognition sites in the vector will generate several DNA fragments which may complicate gene cloning

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

13. Multiple alleles are present

a) on different chromosomes
b) at the same locus of the chromosome
c) at different loci on the same chromosome
d) on non-sister chromatids

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

14. An individual with XxYy genotype is producing four types of gametes as XY, Xy, xY, xy by meiosis. If the frequency of these gametes is 25% each, then, it explains

a) Mutations
b) Independent assortment
c) Incomplete linkage
d) Complete linkage

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

15. In a fish, gold skin colour (G) is dominant to black skin colour (g) and split tail fin (S) is dominant to single tail fin (s). A breeder crosses a male fish having GgSs genotype with a female fish having ggSs genotype. Determine the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny.

(a) 3:1
(b) 9:7
(c) 3:1:3:1
(d) 9:3:3:1

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

16. Whale, seal and shark show which of the following?

a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Natural selection
d) Hybridisation

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding genetic drift?

a) Mechanism for evolution of new species
b) Founder effect is a special case
c) Random change in allele frequency in a population
d) Significant only in large population

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

18. Organic compounds required for origin of life were

a) Urea and amino acids
b) Proteins and amino acids
c) Urea and nucleic acids
d) Proteins and nucleic acids

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

19. At a particular locus, frequency of allele ‘A’ is 0.7 and that of allele ‘a’ is 0.3. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

(a) 0.42
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.49
(d) 0.9

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

20. Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicates that

a) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
b) Frogs will have gills in the future
c) Frogs uses gills for respiration
d) Frogs evolved from Piscean ancestor

Deselect Answer

a)

b)

c)

d)
None

May 7, 2025

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