Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST IV (08.11.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
PHYSICS1. A wheel is rolling on a plane surface. The speed of a particle on the highest point of the rim is 8m/s. The speed of the particle on the rim of the wheel at the same level as the center of wheel in m/s, will be
1) 4√22) 4 3) 84) 8√2
1) 2r2) √2 r 3) 3r4) √3 r
1) 1500 N2) 1000 N3) 1200 N4) 0
1) 43.52π2) 53.25π3) 43.25π4) 53.52π
1) OR gate2) NOR gate 3) AND gate4) NAND gate
1) π/2 2) 2π3) 3π/2 4) π
1) Aω 2) ω/k3) dω/dk4) x/t
1) 25cm2) 12.5cm3) 100cm4) 200cm
1) 5062) 5103) 5164) 158
1) a = 0.7x2) a = -200x23) a = -10x 4) a = 100x3
1) Zero2) A3) 2A4) 4A
1) 5N2) 4N3) 0.15N4) 0.3N
1) 6.25×1018 2) 6.25×10193) 6.25×10154) 6.25×1021
1) Resistivity 2) Conductivity3) Inductance 4) Conductance
1) 2 Ω 2) 18 Ω3) 3 Ω4) 3.6 Ω
1) R 2) 2 R3) 1/2 R 4) 2/3 R
1) 0.02 V2) 0.2 V 3) 2×10-3 V 4) 2 V
1) 1·389 H2) 138·88 H3) 0·138 H 4) 13·89 H
1) 2×10−5 H2) 3×10−5 H3) 4×10−5 H 4) 6×10−5 H
1) 25 V2) zero 3) 20 V4) 15 V
1) 5π V 2) 2π V3) 4π V 4) π V
1) 2 mA2) 1 mA3) 0.5 mA 4) 3 mA
1) 152) 25 3) 35 4) 45
CHEMISTRY
48.
1) CH3CHO2) CH3CH2CH=CH23) CH3COCH3 4) CH3CH2CHO
49. The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is
1) toluene 2) benzoic acid 3) benzene4) nitrobenzene
50. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
1) 2-Phenyl-1-butene2) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propane3) 1-Phenyl-2-butene4) 3-Phenyl-1-butane
51. Which following electrophilic substitution reactions faster than benzene?
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Aniline3) Chlorobenzene 4) Nitrobenzene
52. The correct order of boiling points of 2, 2-dimethylpropane, 2-methylbutane and n-pentane is1) n-pentane > 2, 2-dimethylpropane 2-methylbutane >2) n-pentane > 2-methylbutane > 2, 2-dimethylpropane3) 2,2-dimethylpropane > n-pentane > 2-methylbutane4) 2-methylbutane 2,2-dimethylpropane > n-pentane >Deselect Answer
53. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
1) Phenol2) aniline3) Ethene 4) Benzene
54. Which one of the following alkenes will react fastest with H₂ under catalytic hydrogenation conditions?Deselect Answer
1) KMnO42) NaBH43) H2/Pt4) K2Cr2O7/H2SO4
1) 332) 363) 354) 37
1) 3 and +3 2) 3 and 03) 6 and +3 4) 4 and +2
1) C2O42-2) SCN–3) CN4)
1) K3 [Fe(C2O4)3] 2) K[Fe(C2O4)3]3) K2 [Fe(C2O4)3] 4) K4[Fe(C2O4)3]
1) 6 and 22) 6 and 33) 2 and 64) 3 and 6
1) ido2) ate3) ium4) usually keep their common name
1) 302) 323) 344) 36
1) Tl2) Ga3) In4) Al
1) Ga2) Al3) B 4) In
1) Silica 2) Silicates3) Silicones 4) Zeolites
BOTANY
1) actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation2) actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation3) zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation4) zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
1) Six2) Seven3) Eight 4) Five
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (1.11.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
BIOLOGY
2. In industrial production of citric acid, the most commonly used microorganism is—1) Penicillium roqueforti 2) Aspergillus niger3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Clostridium butylicum
3. Which of the following statements about Penicillium notatum is incorrect?1) It produces penicillin, the first antibiotic discovered. 2) It inhibits growth of Staphylococcus. 3) It is used in cheese production. 4) It is a fungus.
4. Assertion (A): Swiss cheese has large holes because of CO₂ production. Reason (R): The CO₂ is produced by Propionibacterium shermanii during fermentation.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
5. Assertion (A): Toddy is produced by fermentation of palm sap. Reason (R): Aspergillus niger ferments the sap of coconut trees to produce toddy.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
6. Assertion (A): Monascus purpureus is used in statin production. Reason (R): Statins inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): Aerobic bacteria play a major role in the oxidation of organic matter in secondary treatment. Reason (R): Aeration provides oxygen that helps these bacteria grow and form flocs.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
8. Assertion (A): The effluent from secondary treatment is safe for human consumption. Reason (R): It is completely free of organic matter and pathogens.1) Both A and R are false 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
9. Biogas produced in sewage treatment plants mainly contains—1) O₂, CO₂, CH₄ 2) CO₂, NH₃, H₂S3) CH₄, H₂O, O₂ 4) CH₄, CO₂, H₂
10. The correct sequence of stages in sewage treatment is—1) Screening → Primary treatment → Secondary treatment → Discharge 2) Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Sludge digestion → Discharge 3) Screening → Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Discharge 4) Screening → Primary → Sludge digestion → Filtration → Secondary
11. Which of the following statements about alcoholic fermentation is correct?1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae converts ethanol to glucose anaerobically 2) Glucose is converted to ethanol and CO₂ by yeast 3) Lactic acid bacteria are primarily used 4) Alcohol is produced in aerobic conditions only
12. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants is advantageous because:1) It produces genetically identical offspring for stability 2) It ensures genetic variation, aiding evolution and adaptation 3) It does not require pollination 4) It bypasses meiosis
13. Which part of the flower produces female gametes?1) Ovule2) Anther 3) Filament 4) Petal
14. Which of the following is a sexual reproductive structure in flowering plants?1) Leaf 2) Flower 3) Stem cutting 4) Root tuber
15. Which of the following statements is true about pollen grains?1) They are haploid structures forming from microspores 2) They are diploid and give rise to female gametophyte 3) They are formed in the ovule 4) They undergo meiosis to produce gametes
16. The 2-celled pollen grain consists of:1) Egg cell and synergid 2) Generative cell and tube cell 3) Zygote and endosperm 4) Microspore mother cell and megaspore mother cell
17. Which of the following statements about the embryo sac is correct?1) It is 8-nucleate at maturity in most flowering plants 2) It is diploid at maturity 3) It develops from microspores 4) It produces male gametes
18. Which of the following is a haploid structure?1) Zygote 2) Embryo sac nuclei 3) Endosperm 4) Ovule integuments
19. Which of the following is a male gamete?1) Vegetative nucleus 2) Generative nucleus 3) Synergid nucleus 4) Antipodal nucleus
20. In a mature embryo sac, the male gametes fuse with:1) Two synergids 2) Egg cell and central cell 3) Antipodal cells 4) Polar nuclei and synergids
21. In pollen grains, the vegetative nucleus:1) Forms male gametes 2) Guides the pollen tube 3) Fuses with egg cell 4) Forms antipodals
22. Which of the following pairs are male gametes in angiosperms?1) Generative nucleus and tube nucleus 2) Two nuclei formed from generative nucleus 3) Tube nucleus and vegetative cell 4) Egg cell and central cell
23. In a 3-celled pollen grain, the nuclei are:1) 1 tube nucleus + 2 sperm nuclei 2) 3 sperm nuclei 3) 2 tube nuclei + 1 sperm nucleus 4) 3 tube nuclei
24. Which of the following are correct regarding linked genes? I. Are located near each other on same chromosome II. Violate the law of independent assortment III. Segregate together during meiosis1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
25. A plant having 24cm long internodes is crossed with a plant having 12cm long internodes, the hybrids have 18cm long internodes. What will be the reason for the result?1) Multiple alleles 2) Complete dominance 3) Incomplete dominance 4) Dominant- recessive alleles
26. Select the incorrect pair.1) Linkage – Drosophila 2) Pleiotropy – ABO blood group 3) Incomplete dominance ‐ Antirrhinum 4) Polygenic inheritance- Human skin colour
27. For a child having blood group B, if father has blood group A. What may be the blood group of the mother?1) O or B2) O3) AB or B 4) A
28. If the gene frequency between genes A and C is 2%, B and C is 13%, B and D is 4%, A and B is 15%, C and D is 17%, A and D is 19%. The arrangement of the genes will be1) ADBC 2) DBAC3) ABCD 4) ACBD
29. In Mirabilis jalapa, RR, Rr, rr determine red, pink and white colors respectively. When F1 hybrid of RR and rr was crossed with dominant parent. What is the ratio produced?1) All red 2) All pink 3) 2 red: 2 pink 4) 2 pink: 2 white
30. Assertion (A): In multiple alleles, more than two alleles are present in a population for a character. Reason (R): All these alleles are present in a single individual1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
31. Select the correct statement.1) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombination 2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombination 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombination as the tightly linked ones 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show fewer recombination
32. Grain colour of wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. A cross was made between AABBCC and aabbcc. In F2 generation what percent of progeny would resemble parents?1) Half2) Three fourth3) One third 4) Less than 5%
33. In Drosophila, gene for white eye colour is also responsible for depigmentation of body parts. The gene is said to be1) Oncogene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Epistatic gene
34. Match the following:Options1) 1- iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii 2) 1- ii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i 3) 1- iv, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii 4) 1- ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-v
35. In Morgan experiment on linkage, what is the difference in parental type percent for cross A and cross B?1) 33.22) 35.93) 28.7 3) 25.5
36. Pleiotropism refers to1) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single gene 2) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a multiplegene 3) Phenomenon of single effect of a multiplealleles 4) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single allele
37. In Morgan experiment on drosophila, the strength of linkage between y and w is1) Higher than w and m 2) Lower than w and m 3) Same as w and m 4) None of above
38. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies. Reason: In a cross which follows Mendelian law, both parent plants can be homozygous.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but and R is true
39. Identify the wrong statement regarding gene I.1) Gene I has three alleles 2) A person will have only two of three alleles 3) Allele i is recessive 4) IA and IB show incomplete dominance
40. What map unit (deciMorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?1) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over 2) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 10% cross over 3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over 4) Both A and B
41. The genotypes of a husband and a wife are IAIB and IBi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?1) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 2) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes 3) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 4) 3 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
42. Select the incorrect pair.1) A.Sturtevant – chromosome map 2) TH. Morgan – linkage 3) Walter sutton – chromosome 4) Carl correns – incomplete dominance
43. Statement 1: In co-dominance, for F2 generation both phenotypic and genotypic ratio is same. Statement 2: Co- dominance is generally observed in cattle coat where the animal shows only parental phenotype.1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct 2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect 4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
44. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by1) Morgan2) Boveri3) Correns 4) Mendel
45. In man, gene A is known to produce a number of phenotypic traits, the gene is known as1) Polygene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Multiple gene
46. The vector for chikungunya is1) Female culex mosquito 2) Female anopheles mosquito 3) Female aedes albopictus mosquito 4) Female pipiens mosquito
47. Match the following diseases with their pathogens1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V, E-III 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV 3) A-IV, C-II, C-III, D-I, E-V 4) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-III
48. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one1) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cells 2) Acidic pH of stomach is an example of physical barrier 3) Acquired immunity\ has an immunological memory 4) Failing to identify self-antigen leads to autoimmune disorder
49. Oral polio vaccine elicits what response in the body?1. Activation of memory cells 2. Passive immunity 3. Anamnestic 4. Amnestic
50. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to mosquito?1) Trophozoite 2) Gametocyte 3) Merozoite 4) Sporozoite
51. The life cycle of Entamoeba is completed in1) One host2) Two host3) Three host 4) Four host
52. The type of immunity acquired by an individual after receiving a vaccine is1) Innate immunity 2) Passive immunity 3) Active immunity 4) Natural immunity
53. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies in humoral immunity?1) T-helper cells2) Cytotoxic T-cells 3) B-cells 4) Natural killer cells
54. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the immune system?1) Innate immunity is specific and develops memory cells after exposure to pathogens. 2) Acquired immunity is non-specific and present at birth. 3) B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. 4) T-lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity.
55. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of1) Antigen-antibody interaction 2) Memory of the immune system 3) Phagocytosis by macrophages 4) Inflammation response
56. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?1) AIDS 2) Rheumatoid arthritis 3) Malaria 4) Tuberculosis
57. Identify infectious diseases from the list given below (i) Cancer(ii) Influenza (iii) Allergy(iv) Small pox1) (i) and (ii)2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (iii) and (iv)4) (ii) and (iv)
58. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork 2) Bite of mosquito vectors3) Drinking water containing egg of4) Droplet infection
59. Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology?1) Hepatitis B 2) Oral polio vaccine 3) Salk vaccine 4) DPT vaccine
60. The organ which got damaged in a malarial patient is1) Lungs 2) Heart 3) Liver 4) Kidney
61. The genera of fungi which is responsible for skin infection is/are1) Microsporum 2) Trichophyton 3) Epidermophyton 4) All of these
62. The formation of gametocytes of Plasmodium takes place inside1) Human RBC 2) Liver 3) Gut of mosquito 4) Salivary glands of mosquito
63. Identify the correct statement from below regarding the life cycle of Plasmodium1) Sporozoites reproduce sexually in liver cells 2) Formation of zygote occurs in the gut of female Anopheles mosquito 3) Female mosquito takes up merozoite along with blood meal 4) Micro and macro merozoites are released during rupturing of RBC
64. Which of the following cells are not a part of cellular barrier of innate immunity?1) Neutrophils 2) NK cells 3) Macrophages 4) Helper T-cells
65. The ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms is called1) Allergy 2) DNA technology 3) Immunity 4) Antibody
66. Saliva in the mouth belongs to which type of barrier?1) Cytokine barrier 2) Physiological barrier 3) Physical barrier 4) Cellular barrier
67. Which of the following are polymorphonuclear leucocytes?1) Neutrophils2) Lymphocytes3) Monocytes 4) NK cells
68. Observe the given figure and identify A, B and C1) A-Epitope, B-Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 2) A-Paratope, B- Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 3) A-FC region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain 4) A-Variable region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain
69. Assertion: Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages. Reason: Auxins promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.1) 1.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, but R is false 4) A is false, but R is true
70. One hormone hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation, while the third hormone increases the tolerance of plants to various stresses. They are respectively1) Gibberellin, Auxin, Ethylene 2) Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin 3) Gibberellin, Auxin, ABA 4) Auxin, Gibberellin, ABA.
71. Match the interaction of PGRs1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii) 2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii) 3) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii) 4) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
72. In tissue culture experiment, leaf mesophyll cells are put in culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as1) Development 2) Senescence 3) Differentiation 4) Dedifferentiation
73. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements 3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
74. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is included under intrinsic factors?1) Growth regulators 2) Water 3) Oxygen 4) All of these
75. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Plasticity is influenced by both growth phases and environmental conditions. Statement II: Larkspur heterophylly is an example of environmental plasticity. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. 2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
76. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio 2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio 3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio 4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
77. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin 2) cytokinin 3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
78. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
79. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in1) Annual plants 2) Floral parts 3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation 4) Leaf abscission
80. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?1) IAA and gibberellin 2) Auxin and cytokinin 3) Auxin and abscisic acid 4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
81. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin2) cytokinin3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
82. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?1) Cyanobacteria 2) Diatoms 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Euglenoids
83. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomes because1) they both need food molecules 2) they require both RNA and DNA 3) both require the environment of a cell to replicate 4) they both require oxygen for respiration
84. Black rust of wheat is caused by1) Puccinia 2) Aspergillus 3) Mucor 4) Rhizopus
85. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of1) Phytophthora 2) Uncinula 3) Ustilago 4) Claviceps
86. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey 2) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water3) using flagella for locomotion 4) having two types of nuclei
87. Which of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?1) Bacteria 2) Euglena 3) Mycoplasma 4) Paramecium
88. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates4) Slime moulds
89. TO. Diener discovered a1) free infectious RNA 2) free infectious DNA 3) infectious protein 4) bacteriophage
90. Choose the wrong statement.1) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics 2) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics 3) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms 4) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (25.10.2025)
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.CHEMISTRY1. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to the state of the principal quantum number 5. Then the number of spectral lines observed will be:
1) 62) 103) 15 4) 20
2. What is the ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in Brackett series of Hydrogen spectra?
1) 12/3 2) 25/93) 16/25 4) 4/3
3. Calculate the radius of Bohr’s fifth orbit (in nm) for Hydrogen atom.
1) 1322.5 2) 13.2253) 1.32254) 0.1322
4. What is the value of orbital angular momentum for an electron in 5s orbital?
1) 12) 03) 24) 4
5. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of Hydrogen?
1) +3.4 eV2) -13.6 eV3) -3.4 eV4) +13.6 eV
6. How many spherical nodes are present in 5s orbital in a Hydrogen atom
1) 32) 43) 1 4) 0
7. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Ca atom is:
1) 02) 13) 24) 3
8. Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron if the uncertainty in its velocity is 5.7 X 105 m/s.
1) 2 × 10 12 m2) 1 × 10-10m3) 3 × 10 3 m4) 1 × 10 -2 m
9. How many electrons in Magnesium have m = 0?
1) 122) 103) 8 4) 6
10. The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-5 m is
1) 7.27 × 106 m/s2) 0.761 ×104 m/s3) 0.725 × 102 m/s4) 7.6 3 × 104 m/s
11. The uncertainty in measuring velocity of a proton is 4 X 103 m/s. The minimum uncertainty involved in measuring the position of proton will be?1) 3.7 × 104 m2) 4.3 × 10-12 m3) 7.9 × 10 -12 m4) 3.7 × 108 m
12. What is the normality of a solution containing 49 g of H₂SO₄ in 100 m L of solution?
1) 1N 2) 0.01 N3) 10 N 4) 100 N
1) 30.25 g2) 37.74 g3) 50.32 g4) 52.50 g
1) 60 M2) 65 M3) 45 M 4) 50 M
1) 50 g2) 1g3) 10g 4) 5g
1) HF2) H2F23) H3F3 4) H4F4
1) 0.502) 0.353) 0.30 4) 0.20
1) Law of Conservation of Mass2) Law of Definite Proportions3) Law of Multiple Proportions4) Law of Reciprocal Proportions
1) 2.8 L 2) 5.6 L3) 1.4 L 4) 4.2 L
1) 0.6022 x 1023 2) 3.011 x 10233) 3.6 x 10234) 6.022 x 1023
1) 1.32 g 2) 1.47 g3) 1.25 g 4) 3.66 g
1) 2.24 x 104 2) 2.24 x 1033) 3.136 x 1044) 3.136 x 103
1) 0.075 2) 0.0173) 0.5 4) 0.025
1) Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3 2) Na3[Fe (CN)6]3) Fe (CN)3 4) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
1) Cobalt salt2) Lead slat3) Zinc Salt 4) Silver Salt
1) 42) 33) 54) 7
1) H2S2) NO23) NH34) SO2
1) HCO3–2) NO3–3) S24) All of these
1) Chloride2) Carbonate3) Nitrate4) Both (1) and (3)
1) 0 2) 23) 3 4) 4
1) CH3CH2NH22) CH3CH3OH3) CH3CH2NHCH3 4) CH3CH2CN
1) Tartaric acid2) α-amino acids3) Maleic acid4) Lactic acid
1) NO2 donates electron meta position2) NO2 withdraws electron from ortho and para positions3) NO2 make ring electron rich at ortho and para.4) NO2 withdraws electron from meta position.
1) n-butane2) 1-butene3) cis-2-butene 4) trans-2-butene.
1) Cl–< Br– < I– 2) I–< Cl– < Br–3) Br– < Cl– < I^– 4) I–< Br– < Cl–
1) (I), (II)2) (II), (I)3) (I), (III)4) (III), (I)
1) C6 H5 CH2 Br2) C6 H5 CH(C6H5)Br3) C6 H5 CH(CH3)Br4) C6 H5 C(CH3)(C6 H5)Br
45. Which of the following has highest nucleophilicity?
1) SH–2) H₂O3) OH–4) F–
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (18.10.2025)
1) r/42) r/2 3) 2r4) 4r
1) 3.5×10-7 sec2) 4.5×10-7 sec3) 1.5×10-7 sec4) 2.5×10-7 sec
1) in a circular orbit2) along a parabolic path3) along a straight line4) in an elliptical orbit.
1) 1.18 × 10–13 2) 1.28 × 10–133) 1.6 × 10–134) 1.72 × 10–13
1) 2 2) 5/33) 44) 7/3
1) Charge cannot be destroyed2) Charge exists on particles3) There is a minimum permissible charge on a particle4) Charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
1) 8 Vm2) 12 Vm3) 16 Vm4) zero
1) Electric field lines do not pass through a conductor2) Electric charges are quantized3) Electric field lines pass through an equipotential surface4) Electric field line is a vector quantity
1) 6q 2) -6q3) 5q4) -5q
1) 11.66 NC-12) 136 NC-13) 16 NC-14) 6.78 NC-1
1) Work is done on the charge2) Work is done by the charge3) Potential energy of the charged is changed4) No work is done on the charge
1) 6 cm from point A toward B2) 3 cm from point A opposite to B3) 9 cm from point B towards A4) 18 cm from the point B towards A
1) 1:22) 2:13) 1:14) 1:4
1) [ML1 T-2 A1 ] 2) [ML0 T-2 A-1]3) [ML1 T-2 A-2]4) [ML0 T2 A-1 ]
1) 0.2 2) 0.6 3) 0.4 4) 0.04
1) 0.05 mm2) 0.01 mm3) 0.50 mm4) 0.25 mm
1) 1 : 22) 1 : 43) 2 : 14) 4 : 1
1) 390 bar2) 400 bar3) 490 bar 4) 300 bar
1) 100 m2) 77 m3) 63 m 4) 85 m
1) 374.82) 374.833) 3754) None
1) mass2) momentum3) angular momentum4) energy
1) 1 GPa-12) 0.01 GPa-13) 10 GPa-14) 0.1 GPa-1
1) 2sinA2) 2cosA3) 1/2cosA 4) tanA
1) 3:4 2) 2:1 3) 1:24) 2:3
1) 1.002) 1.533) 1.81 4) 1.32
1) 9mm2) 0.9cm 3) 0.9mm4) 9cm
1) 105° 2) 305°3) 205°4) 405°
1) 1.32) 1.43) 1.5 4) 1.7
Welcome to your NEET MID TERM EXAM 1 (08.10.2025)
Important Instruction
PHYSICS
1) 1 V2) -2 V3) -5 V4) 10 V
1) -3.4 eV 2) -0.64 eV3) -0.85 eV 4) -10.25 eV
7. A point charge q is kept at the center of the circle formed by cutting a spherical shell by a plane as shown. The electric flux linked with the remaining surface of the shell is
1) 47 μF2) 3 μF3) 60 μF4) 10 μF
1) -20 V/m 2) -30 V/m3) -40 V/m 4) 21 V/m
1) 11%2) 29%3) 15%4) 13%
1) Pressure2) Angle3) Shear modulus4) Angular speed
1) 2.232) 4.46 3) 22.3 4) 44.6
1) 40 km2) 36 km3) 30 km4) 45 km
1) 21.9×1022) 2.19×1043) 2.19×1024) 21.9×104
1) 212005√3 2) 122500√33) 212005 4) 122500
1) 13 N2) 14 N3) 6.5 N4) 7 N
1) 2.5% 2) 4% 3) 0.53%4) 0.83%
1) 4Mg/k2) 2Mg/k3) Mg/k 4) Mg/2k
1) 1/22) 1/4 3) 24) 3/4
1) 0.15% 2) 1.5%3) 2.5%4) 0.5%
1) 3200 km 2) 1600 km 3) 2430 km 4) 1630 km
1) 2: r2) 1: r 3) 3: r 4) 4: r
1) 0 J2) 20,000π2 J3) 2,650 J4) 12,600π J
1) 1/r22) r 3) 1/r4) r2
1) 4×10-20 N2) 8π×10-20 N3) 4π×10-20 N4) 8×10-20 N
1) 3 IL2) √5 IL 3) 5 IL 4) √3 IL
1) 100 %2) 75%3) 50%4) 0%
1) 1kg-m22) 2kg-m23) 3kg-m24) None of these
1) (0, 0, 0)2) (1, 3, 2)3) (-1, 2, 3)4) (3, 1, 8)
1) x-axis 2) y-axis3) z-axis 4) yz-plane
38. The angular speed of a motor wheel is increased from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration of the motor wheel is
1) 2πrads−22) 4πrads−23) 6πrads−2 4) 8πrads−2
1) 75°2) 90°3) 105°4) 120°
1) 1.7 2) 1.43) 1.54) 1.3
1) 1.5mm 2) 3mm3) 6mm4) 9mm
1) C₂H42) C₃H₄3) C₂H₂ 4) C₄H₈
1) 42.43%2) 53%3) 56%4) 53.98%
1) C₈H₁₆O2) C₄H₈O₂3) C₆H₁₂O4) C₂H₄O
1) 51.0 g2) 68.0 g3) 76.5 g4) 102.0 g
1) 8.50 mL 2) 8.28 mL3) 9.00 mL 4) 7.90 mL
1) −393.6 2) −370.63) −353.6 4) −473.6
1) 25.0 °C 2) 40.0 °C3) 68.0 °C4) 47.0 °C
1) +226 kJ 2) +210 kJ3) −117 kJ4) −74 kJ
1) – 40 kJ·mol⁻¹ 2) + 40 kJ·mol⁻¹3) +160 kJ·mol⁻¹ 4) −160 kJ·mol⁻¹
1) Bromine water 2) KMnO4 solution3) Tollen’s reagent4) Chlorine gas
1) I and IV only2) II and III only3) II, III, IV only4) All of the above
1) (B)-II 2) (D)- (IV)3) (C) -III4) (A) – I
1) Cl2O72) SeO23) Bi2O3 4) Sb2O3
1) 42) 33) 24) 1
1) 6.98 X 10-12 2) 0.62 X 10-133) 6.58 X 10-13 4) 5. 26 X 10-12
1) 2.45 X 10-8 J 2) 7.12 X 1043) 9.34 X 104 J 4) 1 X 10-8 J
1) -12) +13) -1/2 4) -2
1) 1.78 x 10-3 2) 17.433) 0.1144) 2.814
1) (Keq / 25c2)1/5 2) (Keq / 108c4)1/53) (Keq / 6c5)1/5 4) (Keq / 5c4)1/5
1) NH4Cl2) NaCl3) Na3PO44) Sr (OH)2
1) 0.502) 0.253) 0.1254) 0.05
1) 0.62) 0.43) 0.854) 0.15
1) 82) 163) 324) 64
1) Root2) Modified leaf root3) Holdfast4) Rhizoid
Welcome to your JEE WEEKLY TEST MATHEMATICS (26.09.2025)
1. A lady wants to select one cotton saree and one polyester saree form a textile shop. If there are 15 cotton and 13 polyester varieties in that shop, in how many ways can she pick up two sarees
1) 1252) 2153) 3454) 195
2. In a class, there are 30 boys and 18 girls. The teacher wants to select one boy and one girl to represent the class for quiz competition. In how many ways can the teacher make this selection?
1) 625 2) 1253) 254) 540
3. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000, in which all the digits are distinct?
1`) 7292) 6483) 858 4) 546
4. How many three digit odd numbers can be formed using the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 if the repetition of digit is not allowed
1) 216 2) 1203) 604) 50
5. The number of ways in which a man can invite one or more of his friends to dinner is?
1) 302) 633) 1204) 15
6. How many number of four digits can be formed with the digits 1,2,3,4,5 if the digit can be repeated in any number of times?
1) 552) 5!3) 6254) 9000
7. There are 7 chairs in a row. In how many ways can 3 persons occupy any three of them
1) 2402) 2103) 2604) 120
8. How many 4 digit numbers are there, when a digit may be repeated any number of times?
1) 3×432) 9×1033) 104 4) 410
9. How many three digit odd numbers can be formed by using the digits 5,6,7,8 of the repetition of digits is allowed?
1) 642) 323) 244) 30
10. A class is composed by 2 brothers and 6 other boys. In how many ways can all the boys be seated at the round table so that the 2 brothers are not seated beside each other
1) 14402) 43203) 36004) 720
11. Numbers greater than 1000 but not greater than 4000 are ti be formed with the digits 0,1,2,3,4 allowing repetitions, the number of possible numbers is
1) 3702) 3763) 3654) None of these
12. A coin is tossed n times, the number of all possible outcomes is
1) 102) 63) 124) none of these
14. The number of ways in which n shirts can be selected from a rack displaying 3n different shirts is
15. Find the rank of word ‘WIFE’ among the words that can be formed with its letters and arranged as in dictionary is
1) 82) 243) 44) 18
16. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’ be permuted so that consonants always occur together?
17. The number of triangles that can be formed with 6 points on a circle is
1) 152) 63) 20 4) 12
18. The number of ways in which a necklace can be formed by using 5 identical red beads and 6 identical white beads is:
19. Find the number of positive integers greater than 6000 and less than 7000 which are divisible by 5, provided that no digit is to be repeated
1) 1002) 1123) 2004) 212
20.
1) 202) 123) 64) 30
21. How many words can be formed using the letters of the word ‘PENALTY’ where ‘T’ is the starting letter and ‘E’ is positioned in the middle
1) 2402) 7203) 1204) 180
22. How many possible two-digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 3, 5 and 7 (repetition of digits is allowe4)?
1) 102) 93) 84) 7
24. The general term in the expansion of (a-b)n is
25. In a binomial expansion with power 13
1) one of the middle term is the 7th term2) the middle term is the average of the 6th and the 7th terms3) the middle term is obtained by subtracting 6th term from the 7th term.4) there are two middle terms 6th and 7th term
26. The middle term in the expansion of (x+y)10 is the
1) 6th term2) 5th term3) average of 5th and 6th terms4) 7th term
27. If the coefficients of 7th and 13th terms in the expansion of (1+x)n are equal, then is equal to
1) 102) 153) 18 4) 20
28. The sixth term in the expansion of
29. The middle term in the expansion of
1) 254 2) 2523) 2504) 251
30. The number of terms in the expansion of (2x-3y)8 is
1) 62) 93) 84) 5
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (27.09.2025)
1) lactose but not lactase2) lactase but not lactose3) lactobacillus but not lactose4) lactose as well as laevorotatory
2. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
1) Lactose permease2) Transacetylase3) Lactose permease and transacetylase.4) B-galactosidase
3. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
1) sn RNA 2) hn RNA3) 23 S rRNA4) 5 S IRNA
4. The genetic code is:
1) Ambiguous and universal2) Degenerate and non-overlapping3) Commaless and universal4) Unambiguous and overlapping
5. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of
1) Bryophyte2) Alga3) Angiosperm4) Gymnosperm
1) Missense mutation2) Frameshift mutation3) Nonsense mutation4) Silent mutation
1) Nonsense mutation2) Missense mutation3) Silent mutation4) Frameshift mutation
1) DNA polymerase III2) DNA polymerase I3) Primase4) DNA ligase
1) Coding region of the gene2) Promoter region of the gene3) Terminator region of the gene4) Intronic region of the gene
1) Repressible operon2) Inducible operon3) Constitutive operon4) Overlapping operon
1) 3.1 × 10⁶ bp2) 3.1 × 10⁷ bp3) 3.1 × 10⁸ bp4) 3.1 × 10⁹ bp
1) mRNA (except T for U) 2) tRNA3) rRNA4) The template strand
1) 1980 2) 19903) 20004) 2010
1) 2,0002) 20,0003) 200,000 4) 2 million
1) 50%2) 25%3) 10% 4) 2%
1) Exons2) Introns3) Satellite DNA 4) Promoter regions
1) PCR amplification2) Gel electrophoresis3) Southern blotting4) Restriction digestion
1) Very high in siblings2) Almost zero, except for identical twins3) 50% in parent-child pairs4) 100% in unrelated individuals
1) DNA polymerase2) RNA polymerase3) Reverse transcriptase4) Ligase
1) RNA polymerase I2) RNA polymerase II3) RNA polymerase III4) All of the above
1) Sunflower2) Pea3) Lemon4) Mustard
1) Vexillary 2) Imbricate3) Twisted4) Valvate
1) pea2) Argemone3) Diathus 4) lemon
1) monadelphous 2) polyandrous3) diadelphous 4) polyadelphous.
1) vexillum2) corona3) carina 4) pappus.
1) Three2) Four3) Five 4) Six
1) Hilum2) Micropyle3) Nucellus 4) Chalaza
1) Scutellum 2) Coleoptile3) Aleurone4) Coleorhiza
1) endocarp2) receptacle3) mesocarp 4) epicarp
1) maize2) pea3) coconut4) castor.
1) Solanaceae2) Fabaceae3) Brassicaceae 4) Asteraceae.
1) Liliaccae 2) Solanaceae3) Asteraceae4) Fabaceae.
1) Corymb 2) Cyathium3) Capitulum4) Hypanthodium
1) Phyllotaxy2) Venation3) Vernation 4) Aestivation
41. Study the above floral formula and identify the family.
1) Disc florets of Asteraceae family2) Ray florets of Asteraceae family3) Disc florets of Gramineae family4) Ray florets of Gramineae family
1) marginal2) free central3) basal4) axile.
1) Flower is bisexual, actinomorphic and pentamerous2) Stigma equal to number of carpels3) Stamens are epipetalous4) Corolla arranged in imbricate aestivation.
1) Compositae2) Cruciferae3) Gramineae4) Solanaceae
1) More H+ and high temperature2) Less H+ and high temperature3) More H+ and low temperature4) Less H+ and low temperature
1) Emphysema2) Pneumonia3) Allergies4) Asthma
1) They carry 99.5% of O22) They transport 90% of O2, the rest 10% being transported by plasma in dissolved form3) They carry 20-25% of CO24) They do not carry CO2 at all
1) Less than that in the alveoli2) Less than of carbon dioxide3) Equal to that in the alveoli4) Less than that in the tissue
1) A, C and D2) A, D and E3) C, D and E 4) A, B and D
1) TV + IRV2) IRV + ERV3) IRV + ERV + TV4) ERV + RV
1) They bifurcate from the trachea2) They are divided into three parts – primary, secondary and tertiary bronchiole3) They are the last segment of the conducting system4) They penetrate the body cells
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is true but R is false4) Both A and R are false
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
1) Faster and deeper2) Slow and deep3) Shallower and slow4) No effect on breathing
1) (a) – Expiration, (b) – Inspiration2) (a) – Breathing, (b) – Respiration3) (a) – Inspiration, (b) – Expiration4) (a) – diaphragm relax, (b) – diaphragm contract
1) Squamous epithelium2) Podocytes3) Endothelium4) Connective tissue
1) Posterior-anterior2) Dorso-ventral3) Longitudinal4) Posterior-ventral
1) Total lung capacity2) Functional residual capacity3) Residual volume4) Vital capacity
1) HCO3– 2) H2CO33) CO2Hb 4) Free form
1) Endothelium of capillary2) Mucus layer3) Basement layer4) Epithelium
1) JD Watson2) Alfonso Corti3) Melvin Calvin4) GN Ramachandran
1) RBC count increases2) RBC count decreases3) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin increases4) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin decreases
1) I – II – III – IV – V2) III – IV – II – V – I3) II – V – I – III – IV4) IV – V – II – I – III
1) Inspiratory capacity2) Inspiratory reserve volume3) Expiratory capacity4) Expiration reserve volume
1) Bronchioles are damaged2) Alveolar walls are damaged3) The respiratory muscles are damaged4) The alveolar sacs are reduced in size
1) Meloidogyne incognita infects the root of cotton plants2) Strategy developed to attack nematode is RNA interference3) Translation of tRNA occurs in nematode4) Nematode specific antisense gene is introduced in cotton plants
1) Introduction of a functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes2) Enzyme replacement therapy3) Introduction of gene isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA into early embryonic cells4) Bone marrow transplant
1) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct3) Both statements are correct4) Both statements are incorrect
1) Is disarmed by deleting Ti gene and used as vector2) Isolated from Agrobacterium tumefaciens3) Can induce tumors in all types of plants4) Transfer T-DNA region to host plant
1) Eli Lily 2) Elixir3) Genetech4) Biocon
1) Production of interferons2) Production of insect resistant crops3) Production of recombinant vaccine4) Molecular diagnosis of disease
1) A, B and C2) B,C and D3) A only 4) D only
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is correct but R is not correct4) A is not correct but R is correct
1) A,B,C,D2) A,B,C3) A,D4) B,C
1) Right to use invention2) Right to use biological entities3) Right to use products4) Right to use process
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A3) A is correct but R is not correct4) A is not correct but R is correct
1) synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase2) silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA3) interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA4) synthesis of mRNA from DNA
1) Single polypeptide chains with 51 amino acids2) Consists of A,B and C chains3) Chains A and B are combined using disulfide bonds4) Prohormone is made up of C- peptide only
1) Vibrio cholerae2) Botulinum toxin3) Bacillus thuriengiensis4) Bacillis anthracis
1) Creating monopolies excluding innovators fron rightful share to markets2) Making decisions regarding validity of GM research and safety of introducing VM organisms3) Use of highly infectious pathogens as agent of biological weapons4) All of above
1) Alpha-1-antitrypsin2) Lactoferrin3) Tissue plasmogen activator4) Interleukin 2
1) Cotton bollworms only2) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively3) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively4) Corn borer only
1) Golden rice are golden in colour due to beta carotene2) Poplar trees clean up heavy metal pollution from contaminated water3) Potrykus and Beyer introduced two genes associated with synthesis of carotene in rice4) Poplar trees are used in phytoremediation
1) Ethical2) Low cost3) Cause temporary effect4) Deadly
1) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b3) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b4) A-d, B-d, C-b, D-c
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (20.09.2025)SDA
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 45 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
Q1. For a chemical process occurring at constant temperature and pressure, which of the following determines whether the process is spontaneous?
(a) ΔH only
(b) ΔS only
(c) ΔG
(d) Activation energy
Q2. Consider a reaction with ΔH = −40.0 kJ·mol⁻¹ and ΔS = −100.0 J·K⁻¹·mol⁻¹. At which temperature range will the reaction be spontaneous?
(a) At all temperatures
(b) At low temperatures only
(c) At high temperatures only
(d) Never spontaneous
Q3. For a reaction at equilibrium under given T and P, the Gibbs free energy change ΔG (for the reaction as written) is:
(a) ΔG < 0
(b) ΔG > 0
(c) ΔG = 0
(d) Cannot be determined without ΔH
Q4. The enthalpy of combustion of CH₄ is –890 kJ·mol⁻¹. What is the amount of heat released when 11.2 L of methane at STP is burnt completely?
(a) –445 kJ
(b) –222.5 kJ
(c) –1780 kJ
(d) –890 kJ
Q5. The entropy change ΔS_system is positive (i.e., increases) for which of the following processes (at the stated conditions)?
(a) Ice melting at 0 °C (fusion of ice)
(b) Water freezing at 0 °C
(c) Isothermal compression of an ideal gas
(d) Formation of NaCl(s) from Na(s) and ½Cl₂(g)
ΔHf°(CH₄, g) = −74.8 kJ·mol⁻¹
ΔHf°(CO₂, g) = −393.5 kJ·mol⁻¹
ΔHf°(H₂O, l) = −285.8 kJ·mol⁻¹
Calculate ΔH for the reaction :
CH₄(g) + 2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2 H₂O(l)
Find the minimum temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous.
H₂(g) + Cl₂(g) → 2HCl(g),
ΔH = −184.6 kJ at 298 K. What is ΔU? (R = 8.314 J·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹)
Given the following reactions and their enthalpy changes:
C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g)?
16. At chemical equilibrium, which of the following is valid?
17. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 x 1020 at 300K. Find the standard free energy change ΔGo for the reaction.
A reversible reaction is said to have attained equilibrium when
19. The equilibrium constant, K for the reaction 2Hl(g) ⇋ H2(g) + I2(g) at room temperature is 2.85 and that at 698 K is 1.4 x 10-2. This implies that the forward reaction is
20. For a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium constant
At a given temperature, the equilbrium constant for the reactions
NO(g) + 1/2O2(g) ⇋NO2(g) and
2NO2(g) ⇋2NO + O2(g)
are K1 and K2. If K1 is 4 x 10-3, then K2 will be
CoO(s) + H2(g) ⇋Co(s) + H2O(g); K1 = 65
CoO(s) + CO(g) ⇋Co(s) + CO2(g); K2 = 500
The equilibrium constant for the reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇋CO2(s) + H2(g)at 100K is
A ⇋B, Kc = 1, B ⇋C, Kc = 3 and C ⇋D, Kc = 5
Evaluate the value of Kc for A ⇋D
24. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋2NH3(g)
For the reaction initially the mole ratio was 1:3 of N2:H2. At equilibrium 50% of each has reacted. If the equilibrium pressure was P, the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium was
25. At 550K, the Kc for the following reaction is 104 mol-1L
X(g) + Y(g) ⇋Z(g)
At equilibrium, it was observed that [X] = 1/2[Y] = 1/2 [Z]
What is the value of [Z] (in molL-1) equilibrium?
26. 3O2(g) ⇋2O3(g)
For the above reaction at 298K. Kc is found to be 3.0 x 10-59. If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040M then concentration of O3 in M is
1.9 x 10-63
2.4 x 1031
1.2 x 1021
4.38 x 10-32
27. In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are NOT equal?
3. NO3–
4. PO32-
Which Hybridisation is not match with the following compound?
42. Which of the following has the lowest lattice energy ?
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (20.09.2025)
1) 100 K2) 273 K3) 625 K 4) 500 K
1) SiF42) XeF43) BF34) SF4
1) 3, 2, 1 2) 2, 4, 63) 1, 2, 3 4) 6, 4, 2
1) O22-2) B23) N2+4) O2
1) CO22) SO32-3) .NO3–4) BO32-
1) NaCl2) KCl3) CsCl4) RbCl
1) CO22) SO23) HCN 4) H2O
1) σ*2pz2) π*2px3) π*2py4) π2px
1) ClO3–, CO32-2) PCl5, POCl33) ClO3–, SO32–4) SF6,ClF3
1) 12) 23) 34) 4
1) SO42- – sp3 2) NH4+ – sp33) BrF5 – sp3d34) SF6 – sp3d2
1) LiF 2) RbF3) KF4) NaF
1) N2+ 2) N23) O24) O2+
1) O22) N23) O2+4) CO+
1) 1/6 2) 63) 1/364) 36
1) K X K’ = 1 2) K =K’3) K’ = √K 4) K = √K’
1) 0.182) 0.363) 0.454) 0.68
1) 162) 1/83) 1/164) 1/64
1) 1/RT2) √RT3) RT 4) (RT)2
1) 1.9 x 10-63 2) 2.4 x 10313) 1.2 x 1021 4) 4.38 x 10-32
1) -137.26 cal 2) -1381.80 cal3) -13.73 cal4) 1372.60 cal
Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST PHYSICS (13.09.2025)
1. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the object. What is the distance of the object from the mirror?1) 902) 603) -90 4) -60
2. An object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 24 cm. When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror, its speed is 9cm/s. The speed of its image at that instant, is1) 4cm/s towards the mirror 2) 6cm/s towards the mirror 3) 4cm/s away from the mirror 4) 6cm/s away from the mirror
3. The focal length of a plano-convex lens is equal to its radius of curvature. The value of the refractive index of its material is1) 1.33 2) 1.63) 1.5 4) 2
4. Focal length of combination of two lenses is 1 m. The power of first lens is -10D and the other lens is 7D, then the first lens is1) Concave 2) Convex 3) Plano-concave 4) Plano-convex
5. In dispersion without deviation1) The emergent rays of all the colours are parallel to the incident ray 2) Yellow coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray 3) Only red coloured ray is parallel to the incident ray 4) All the rays are parallel, but not parallel to the incident ray
6. A thin prism produces an angular dispersion of 24. If the refracting angle of the prism is 3°, and the refractive index of the material of the prism for red colour is 1.55. What is the refractive index of its material for violet light?1) 1.55 2) 1.61 3) 1.683 4) 1.653
7. The angle of prism is 5° and its refractive indices for red and violet colours are 1.5 and 1.6 respectively. The angular dispersion produced by the prism is1) 7.75° 2) 5° 3) 0.5° 4) 0.17°
8. For a glass prism (μ=√3) the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. Find the angle of the prism.1) 30° 2) 60° 3) 45° 4) 90°
9. A compound microscope is of magnifying power 100. The magnifying power of its eyepiece is 4. Find the magnification of its objective1) 252) 20 3) 154) 30
10. Astronomical telescope has two lenses of focal power 0.5D and 20D. Then its magnifying power is:1) 102) 20 3) 804) 40
11. A planet is observed by astronomical refracting telescope having an objective of focal length 16cm and an eyepiece of focal length 2cm.1) The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is 16.02 m 2) The angular magnification of the planet is −800 3) The image of the planet is inverted 4) The objective is larger than the eyepiece
1) 2.12×108ms−1 2) 1.12×108ms−13) 4.12×108ms−1 4) 5.12×108ms−1
1) 9:42) 1:√33) 1:3 √34) 3: √3
1) 4B2) 9B 3) 32B4) none of these
1). A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 2). A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV3). A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4). A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
1) 1.28 × 104 km 2) 6.4 × 103 km3) 3.2 × 103 km 4) 1.6 × 106 km
1) 02) 1.3 x 10-4T 3) 2.1 x 10-4T4) 6.0 x 10-4T
1) 0.4 m/s22) 3.2 m/s23) 0.32 m/s2 4) 0.04 m/s2
1) mv/n 2) mv2/n3) mvn24) mvn
1) 0.05 N s2) 0.85 N s3) – 0.85 N s4) – 0.05 N s
1) 9 N s2) 0.9 N s3) 3 N s4) 0.3 N s
1) 0 N2) 96 N3) 84 N4) 64 N
1) 0.16 m/s 2) 0.016 m/s3) 1.6 m/s 4) None
1) 39.2 m/s2) 4.9 m/s3) 04) 19.6 m/s
1) 6 s2) 0.6 s3) 60 s4) 3 s
1) 3.02 N s2) 4.14 N s3) 2.16 N s4) 5.02 N s
1) 100000 N 2) 400000 N3) 300000 N4) 200000 N
1) Ultraviolet2) Visible3) X-rays4) Infra-red
1) 2.6×10842) 2.6×10543) 2.6×1064 4) 2.6×1074
1) 104.7 MeV 2) 7.48 MeV3) 14.96 MeV4) 147.9 MeV
1) 45 μJ 2) 4.5 μJ3) 0.45 μJ 4) 450 μJ
1) Circle2) Circular disc3) Square4) Spherical