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JEE WEEKLY TEST MATHEMATICS (23.08.2025)

Welcome to your JEE WEEKLY TEST MATHEMATICS (23.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 25 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

(Attempt only 25 questions)
1. Find the conjugate of (I – i² )³

1) -2-2i
2) -2+2i
3) i-1
4) 2+2i

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None

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None

3. Express the given complex number i⁹+i¹⁹in the form a+ib

1) 0
2) 1+i
3) -1+i
4) 2+0i
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3

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None

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None

5. If (1+i)(x+iy)=2+4i then “5x” is

1) 11
2) 13
3) 14
4) 15
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None

6. Find the conjugate of (1+i)³

1) -2+2i
2) -2-2i
3) 1-i
4) 1-3i
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None

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None

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None

9. If the area of the triangle on the complex plane formed by the points z, iz and z+iz is square units, then |z| is

1) 5
2) 20
3) 15
4) none of these
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None

10. Find the argument of z=1+i

1) -π/4
2) π
3) π/4
4) π/6
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None

11. If z₁=2+i, z₂=1+3i, then Re(z₁-z₂ )=

1) i
2) 1
3) 2i
4) 2
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None

1) -i
2)1
3) i
4) -1
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None

13. i²+i⁴+i⁶+… up to 2k+1 terms, for all k belongs to natural numbers N equals-

1) 1
2) -1
3) 0
4) none of these
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None

14. If (x+iy)(3-4i)=(5+12i), then

1) 5/13
2) 13/5
3) 16
4) 65
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None

15. If |z+4|≤3, then the maximum value of |z+1| is

1) 6
2) 0
3) 4
4)10
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None

1) n=8
2) n=16
3) n=12
4) n=4
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None

1) 2i
2) 2
3) √2
4) 2√2
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None

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1. a=25, b=-8
2. a=25,b=8
3. a=5,b=4
4. none of theseDeselect Answer

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None

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22. Which of the following is correct for any two complex numbers z₁ and z₂?

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23. The point represented by the complex number 2-i is rotated about origin through an angle π/2 in the clockwise direction, the new position of point is

1) 1+2i
2) -1-2i
3) 2+i
4) -1+2i
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None

24. If for z=α+iβ, |z+2|=z+4(1+i , then α+β and αβ are the roots of the equation
1) x²+3x-4=0
2) x²+7x+12=
3) x²+x-12=0
4) x²+2x-3=0Deselect Answer

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1) 1
2) 12
3) 9
4) -9
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1) line, y=-x
2) imaginary axis
3) line, y=x
4) real axis
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28. Let z be a complex number such that |z|+z=3+i. Then |z| is equal to

1) 3/5
2) 5/3
3) 5/4
4) 4/5
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None

29. The equation |z-i|=|z-1| represents
1) a circle of radius 1/2
2) a circle of radius 1
3) the line through the origin with slope 1
4) none of theseDeselect Answer

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None

30. Let ω₁ be a point obtained by the rotation of z₁=5+4i about the origin through a right angle in the anticlockwise direction, and ω₂be the point through a right angle in the clockwise direction. Then the principal argument ω₁-ω₂ is equal to

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None

August 22, 2025
NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (23.08.2025)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (23.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

BIOLOGY

1. The hormone responsible for the release of ovum from the mature follicle is:
1. FSH
2. LH
3. Progesterone
4. EstrogenDeselect Answer

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None

2. Assertion (A): LH surge induces ovulation.
Reason (R): LH induces rupture of Graafian follicle.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.Deselect Answer

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None

3. Which of the following layers in a graafian follicle is acellular?

1. Zona pellucida
2. Theca interna
3. Granulosa
4. Theca externaDeselect Answer

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None

4. Which of the following is not a function of placenta?

1. Secretion of oxytocin during parturition
2. Supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
3. Removal of CO₂ and excretory waste materials from embryo
4. Production of hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogens, and progesteroneDeselect Answer

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None

5. The correct sequence of the various phases in menstrual cycle is:

1. Menstrual – Follicular – Secretory – Ovulatory
2. Ovulatory – Follicular – Secretory – Menstrual
3. Menstrual – Follicular – Ovulatory – Secretory
4. Menstrual – Secretory – Follicular – OvulatoryDeselect Answer

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None

6. Follicular atresia is:

1. Formation of corpus luteum
2. Increase in number of follicles
3. Formation of graafian follicles
4. Degeneration of folliclesDeselect Answer

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None

7. Select the correct match from the events of menstrual cycle:

1. Ovulation – LH and FSH attain peak level and a sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
2. Proliferative phase – Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of graafian follicles
3. Development of corpus luteum – Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
4. Menstruation – Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not getting fertilizedDeselect Answer

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8. A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is

1. Formation of first polar body
2. Formation of second polar body
3. First meiosis completes
4. Second meiosis startsDeselect Answer

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None

9. How many X chromosomes are present in first polar body?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 23Deselect Answer

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10. Which of the following is responsible for formation of axial filament in sperms?

1. Ring centriole
2. Nebenkern
3. Distal centriole
4. Naked filamentDeselect Answer

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11. The blastocyst in human females

1. Gets implanted in endometrium by trophoblast cells
2. Forms placenta before implantation
3. Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
4. Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantationDeselect Answer

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12. Assertion (A): Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst
Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium
Considering the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A is false but R is true
2. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
4. A is true but R is falseDeselect Answer

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13. Recognize the given figure and find the correct matching

1. A-cells of corona radiata, B-perivitelline space, C-zona pellucida
2. C-zona pellucida, A-cells of corona radiata, B-perivitelline space
3. B-cells of corona radiata, A-zona pellucida, C-perivitelline space
4. B-perivitelline space, C-zona pellucida, A-cells of corona radiataDeselect Answer

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14. Which of the following is correctly matched in a normal menstrual cycle?

1. Endometrium regenerates – 5^th to 10^th days
2. Release of egg – 5^th day
3. Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation – 11^th to 18^th days
4. Rise in progesterone level – 1^st to 15^th dayDeselect Answer

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15. First resting phase in oogenesis occurs in

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. TelophaseDeselect Answer

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16. Assertion (A): Myometrium is important component of uterus
Reason (R): Myometrium produces strong contractions during parturition

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is trueDeselect Answer

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None

17. In human adult females, oxytocin:

1. Is secreted by anterior pituitary.
2. Stimulates growth of mammary glands.
3. Relaxes the cervix during parturition
4. Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.Deselect Answer

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None

18. Which of the following undergoes the meiosis -I division?

1. Secondary spermatocytes
2. Primary spermatocytes
3. Spermatids
4. SpermatogoniaDeselect Answer

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19. Which of the following is a finger-like structure and lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening

1. Oviduct
2. Mons pubis
3. Clitoris
4. Chorionic villiDeselect Answer

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None

20. The following graph shows the levels of pituitary hormones during menstrual cycle. What does X and Y represent?

1. X – FSH, Y – LH
2. X – Estrogen, Y – Progesterone
3. X – Progesterone, Y – Estrogen
4. X – LH, Y – FSH
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21. Which of the following statement is true for cleavage?

1. Size of embryo increase
2. Size of cells increase
3. Size of cells decrease
4. Size of embryo decrease
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None

22. Consider the following statements:
I. The uterine endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle
II. Estrogen secreted during the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle helps in the development of follicles
III. hCG secreted by trophoblast cells helps in maintaining corpus luteum
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
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None

23. Which of the following restriction endonuclease makes blunt end?

1. Hind II
2. Eco RI
3. Bam HI
4. Pst I
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None

24. Select the correct statement regarding first isolated restriction endonuclease

1. It is isolated from Escherichia coli RY13
2. It make cuts at either 5’ or 3’ ends of DNA duplex
3. It is responsible for making sticky ends
4. Hind II is first isolated restriction endonuclease
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25. Statement 1: Bioprocess engineering involves manufacturing of biotechnological products in a maintained sterile microbial contamination free condition.
Statement 2: Genetic engineering includes alteration of genetic material of vector by introducing foreign DNA

1. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
2. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
3. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
4. Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
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26. Select the enzyme responsible for opening of cell wall.

1. DNA polymerase
2. T4 DNA ligase
3. Cellulase
4. Exonuclease
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27. Which of the following represents a palindromic sequence in a DNA?

1. 5’ —CCAATG—3’ 3’—GAATCC—5’
2. 5’ —GAATTC—3’ 3’—CTTAAG—5’
3. 5’ —GATACC—3’ 3’—CCTAAG—5’
4. 5’ —CATTAG—3’ 3’—GATAAC—5’
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28. Identify the given diagram and select the correct option.

1. I- Eco RI, II- Hind II
2. I- Eco RI, II- DNA Ligase
3. I- DNA Ligase, II- Hind II
4. I- Eco RV, II- Hind II
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29. Which of the following statements holds true for gel electrophoresis?

1. Most commonly used medium for separation of DNA is agarose extracted from Thermus aquaticus
2. Separated DNA can be visualised after staining with ethidium dibromide under UV radiation
3. DNA fragments loaded on negative electrode move towards the anode through a medium
4. All of above
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30. Select the correct statement regarding plasmid vector.

1. They cannot confer some traits on the organism
2. They are not essential for normal cell growth and division
3. Normally circular, single stranded DNA
4. Present only in bacteria
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31. Elution is a process which involves

1. Isolation of DNA from desired organism
2. Cutting and extraction of DNA from the gel
3. Making the DNA visible under UV- light
4. Separation of DNA fragments on agarose gel
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32. Match the following:

1. 1- iii, 2- iv, 3- ii, 4- i
2. 1- ii, 2- iv, 3- i, 4- iii
3. 1- ii, 2- i, 3- iii, 4- iv
4. 1- iii, 2- ii, 3- iv, 4- i
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33. Assertion: E.coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at Pvu I site cannot grow in medium containing tetracycline
Reason: Recognition site for Pst I is present in ampR of pBR322

1. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
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None

34. Gene transfer technique mostly used for plant cell is

1. Microinjection
2. Electroporation
3. Chemical mediated
4. Gene gun method
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None

35. Select the incorrect match.

1. Denaturation – 94°C
2. Annealing – 35°C
3. Extension – 72°C
4. Taq polymerase – enzyme
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36. During the purification process for rDNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out

1. RNA
3. Polysaccharides
2. DNA
4. Histones
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None

37. Plasmid vector for prokaryotes differs from that of eukaryotes by

1. One ori site
2. More than one ori site
3. More than one recognition site
4. Selectable marker sites
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38. Non- recombinant colonies in insertional inactivation are differentiated on the basis of

1. Production of white colour
2. Production of green colour
3. Production of no colour
4. Production of blue colour
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None

39. The technique used for the transformation of oocyte cells rDNA technology is

1. Microinjection
2. Electroporation
3. Gene gun method
4. Chemical mediated
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None

40. A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made to do so. This is because

1. DNA is very large molecule
2. DNA is hydrophobic molecule
3. DNA is very small molecule
4. DNA is hydrophilic molecule
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None

41. Select the incorrect statements.
1. Foreign DNA directly injected into nucleus of cell using microneedle is microinjection
2. In gene gun method, cells are coated on gold or silver pellets
3. Polyethylene glycol helps foreign DNA enter the host cell
4. Electrical impulse cannot induce pores in cells

1. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
4. 3 and 4
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None

42. Assertion: Bioreactors are required to produce large quantities of products
Reason: Small volume cultures cannot give large quantities of products.

1. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
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None

43. Simple stirred tank bioreactor differ from sparged stirred tank bioreactor in having

1. Stirrer
2. Air inlet
3. Sparger
4. Cylindrical shape
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None

44. The process of separation and purification of products from biosynthetic stage is

1. Insertional inactivation
2. Downstream processing
3. Upstream processing
4. Electrophoresis
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None

45. Select the correct pair.

1. Ligases – break DNA inti fragments
2. Nucleases – joins DNA molecules
3. Polymerase – cuts DNA
4. Endonuclease – make cuts at specific point in DNA
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None

46. In competitive inhibition:

1. Inhibitor resembles the substrate in molecular structure
2. Competition between substrates and inhibitors to occupy active sites
3. Binding the inhibitors to active sites declines the enzyme action
4. All are correct
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None

47. The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of

1. competitive inhibition
2. non-competitive inhibition
3. allosteric modulation
4. none of the above
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None

48. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action.

1. Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
2. Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydogenase by malonate.
3. A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
4. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
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49. Both the strands of the DNA are joined by

1. Disulphide bond
2. hydrogen bonds
3. Glycosidic bonds
4. phosphodiester bonds
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None

50. Select the correct statement

1. The base pairs in DNA are stacked 0.34 nm apart
2. The diameter of a right handed helical ds B-DNA molecules is 34Ä
3. Sugar-phosphate and hydrogen bonds are both present in a single nucleotide such as AMP
4. A and T of one strand compulsorily base pair with G and C respectively, of the other strand.
Deselect Answer

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None

51. In cellulose, the monomeric units are linked by:

1. α(1 → 4) glycosidic bonds
2. β(1 → 4) glycosidic bonds
3. α(1 → 6) glycosidic bonds
4. β(1 → 6) glycosidic bonds
Deselect Answer

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None

52. Which type of fatty acid has no double bonds?

1. Saturated
2. Unsaturated
3. Polyunsaturated
4. Essential
Deselect Answer

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None

53. Which of the following is not a coenzyme?

1. NAD⁺
2. NADP⁺
3. Coenzyme A
4. Mg²⁺
Deselect Answer

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None

54. Which one of the following amino acids is aromatic?

1. Glycine
2. Alanine
3. Phenylalanine
4. Valine
Deselect Answer

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None

55. Number of peptide bonds in a tripeptide is:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Deselect Answer

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None

56. Which of the following is a sulfur containing amino acid?

1. Serine
2. Cysteine
3. Valine
4. Glutamic acid
Deselect Answer

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None

57. Which of the following statements about denaturation of proteins is correct?

1. Loss of primary structure
2. Loss of secondary and tertiary structure without breaking peptide bonds
3. Breaking of peptide bonds
4. Formation of new disulfide bonds
Deselect Answer

1

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None

58. Zwitterion form of amino acid is observed at:

1. Low pH
2. High pH
3. Isoelectric point (pI)
4. Neutral pH always
Deselect Answer

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None

59. Number of peptide bonds in a hexapeptide is:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 5
4. 6
Deselect Answer

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None

60. The peptide bond is:

1. Ionic bond
2. Covalent amide bond
3. Glycosidic bond
4. Hydrogen bond
Deselect Answer

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None

61. Which protein transports oxygen in muscles?

1. Hemoglobin
2. Myoglobin
3. Albumin
4. Globulin
Deselect Answer

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None

62. The structural protein in connective tissue is:

1. Keratin
2. Collagen
3. Elastin
4. Tubulin
Deselect Answer

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None

63. Enzymes that remove groups from substrates without hydrolysis are called:

1. Hydrolases
2. Ligases
3. Lyases
4.Transferases
Deselect Answer

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None

64. Cellulose is not digested in humans because:

1. It has β(1 → 6) bonds
2. It has α(1 → 4) bonds
3. We lack cellulase enzyme
4. It’s insoluble
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

65. Essential fatty acids are:

1. Saturated
2. Non-saturated
3. Polyunsaturated
4. Hydrogenated
Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

66. Which is not a function of lipids?

1. Energy storage
2. Membrane structure
3. Hormone precursor
4. Carrying oxygen
Deselect Answer

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None

67. The turnover number of an enzyme is:

1. Substrate concentration
2. Enzyme half-life
3. Number of substrate molecules converted per enzyme per minute
4. Inhibition constant
Deselect Answer

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None

68. Plants having little or no secondary growth are

1. pteridophytes
2. deciduous angiosperms
3. grasses
4. cycads.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

69. Root hair develop from the region of

1. elongation
2. root cap
3. meristematic activity
4. maturation.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

70. Protonema is:

1. Haploid and is found in mosses
2. Diploid and is found in liverworts
3. Diploid and is found in mosses
4. Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
Deselect Answer

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None

71. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical angiosperm is:

1. n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 4n
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

72. Read the following statements and select the incorrect option.
Statement A: In Cycas, both male strobilus and megasporophylls present on different plants.
Statement B: In Cycas, both male strobilus and megasporophylls present on the same plants.

1. Only statement A is incorrect
2. Only statement B is incorrect
3. Both statements A and B are correct.
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Deselect Answer

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None

73. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

1. Mesophytes
2. Halophytes
3. Psammophytes
4. Hydrophytes
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

74. Pteridophytes and Bryophytes differ in having:

1. Spermatozoids
2. Conducting system
3. Separate gametophytes
4. Archegonia
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

75. Which type of modification is seen in the stem of one internode long?

1. Phylloclades
3. Stem Thorns
2. Cladodes
4. Stem tendrils
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

76. Which of the following feature is related to the gametophyte of pteridophyte?

1. It bears male and female sex organs
2. It bears antheridia only
3. It is dependent on sporophyte
4. It is well differentiated into stem, root and leaves
Deselect Answer

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None

77. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.

1. i and ii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

78. Select the incorrect statement.

1. Pulvinus is swollen leaf base and characteristic of some legume plants.
2. In neem, pinnate compound leaves are present.
3. In Nepenthes, petiole is modified to pitcher.
4. In leaves of China rose a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

79. A fibrous root system is excellent for

1. food storage
2. nitrogen fixation
3. absorbing water from deeper layers of soil
4. providing good anchorage for the plant.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

80. Select the incorrect statement with respect to gymnosperms.

1. Gymnosperms are heterosporous,
2. The giant red wood tree Sequoia belongs to gymnosperms.
3. The pattern of arrangement of reproductive structures of gymnosperms is spores→sporangia→strobili→sporophylls.
4. Ginkgo and Pinus belongs to gymnosperms.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

81. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

1. Scales
3. Phyllodes
2. Cladodes
4. Phylloclades
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

82. Choose the correct statement.

1. Unisexual flowers occur in china rose.
2. Monoecious conditions in lower plants is absent.
3. Pollen tube can carry both male or female gametes.
4. In lower plants, both male and female gametes may be motile.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

83. A vascular cryptogam is:

1. Equisetum
2. Cedrus
3. Marchantia
4. Ginkgo
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

84. If number of chromosomes in a gametophytic structure of fern is 8 then find the number of chromosomes in rhizoid, oosphere, leaf cell, megaspore respectively.

1. 8,8, 16,8
2. 16, 16, 8, 8
3. 8, 16, 16, 8
4. 16,8,8,16
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

85. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Potato-Corm
2. Zamikand-Rhizome
3. Onion – Bulb
4. Ginger-Sucker
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

86. In the evolutionary history of plant forms, ferns and conifers are most related to

1. chlorophyte
2. tracheophyte
3. psilophyton
4. seed ferns
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

87. If the leaf of gymnosperm has 72 chromosomes, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm

1. 36
2. 18
3. 54
4. 72
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

88. Read the following statements and choose the set of incorrect statements.
(a) In gymnosperms microspores are male gametophytes.
(b) The megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis and formed four haploid megaspores.
(c) The formation of more than one embryo is found in Pinus.
(d) Both sporophytic and gametophytic phase are dependent to each other in gymnosperms.
Choose the correct answer from the above.

1. (a) and (e) only
2. (a) and (d) only
3. (b) and (d) only
4. (b) and (c) only
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89. Assertion: The alternate type of phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves in which a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner.
Reason: The alternate type of phyllotaxy is seen in China rose and mustard plant.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90. A plant exhibits simple leaves arranged in a whorled pattern with a characteristic reticulate venation. Which of the following plants possesses this leaf morphology?

1. Calotropis
3. China rose
2. Neem
4. Alstonia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

August 21, 2025
NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (09.08.2025)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (09.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

1. Which is not true for a unit vector?
1. its magnitude is unity
2. it acts parallel to the vector
3. angle made with the vector is 0º
4. acts in opposite direction with the vectorDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2. If the component of a quantity along the horizontal is greater than the component along vertical, then which of the following is true?

1. the vector inclines more towards the y-axis
2. the vector inclines more towards the x-axis
3. the vector acts parallel to the horizontal
4. the vector acts parallel to the verticalDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3. At t=0, the velocity of a particle is Due to some force the acceleration becomes .The final speed of the particle in m/s at time will be

1. 14
2. 9
3. 13
4. 10
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. If the position vector of a particle in XY plane is given by . The position of the particle in m on the vertical axis at time t=2 s is

1. 36 m
2. -36 m
3. 10 m
4. -10 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. If the horizontal range is equal to the maximum height attained, the angle of projection for a projectile fired at an angle to the horizontal is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6. If a particle is moving under uniform circular motion, which of the following is true

1. The angular acceleration of the particle is unity
2. The linear velocity is constant
3. The centripetal acceleration is zero
4. The tangential acceleration is zero
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7. The horizontal velocity (u) of projection of an object fired parallel to the horizontal having its path y=x² is given by

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8. For a particle moving in uniform circular motion, the angle between the radial acceleration and the linear velocity is

1. 90º
2. 180º
3. 60º
4. 360º
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9. A B-2 Bomber flying horizontally with a speed 280 m/s drops a gravity bomb of mass 50 kg. Neglecting air resistance, calculate the distance from the ground such that the bomb strikes the target on the ground if the Bomber flies 2.5 km above the ground. (Use g=10 ms^-2;take √5=2.23 )

1. 6250 m
2. 5244 m
3. 5250 m
4. 6244 m
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10. A bullet of mass 0.24 kg is fired at angle with the horizontal with an initial velocity of . The kinetic energy of the bullet at the highest point of its motion is

1. 0 J
2. 27 J
3. 30 J
4. 10 J

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11. Grace can swim with a speed of 2 m/s in still water. Suppose she wished to cross a river that is flowing with a speed of 1 m/s due west. If she is at the north bank of the river, at what angle does she have to make with the north direction so that she lands exactly to her starting point on the opposite bank?

1. 30º west
2. 30º east
3. 60º east
4. 60º west
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12. Choose the correct set of equations for a projectile fired at an angle to the X-axis

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13. For a particle moving in a uniform circular motion, the scalar product between the angular velocity and the linear velocity vector is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14. For a ball projected vertically upwards, its potential energy at the highest point is

1. maximum
2. minimum
3. equal to its K.E. at the highest po
4. equal to half of its K.E. at the highest point
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15. If the angular speed of the Earth around the Sun in a circular orbit is 1.99×10^-7 rad s^-1, then the linear speed of the Earth around the Sun if the distance between them is 150×10⁹ m is?

1. 28.95 km/s
2. 29.85 km/s
3. 28.85 km/s
4. 29.95 km/s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16. A constant torque of 1000Nm turns a wheel of moment of inertia 200kgm²about an axis through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 seconds is.

1. 1rad/s
2. 5rad/s
3. 10rad/s
4. 15rad/s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17. The angular velocity of second hand of a clock will be.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, the direction of angular momentum is along.

1. A line perpendicular to the plane of rotation
2. The tangent to the orbit
3. The line making an angle of 45∘to the plane of rotation
4. The radius
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19. A disc and a solid sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

1. Disk
2. Sphere
3. Both reach at the same time
4. Depends on their masses
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20. The centre of mass of a body

1. lies always at the geometrical centre
2. lies always inside the body
3. lies always outside the body
4. may lie within or outside the body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21. Moment of inertia of body depends upon

1. mass of the body
2. axis of rotation of the body
3. shape and size of the body
4. all of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22. A body having its centre of mass at the origin has three of its particles at (a,0,0), (0, a,0), (0,0, a). The moments of inertia of the body about the X and Y axes are 0.20 kg m² The moment of inertia about the Z-axis

1. 20 kgm²
2. 40 kgm²
3. 20√2 kgm²
4. cannot be deduced with this information.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23. Two particles of equal mass have velocities v₁=2i ms⁻¹and v₂=2j ms⁻¹ First particle has an acceleration a=(3i+3j) ms⁻² while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre of mass of the two particles moves in a path of

1. Straight line
2. Parabola
3. Circle
4. Ellipse
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24. A solid cylinder of mass 20kg and radius 20cm rotates about its axis with an angular speed 100rads⁻¹. The angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis is

1. 40 J s
2. 400 J s
3. 20 J s
4. 200 J s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25. A force acts at a point (2, -3, 1). Then magnitude of torque about point (0,0,2) will be

1. 6 units
2. 3√5 units
3. 6√5 units
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26. A rigid body can be hinged about any point on the x-axis. When it is hinged such that the hinge is at x, the moment of inertia is given by I=2x²−12x+27. The x-coordinate of centre of mass is.

1. x=2
2. x=0
3. x=1
4. x=3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27. For which of the following does the centre of mass lie outside the body?

1. A pencil
2. A shotput
3. A dice
4. A ring
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of radius r about a certain axis is r. The distance of this axis from the centre of the sphere is

1. r
2. 0.5 r
3. √0.6 r
4. √0.5 r
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity brakes into two parts, a body B of mass 1/3M and a body C of mass 2/3 The center of mass of bodies B and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A towards

1. depends on the height of breaking
2. does not shift
3. body C
4. body B
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30. The correct relation between linear velocity and angular velocity of a particle is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31. If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelength of the first line of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively, then λ₁:λ₂is

1. 1:3
2. 1:30
3. 7:50
4. 7:108
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32. In the following nuclear reaction,

What does X stand for?

1. A proton
2. A neutron
3. A neutrino
4. An electron

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33. Which of the following nuclear reaction is not possible.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34. Taking the Bohr radius as a₀=53 pm, the radius of Li⁺⁺ ion in its ground state, on the basis of Bohr’s model, will be about

1) 53 pm
2) 159 pm
3) 18 pm
4) 13 pm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35. The number of de Broglie wavelengths contained in the second Bohr orbit of Hydrogen atom is

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36. What is the approximate ratio of volume of a nucleus to the volume of an atom?

1. 10-³⁴
2. 10^-15
3. 10^-5
4. 10^-10
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37. A force between two protons is same as the force between two neutrons. The nature of the force is

1. Electrostatic force
2. Gravitational force
3. Magnetic force
4. Nuclear force
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38. The mass of ₃Li⁷ nucleus is 0.042 amu less than the sum of masses of its constituent nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon is

1. 5.589 MeV
2. 10.522 MeV
3. 2.433 MeV
4. 39.123 MeV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39. How much mass has to be converted into energy to produce electric power of for one hour?

1. 2 kg
2. 40 mg
3. 4 kg
4. 20 mg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40. If the nucleus of has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then would have its radius approximately

1. 2.16 fm
2. 12 fm
3. 4.8 fm
4. 6 fm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41. Angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom is . The kinetic energy of the electron in that orbit is

1. 3.4 eV
2. 13.6 eV
3. 1.5 eV
4. 6.8 eV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42. One of the lines in the emission of Li²⁺ has the same wavelength as that of the second line of Balmer series in Hydrogen spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding to this line is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43. The mass of an α-particle is

1. equal to the mass of four protons
2. equal to the mass of four neutrons
3. equal to the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons
4. less than the sum of masses of two protons and two neutrons
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44. Which of the following electronic transitions in hydrogen atom gives out highest energy photon?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45. The number of spectral lines that will be observed with our naked eye when electrons in 5^th excited state in different hydrogen atoms returns to its ground state.

1. 15
2. 4
3. 5
4. 10
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 14, 2025
NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (09.08.2025)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (09.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

CHEMISTRY TEST
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

1. The right option for the mass of CO₂produced by heating 20g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)
[ CaCO₃ —> CaO + CO₂]

1. 1.32 g
2. 1.12 g
3. 1.76 g
4. 2.64 gDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2. 10g of Hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be

1. 3 mol
2. 4 mol
3. 1 mol
4. 2 molDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3. A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B, and remaining % of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40, C = 32)

1. AB₂C₂
2. ABC₄
3. A₂BC₂
4. ABC₃Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. 20 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8 g of magnesium oxide. What will be the % purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample? (Atomic weight of Mg = 24)

1. 96
2. 60
3. 84
4 75
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. 8g of sodium chloride was allowed to react with 10.8 g of sulphuric acid. 14 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and gaseous HCl were formed. Calculate the mass of the gas formed.

1. 3.6 g
2. 3.4 g
3. 5.6 g
4. 5.4 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6. If 10²⁰ molecules are removed from 100 mg CO₂, then number of moles of CO₂left are

1. 6.10 x 10^-4
2. 2.8 x 10^-33. 2.1 x 10^-3 4. 6.10 x 10^-6
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7. 0.037 g of an alcohol R-OH, was added to C₂H₅MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cc at STP. The molecular mass of the alcohol is

1. 42 g
2. 46 g
3. 58 g
4. 74 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8. CaCO₃is 80% pure. Volume of CO₂collected at STP when 10g of CaCO₃ is decomposed is

1. 1.892 L
2. 1.792 L
3. 2.016 L
4. 1.008 L
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9. A compound contains 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass is

1. 200
2. 400
3. 155
4. 355
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10. What is the ratio of number of molecules, if the mass ratio of N₂ and O₂ is 4: 1?

1. 28 : 32
2. 14 :16
3. 16 : 32
4. 32 : 7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11. Calculate the number of Cl^– and Ca²⁺ ions in 222 g of anhydrous CaCl₂.

1. 2 NA ions of Cl- and 4 NA ions of Ca2+
2. 2 NA ions of Cl- and 2 NA ions of Ca2+
3. 4 NA ions of Cl- and 2 NA ions of Ca2+
4. none of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12. The number of moles of oxygen in 1 L of air containing 21 % oxygen by volume , under standard conditions is

1. 0.0093 mol
2. 2.10 mol
3. 0.186 mol
4. 0.21 mol
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13. 44 g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies 224 mL at STP. The compound is

1. NO
2. N₂O
3. N₂O₂4. NO₂
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14. H₂S is a toxic gas used in qualitative analysis. If solubility of H₂S in water at STP is 0.195m, what is the value of K_H?

1. 0.0263 bar
2. 69.16 bar
3. 192 bar
4. 282 bar
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15. 1kg of water under a pressure of 1 atmosphere dissolves 0.02g of nitrogen gas at 293K. Calculate Henry’s law constant.

1. 7.7 x 10⁴ atm
2. 7.7 x 10³ atm
3. 2 x 10^-5 atm
4. 2 x 10^-2 atm
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16. What mass of 95% pure CaCo3 will be required to neutralise 50 ml of 5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(q) + H2O (l)
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

1. 1.32 g
2. 3.65 g
3. 9.50 g
4. 1.25 g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17. Which of the following is dependent on temperature

1. Molarity
2. Mole fraction
3. Weight percentage
4. Molality

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18. In one molal solution that contains 5 mole of solute there is

1. 500mL of solvent
2. 500 g of solvent
3. 100mL of solvent
4. 1000 g of solvent

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19. 250 gram solution of D-glucose in water containing 8% of carbon by weight. The molality of the solution is nearest to (given atomic weight are H: 1u, C:12u, O:16 u)

1. 1.03
2. 2.06
3. 3.09
4. 5.40
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20. A solution of sodium sulphate contains 92 g of Na+ions per kilogram of The molality of Na+ ions in that solution in mol kg-1

1. 8
2. 4
3. 12
4. 16
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21. The right option for the mass of CO₂ produced by heating 20g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)

1. 1.76 g
2. 2.64g
3. 1.32g
4. 1.12g
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22. On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as:

1. Cystallization
2. Sublimation
3. Distillation
4. Chromatography
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23. Solubility curve of Na₂SO₄.10H₂O in water with temperature is given as in the From the figure, we can say that

1. solution process is exothermic
2. solution process is exothermic till 34oC and endothermic after 34oC
3. solution process is endothermic till 34oC and exothermic thereafter
4. Solution process is endothermic
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24. The mole fraction of methanol in its 5 molal aqueous solution is

1. 0.250
2. 0.125
3. 0.100
4. 0.075
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25. How much water is needed to dilute 10 mL of 10N hydrochloric acid to make it exactly decinormal (0.1N)?

1. 990 ML
2. 1000 mL
3. 1010 mL
4. 100 mL
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the following option

1. A-1, B-2, C- 3, D- 4
2. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
3. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-4
4. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27. Which of the following is capable of existing as a pair of enantiomers?

1. 2-methylpropane
2. 2-methylpentane
3. 3-methylpentane
4. 3-methylhexane
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28. 2-chloropropane and 1-chloropropane exhibit ____________ isomerism.

1. chain
2. position
3. functional
4. metamerism
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29. The correct order of stability of the following carbocation is

1. II>I>III
2. III>II>I
3. II>III>I
4. None of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30. The number of σ and π-bonds present in 1, 3-butadiene are respectively

1. 9 and 2
2. 8 and 2
3. 9 and 3
4. 9 and 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31. Sodalime test for detection of N cannot be used for

1. acetamide
2. urea
3. diazo compounds
4. thiourea.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32. In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are present, which gives blood red colour with Fe³⁺due to the formation of

1. [Fe(SCN)]²⁺
2. Fe₄[Fe(CN)₆]₃.xH₂O
3. NaSCN
4. [Fe(CN)₅NOS]^4-

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33. The IUPAC name of

1. 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
2. 1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethylpentane
3. 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34. The molecular formula of diphenylmethane. How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogens is replaced by a chlorine atom?

1.. 4
2. 7
3. 8
4. 6

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35. Which of the following doest exhibit tautomerism?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a_o in Li²⁺ is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37. The incorrect option for cathode ray is

1. Cathode ray travel in a straight lines
2. It cannot produce mechanical effect
3. Do not depend upon the nature of gas
4. Charge/Mass ratio is 1.76 X 10¹¹ C/kg
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He⁺ is

1. 52.9
2. 0.529
3. 26.9
4. 92.7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where the Balmer series lines appear is

1. Infrared
2. Visible
3. Microwaves
4. Ultra Violet
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the least energetic photon ?

1. n=5 to n=3
2. n=5 to n=4
3. n=6 to n=1
4. n=6 to n=5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41. How many spectral lines are present in Balmer series (n₁=2)
(n₂=5)

1. 5
2. 6
3. 10
4. 7
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42. Select the correct statements from the following
A. The electromagnetic radiation do not require any medium for propagation
B. Rutherford cannot explain the stability of atom
C. Mass number, A = No. of protons + No. of Electrons
D. Isobars have the same number of neutrons but different mass number
E. The deflection of anode rays is in the opposite direction to that of the cathode ray

1. A, B and C
2. A, B, C and E
3. A, B, D and E
4. C, D and E
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43. A spectrum which consists of bright coloured lines separated by dark spaces is known as

1. Visible spectrum
2. Emission spectrum
3. Absorption spectrum
4. Electromagnetic spectrum
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44. What is the value of angular momentum for an electron in the 5^th orbit according to Bohr’s theory ?

1. 3h/2π
2. 5h/2π
3. h/2π
4. 5h/3π
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45. The spectrum of helium is expected to be similar to that of

1. H
2. Na
3. Li⁺ 4. He⁺
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

August 7, 2025
BANKING WEEKLY TEST (02.08.2025)

Welcome to your BANKING WEEKLY TEST (02.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

ENGLISH SECTION

(Direction 1- 30) A sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the five alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
1. Admittance was refused to him by the airport security

(A) The airport security is refusing him admittance.

(B) The airport security has refused him admittance.

(C) The airport security had refused him admittance.

(D) The airport security refused him admittance.

(E) None of the above
None

2. The manager explained the latest assignment to Lana.

(A) The latest assignment was explained to Lana by the manager.

(B) The latest assignment had explained to Lana by the manager.

(C) The latest assignment had been explained to Lana by the manager.

(D) The latest assignment had been explain to Lana by the manager.

(E) None of the above
None

3. Robin rolled the marble through a small plastic pipe.

(A) The marble was rolled by Robin in a small plastic pipe.

(B) A small plastic pipe was rolled through a marble by Robin.

(C) The marble was rolled through a small plastic pipe by Robin.

(D) The marble through a small plastic pipe was rolled by Robin.

(E) None of the above
None

4. Shalu has ordered new copies of the album.

(A) New copies of the album have being ordered by Shalu.

(B) New copies of the album has been ordered by Shalu.

(C) New copies of the album has been order by Shalu.

(D) New copies of the album have been ordered by Shalu.

(E) None of the above
None

5. He has downloaded the movie on his phone.

(A) The movie has been downloaded by him on his phone.

(B) The movie was downloaded by him on his phone.

(C) The movie is been downloaded by him on his phone.

(D) The movie are being downloaded by him on his phone.

(E) None of the above
None

6. Manu will tell her later.

(A) She will be tell later by Manu.

(B) She will tell later by Manu.

(C) She will be told later by Manu.

(D) She will be tell later.

(E) None of the above
None

7. Priya washes her clothes in the evening.

(A) The clothes was washed by Priya in the evening.

(B) The clothes is washed by Priya in the evening.

(C) The clothes are washed by Priya in the evening.

(D) The clothes were washed by Priya in the evening

(E) None of the above
None

8. Was the message given by him?

(A) Was he given the message?

(B) Does he give the message?

(C) Did he gave the message?

(D) Did he give the message?

(E) None of the above
None

9. All his friends laughed at him.

(A) He became laughable to his friends.

(B) He was laughed at by all his friends.

(C) His friends were being laughed at by him.

(D) All his friends were laughing at him.

(E) None of the above
None

10. Her failure to get admission in the Science stream surprised us.

(A) We are surprised about her failure to get admission in the Science stream.

(B) We were surprised about her failure to get admission in the Science stream.

(C) We had been surprised about her failure to get admission in the Science stream.

(D) We have been surprised about her failure to get admission in the Science stream.

(E) None of the above
None

11. Success cannot be achieved without hard work and sincerity.

(A) Hard work and sincerity one cannot achieve without success.

(B) One cannot achieve hard work and sincerity without success.

(C) No one could achieve success without hard work and sincerity.

(D) One cannot achieve success without hard work and sincerity.

(E) None of the above
None

12. The ticket will be sent to you by the airlines on e-mail.

(A) The airlines had sent you the ticket by e-mail.

(B) The airlines will have sent you the ticket by e-mail.

(C) The airlines will send you the ticket by e-mail.

(D) The airlines will be sending you the ticket by e-mail.

(E) None of the above
None

13. The light was switched off by her before sleeping.

(A) She is switching off the light before sleeping.

(B) She switches off the light before sleeping.

(C) She had switched off the light before sleeping.

(D) She switched off the light before sleeping.

(E) None of the above
None

14. Let this email be sent immediately.

(A) Send this email immediately.

(B) Ask him to send this email immediately.

(C) We can send this email immediately.

(D) You could send this email immediately.

(E) None of the above
None

15. Our advocate is arguing the case very effectively.

(A) The case has been argued very effectively by our advocate.

(B) The case is arguing very effectively by our advocate.

(C) The advocate is being argued very effectively by our case.

(D) The case is being argued very effectively by our advocate.

(E) None of the above
None

16. We expect good news about the corona vaccine.

(A) Good news has been expected by us about the corona vaccine.

(B) Good news expected us about the corona vaccine.

(C) Good news is expected by us about the corona vaccine.

(D) Good news was expected by us about the corona vaccine

(E) None of the above
None

17. The man eating tiger will be captured tomorrow by the forest officers.

(A) The forest officers will have captured the man eating tiger tomorrow.

(B) The forest officers will capture the man eating tiger tomorrow.

(C) The forest officers will be capturing the man eating tiger tomorrow.

(D) The man eating tiger will capture the forest officers tomorrow.

(E) None of the above
None

18. He was given another chance by his employer.

(A) His employer is giving him another chance.

(B) His employer gave him another chance.

(C) His employer has given him another chance.

(D) He gave his employer another chance.

(E) None of the above
None

19. Why did the editor give such a rude comment?

(A) Why had such a rude comment been given by the editor?

(B) Why is such a rude comment being given by the editor?

(C) Why was such an editor given by the rude comment?

(D) Why was such a rude comment given by the editor?

(E) None of the above
None

20. He was eating a large pizza.

(A) A large pizza was eating him.

(B) A large pizza has been eaten by him.

(C) A large pizza was being eaten by him.

(D) A large pizza was eaten by him.

(E) None of the above
None

21. He plants a mango tree.

(A) A mango tree was planted by him.

(B) A mango tree is planted by him.

(C) A mango tree has planted by him.

(D) A mango tree planted by him.

(E) None of the above
None

22. He was taken to the hospital by his friends.

(A) His friends had taken him to the hospital.

(B) His friends have taken him to the hospital.

(C) His friends take him to the hospital.

(D) His friends took him to the hospital.

(E) None of the above
None

23. I have written this essay.

(A) This essay had been written by me.

(B) This essay is written by me.

(C) This essay has been written by me.

(D) This essay was written by me.

(E) None of the above
None

24. The woodcutter cuts down the tree.

(A) The tree was cut down by the woodcutter.

(B) The tree had been cut down by the woodcutter.

(C) The tree got cut down by the woodcutter.

(D) The tree is cut down by the woodcutter.

(E) None of the above
None

25. Police caught the thief.

(A) The thief was catch by police.

(B) The thief was caught by police.

(C) The thief was being caught by police.

(D) The thief was catch by police.

(E) None of the above
None

26. Who broke the wall painting?

(A) By whom was the wall painting broken?

(B) By who was the wall painting broken?

(C) By whom had the wall painting been broken?

(D) By whom was the wall painting broken?

(E) None of the above
None

27. We shall talk to Sumit.

(A) Sumit would have been invited by us.

(B) Sumit will be invited by us.

(C) Sumit would be invited by us.

(D) Sumit will have been invited by us.

(E) None of the above
None

28. That girl will write an application.

(A) An application would be written by that girl.

(B) An application would written by that girl.

(C) An application will be written by that girl.

(D) An application will be wrote by that girl.

(E) None of the above
None

29. The singer was singing an old melody.

(A) An old melody was being sung by the singer.

(B) An old melody were sung by the singer.

(C) An old melody is sung by the singer.

(D) An old melody was sung by the singer.

(E) None of the above
None

30. Shalini will submit the work at evening.

(A) The work would be submitted by Shalini at evening.

(B) The work will have been submitted by Shalini at evening.

(C) The work will be submitted by Shalini at evening.

(D) The work would have been submitted by Shalini at evening.

(E) None of the above
None

REASONING SECTION

Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A number arrangement machine when given an input of words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input: above has worked but as Marketing officer

Step I: above as has worked but Marketing officer
Step II: above as but has worked Marketing officer
Step III: above as but has Marketing worked officer
Step IV: above as but has Marketing officer worked

This is the final arrangement and step IV is the last step for this input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.
Input: changed pattern based on the new syllabus

1. Which of the following steps will be the last but one for the above input?

(a) V

(b) III

(c) IV

(d) VII

(e) VI
None

2. What is the position of pattern from the left end in step II of the above input?

(a) 3rd

(b) 1st

(c) 5th

(d) 2nd

(e) 4th
None

3. Which of the following will be step III of the above input?

(a) based changed on pattern the syllabus new

(b) based changed new on pattern syllabus the

(c) based changed new on pattern the syllabus

(d) based new changed on pattern the syllabus

(e) None of these
None

4. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

(a) based changed new on pattern the syllabus

(b) based changed on new pattern the syllabus

(c) based changed new on the syllabus pattern

(d) based changed new on pattern syllabus the

(e) None of these
None

5. What is the position of on in step I of the above input?

(a) 3rd from the left

(b) 4th from the left

(c) 4th from the right

(d) Both B and C

(e) Both A and C
None

Directions (6-10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:

Input: cat bat stick trumpet meet mobile mat bottle

Step I: bat cat stick trumpet meet mobile mat bottle
Step II: bat cat mat stick trumpet meet mobile bottle
Step III: bat cat mat meet stick trumpet mobile bottle
Step IV: bat cat mat meet stick bottle trumpet mobile
Step V: bat cat mat meet stick bottle mobile trumpet

And Step V is the last step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following questions.
Input: January February march april may june july

6. How many steps can the output be obtained for the above input?

(a) 6

(b) 4

(c) 7

(d) 3

(e) 5
None

7. Which of the following will be the last but one step for the above input?

(a) may july june January February march april

(b) may july june april march January February

(c) may july January February march april june

(d) may july june april January February march

(e) None of these
None

8. What is the position of june in step III?

(a) 4th from the left

(b) 3rd from the right

(c) 3rd from the left

(d) 5th from the left

(e) None of these
None

9. Which step number would be the following output?

“may july January February march april june”

(a) step IV

(b) step III

(c) step I

(d) step V

(e) step II
None

10. What is the position of February in step I?

(a) 3rd from the right

(b) 5th from the right

(c) 2nd from the left

(d) 4th from the right

(e) None of these
None

Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Input: 93 Bamboo 99 Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 Demand York

Step I: Bamboo 93 Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 Demand York 99
Step II: Demand Bamboo Marathon 89 56 Passion 24 York 99 93
Step III: Marathon Demand Bamboo 56 Passion 24 York 99 93 89
Step IV: Passion Marathon Demand Bamboo 24 York 99 93 89 56
Step V: York Passion Marathon Demand Bamboo 99 93 89 56 24

This is the final arrangement and step V is the last step for this input.
Input: Liquid 21 57 Harmony 34 Tiffin 78 92 Demon Applied
11. In step III, what is position of ‘Applied’ from the left end?

(a) 3rd

(b) 5th

(c) 2nd

(d) 6th

(e) 1st
None

12. In step V, how many Letters/Numbers are between ‘Demon’ and ‘78’?

(a) Five

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Six

(e) None
None

13. ‘Liquid Harmony Demon Applied Tiffin 92 78 57 34 21’ is in which of the following step?

(a) Step II

(b) Step IV

(c) Step V

(d) There is no such Step

(e) Step III
None

14. In step II, which of the following letter/number is fifth to the right of ‘Liquid’?

(a) 34

(b) Harmony

(c) Tiffin

(d) 92

(e) 57
None

15. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

(a) Four

(b) Two

(c) Seven

(d) Six

(e) Five
None

Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Input: 24 black 43 blue 38 yellow green 85 pink 67

Step I: yellow black 43 blue 38 green 85 pink 67 42
Step II: pink yellow black 43 blue green 85 67 42 83
Step III: green pink yellow black blue 85 67 42 83 34
Step IV: blue green pink yellow black 85 42 83 34 76
Step V: black blue green pink yellow 42 83 34 76 58
Step VI: black blue green pink yellow 34 42 58 76 83

And step VI is the last step of the arrangement.

Input: 97 horse balloon 45 hyena 72 leopard 12 33 sheep

16. How many numbers are greater than the average of all numbers in step IV?

(a) Two

(b) Three

(c) Four

(d) Five

(e) One
None

17. How many elements are there between third element from right end and second element from the left end in step V?

(a) Two

(b) Six

(c) Five

(d) Three

(e) Four
None

18. Which element lies third to the right of the one which is fifth from the left in step II?

(a) 33

(b) 72

(c) Hyena

(d) Leopard

(e) Horse
None

19. Which of the following will be the third step?

(a) hyena leopard sheep 79 horse balloon 72 21 33 54

(b) hyena leopard sheep 97 horse balloon 27 21 33 45

(c) hyena leopard sheep 97 horse balloon 72 21 33 54

(d) hyena leopard sheep 97 horse balloon 72 12 33 45

(e) hyena leopard sheep 79 horse balloon 27 21 33 54
None

20. What is the sum of the all numbers in step III?

(a) 232

(b) 270

(c) 182

(d) 168

(e) 277
None

Directions (21-25): Study the information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight people – S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z- are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between them.

Some of them are facing the centre while others are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). Z is sitting third to the left of Y. Both Y and Z are facing outside. V is not an immediate neighbour of Y and Z. X faces the just opposite direction of V (V is facing towards the centre, X would face outside the centre or vice versa). X is sitting second to the left of V. Both the immediate neighbours of U face just opposite direction of U. S is an immediate neighbour of Y. Both the immediate neighbour of V face just opposite direction of V. S faces towards the centre and she is an immediate neighbour of both Y and W. W faces towards the centre.
21. Who is sitting opposite to Y?

(a) T

(b) V

(c) Z

(d) U

(e) S
None

22. If Z and X interchange their position, then which among the following sits second to the left of S as per the new arrangement?

(a) X

(b) V

(c) Z

(d) U

(e) S
None

23. What is the position of W with respect to Y?

(a) Second to the right

(b) Second to the left

(c) Immediate left

(d) Immediate right

(e) Third to the right
None

24. Who among the following sits third to the left of X?

(a) T

(b) V

(c) Z

(d) U

(e) S
None

25. How many persons sit between T and S when counted from the right of T?

(a) One

(b) Five

(c) Two

(d) Four

(e) Three
None

Directions (26-30) : Answer the questions based on the information given below

8 people S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside. U sits second to the right of V. T does not sit at any of the corners of the table. Only 3 people sit between U and Y. Only 1 person sits between Y and X. S sits second to the left of Z. Z is neither an immediate neighbour of X nor Y. Only 3 people sit between S and T.

26. Who sits to the immediate right of Y?

(a) T

(b) X

(c) W

(d) Z

(e) U
None

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t belong to that group?

(a) W

(b) T

(c) S

(d) V

(e) Z
None

28. Who sits third to the left of S ?

(a) W

(b) Z

(c) U

(d) T

(e) Y
None

29. Who is fifth to the right of V?

(a) Z

(b) W

(c) Y

(d) T

(e) X
None

30. How many persons sit between U and T from left of U?

(a) One

(b) Four

(c) Six

(d) Two

(e) Three
None

QUANTITATIVE SECTION

(1-5) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series :

Q1. 7, 10, 16, 28, 52, ?

(a) 98

(b) 92

(c) 84

(d) 100

(e) 86
None

2) 121, 100, 81, 64, 49, ?

(a) 36

(b) 30

(c) 25

(d) 40

(e) 45
None

3) 2, 4, 12, 48, ?, 1440

(a) 220

(b) 230

(c) 240

(d) 250

(e) 260
None

4) 90, 89, 85, 76, 60, ?

(a) 35

(b) 36

(c) 38

(d) 40

(e) 45
None

5) 7, 8, 16, 43, 107, ?

(a) 232

(b) 240

(c) 230

(e) 245
None

(6-10) Find the wrong term in the following series

6) 3, 12, 36, 108, 324, 972

(a) 12

(b) 108

(c) 972

(d) 3

(e) 26
None

7) 2, 8, 26, 80, 240, 728

(a) 8

(b) 80

(c) 240

(d) 2

(e) 26
None

8) 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 12.5, 40.5, 121.5

(a) 1.5

(b) 12.5

(c) 121.5

(d) 0.5

(e) 4.5
None

9) 625, 125, 25, 6, 1, 0.2

(a) 125

(b) 6

(c) 0.2

(d) 625

(e) 25
None

10) 10, 11, 24, 75, 303

(a) 10

(b) 24

(c) 303

(d) 11

(e) 75
None

(11-15) Find the wrong term in each of the following series

11) 1, 4, 10, 16, 25, 36, 49

(a) 1

(b) 10

(c) 25

(d) 49

(e) 4
None

12) 3, 10, 31, 94, 283, 847

(a) 3

(b) 31

(c) 283

(d) 10

(e) 847
None

13) 2, 3, 5, 9, 12, 17

(a) 2

(b) 5

(c) 12

(d) 3

(d) 9
None

14) 98, 89, 79, 70, 60, 50, 41

(a) 98

(b) 79

(c) 60

(d) 50

(e) 41
None

15) 5, 11, 23, 47, 94, 191

(a) 5

(b) 23

(c) 94

(d) 11

(e) 47
None

16. A man and a woman, working together can do a work in 66 days. The ratio of their working efficiencies is 3:2. In how many days 6 men and 2 women working together can do the same work

(a) 18

(b) 15

(c) 14

(d) 12

(e) 10
None

17. A and B can do a certain work in 18 days and 30 days respectively. They work together for 5 days. C alone completes the remaining work in 15 days. A and C together can complete 5/6 th of the same work in:

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 9

(d) 5

(e) 7
None

18. A can complete a work in 11 1/2 days. B is 25% more efficient than A and C is 50% less efficient than B. Working together A,B and C will complete the same work in?

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 3

(d) 9

(e) 7
None

19. To do a certain work, efficiencies of A and B are in the ratio 7:5. Working together, they can complete the work in 17 days. In how many days , will B alone complete 50% of the same work?

(a) 42

(b) 21

(c) 15

(d) 30

(e) 12
None

20. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 22 days. In how many days will A alone finish the same work?

(a) 30

(b) 44

(c) 33

(d) 11

(e) 22
None

22. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days. B and C together in 24 days. If A is twice as good a workman as C, then in how many days can B alone complete the work?

(a) 60

(b) 40

(c) 52

(d) 45

(d) 35
None

22. 10 men working 5 hours/day earn Rs 300. How much money will 15 men working 10 hours/day earn?

(a) 800

(b) 600

(c) 650

(d) 900

(e) 1000
None

23. A and B working together can do 30% of the work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 25 days. How long will A alone take to complete the same work

(a) 100

(b) 60

(c) 75

(d) 80

(e) 90
None

24. P can work thrice as fast as Q. Working independently, Q can complere a TASK in 24 days. In how many days can P and Q together finish the task?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 8

(d) 6

(e) 12
None

25) 25 men can complete a task in 16 days. Four days after they started working, 5 more men, with equal workmanship , joined them. How many days will be needed by all to complete the remaining task.

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 15

(d) 18

(e) 21
None

26. Smith and Ajit can complete a task in 12 days and 18 days respectively. If they work together on the task for 4 days, then the fraction of the task that will be left is

(a) 4/9

(b) 1/9

(c) 2/9

(d) 5/9

(e) 7/9
None

27. P and Q can finish a work in 10 days and 5 days respectively. Q worked for 2 days and left the job. In how many days can P alone finish the remaining work?

(a) 6

(b) 4

(c) 10

(d) 8

(e) 2
None

28. X and Y together can finish a piece of work in 15 days while Y alone finish it in 40 days. X alone can finish the work in

(a) 24

(b) 26

(c) 25

(d) 23

(d) 21
None

29. Raju can finish a piece of work in 20 days. He worked at it for 5 days and the Jacob alone finished the remaining work in 15 days. In how many days can both finish it together?

(a) 20

(b) 12

(c) 10

(d) 16

(e) 15
None

30. A and B separately can build a wall in 12 and 16 days, respectively. If they work for 1 day alternatively, starting with A, in how many days will the wall be built?

a) 6 3/4

(b) 12 2/3

(c) 13 2/3

(d) 7 2/3

(e) 17 3/4
None

August 2, 2025
JEE FULL TEST (02.08.2025)
Welcome to your JEE FULL TEST (02.08.2025)

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Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 108 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

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2. A circular plate lies in the XY-plane. The X and Y axes lie in the plane of the plate and are perpendicular to each other, while the Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the plate (i.e., the axis of the disc). If the moments of inertia of the plate about the X-axis and Y-axis are 25 kg·m² and 35 kg·m², respectively, then what is the moment of inertia of the plate about the Z-axis (in kg·m²)?

1. 70
2. 60
3. 50
4. 40Deselect Answer

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3. A motor supplies a constant power of 1500 watts to rotate a solid cylindrical drum. The torque applied by the motor is measured to be 30 N·m. Assuming the torque remains constant, what is the angular acceleration of the drum (in rad/s²) at the instant when the drum starts from rest?

1. 50 rad/sec
2. 20 rad/sec
3. 2 rad/sec
4. 5 rad/sec
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4. A heavy object is spinning steadily around a fixed axis. To bring it to rest efficiently, which of the following approaches is most effective?

1. pressure at the turning point.
2. upward force at the turning point.
3. downward force at the free end.
4. torque in opposite direction
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5. A thin circular disc is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. If its translational kinetic energy is given to be E, what will be its total kinetic energy?

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6. Five identical circular metal disks, each having radius R and mass M, are arranged in the shape of a cross — one disk is placed at the origin, and the remaining four are centered directly above, below, left, and right of it, each at a vertical or horizontal distance of 2R. Using the origin as the reference point, what is the y-coordinate of the Center of mass of this five-disk system?

1. 2R
2. R
3. -R
4. 0
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7. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ρ and radius R about its diameter?

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8. A rotating drum has a moment of inertia of 2.5×10² kgm²and spins with a constant angular velocity of 5.2 rad/s. A braking system applies a constant opposing torque of 5×102 Nm to slow it down. How much time will it take for the drum to come to a complete stop?

1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 1.5 s
4. 2.6 s
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9. A heavy flywheel initially rotating at an angular speed of 6 rad/s is brought to rest in 3 seconds by a constant opposing torque of 360 N\m. What is the moment of inertia of the flywheel?

1. 90 kgm²2. 120 kgm²3. 180 kgm²
4. 240 kgm²
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10. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved
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11. What is the radius of gyration of a uniform circular disc about a tangent drawn in the plane of the disc?

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12. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of level corresponding to n=4 is

1. -0.54 eV
2. -0.65 eV
3. -0.85 eV
4. -1.5 eV
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13. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 6.0×10¹⁴ s^-1. The kinetic energy of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency v=1.0×10¹⁵ s^-1 hits the metal is

1. 1.988×10^-19 J
2. 2.65×10^-19 J
3. 1.65×10^-19 J
4. -19.36×10^-19 J
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14. The Energy of a photon emitted during a transition from n=3 to n=1 state in the hydrogen atom is

1. -4.58×10^-19 J
2. -3.0×10^-19 J
3. -16.32×10^-19 J
4. Photoelectric emission will not occur
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15. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron on atom within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?

1. 5.79×10⁶ ms^-12. 2.2×10⁶ms^-1
3. 4.2×10³ ms^-1
4. 9.1×10⁶ ms^-1
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16. A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic deep red light of wavelength 6626 Å. The number of photon emitted per second is

1. 7.18×10¹⁹ s^-12. 8.3×10¹⁹ s^-13. 3.77×10¹⁹ s^-1
4. 1.65×10¹⁹ s^-1
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17. The number of spectral lines that can be observed when electrons in the 7^th shell in different hydrogen atoms return to the 2^nd shell is

1. 21
2. 15
3. 5
4. 6
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18. Which of the following transition will have shortest wavelength in hydrogen atom?

1. n₂=5 to n₁=1
2. n₂=3 to n₁=1
3. n₂=5 to n₁=2
4. n₂=6 to n₁=2
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19. A difference of 4.141 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from higher energy state to lower energy state?

1. 560 THz
2.1000 THz
3. 100 THz
4. 5600 Thz
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20. How much energy is required to ionize a hydrogen atom if the electron occupies orbit?

1. 0.54 J
2. 13.6 J
3. 8.64×10^-20 J
4. 2.18×10^-18 J
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21. The momentum of a photon of energy 3 MeV is

1. 1.6×10^-21 kg m s^-1
2. 4.8×10^-13 kg m s^-1
3. 5.3×10^-24 kg m s^-1
4. 1.44×10^-5 kg m s^-1
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22. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of a particle varies with acceleration potential V as

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23. In which transition of hydrogen atom have same wavelength as in Balmer series transition of He⁺ ion (n=6 to n=2 )?

1. 4 to 2
2. 3 to 1
3. 2 to 1
4. 4 to 1
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24. A spaceship of mass 2000 kg accelerates vertically with acceleration 9 ms^-2. An astronaut inside it has a mass of 70 kg. The amount of change in his weight inside the ship when it is in motion is? (Take g=9.8 ms^-2)

1. 1029 N
2. 686 N
3. 343 N
4. 0 N
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25. A photon travels horizontally with velocity c towards a point P. At the same time, an electron with kinetic energy T moves in a direction opposite to that of the photon. The velocity of the photon as seen from the electron is

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26. The slope of the time-displacement graph represents

1. velocity
2. speed
3. per velocity
4. per speed
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27. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure.
Statement I: B lives closer to the school than A
Statement II: A takes lesser time to reach home
Statement III: B travels faster than A

Choose the correct option:
1. I, II and III are all true
2. Only I and II are false
3. Only II is true
4. Only II and III are true

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28. If the magnitude of angular momentum of a particle at a distance of 400 cm from the axis of rotation is 100 kgm² s^-1. The magnitude of linear momentum p of the particle (in kg ms^-1) when the angle between the position vector and momentum vector is 60º is

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1. ab and 0
2. 0 and ab
3. both 0
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30. A body travels a distance of 15 m towards east with a speed of 30 m/s, then travels a distance of 8 m towards north with a speed of 16 m/s. Its average velocity is

1. 17 m/s
2. 23 m/s
3. 7 m/s
4. 21 m/sDeselect Answer

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31. If the angle between two displacements of magnitudes 1 each is 180º, then the value of their dot product is

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32. If the velocity of a particle as a function of time is given by . At what value of time (in seconds) will its acceleration be 2 m/s²?

1. 6 s
2. 4 s
3. 2 s
4. 8 s
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33. Two forces P and Q are oriented such that the angle between them is 180º. The magnitude of their resultant is

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34. An object moves with speeds v₁, v₂ and v₃along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3AB, then average speed of the object will be:

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35. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the ground starts climbing the rope hand over up to a height l. From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the time he is hanging at rest at a height l, how much work done on the man by the rope?

1. 0
2. Mgl
3. –Mgl
4. It depends on how fast the man goes up.
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36. A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 20 N be acted on the body so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 40 J after moving 4m

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 120°
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37. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300 % then percentage change in momentum will be

1. 100%
2.150%
3.265%
4. 73.2%
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38. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v₀. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v₀is (Take g = 10 m s^-2)

1. 28 m s^-1
2. 10 ms^-1
3. 14 m s^-1 4. 20 m s^-1
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39. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = a x^3/2, where a = 5 m/s². What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m.

1. 25 J
2. 50 J
3. 75 J
4. 40 J
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40. If a body falls freely under gravity from rest, what fraction of its initial potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy when it has fallen to half of its initial height?

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41. Kinetic energy, with any reference, must be

1. negative
2. zero
3. positive
4. Both (1) and (3)
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42. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient of restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is

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43. Maximum energy transfer for an elastic collision will occur if one body is at rest when

1. m₁ = m₂
2. m₁ = 2m₂3. m₁ >> m₂
4. m₂ >> m₁
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44. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep, meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in figure. Their velocities and time to reach the ground are and respectively, then,

Which of the above relation(s) is/are correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)
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45. A spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored is E. If the spring is stretches by 20 cm, the potential energy store will be

1. 2E
2. 4E
3. 8E
4. 16E
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CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following oxide is most acidic ?

1. BeO
2.MgO
3.BaO
4.CaODeselect Answer

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47. Which of the following order is wrong?

1. Li⁺ < Na ⁺ < K⁺ < Cs ⁺ (ionic radius)
2. Li < B < Be < N (Ionization enthalpy)
3. Al₂O₃ < Mg₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
4. NH₃ < PH₃ > AsH₃ (acidity)Deselect Answer

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48. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

1. Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
2. Both A and B are alkali metals
3. A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
4. B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metalsDeselect Answer

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49. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions ?

1. Ga, In, Tl
2. N, O, F
3. Na, Mg, Al
4. V, Cr, Mn
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50. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65)
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51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

1. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
2. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3. Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size)
4. B <C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
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52. The elements having greatest difference between its first and second ionization enthalpy is :

1. Ca
2. K
3. Sc
4. Ba
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53. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s
d > f
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54. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹ 2. ns² np³3. ns² np⁴
4. ns² np ^1-6
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55. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C
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56. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
A. 37 I. S block
B. 60 II. P block
C. 53 III. D block
D. 78 IV. F block

1. A-I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A-I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A-II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III
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57. Paulings electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting

1. Polarity of the molecules
2. Position in the emf series
3. Coordination in numbers
4. Dipole moments
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58. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and Be
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and Al
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59. The volume of 80% sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) by weight (density = 1.80gmL^-1) required to prepare 1L of 0.2M H₂SO₄is

1. 14.7 mL
2. 29.4 mL
3. 6.8 mL
4. 13.60 mL
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60. Calculate the amount of oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄.2H₂O) required to obtain 250 mL og semimolar solution.

1. 15.75 g
2. 1.575 g
3. 157.5 g
4. None of these
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61. 02 x 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is

1. 0.001 M
2. 0.01 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M
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62. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute solution of the gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant for the gas at 298 K is 100 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in one litre of water is

1. 0.555
2. 5.55
3. 0.0555
4. 55.5
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63. Nalorphene (C₁₉H₂₁NO₃) similar to morphine, is used to combat withdrawal symptoms in narcotic users. Dose to nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 x 10-3 m aqueous solution required for the above dose is?

1. 3.2 g
2. 0.2 g
3. 5.1 g
4. 7.3 g
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64. The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A,B,C) in water are 145, 2 x 10^-5 and 35 kbar respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order

1. B > A > C
2. B > C > A
3. A > C > B
4. A > B > C
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65. The molality of 648 g of pure water is

1. 36 m
2. 55.5 m
3. 3.6 m
4. 5.55 in
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66. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) of moles of solute/Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) of moles of component/Moles of the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component/Mass of solution = (Z)

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67. How many Na+ ions are present in 100mL of 0.25M of NaCl solution?

1. 0.025 x 10²³
2. 1.505 x 10²²
3. 15 x 10²² 4. 2.5 x 10²³
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68. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100mL water at 298K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5atm and KH = 1.4 x 10-3 mol/L/atm?

1. 22.4 mg
2. 22.4 g
3. 2.24 g
4. 2.24 mg
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69. 1g of H₂ has same number of molecules as in :

1. 14 g of N₂ 2. 18g of H₂O
3. 16g of CO
4. 44g of CO₂
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70. Given that the abundance of isotopes Fe⁵⁴ , Fe⁵⁶ , Fe⁵⁷ , are 5% , 90%, 5% respectively. The atomic mass of Fe is

1. 55.75
2. 55.95
3. 55.85
4. 56.05
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71. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Mg₃(PO₄)₂ will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

1. 0.02
2. 3.125 x 10^-2
3. 1.25 x 10^-2
4. 2.5 x 10^-2
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72. How many number of molecules and atoms respectively are present in 2.8 L of a diatomic gas at STP ?

1. 023 x 10²³, 7.5 x 10²³
2. 023 x 10²³, 15 x 10²²
3. 5 x 10²², 15 x 10²²
4. 15 x 10²², 7.5 x 10²³
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73. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N₃^–ion is

1. 2.1 N_A
2. 4.2 N_A3. 1.6 N_A
4. 3.2 N_A
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74. The number of Oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO₂is

1. 1.2 x 10²³
2. 6 x 10²²3. 6 x 10²³
4. 12 x 10²³
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75. The percentage of C, H, and N in an organic compound are 40% , 13.3 % and 46.7% respectively then the empirical formula is

1. C₃H₁₃N₃2. CH₂N
3. CH₄N
4. CH₆N
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76. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5 % by mass ( atomic mass of Se = 78.4 amu). Then, the minimum molecular mass of enzyme which contains 2 Se atoms is

1. 1.568 x 10⁴
2. 1.568 x 10⁷3. 3.136 x 10⁴4. 3.136 x 10³
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77. 011 x 10²²molecules are removed from a vessel containing 1500 cc of Nitrogen at STP. How many moles are remaining ?

1. 0.025
2. 0.017
3. 0.5
4. 1
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78. Which has maximum no. of molecules ?

1. 7g N₂
2. 2g H₂
3. 16g NO₂ 4. 16g O₂
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79. The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and paranitrophenols is

1. Steam distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallisation
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80. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO, while testing for halogens. By doing so, it:

1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN formed
2. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. Increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. Increases the concentration of NO ions
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81. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect:

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Chlorine
4. All of these
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82. The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

1. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
2. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
3. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
4. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
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83. When n-butane is treated with chlorine, how many monochloro products are formed?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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84. Glycerine can be purified by

1. vacuum distillation
2. simple distillation
3. steam distillation
4. fractional distillation.
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85. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in

1. NH₂CONHNH₂.HCl
2. NH₂NH₂.HCl
3. NH₂CONH₂
4. C₆H₅NHNH₂. HCl
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86. Inductive effect involves

1. displacement of σ-electrons resulting in polarisation
2. displacement of π-electrons resulting in polarisation
3. delocalisation of σ-electrons
4. delocalisation of π-electrons.
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87. Point out the incorrect statement about resonance?

1. Resonance structures should have equal energy.
2. In resonance structures, the constituent atoms must be in the same position.
3. In resonance structures, there should not be same number of electron pairs.
4. Resonance structures should differ only in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.
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88. How many sigma and pi bond are present in benzaldehyde?

1. 19σ and 4π bond
2. 20σ and 3π bond
3. 18σ and 3π bond
4. 20σ and 4π bond
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89. IUPAC name of the compound

1. 2,3-dimethylheptane
2. 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
3. 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
4. 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane.
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None

90. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

1. CH₃-CHCI-COOH
2. H-C≡C – Cl
3. CICH = CHCI
4. CICH₂– CH₂CI
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

MATHEMATICS

(Attempt 25 out of 30 questions)

91. Let R₁ and R₂ be two relations defined on R by a R₁b ⇔ ab ≥ 0 and aR₂b ⇔ a ≥ b. Then,
A) R₁ is an equivalence relation but not R₂
B) R₂ is an equivalence relation but not R₁
C) both R₁ and R₂ are equivalence relations
D) neither R₁ nor R₂are equivalence relations
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

92. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and B={3,6,7,9}. Then the number of elements in the set {C ⊆ A : C ∩ B ≠ ϕ} is
A) 112
B) 126
C) 256
D) 240
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

93. A=Set of all triangles
B=Set of all right triangles.
Then, A-B=?
A) Set of all equilateral triangles
B) Set of all triangles which have all three angles different
C) Set of all isosceles triangles
D) Set of all triangles which do not have one right angles
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

94. A set S contains 3 elements, the number of which of the following sets is 256
A) S
B) P(S)
C) P(P(S))
D) P(P(P(S)))
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

95. Let f : Q → Q be a function given by f (x) + x², then f^-1 9=
A) {3}
B) f
C) {-3,3}
D) {-3}
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

96. The domain of the function is
A) (-∞,0]
B) [0, ∞)
C) R
D) R-{0}
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

97.

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

98. A function from the set of natural numbers to integers defined by

A) one-one but not onto
B) onto but not one-one
C) neither one-one nor onto
D) one-one and onto
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

99. Let A={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. Then the number of subsets of containing exactly two elements is
A) 45
B) 20
C) 35
D) 40
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

100. All the employees of Company X were appraised at the year end. 40% of the employees got a promotion, 50% of the employees got a salry hike and 30% of the employees neither got a promotion nor got a salary hike. If there were 40 employees who got both the promotion and the salary hike, what was the number of employees in the company.
A) 100
B) 120
C) 150
D) 200
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

101. If A={-1,1,2}, then n {A×A×A}=
A) 9
B) 16
C) 27
D) 3
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

102. If A={a,b}, B={c,d}, C={d,e}, then {(a,c),(a,d),(a,e),(b,c),(b,c),(b,d),(b,e)} is equal to
A) A∩(B∪C)
B) A×(B∪C)
C) A∪(B∩C)
D) A×(B∩C)
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

103.

A) (0,1)
B) [0,1]
C) [0,1)
D) (0,1]Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

104. The value of λ for which the system of equations 2x-y+2z=2, x-2y+z=-4, x+y+λz=4 has no solution is
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

105. Value of k, for which is a singular matrix is
A) +4
B) -4
C) ±4
D) 0Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

106. Given that A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A|=-4, then |adjA| is equal to
A) -4
B) 4
C) -16
D) 16Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

107. The matrix is a
A) identity matrix
B) symmetric matrix
C) skew symmetric matrix
D) none of theseDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

108.

A) -6,-12,-18
B) -6,-4,-9
C) -6,4,9
D)-6,12,18Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

109. If , then for all natural numbers n, Aⁿ is equal to

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

110. The system of equations, x+y+z=1, 3x+6y+z=8, ax+2y+3z=1 has a unique solution for
A) a not equal to 0
B) all integral a
C) all rational a
D) all real aDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

111. The system of equations, +y+z=6, x+2y+3z=14, x+3y+5z=20 has
A) infinitely many solutions
B) a unique solution
C) only finitely many solutions
D) no solutionDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

112. If a square matrix A has two identical rows or columns, then detA is:
A) 0
B) -1
C) 1
D) none of theseDeselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

113. For a non-trivial solution |A| is
A) |A|>0
B) |A|<0
C) |A|=0
D) |A|≠0Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

114. Solve the system of equations,
x+y+z=6
2x+3y-z=5
6x-2y-3z=-7

A) x=1, y=3, z=2
B) x=3, y=2, z=1
C) x=1, y=2, z=3
D) x=2, y=3, z=1Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

115. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

116. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

117. Which of the following property of matrix multiplication is correct:

A) multiplication is not commutative in general
B) multiplication is associative
C) multiplication is distributive over addition
D) All of the mentioned
Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

118.

A) 12
B) 14
C) 19
D) 10Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

119.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 2
D) 4Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

120. Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

Drawing Test (For B. Architecture only)

Attempt any two.

Q1. Draw a street scene in two-point perspective showing the following elements:

A row of multistoried buildings on both sides

A moving bus turning into the street

Pedestrians walking with umbrellas (it’s raining)

Overhead street lamps

Reflections in puddles on the wet road

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

Q2. Draw the interior of a modern library in one-point perspective. Your drawing must include:

Rows of bookshelves aligned on both sides

A central aisle with a few students reading or walking

A glass wall at the far end with natural light coming in

Tables and chairs arranged near the windows

Decorative ceiling lights and plants for ambience

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None

Q3. Imagine and draw a scene from a local cultural festival or fair, including:

People wearing traditional attire

A decorated stage where performances are happening

Food stalls, balloons, and children playing

Background elements like trees, hills, or monuments

Deselect Answer

A

B

C

D
None
August 1, 2025
NEET FULL TEST 1 (02.08.2025)

Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST 1 (02.08.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 108 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

PHYSICS

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

2. A circular plate lies in the XY-plane. The X and Y axes lie in the plane of the plate and are perpendicular to each other, while the Z-axis is perpendicular to the plane of the plate (i.e., the axis of the disc). If the moments of inertia of the plate about the X-axis and Y-axis are 25 kg·m² and 35 kg·m², respectively, then what is the moment of inertia of the plate about the Z-axis (in kg·m²)?

1. 70
2. 60
3. 50
4. 40Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

3. A motor supplies a constant power of 1500 watts to rotate a solid cylindrical drum. The torque applied by the motor is measured to be 30 N·m. Assuming the torque remains constant, what is the angular acceleration of the drum (in rad/s²) at the instant when the drum starts from rest?

1. 50 rad/sec
2. 20 rad/sec
3. 2 rad/sec
4. 5 rad/sec
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. A heavy object is spinning steadily around a fixed axis. To bring it to rest efficiently, which of the following approaches is most effective?

1. pressure at the turning point.
2. upward force at the turning point.
3. downward force at the free end.
4. torque in opposite direction
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. A thin circular disc is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. If its translational kinetic energy is given to be E, what will be its total kinetic energy?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

6. Five identical circular metal disks, each having radius R and mass M, are arranged in the shape of a cross — one disk is placed at the origin, and the remaining four are centered directly above, below, left, and right of it, each at a vertical or horizontal distance of 2R. Using the origin as the reference point, what is the y-coordinate of the Center of mass of this five-disk system?

1. 2R
2. R
3. -R
4. 0
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

7. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ρ and radius R about its diameter?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

8. A rotating drum has a moment of inertia of 2.5×10² kgm²and spins with a constant angular velocity of 5.2 rad/s. A braking system applies a constant opposing torque of 5×102 Nm to slow it down. How much time will it take for the drum to come to a complete stop?

1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 1.5 s
4. 2.6 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

9. A heavy flywheel initially rotating at an angular speed of 6 rad/s is brought to rest in 3 seconds by a constant opposing torque of 360 N\m. What is the moment of inertia of the flywheel?

1. 90 kgm²2. 120 kgm²3. 180 kgm²
4. 240 kgm²
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

10. Angular momentum of a system is conserved when:

1. No net force acts on the system
2. No net torque acts on the system
3. The angular velocity remains constant
4. The linear momentum is conserved
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11. What is the radius of gyration of a uniform circular disc about a tangent drawn in the plane of the disc?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

12. The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of level corresponding to n=4 is

1. -0.54 eV
2. -0.65 eV
3. -0.85 eV
4. -1.5 eV
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

13. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 6.0×10¹⁴ s^-1. The kinetic energy of an electron emitted when radiation of frequency v=1.0×10¹⁵ s^-1 hits the metal is

1. 1.988×10^-19 J
2. 2.65×10^-19 J
3. 1.65×10^-19 J
4. -19.36×10^-19 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

14. The Energy of a photon emitted during a transition from n=3 to n=1 state in the hydrogen atom is

1. -4.58×10^-19 J
2. -3.0×10^-19 J
3. -16.32×10^-19 J
4. Photoelectric emission will not occur
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

15. A microscope using suitable photons is employed to locate an electron on atom within a distance of 0.1 Å. What is the uncertainty involved in the measurement of its velocity?

1. 5.79×10⁶ ms^-12. 2.2×10⁶ms^-1
3. 4.2×10³ ms^-1
4. 9.1×10⁶ ms^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

16. A 25 watt bulb emits monochromatic deep red light of wavelength 6626 Å. The number of photon emitted per second is

1. 7.18×10¹⁹ s^-12. 8.3×10¹⁹ s^-13. 3.77×10¹⁹ s^-1
4. 1.65×10¹⁹ s^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17. The number of spectral lines that can be observed when electrons in the 7^th shell in different hydrogen atoms return to the 2^nd shell is

1. 21
2. 15
3. 5
4. 6
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

18. Which of the following transition will have shortest wavelength in hydrogen atom?

1. n₂=5 to n₁=1
2. n₂=3 to n₁=1
3. n₂=5 to n₁=2
4. n₂=6 to n₁=2
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19. A difference of 4.141 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from higher energy state to lower energy state?

1. 560 THz
2.1000 THz
3. 100 THz
4. 5600 Thz
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

20. How much energy is required to ionize a hydrogen atom if the electron occupies orbit?

1. 0.54 J
2. 13.6 J
3. 8.64×10^-20 J
4. 2.18×10^-18 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

21. The momentum of a photon of energy 3 MeV is

1. 1.6×10^-21 kg m s^-1
2. 4.8×10^-13 kg m s^-1
3. 5.3×10^-24 kg m s^-1
4. 1.44×10^-5 kg m s^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22. The de-Broglie wavelength λ of a particle varies with acceleration potential V as

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

23. In which transition of hydrogen atom have same wavelength as in Balmer series transition of He⁺ ion (n=6 to n=2 )?

1. 4 to 2
2. 3 to 1
3. 2 to 1
4. 4 to 1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

24. A spaceship of mass 2000 kg accelerates vertically with acceleration 9 ms^-2. An astronaut inside it has a mass of 70 kg. The amount of change in his weight inside the ship when it is in motion is? (Take g=9.8 ms^-2)

1. 1029 N
2. 686 N
3. 343 N
4. 0 N
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25. A photon travels horizontally with velocity c towards a point P. At the same time, an electron with kinetic energy T moves in a direction opposite to that of the photon. The velocity of the photon as seen from the electron is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26. The slope of the time-displacement graph represents

1. velocity
2. speed
3. per velocity
4. per speed
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

27. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are shown in figure.
Statement I: B lives closer to the school than A
Statement II: A takes lesser time to reach home
Statement III: B travels faster than A

Choose the correct option:
1. I, II and III are all true
2. Only I and II are false
3. Only II is true
4. Only II and III are true

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

28. If the magnitude of angular momentum of a particle at a distance of 400 cm from the axis of rotation is 100 kgm² s^-1. The magnitude of linear momentum p of the particle (in kg ms^-1) when the angle between the position vector and momentum vector is 60º is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

1. ab and 0
2. 0 and ab
3. both 0
4. Both ab Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

30. A body travels a distance of 15 m towards east with a speed of 30 m/s, then travels a distance of 8 m towards north with a speed of 16 m/s. Its average velocity is

1. 17 m/s
2. 23 m/s
3. 7 m/s
4. 21 m/sDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31. If the angle between two displacements of magnitudes 1 each is 180º, then the value of their dot product is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

32. If the velocity of a particle as a function of time is given by . At what value of time (in seconds) will its acceleration be 2 m/s²?

1. 6 s
2. 4 s
3. 2 s
4. 8 s
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

33. Two forces P and Q are oriented such that the angle between them is 180º. The magnitude of their resultant is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

34. An object moves with speeds v₁, v₂ and v₃along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3AB, then average speed of the object will be:

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

35. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the ground starts climbing the rope hand over up to a height l. From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the time he is hanging at rest at a height l, how much work done on the man by the rope?

1. 0
2. Mgl
3. –Mgl
4. It depends on how fast the man goes up.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

36. A block of mass 5 kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force of 20 N be acted on the body so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 40 J after moving 4m

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 120°
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37. If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300 % then percentage change in momentum will be

1. 100%
2.150%
3.265%
4. 73.2%
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

38. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v₀. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v₀is (Take g = 10 m s^-2)

1. 28 m s^-1
2. 10 ms^-1
3. 14 m s^-1 4. 20 m s^-1
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

39. A particle of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = a x^3/2, where a = 5 m/s². What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m.

1. 25 J
2. 50 J
3. 75 J
4. 40 J
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40. If a body falls freely under gravity from rest, what fraction of its initial potential energy has been converted into kinetic energy when it has fallen to half of its initial height?

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

41. Kinetic energy, with any reference, must be

1. negative
2. zero
3. positive
4. Both (1) and (3)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

42. A particle falls from a height h upon a fixed horizontal plane and rebounds. If e is the coefficient of restitution, the total distance travelled before rebounding has stopped is

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

43. Maximum energy transfer for an elastic collision will occur if one body is at rest when

1. m₁ = m₂
2. m₁ = 2m₂3. m₁ >> m₂
4. m₂ >> m₁
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

44. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep, meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in figure. Their velocities and time to reach the ground are and respectively, then,

Which of the above relation(s) is/are correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

45. A spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored is E. If the spring is stretches by 20 cm, the potential energy store will be

1. 2E
2. 4E
3. 8E
4. 16E
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following oxide is most acidic ?

1. BeO
2.MgO
3.BaO
4.CaODeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47. Which of the following order is wrong?

1. Li⁺ < Na ⁺ < K⁺ < Cs ⁺ (ionic radius)
2. Li < B < Be < N (Ionization enthalpy)
3. Al₂O₃ < Mg₂O < Na₂O < K₂O (Basicity)
4. NH₃ < PH₃ > AsH₃ (acidity)Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

48. If first IE of elements A and B are 520 KJ/mol and 630 KJ/mol respectively and second IE of A and B are 2960 KJ/mol and 1206 KJ/mol respectively. Then the correct statement is

1. Both A and B are alkaline earth metals
2. Both A and B are alkali metals
3. A is an alkali metals and B is an alkaline earth metals
4. B is an alkali metals and A is an alkaline earth metalsDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

49. Which of the following sets has strongest tendency to form anions ?

1. Ga, In, Tl
2. N, O, F
3. Na, Mg, Al
4. V, Cr, Mn
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

50. Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1. Curium (Z = 96)
2. Californium (Z = 98)
3. Uranium (Z = 92)
4. Terbium (Z = 65)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

1. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
2. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
3. Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻ (increasing ionic size)
4. B <C < O < N (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52. The elements having greatest difference between its first and second ionization enthalpy is :

1. Ca
2. K
3. Sc
4. Ba
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

53. The penetration of the electrons in any principal shell varies as :

1. s > p > d > f
2. s < p < d < f
3. s > p f
4. s
d > f
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54. The General Electronic configuration of Group 13 element is ?

1. ns² np¹ 2. ns² np³3. ns² np⁴
4. ns² np ^1-6
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55. Which of the following elements can show covalency greater than 4 ?

1. N
2. Be
3. P
4. C
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56. Match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2
A. 37 I. S block
B. 60 II. P block
C. 53 III. D block
D. 78 IV. F block

1. A-I, B- II, C-III, D- IV
2. A-I, B- II, C-IV, D- III
3. A-II, B- III, C- I, D- IV
4. A-I, B- IV, C- II, D- III
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57. Paulings electronegativity values for elements are useful in predicting

1. Polarity of the molecules
2. Position in the emf series
3. Coordination in numbers
4. Dipole moments
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

58. Diagonal relationship is shown by

1. H and Be
2. B and Be
3. Li and Mg
4. Mg and Al
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

59. The volume of 80% sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) by weight (density = 1.80gmL^-1) required to prepare 1L of 0.2M H₂SO₄is

1. 14.7 mL
2. 29.4 mL
3. 6.8 mL
4. 13.60 mL
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60. Calculate the amount of oxalic acid (H₂C₂O₄.2H₂O) required to obtain 250 mL og semimolar solution.

1. 15.75 g
2. 1.575 g
3. 157.5 g
4. None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

61. 02 x 10²⁰ molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is

1. 0.001 M
2. 0.01 M
3. 0.02 M
4. 0.1 M
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62. When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute solution of the gas is obtained. Henry’s law constant for the gas at 298 K is 100 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial pressure of 1 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in one litre of water is

1. 0.555
2. 5.55
3. 0.0555
4. 55.5
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63. Nalorphene (C₁₉H₂₁NO₃) similar to morphine, is used to combat withdrawal symptoms in narcotic users. Dose to nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. Calculate the mass of 1.5 x 10-3 m aqueous solution required for the above dose is?

1. 3.2 g
2. 0.2 g
3. 5.1 g
4. 7.3 g
Deselect Answer

1

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None

64. The Henry’s law constant (K_H) values of three gases (A,B,C) in water are 145, 2 x 10^-5 and 35 kbar respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order

1. B > A > C
2. B > C > A
3. A > C > B
4. A > B > C
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1

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None

65. The molality of 648 g of pure water is

1. 36 m
2. 55.5 m
3. 3.6 m
4. 5.55 in
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1

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None

66. Express the terms representing the following formulae.
(i) of moles of solute/Volume of solution in litres = (W)
(ii) of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg = (X)
(iii) of moles of component/Moles of the solution = (Y)
(iv) Mass of component/Mass of solution = (Z)

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67. How many Na+ ions are present in 100mL of 0.25M of NaCl solution?

1. 0.025 x 10²³
2. 1.505 x 10²²
3. 15 x 10²² 4. 2.5 x 10²³
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1

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3

4
None

68. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100mL water at 298K if partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5atm and KH = 1.4 x 10-3 mol/L/atm?

1. 22.4 mg
2. 22.4 g
3. 2.24 g
4. 2.24 mg
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1

2

3

4
None

69. 1g of H₂ has same number of molecules as in :

1. 14 g of N₂ 2. 18g of H₂O
3. 16g of CO
4. 44g of CO₂
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1

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3

4
None

70. Given that the abundance of isotopes Fe⁵⁴ , Fe⁵⁶ , Fe⁵⁷ , are 5% , 90%, 5% respectively. The atomic mass of Fe is

1. 55.75
2. 55.95
3. 55.85
4. 56.05
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1

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3

4
None

71. How many moles of magnesium phosphate Mg₃(PO₄)₂ will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?

1. 0.02
2. 3.125 x 10^-2
3. 1.25 x 10^-2
4. 2.5 x 10^-2
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1

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3

4
None

72. How many number of molecules and atoms respectively are present in 2.8 L of a diatomic gas at STP ?

1. 023 x 10²³, 7.5 x 10²³
2. 023 x 10²³, 15 x 10²²
3. 5 x 10²², 15 x 10²²
4. 15 x 10²², 7.5 x 10²³
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None

73. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N₃^–ion is

1. 2.1 N_A
2. 4.2 N_A3. 1.6 N_A
4. 3.2 N_A
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1

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3

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None

74. The number of Oxygen atoms in 4.4g of CO₂is

1. 1.2 x 10²³
2. 6 x 10²²3. 6 x 10²³
4. 12 x 10²³
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1

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3

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None

75. The percentage of C, H, and N in an organic compound are 40% , 13.3 % and 46.7% respectively then the empirical formula is

1. C₃H₁₃N₃2. CH₂N
3. CH₄N
4. CH₆N
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3

4
None

76. The percentage of Se in peroxidase enzyme is 0.5 % by mass ( atomic mass of Se = 78.4 amu). Then, the minimum molecular mass of enzyme which contains 2 Se atoms is

1. 1.568 x 10⁴
2. 1.568 x 10⁷3. 3.136 x 10⁴4. 3.136 x 10³
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3

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None

77. 011 x 10²²molecules are removed from a vessel containing 1500 cc of Nitrogen at STP. How many moles are remaining ?

1. 0.025
2. 0.017
3. 0.5
4. 1
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1

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3

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None

78. Which has maximum no. of molecules ?

1. 7g N₂
2. 2g H₂
3. 16g NO₂ 4. 16g O₂
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1

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3

4
None

79. The most suitable method of separation of 1: 1 mixture of ortho and paranitrophenols is

1. Steam distillation
2. Sublimation
3. Chromatography
4. Crystallisation
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3

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None

80. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO, while testing for halogens. By doing so, it:

1. Decomposes Na₂S and NaCN formed
2. Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
3. Increases the solubility product of AgCl
4. Increases the concentration of NO ions
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1

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None

81. Lassaigne’s test is used in qualitative analysis to detect:

1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Chlorine
4. All of these
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3

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None

82. The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

1. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
2. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
3. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
4. Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
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1

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None

83. When n-butane is treated with chlorine, how many monochloro products are formed?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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1

2

3

4
None

84. Glycerine can be purified by

1. vacuum distillation
2. simple distillation
3. steam distillation
4. fractional distillation.
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1

2

3

4
None

85. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in

1. NH₂CONHNH₂.HCl
2. NH₂NH₂.HCl
3. NH₂CONH₂
4. C₆H₅NHNH₂. HCl
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1

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3

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None

86. Inductive effect involves

1. displacement of σ-electrons resulting in polarisation
2. displacement of π-electrons resulting in polarisation
3. delocalisation of σ-electrons
4. delocalisation of π-electrons.
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1

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None

87. Point out the incorrect statement about resonance?

1. Resonance structures should have equal energy.
2. In resonance structures, the constituent atoms must be in the same position.
3. In resonance structures, there should not be same number of electron pairs.
4. Resonance structures should differ only in the location of electrons around the constituent atoms.
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1

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3

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None

88. How many sigma and pi bond are present in benzaldehyde?

1. 19σ and 4π bond
2. 20σ and 3π bond
3. 18σ and 3π bond
4. 20σ and 4π bond
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1

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3

4
None

89. IUPAC name of the compound

1. 2,3-dimethylheptane
2. 3-methyl-4-ethyloctane
3. 5-ethyl-6-methyloctane
4. 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane.
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1

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3

4
None

90. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?

1. CH₃-CHCI-COOH
2. H-C≡C – Cl
3. CICH = CHCI
4. CICH₂– CH₂CI
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1

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3

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None

BOTANY
91. Before cells enter into M phase from G₂ phase,

1. cyclin M is degraded
2. CDK binds to G₁ cyclin
3. CDK binds to M cyclin
4. CDK becomes inactive.
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

92. A triploid nucleus cannot undergo meiosis because

1. crossing over does not occur
2. karyokinesis cannot occur
3. chromosomes do not replicate
4. not all the chromosomes can form homologous pairs.
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1

2

3

4
None

93. Which of the following division will help a diploid female lizard to produce a diploid offspring that are genetically identical to herself?

1. Meiosis only
2. Mitosis only
3. First mitosis, then meiosis
4. First meiosis, then mitosis
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1

2

3

4
None

94. Which of the following correctly differentiates the reproductive strategies of Fucus and Volvox?

1. Volvox exhibits oogamy, whereas Fucus follows isogamy.
2. Both Fucus and Volvox produce motile gametes of equal size.
3. Fucus exhibits oogamy with distinct male and female gametes, while Volvox may show isogamy or anisogamy.
4. Both Fucus and Volvox undergo anisogamy, producing non-motile gametes.
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1

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None

95. In which of the following plants does the gametophyte remain nutritionally dependent on the sporophyte throughout its life cycle?

1. Polytrichum and Funaria
2. Cedrus and Pteris
3. Cedrus only
4. Pteris and Funaria
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1

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3

4
None

96. Assertion: Porphyra is an edible marine brown alga.
Reason: Brown algae is popularly know as kelp.

1. A Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. B Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but reason is true.
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1

2

3

4
None

97. The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to replace cotton and used as a fuel is

1. Marchantia
2. Riccia
3. Sphagnum
4. Funaria
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1

2

3

4
None

98. Select the incorrect statement with respect to given type of life cycle.

1. A Meiosis occurs at the time of spore formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed-bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many bryophytes and pteridophytes.
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1

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3

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None

99. Compared to the gametophytes of the bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend to be

1. Larger but have smaller sex organs
2. Larger and have large sex organs
3. Smaller and have smaller sex organs
4. Smaller but have larger sex organs
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1

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3

4
None

100. If egg of an organism has 20 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid cell of same organism have in pachytene (x), diakinesis (y) and anaphase-l (z)?

1. x = 40pg ; y = 40pg z = 80pg
2. x = 80pg y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
3. x = 40pg ; y = 80pg ; z = 80pg
4. x = 80pg ; y = 40pg ; z = 40pg
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None

101. (i) Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plant.
(ii) Gametophyte of pteridophyte is called prothallus.
(iii) In Cycas, stems are unbranched.
(iv) Bryophytes shows Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
How many statement/s is/are correct?

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four
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1

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3

4
None

102. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?

1. Diplontic life cycle
2. Members of kingdom-Plantae
3. Mode of nutrition
4. Multiplication by fragmentation
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1

2

3

4
None

103. The plant body of Funaria is

1. completely sporophyte
2. predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte
3. completely gametophyte
4. predominantly sporophyte with gametophyte
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1

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3

4
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104. The pyrenoids are made up of

1. proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath
2. core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein sheath
3. core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath
4. core of starch surrounded by sheath of protein.
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105. Microtubules are the constituents of

1. centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
2. centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
3. cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
4. spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia.
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1

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106. Elaters are hygroscopic structures involved in the dispersal of spores in _________.

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Dryopteris
4. Funaria
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1

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3

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None

107. Match the plant with gametophyte nature

1. A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii)
2. A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii)
3. A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
4. A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i)
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108. Assertion (A): In Spirogyra, gametes are non-motile.
Reason (R): Fertilization occurs through fragmentation.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
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1

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3

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None

109. This is an incorrect statement

1. Isogametes are similar in structure, function, and behaviour
2. In oomycetes, female gametes are smaller and motile, while male gametes are larger and non-motile
3. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour
4. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
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110. Vegetative reproduction in mosses take place by budding in the

1. Primary protonema
2. Thallus
3. Secondary protonema
4. Sporophyte
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1

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3

4
None

111. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of _________and an outer layer of _________

1. Cellulose, starch
2. Pectose, cellulose
3. Pectose, algin
4. Cellulose, pectose
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3

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None

112. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

1. Laminaria and Sargassum
2. Gelidium and Gracilaria
3. Anabena and Volvox
4. Chlorella and Spirulina
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1

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3

4
None

113. Which class of enzymes catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group?
1. Oxidoreductases
2. Transferases
3. Hydrolases
4. Lyases

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1

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3

4
None

114. Which of the following is true about enzyme specificity?

1. Enzymes can catalyze any reaction
2. Enzymes act on a broad range of sub-strate
3. Enzymes are highly specific to their substrate
4. Enzymes lose specificity at high temperatures
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None

115. The Michaelis Menten constant (Km) is a measure of:

1.Enzyme efficiency
2. Substrate affinity
3. Maximum reaction rate
4. Enzyme concentration
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None

116. An enzyme becomes denatured when:

1. It binds to a substrate
2. Its temperature exceeds the optimum range
3. Its substrate concentration increases
4. It interacts with a co-enzyme
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1

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3

4
None

117. Allosteric enzymes differ from typical enzymes because they:

1. Have a single active site
2. Follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics strictly
3. Are regulated by molecules binding at a site other than the active site
4. Are always inhibited by their substrates
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1

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3

4
None

118. In the Lock and Key model of enzyme action:

1. The enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate
2. The substrate and enzyme have a rigid, complementary fit
3. The enzyme is denatured after binding
4. The substrate is an inhibitor
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3

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None

119. Which of the following factors does NOT affect enzyme activity?

1. Temperature
2. pH
3. Substrate concentration
4. Color of the solution
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1

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3

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None

120. NAD and NADP are considered as

1. apoenzyme and co factor
2. co enzyme and co factor
3. both as co enzyme
4. apoenzyme and holoenzyme

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1

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3

4
None

121. Which of the following results from the combination of an apoenzyme and a coenzyme?

1. Enzyme-substrate complex
2.Conjugate enzymes
3. Co factor
4. Enzyme-product complex
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1

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None

122. How many nucleotides are present in the segment if DNA segment contains 100 Adenine and 100 cytosine ?

1. 200
2. 100
3. 400
4. 500.
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1

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3

4
None

123. Which of the following terms describes the blocking of an enzyme’s action by obstructing its active site?

1. Allosteric inhibition
2. Feedback inhibition
3. Competitive inhibition
4. Non-competitive inhibition
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1

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3

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None

124. ATP is a

1.vitamin
2. nucleotide
3. nucleoside
4. nucleic acid

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None

125. Name the nucleotide which contains only ribose sugar and not deoxyribose?

1. Cytosine
2. Uracil
3. Thymine
4. Adenine
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1

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3

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None

126. Which of the following is NOT the function of nucleotides?

1. Works as chemical messenger
2. Co-enzymes
3. Co-factors
4. Energy carries
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127. Statement I: DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, while RNA contains ribose sugar.
Statement II: The nitrogenous base thymine is present in RNA, while uracil is present in DNA.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
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1

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None

128. The coenzyme NAD is derived from which of the following biomolecules?

1. Amino acid
2. Nucleotide
3. Carbohydrate
4. Lipid
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1

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None

129. Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer:
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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130. Assertion (A): The catalytic activity of ribozymes is due to their protein component.
Reason (R): Ribozymes are DNA

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. Both A and R are false.
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1

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3

4
None

131. Assertion (A): Proteins are denatured at high temperatures, losing their biological activity.
Reason (R): High temperatures disrupt the hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions stabilizing the protein’s tertiary structure.

Options:
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

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1

2

3

4
None

132. Which of the following lipids is a major component of cell membranes?

1.Triglycerides
2. Phospholipids
3.Steroids
4. Waxes

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1

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3

4
None

133. The ester linkage in triglycerides is formed between:

1. Glycerol and amino acids
2. Glycerol and fatty acids
3. Fatty acids and phosphate groups
4. Glycerol and nitrogenous bases
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4
None

134. Which of the following lipids is NOT derived from fatty acids?

1. Phospholipids
2. Triglycerides
3. Steroids
4. Waxes
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2

3

4
None

135. Which amino acid is known as the simplest amino acid due to its side chain being a single hydrogen atom?

1. Alanine
2. Glycine
3. Valine
4. Serine
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1

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3

4
None

ZOOLOGY
136. Seminal plasma of human is rich in

1. Fructose and certain enzymes, poor in Ca²⁺
2. Fructose, Ca²⁺ and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, Ca²⁺ but no enzymes
4. Glucose, certain enzymes but no Ca²⁺
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3

4
None

137. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 300 million spermatozoa?

1. 50 million
2. 100 million
3. 150 million
4. 300 million
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1

2

3

4
None

138. Egg is liberated from ovary in which state

1. Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase
2. Primary oocyte arrested at metaphase
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at prophase
4. Primary oocyte arrested at prophase
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1

2

3

4
None

139. Arrange the following sequence of different hormones for their role during gametogenesis
(i) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgen
(ii) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from hypothalamus
(iii) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
(iv) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of spermiogenesis
(v) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (v), (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
2. (iii), (i), (iv), (v), (ii)
3. (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
4. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii), (v)
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1

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3

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140. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

1. Secondary spermatocyte
2. Primary polar body
3. Spermatogonia
4. Spermatid
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1

2

3

4
None

141. Meiotic division of the primary oocyte is completed

1. After zygote formation
2. At puberty
3. At the time of fusion of sperm with an ovum
4. At embryonic stage
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1

2

3

4
None

142. Select the correct set of names for the parts A, B, C, D

1. A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
2. A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle, D-Bulbourethral gland
3. A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
4. A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Cowper’s gland, D-Prostate

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

143. Mammary duct is formed by a combination of

1. Mammary alveoli
2. Mammary ampulla
3. Mammary lobes
4. Mammary tubules
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1

2

3

4
None

144. The gland which secretes a clear mucus which lubricates the penis is

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. Cowper’s gland
4. All of these
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1

2

3

4
None

145. The difference between primary follicle and secondary follicle in the human ovary is

1. The primary follicle contains the primary oocyte whereas the secondary follicle contains the secondary oocyte
2. The primary follicle contains an oocyte and the 1^st polar body whereas the secondary follicle contains an oocyte and the 2^nd polar body
3. The oocyte in the primary follicle is diploid whereas the oocyte in the secondary follicle is haploid
4. In primary follicle, the oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of cells whereas in secondary follicle the oocyte is surrounded by several layers of granulosa cells
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2

3

4
None

146. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the development of ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle?

1. LH
2. FSH
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

147. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option
Assertion: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5˚ F) lower than the normal internal body temperature necessary for spermatogenesis

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Assertion is false but reason is true
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1

2

3

4
None

148. Observe the given diagram and select the option that correctly identifies the labelled part along with its characteristic

1, 1 – Ampulla – Site of blastocyst implantation
2. 2 – Ovary – Site of oogenesis
3. 3 – Cervix – Secrete hCG
4. 4 – Uterus – Site of fertilization
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1

2

3

4
None

149. In the following question, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Choose the correct option
Assertion: A drop in temperature does not affect spermatogenesis
Reason: During temperature drop the smooth muscles contracts and bring the testes closer to the pelvic cavity.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Assertion is false but reason is true
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1

2

3

4
None

150. The cells which secrete androgens are:

1. Sertoli cells
2. Interstitial cells
3. Leydig cells
4. Both 2 and 3
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1

2

3

4
None

151. Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of

1. Prostate and urethra
2. Prostate and vas deferens
3. Prostate and Cowper’s gland
4. Vas deferens and testis
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1

2

3

4
None

152. Match the following

1. A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
2. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)
3. A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
4. A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(iv)
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1

2

3

4
None

153. Cluster of cells in mammary lobes is known as

1. Mammary duct
2. Ampulla
3. Tubules
4. Alveoli
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

154. The correct sequence of spermatogenic stages leading to the formation of sperms in males is

1. Spermatogonia – spermatocytes – spermatids – sperms
2. Spermatids – spermatocytes – spermatogonia – sperms
3. Spermatogonia – spermatids – spermatocytes – sperms
4. Spermatocytes – spermatogonia – spermatids – sperms
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

155. Assertion: Oogonia starts division and enters into prophase I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocyte.
Reason: Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells.

1. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
4. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

156. Graafian follicle contains

1. Primary oocyte
2. Ovum
3. Secondary oocyte
4. Polar body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

157. Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum?

1. Primordial follicle
2. ⁠Primary follicle
3. ⁠Secondary follicle
4. ⁠Tertiary follicle
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

158. In spermatogenesis, a primary spermatocyte produce four similar sperms while in oogenesis a primary oocyte forms

1. One ovum
2. Three ovum and one polar body
3. Two ovum and two polar body
4. One ovum and 2-3 polar body
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

159. Select the incorrect statement regarding basement membrane.

1. They are cellular membrane, epithelial tissue rest on it
2. Found between epithelial tissue and connective tissue
3. Useful materials diffused through basement membrane
4. Provides structural support and act as selective barrier
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

160. When bones are treated with HCl or HNO3, the result will be

1. Dried bone
2. Decalcified bone
3. Bone marrow
4. Ligaments
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

161. Select the correct pair.

1. Tendon – yellow elastic fibre
2. Adipose – dense connective tissue
3. Areolar – softest tissue
4. Chondrocytes – Cartilage cell
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

162. Short, cube shaped, nucleus at the center of cell, having secretory property.

1. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Simple cuboidal epithelium
3. Simple columnar epithelium
4. Simple ciliated epithelium
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

163. Statement I: Blood contains plasma and formed elements.
Statement II: Formed elements consist of erythrocytes, leucocytes, platelets and heparin

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

164. Which of the following are found abundant in epithelia of urinary bladder?

1. Hemidesmosomes
2. Tight junction
3. Desmosomes
4. Gap junction
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

165. Select the correct option for Smooth muscle.

1. Striated, branched, voluntary
2. Striated, involuntary, single nucleus
3. Unstriated, single nucleus, unbranched
4. Spindle shaped, branched, involuntary
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

166. Select the correct statements.
I) Lining of Inner surface of body cavities are derived from endoderm
II) Epithelial tissue are considered avascular
III) Columnar and cuboidal cells are secretory in function

Options:
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. II only
4. I, II and III
Deselect Answer

1

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None

167. Select the correct pair:

1. Axon – single, long process, carries nerve impulse to axon hillock
2. Cell body – contains Nissl’s granules responsible for protein synthesis
3. Myelin sheath – found on dendrites, provide protection for nerve fibre
4. Axon terminal – receive incoming nerve impulse from another neuron
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

168. Match the following:
1. Simple squamous – a) ventricles of brain
2. Simple cuboidal – b) wall of bowman’s capsule
3. Simple columnar – c) PCT of nephrons of kidney
4. Simple ciliated – d) lining of gall bladder and bile duct

Options:
1. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
2. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
3.1- d, 2-b, 3-a,4-c
4. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

169. Select the incorrect statements regarding neuron.

1. Structural and functional unit of nervous tissue
2. Non-excitable cell
3. Developed from ectoderm as well as mesoderm
4. Consist of cyton and neurites
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

170. Skeletal muscle cell differ from cardiac muscle cell in having _______

1. Peripherally located nucleus
2. Different myofibrils
3. Fewer mitochondria
4. All of above
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

171. Assertion (A): Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across tissue
Reason (R): Tight junctions keep adjacent cells together

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R false
4. A is false but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

172. Skeletal muscle are found on body walls, Smooth muscle are found on dermis of skin.

1. True for skeletal muscle, false for smooth muscle.
2. False for skeletal muscle, true for smooth muscle.
3. True for both
4. False for both
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

173. Select the wrongly matched pair.

1. Unicellular gland – Goblet cell
2. Mucous gland – Serous cell
3. Endocrine gland – Thyroid gland
4. Exocrine gland – Salivary gland
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

174. Which of the following are not correct regarding connective tissue?
i. Most abundant and widely distributed animal and plant tissue
ii. Connect and support other tissue
iii. Forms internal and external lining of many organs
iv.Blood is an example of specialised connective tissue

Options:
1. I, II, III
2. II, III, IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV

Deselect Answer

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None

175. (A) is composed of interconnected cells with (B) which appear as dark line called (C)

1. A- Smooth muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- myofibrils
2. A- Cardiac muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- intercalated disc
3. A- Skeletal muscle, B- Multi-nucleus, C- Sarcolemma
4. A- Smooth muscle, B- Single nucleus, C- intercalated disc
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

176. Compound epithelium play major role in

1. Secretion
2. Absorption
3. Support
4. Protection
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

177. Adipose tissue is a type of

1. Epithelial tissue
2. Connective tissue
3. Nervous tissue
4. Muscular tissue
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

178. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna is also found in

1. Ear ossicles
2. Nails
3. Hairs
4. Tip of the nose
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

179. Epithelial cells are connected to basement membrane by

1. Desmosomes
2. Hemidesmosomes
3. Adhesive belts
4. Tight junction
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

180. Identify the given tissue.

1. Areolar tissue
2. Adipose tissue
3. Bone
4. Cartilage
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

July 31, 2025
NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (26.07.2025)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (26.07.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following is not an aldose?

1) Glucose
2) Ribose
3) Fructose
4) Galactose
Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

2. Which of the following best describes the tertiary structure of a protein?

1. Linear sequence of amino acids
2. Repeated folding patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets
3. Three-dimensional shape formed by interactions between side chains
4. Multiple polypeptide chains arranged in a single complexDeselect Answer

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3

4
None

3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cellulose?

1) Branched-chain polymer
2) Straight-chain polymer
3) Composed of α-glucose units
4) Soluble in water
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

4. In the Benedict’s test, the formation of a red precipitate indicates the presence of:

1. Non-reducing sugars
2. Reducing sugars
3. Polysaccharides
4. LipidsDeselect Answer

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3

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None

5. Which of the following is not a chemically modified sugar’?

1. Glucosamine
2. N-acetyl galactosamine
3. Galacturonic acid
4. Di hydroxy acetoneDeselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

6. Which of the following statements is false

1. In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acid changes
2. Protein is a homopolymer
3. Non-essential amino acids are synthesized by animals
4. Dietary proteins are source of essential amino acidDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

7. Find out incorrect

1. a polysaccharide is obtained from the roots of Dahlia.
2. GLUT-4 protein enables glucose transport into
3. Ribose sugar is present in RNA and ATP
4. Sucrose is a dipeptide commonly known as AspartameDeselect Answer

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None

8. Which of the following is correct about amino acid?

1. It is a compound containing amino (-NH2) and acidic group (-COOR)
2. It is a substitute of cis methane
3. It is based on nature of R group they are of many
4. All of these
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

9. In some places a protein molecule may be folded back on itself. This is called _______ structure and folds or coils and are held together in place by   ,

1. secondary; H-bonds
2. secondary; peptide bond
3. tertiary; H-bonds
4. primary; peptide bond
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

10. Quarternary structure is present in

1) haemoglobin
2) histone
3) globulin
4) elastin

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

11. Mark the mismatched

1. Toxins – Ricin
2. Alkaloids – Codeine
3. Drugs- Vimblastine
4. Lectin- Curcumin
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

12. Which of the following amino acids can stabilize protein structure by forming disulphide bonds?

1) Arginine
2) Lysine
3) Cysteine
4) Alanine

Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

13. Cellulose does not form blue colour with iodine because

1. It is a helical molecule
2. It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules
3. It breaks down when iodine reacts to it
4. It is a disaccharide
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

14. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin dependent?

1) GLUT I
2) GLUT II
3) GLUT III
4) GLUT IV

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

15. Which of the following amino acids is essential for humans?

1) Alanine
2) Glutamic acid
3) Valine
4) Tyrosine

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

16. Weight of protein is approximately

1) >12000 Da
2) < 6000 Da
3) < 12000 Da.
4) 600-3000 Da.

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

17. In a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond, which is formed by the reaction of

1. -COOH group of one amino acid with -NH2 group of next amino acid
2. -NH₃ group of one amino acid with -COOH group of next amino acid.
3. -COOH groups of two amino acids
4. -NH2 groups of two amino
Deselect Answer

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None

18. Out of following elements, which is present in least quantity in human body?

1) Carbon
2) Oxygen
3) Silicon
4) Nitrogen

Deselect Answer

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3

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None

19. Which of the following is/are alkaloids

1) Cellulose
2) Codeine
3) Morphine
4) Both (2) and (3)

Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

20. Which of the following is NOT a primary metabolite?

1) Amino acids
2) Sugars
3) Antibiotics
4) Nucleotides

Deselect Answer

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3

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None

21. Which polysaccharides is the primary structural component of plant cell walls

1) Starch
2) Cellulose
3) Glycogen
4) Chitin

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

22. Which substance is normally absent in protein

1) Carbon
2) Nitrogen
3) Sulphur
4) Phosphorus

Deselect Answer

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3

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None

23. How much time will it take to fill half of the cup if a bacterial cell divides mitotically once in a minute and it takes one hour to fill the cup?

1) 30 minutes
2) 45 minutes
3) 20 minutes
4) 59 minutes

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

24. Swollen bead like areas considered to be genes can be observed on chromosomes in subphase of meiosis.

1) leptotene
2) zygotene
3) pachytene
4) diakinesis

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

25. Which of the following correctly describes the function of the G2/M checkpoint in the cell cycle?

1. Ensures proper attachment of chromosomes to spindle fibers
2. Checks for DNA replication errors before mitosis
3. Determines if the cell should enter G0 phase
4. Monitors external growth signals before DNA replication
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

26. Refer to the given stages A, B, C and D of meiosis I and select the incorrect statement regarding them.

1. The last stage of A is diakinesis which is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
2. In stage B, microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.
3. In stage C, homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
4. In stage D, separation of chromosomes takes place, cytokinesis follows this stage and this is called as dyad of cells.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

27. A defect in the Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) of a human cell leads to the failure of securin degradation. Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of this defect during mitosis?

1. The metaphase plate will fail to form.
2. Chromatids will not separate during anaphase.
3. The spindle fibers will not attach to kinetochores.
4. Sister chromatids will undergo recombination.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

28. During the late interphase stage of the cell cycle, a cell is observed to actively synthesize tubulin proteins while also increasing in volume. Which phase is the cell most likely in?

1. G₁-phase, as the cell prepares for DNA replication
2. S-phase, since DNA and protein synthesis occur simultaneously
3. G₂-phase, as the cell readies itself for mitotic division
4. M-phase, where spindle fiber formation and chromosome segregation take place
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

29. Study the following process which occurs in the telophase of mitosis.
(i) Breakdown of spindle fibres.
(ii) Formation of the nuclear membrane.
Identify the stage in which the opposite of the above process occurs.
1) S phase
2) Prophase
3) Interphase
4) Metaphase

Deselect Answer

1

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None

30. Meiosis II performs

1. separation of sex chromosomes
2. synthesis of DNA and centromere
3. separation of homologous chromosomes
4. separation of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

31. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing

1. same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
2. half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
3. half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
4. same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids.
Deselect Answer

1

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None

32. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?

1. 63
2. 42
3. 21
4. 84
Deselect Answer

1

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None

33. Select the correct option: –

A         B          C         D

(1)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)
(2)        (i)         (ii)        (v)        (iv)
(3)        (ii)        (iii)       (iv)       (v)
(4)        (ii)        (i)         (iii)       (iv)

Deselect Answer

1

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None

34. A bacterial culture initially contains 2 × 10⁶ cells/mL and doubles every 30 minutes. What will be the cell concentration per mL after 2 hours?

1) 32 x 10⁶2) 16 x 10⁶3) 8 x 10⁶4) 64 x 10⁶

Deselect Answer

1

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None

35. Assertion (A): A somatic cell after S phase contains four times the DNA of a gamete.
Reason (R): DNA doubles during S phase and somatic cells are diploid.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

36. At which sub-stage of prophase-I are homologous chromosomes fully paired and synapsis completed?

1) Leptotene
2) Zygotene
3) Pachytene
4) Diplotene

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

37. An egg cell has 20 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much amount of DNA will be, in this animal at the end of G₂ phase of mitosis?

1) 20 pg
2) 40 pg
3) 60 pg
4) 80 pg

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

38. Number of chromatids at metaphase is

1. Two each in mitosis and meiosis
2. Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
3. Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
4. One in mitosis and two in meiosis
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

39. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in

1) Telophase
2) Cytokinesis
3) Metaphase
4) Anaphase

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

40. Assertion: Crossing over involves the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Reason: Crossing over occurs in diplotene stage of prophase-I

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

41. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/ stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

1) C-karyokinesis
2) D- G₁ phase
3) A- cytokinesis
4) B- Anaphase

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

42. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes

1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
2. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
4. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
Deselect Answer

1

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None

43. _________________is the best stage to observe the shape, size, and number of chromosomes

1) Prophase
2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase
4) Telophase

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

44. An anther has 800 pollen grains. How many PMCs must have been there to produce them?

1) 1200
2) 200
3) 300
4) 150

Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

45. In which stage of meiosis II, the chromosomes are composed of two chromatids?

1. Prophase II and Metaphase II
2. Anaphase II and Telophase II
3. Prophase II and Telophase II
4. Metaphase II and Anaphase II
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

ZOOLOGY
46. Select the wrong statement regarding phylum ctenophora

1. They are mostly marine
2. They show bioluminescence
3. They are hermaphrodite
4. They have eight external rows of ciliated comb platesDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

47. Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates

1. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
3. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
4. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correctDeselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

48. The excretory structures of flatworms/Taenia are

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Protonephridia
3. Green glands
4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

49. Match the following and select the correct option

1. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(ii) (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv) (b)-(i)   (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)Deselect Answer

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None

50. Body cavity not lined by mesoderm and directly connected to archenteron occurs in

1) Platyhelminthes
2)Annelida
3) Aschelminthes
4) Echinoderms
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

51. Notochord arises from

1) Endoderm
2) Mesoderm
3) Ectoderm
4) None of these
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

52. Which of the following group of animals have a unique property of possessing mammary glands, hair and pinnae?

1. Elephas, Corvus, Neophron
2. Chelone, Panthera, Vipera
3. Balaenoptera, Pterophus, Delphinus
4. Betta, Hyla, CanisDeselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

53. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of which phylum?

1. Porifera
2. Ctenophora
3. Echinodermata
4. ChordataDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

54. Consider the following features and select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.
A. Bilateral symmetry
B. Organ-system level of organization
C. Proper circulatory and respiratory system

1. Mollusca, Hemichordata, Echinodermata
2. Annelida, Aschelminthes, Chordata
3. Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Porifera
4. Arthropoda, Cnidaria, PlatyhelminthesDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

55. Hooks and suckers are the characteristic feature of which phylum?

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Aschelminthes
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

56. The excretory structure of arthropods is

1. Malpighian tubules
2. Green glands
3. Protonephridia
4. Flame cellsDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

57. Match the following

1. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
2. A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
3. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
4. A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)Deselect Answer

1

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None

58. Read the following statements with respect to Cyclostomes and select the incorrect ones.
A. They lack scales and paired fins
B. They have circular mouth with jaws
C. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
D. They migrate to deep sea for spawning

1) A and D only
2) A and B only
3) B and C only
4) B and D only
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

59. Pinctada are characterized by

1. Presence of notochord in early stage of life
2. Presence of operculum
3. Presence of visceral hump
4. BioluminescenceDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

60. Superclass Tetrapoda is further classified into how many classes

1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

61. Which of the following is a unique feature of mammals?

1. Four chambered heart
2. Presence of diaphragm
3. Homeothermy
4. Rib-cageDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

62. In which phylum the body can be divided into two identical left and right halves in only one plane?

1) Coelenterata
2) Ctenophora
3) Porifera
4) Annelida
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

63. Which of the following cells in sponges help in trapping food?

1) Pinacocytes
2) Porocytes
3) Choanocytes
4) Ostia
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

64. Female Ascaris can be differentiated from male by

1. Presence of female gonapophysis
2. Presence of setae
3. Shorter length
4. Longer lengthDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

65. Which of the following does not belong to phylum Echinodermata?

1. Sea lily (Antedon)
2. Sea hare (Aplysia)
3. Sea urchin (Echinus)
4. Sea cucumber (Cucumaria)Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

66. Choose the incorrect vertebrate character

1. Ventral muscular heart
2. Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
3. Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs
4. None of the aboveDeselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

67. Which of the following group does not represent a class?

1) Amphibia
2) Cyclostomata
3) Osteichthyes
4) Pisces
Deselect Answer

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None

68. Assertion: Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
Reason: Larvae of cyclostome is metamorphosed in fresh water.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
4. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correctDeselect Answer

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None

69. Which of the following are characteristics of morphology of frog?
I. Exoskeleton and tympanum
II. Immovable lower eyelid and vocal sac
III. Nictitating membrane and protruding eye
IV. Pair of hind legs and vascularised skin

Options:

1) I, II and III
2) II and III only
3) III and IV only
4) I, III and IV
Deselect Answer

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None

70. Pulmonary respiration occurs by A while cutaneous respiration occurs through B.

1. A- Lungs, B- Mouth
2. A- Skin, B- Mouth
3. A- Skin, B- Lungs
4. A- Lungs, B- SkinDeselect Answer

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None

71. Select the correct statements.
I. In frog, RBC are nucleated, do not contain haemoglobin
II. Lymph do not contain RBC
III. Sinus venosus receives blood through vena cava
IV. Heart is covered by pericardium

Options:

1) I, II, IV
2) II, III, IV
3) I, III, IV
4) II and IV only
Deselect Answer

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None

72. Which of the following receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juice from pancreas?

1) Stomach
2) Ileum
3) Rectum
4) Duodenum
Deselect Answer

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None

73. Which of the following shows sexual dimorphism in frog?

1. Slender body and darker color
2. Tympanum and dermal plicae
3. Dermal plicae and vocal sac
4. Copulatory pad and nictitating membraneDeselect Answer

1

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None

74. Prominent endocrine glands found in frog are
I. Gonads and adrenals
II. Hypothalamus and pituitary
III. Pineal body and thyroid

1) I and II
2) II and III
3) I and III
4) I, II, III
Deselect Answer

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None

75. Assertion : Final digestion and absorption take place in the small intestine.
Reason: The intestine of frog possesses villi and microvilli

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer

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None

76. Which of the following is responsible for control and coordination of involuntary activities of visceral organs?

1) CNS
2) PNS
3) ANS
4) All of above
Deselect Answer

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None

77. Regarding brain of frog, olfactory lobe, cerebral hemisphere, diencephalon are found in

1) Forebrain
2) Midbrain
3) Hindbrain
4) None of above
Deselect Answer

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None

78. Assertion (A): Frogs maintain ecological balance
Reason (R): Frogs serve as important link of food chain and food web in ecosystem
Options:
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect but R is correct
Deselect Answer

1

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None

79. Statement I: Frogs are poikilothermic meaning they have constant body temperature.
Statement II: Body of frog is divided into head, thorax and trunk

1. Both statement I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correctDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

80. The alimentary canal of frog is short because they are

1) Herbivores
2) Omnivores
3) Carnivores
4) None of above
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

81. Assertion: Frog can respire on land and in water.
Reason: The vascular system of frog is under developed.

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct but R is not correct
4. A is not correct but R is correctDeselect Answer

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None

82. Select the false statement from the following:

1. Frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect themselves from extreme heat known as aestivation
2. Body is streamlined to help them move on land
3. Frogs never drinks water but absorb it through skin
4. Vocal sac act as resonators to intensify sound of croakingDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

83. Match the following:
1. Spinal nerves – a) 10-12
2. Vasa efferentia – b) 1 pair
3. Oviduct – c)10 pairs
4. Cranial nerves – d) 9 pairs

Options:
1. 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
2. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
3. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-c
4. 1-a, 2-d, 3- c, 4-b
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

84. Frogs camouflage while on land but mimicry while in water. Select the correct option.

1. True for camouflage but false for mimicry
2. True for both
3. False for both
4. False for camouflage but true for mimicryDeselect Answer

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3

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None

85. In which organ do ventricle open on the ventral side of heart?

1. Sinus venosus
2. Truncus arteriosus
3. Conus arteriosus
4. Right auricleDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

86. Regarding eye of frog, select the correct statement.

1. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane
2. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, nictitating membrane
3. Simple eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membrane
4. Compound eyes, lower and upper eyelid, tympanic membraneDeselect Answer

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None

87. Select the correct option for the given diagram:

1. A-seminiferous tubule, B- Bidder’s canal, C-urinogenital duct, D- cloacal aperture
2. A- vasa efferentia, B- adrenal gland, C- urinogenital duct, D- cloaca
3. A- vasa efferentia, B- Bidder’s canal, C- cloaca, D- cloacal aperture
4. A- seminiferous tubules, B-adrenal gland, C- vasa efferentia, D- cloacaDeselect Answer

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3

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None

88. In frog, ova passed from ovarian funnel to ovisac by

1) Ureter
2) Urinogenital duct
3) Oviduct
4) Ovarian follicles
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

89. Select the correct statement regarding frog.

1. Egg is centrolecithal
2. Nymphal stage is tadpole
3. Mature female can lay 2000 to 3500 ova at a time
4. Iodine is useful for metamorphosis of tadpole to adultDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

90. During summer sleep, gaseous exchange takes place through which organ.

1) Skin
2) Lungs
3) Buccopharyngeal
4) All of above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

July 24, 2025
NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (19.07.2025)

Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (19.07.2025)

Name

Email

ZZR ID

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.

CHEMISTRY
1. The correct order of ionic radius for O, O⁺ and O^– is

1. O > O^– > O⁺
2. O⁺ > O > O^–3. O^– > O⁺ > O
4. O^– > O > O⁺Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

2. Which one of the following group of atoms or ions is not isoelectronics ?

1. Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺
2. Ne, Na⁺, Al³⁺
3. He, H^–, Li ⁺
4. K⁺, Ca²⁺, NeDeselect Answer

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3

4
None

3. Screening effect is not observed in

1. He⁺
2. Be³⁺
3. Li²⁺
4. All of the aboveDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

4. Choose the correct order of atomic size ?

1. Sn > Ce > Lu > Yb
2. Lu > Yb > La > Lr
3. Ce > Pm > Yb > Lu
4. Lu > Yb > Ce > LaDeselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

5. An element Niobium will be place in which group ?

1. Group 7
2. Group 6
3. Group 5
4. Group 12Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

6. Ionic radii are

1. Inversely proportional to effective nuclear charge
2. Inversely proportional to square of effective nuclear charge
3. Directly proportional to effective nuclear charge
4. Directly proportional to square of effective nuclear chargeDeselect Answer

1

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None

7. The correct order of ionic radius are

1. K⁺ > K > Mg ²⁺
2. Na > Na⁺ > Ca ²⁺
3. O^– < O ^2- < O
4. N^3- > F^– < FDeselect Answer

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None

8. The electronic configuration of an element is [Kr]5s² . Name the element which is just below the element in the periodic table?

1. Cesium
2. Strontium
3. Barium
4. RadiumDeselect Answer

1

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3

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None

9. Which of the following is incorrect from the following

1. Unp – Db
2. Uuu – Rg
3. Uuo – Ts
4. Unu – Md
Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

10. The group number, number of valence electrons, and valency of an element with atomic number 35 respectively, are

1. 11, 2, 3
2. 14, 4, 4
3. 17, 7, 1
4. 13, 3, 4
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

11. The element Z =115 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group

1. Carbon family
2. Oxygen family
3. Nitrogen family
4. Halogen family
Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

12. Which of the following statements are not correct ?

1. Gallium wes earlier called eka –aluminium
2. 4^th period begins with Rubidium
3. 14 elements of 6^th period are called Lanthanoids
4..Henry Moseley discovered the relationship between X-ray spectra and atomic number of the elements.
Deselect Answer

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None

13. Magnesium reacts with an elements X to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of X is 1s² 2s² 2p⁴, the simplest formula for this compound is

1. Mg₂X₃
2. MgX₂3. Mg₂X₂
4. Mg₃X₂
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

14. The natural occurring radioactive is

1. Uranium and Neptunium
2. Uranium and Plutonium
3. Uranium and Thorium
4. Thorium and Plutonium
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

15. Transuranium are

1. Uranium and Neptunium
2. Thorium and Lawrencium
3. Neptunium and Americium
4. Actinium and Uranium
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

16. There are ____ Representative elements in Modern Periodic Table

1. 13
2. 30
3. 45
4. 50
Deselect Answer

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None

17. Unh is match with the following elements?

1. Dubnium
2. Bohrium
3. Seaborgium
4. Hassium
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

18. The first electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is is -141 kj/mol, its second electron gain enthalpy

1. Almost same as the first electron gain enthalpy
2. Negative,but less negative than the first
3. Have positive value
4. More negative value than the first
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

19. The first ionization energies of Na, Mg, Al and Si respectively are

1. 496, 577, 786, 737
2. 786, 577, 737, 496
3. 496, 577, 737, 786
4. 496, 737, 577, 786
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

20. Zero electron gain enthalpy is shown by

1. B, N and O
2. Na, Mg and Al
3. H, He and Ne
4. Be, Mg and P
Deselect Answer

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None

21. Which of the following is incorrect about Ionization enthalpy?

1. IE₁ of Be > IE₁ of B
2. IE₁ of Na < IE₁ of Mg
3. IE₂ of Mg > IE₂ of Al
4. IE₃ of Na < IE₃ of Mg
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

22. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element ?

1. [Ne] 3s¹2. [Ne] 3s²3. [Xe] 6s¹
4^.[Xe] 6s²
Deselect Answer

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None

23. Which of the following elements has maximum electron affinity ?

1. F
2. Cl
3. Br
4. I
Deselect Answer

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3

4
None

24. The isomerism exhibited by n- propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol is

1. Metamerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Functional isomerism
4. None of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

25. Which of the following compounds shows cis-trans isomerism?

1. (H₃C)₂C = CH – CH₃
2. H₂C = CCl₂
3. C₆H₅(H)C = CH – CH₃
4. More than one of the above
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

26. Which one of the following pairs of isomers is an example of metamerism?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

27. Among the given compounds, which can exhibit tautomerism ?

1. I only
2. II only
3. II amd III only
4. all of these
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

28. Which of the following exhibit tautomerism?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

29. Tautomerism is exhibited by

1. CH₃)₂NH
2. CH₃)₃CNO
3. R₃CNO₂
4. RCH₂NO₂
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

30. Which of the following compound is optically active?

1. 1- butanol
2.2-butanol
3. 3-butanol
4. 4-heptanol
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

31. Optically active is

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only
Deselect Answer

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3

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None

32. Relation between the two compound is ?

1. Enantionmers
2. diastereomers
3. meso compound
4. none of the above
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

33. The enolic form of acetone contains

1. 8 σ-bonds, 2π-bonds and 1 lone pair
2. 9 σ-bonds, 1л-bond and 2 lone pairs
3. 9 σ-bonds, 2π-bonds and 1 lone pair
4. 10 σ-bonds, 1л-bond and 1 lone pair
Deselect Answer

1

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None

34. Common name of the compound C₆H₅CHO is

1. Anisole
2. benzaldehyde
3. salicylaldehyde
4. none of these.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

35. What type of hybrid orbitals will form in the following compound: H₂C-CH=CH-CH₂-CH₃?

1. sp and sp³ 2. sp and sp²3. sp2 and sp3
4. only sp³
Deselect Answer

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None

36. IUPAC name of

1. 6-Bromo – 2- chloro cyclohexene
2. 1-Bromo-3- chlorocyclohexene
3. 3-Bromo – 1 chlorocyclohexene
4. 2 bromo 3-chlorocyclohex-2-ene
Deselect Answer

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None

37. Which of the following compound is meso isomer?

1. 2-chloro butane
2. 2,3 – dichloro butane
3. 2,3 dichloropentane
4. 2- Hydroxypropanoic acid
Deselect Answer

1

2

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None

38. Iupac name of

1. 5,6 – dimethylhept-2-ene
2. 2,3- dimethylhept-5-ene
3. 5,6 – dimethylhept-5-ene
4. 5-isopropylhex-2 –ene
Deselect Answer

1

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None

39. Shifting of electrons of a multiple bonds under the influence of a reagent is called:

1. l-effect
2. E-effect
3. M-effect
4. R-effect
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

40. The number of sigma bonds, pi bonds and lone pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are

1. 11, 3, 1
2. 12, 2, 1
3. 11,2,0
4. 4 12,3,0
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

41. The most stable carbocation, among the following is

1. (CH₃)₂ C –⁺CH-CH₃
2. CH₃ – CH₂⁺ CH-CH₂-CH₃
3. CH₃ –⁺ CH–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃
4. CH₃– CH₂ –⁺ CH₂
Deselect Answer

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None

42. The most stable free radical among the following is

1. C₆ H₅ CH₂^∙ CH₂
2. C₆ H₅^∙CHCH₃3. CH₃^∙CH₂
4. CH₃^∙ CHCH₃
Deselect Answer

1

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None

43. CH₃-S-CH₂-CH₃ and CH₃-CH₂-S-CH₃ are

1. ring-chain isomers
2. chain isomers
3. functional isomers
4. identical.
Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

44. The number of structural isomers of C₆H₁₄ is

1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6
Deselect Answer

1

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3

4
None

45. An organic compound X(molecular formula C₆H₇O₂N ) has six carbon atoms in a ring system, two double and a nitro group as substituent, X is:

1. Homocyclic but not aromatic
2. Aromatic but not homocyclic
3. Homocyclic and aromatic
4. Heterocyclic and aromatic
Deselect Answer

1

2

3

4
None

July 17, 2025
NEET TEST SERIES 1

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July 10, 2025

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