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Welcome to your NEET WEEKLY TEST BIOLOGY (1.11.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The test is of 90 minutes duration and Test Booklet contains 90 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed.
BIOLOGY
2. In industrial production of citric acid, the most commonly used microorganism is—1) Penicillium roqueforti 2) Aspergillus niger3) Trichoderma polysporum 4) Clostridium butylicum
3. Which of the following statements about Penicillium notatum is incorrect?1) It produces penicillin, the first antibiotic discovered. 2) It inhibits growth of Staphylococcus. 3) It is used in cheese production. 4) It is a fungus.
4. Assertion (A): Swiss cheese has large holes because of CO₂ production. Reason (R): The CO₂ is produced by Propionibacterium shermanii during fermentation.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
5. Assertion (A): Toddy is produced by fermentation of palm sap. Reason (R): Aspergillus niger ferments the sap of coconut trees to produce toddy.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
6. Assertion (A): Monascus purpureus is used in statin production. Reason (R): Statins inhibit the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
7. Assertion (A): Aerobic bacteria play a major role in the oxidation of organic matter in secondary treatment. Reason (R): Aeration provides oxygen that helps these bacteria grow and form flocs.1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
8. Assertion (A): The effluent from secondary treatment is safe for human consumption. Reason (R): It is completely free of organic matter and pathogens.1) Both A and R are false 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. 3) A is true, but R is false. 4) A is false, but R is true.
9. Biogas produced in sewage treatment plants mainly contains—1) O₂, CO₂, CH₄ 2) CO₂, NH₃, H₂S3) CH₄, H₂O, O₂ 4) CH₄, CO₂, H₂
10. The correct sequence of stages in sewage treatment is—1) Screening → Primary treatment → Secondary treatment → Discharge 2) Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Sludge digestion → Discharge 3) Screening → Secondary treatment → Primary treatment → Discharge 4) Screening → Primary → Sludge digestion → Filtration → Secondary
11. Which of the following statements about alcoholic fermentation is correct?1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae converts ethanol to glucose anaerobically 2) Glucose is converted to ethanol and CO₂ by yeast 3) Lactic acid bacteria are primarily used 4) Alcohol is produced in aerobic conditions only
12. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants is advantageous because:1) It produces genetically identical offspring for stability 2) It ensures genetic variation, aiding evolution and adaptation 3) It does not require pollination 4) It bypasses meiosis
13. Which part of the flower produces female gametes?1) Ovule2) Anther 3) Filament 4) Petal
14. Which of the following is a sexual reproductive structure in flowering plants?1) Leaf 2) Flower 3) Stem cutting 4) Root tuber
15. Which of the following statements is true about pollen grains?1) They are haploid structures forming from microspores 2) They are diploid and give rise to female gametophyte 3) They are formed in the ovule 4) They undergo meiosis to produce gametes
16. The 2-celled pollen grain consists of:1) Egg cell and synergid 2) Generative cell and tube cell 3) Zygote and endosperm 4) Microspore mother cell and megaspore mother cell
17. Which of the following statements about the embryo sac is correct?1) It is 8-nucleate at maturity in most flowering plants 2) It is diploid at maturity 3) It develops from microspores 4) It produces male gametes
18. Which of the following is a haploid structure?1) Zygote 2) Embryo sac nuclei 3) Endosperm 4) Ovule integuments
19. Which of the following is a male gamete?1) Vegetative nucleus 2) Generative nucleus 3) Synergid nucleus 4) Antipodal nucleus
20. In a mature embryo sac, the male gametes fuse with:1) Two synergids 2) Egg cell and central cell 3) Antipodal cells 4) Polar nuclei and synergids
21. In pollen grains, the vegetative nucleus:1) Forms male gametes 2) Guides the pollen tube 3) Fuses with egg cell 4) Forms antipodals
22. Which of the following pairs are male gametes in angiosperms?1) Generative nucleus and tube nucleus 2) Two nuclei formed from generative nucleus 3) Tube nucleus and vegetative cell 4) Egg cell and central cell
23. In a 3-celled pollen grain, the nuclei are:1) 1 tube nucleus + 2 sperm nuclei 2) 3 sperm nuclei 3) 2 tube nuclei + 1 sperm nucleus 4) 3 tube nuclei
24. Which of the following are correct regarding linked genes? I. Are located near each other on same chromosome II. Violate the law of independent assortment III. Segregate together during meiosis1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
25. A plant having 24cm long internodes is crossed with a plant having 12cm long internodes, the hybrids have 18cm long internodes. What will be the reason for the result?1) Multiple alleles 2) Complete dominance 3) Incomplete dominance 4) Dominant- recessive alleles
26. Select the incorrect pair.1) Linkage – Drosophila 2) Pleiotropy – ABO blood group 3) Incomplete dominance ‐ Antirrhinum 4) Polygenic inheritance- Human skin colour
27. For a child having blood group B, if father has blood group A. What may be the blood group of the mother?1) O or B2) O3) AB or B 4) A
28. If the gene frequency between genes A and C is 2%, B and C is 13%, B and D is 4%, A and B is 15%, C and D is 17%, A and D is 19%. The arrangement of the genes will be1) ADBC 2) DBAC3) ABCD 4) ACBD
29. In Mirabilis jalapa, RR, Rr, rr determine red, pink and white colors respectively. When F1 hybrid of RR and rr was crossed with dominant parent. What is the ratio produced?1) All red 2) All pink 3) 2 red: 2 pink 4) 2 pink: 2 white
30. Assertion (A): In multiple alleles, more than two alleles are present in a population for a character. Reason (R): All these alleles are present in a single individual1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
31. Select the correct statement.1) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombination 2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombination 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombination as the tightly linked ones 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show fewer recombination
32. Grain colour of wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. A cross was made between AABBCC and aabbcc. In F2 generation what percent of progeny would resemble parents?1) Half2) Three fourth3) One third 4) Less than 5%
33. In Drosophila, gene for white eye colour is also responsible for depigmentation of body parts. The gene is said to be1) Oncogene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Epistatic gene
34. Match the following:Options1) 1- iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii 2) 1- ii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i 3) 1- iv, 2-v, 3-iii, 4-ii 4) 1- ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-v
35. In Morgan experiment on linkage, what is the difference in parental type percent for cross A and cross B?1) 33.22) 35.93) 28.7 3) 25.5
36. Pleiotropism refers to1) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single gene 2) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a multiplegene 3) Phenomenon of single effect of a multiplealleles 4) Phenomenon of multiple effect of a single allele
37. In Morgan experiment on drosophila, the strength of linkage between y and w is1) Higher than w and m 2) Lower than w and m 3) Same as w and m 4) None of above
38. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf progenies. Reason: In a cross which follows Mendelian law, both parent plants can be homozygous.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but and R is true
39. Identify the wrong statement regarding gene I.1) Gene I has three alleles 2) A person will have only two of three alleles 3) Allele i is recessive 4) IA and IB show incomplete dominance
40. What map unit (deciMorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?1) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over 2) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 10% cross over 3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over 4) Both A and B
41. The genotypes of a husband and a wife are IAIB and IBi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?1) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 2) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes 3) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes 4) 3 genotypes, 3 phenotypes
42. Select the incorrect pair.1) A.Sturtevant – chromosome map 2) TH. Morgan – linkage 3) Walter sutton – chromosome 4) Carl correns – incomplete dominance
43. Statement 1: In co-dominance, for F2 generation both phenotypic and genotypic ratio is same. Statement 2: Co- dominance is generally observed in cattle coat where the animal shows only parental phenotype.1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct 2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect 4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
44. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by1) Morgan2) Boveri3) Correns 4) Mendel
45. In man, gene A is known to produce a number of phenotypic traits, the gene is known as1) Polygene 2) Pleiotropic gene 3) Hypostatic gene 4) Multiple gene
46. The vector for chikungunya is1) Female culex mosquito 2) Female anopheles mosquito 3) Female aedes albopictus mosquito 4) Female pipiens mosquito
47. Match the following diseases with their pathogens1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V, E-III 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV 3) A-IV, C-II, C-III, D-I, E-V 4) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-III
48. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one1) Interferons are secreted by viral infected cells 2) Acidic pH of stomach is an example of physical barrier 3) Acquired immunity\ has an immunological memory 4) Failing to identify self-antigen leads to autoimmune disorder
49. Oral polio vaccine elicits what response in the body?1. Activation of memory cells 2. Passive immunity 3. Anamnestic 4. Amnestic
50. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to mosquito?1) Trophozoite 2) Gametocyte 3) Merozoite 4) Sporozoite
51. The life cycle of Entamoeba is completed in1) One host2) Two host3) Three host 4) Four host
52. The type of immunity acquired by an individual after receiving a vaccine is1) Innate immunity 2) Passive immunity 3) Active immunity 4) Natural immunity
53. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies in humoral immunity?1) T-helper cells2) Cytotoxic T-cells 3) B-cells 4) Natural killer cells
54. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the immune system?1) Innate immunity is specific and develops memory cells after exposure to pathogens. 2) Acquired immunity is non-specific and present at birth. 3) B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. 4) T-lymphocytes are involved in humoral immunity.
55. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of1) Antigen-antibody interaction 2) Memory of the immune system 3) Phagocytosis by macrophages 4) Inflammation response
56. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?1) AIDS 2) Rheumatoid arthritis 3) Malaria 4) Tuberculosis
57. Identify infectious diseases from the list given below (i) Cancer(ii) Influenza (iii) Allergy(iv) Small pox1) (i) and (ii)2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (iii) and (iv)4) (ii) and (iv)
58. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork 2) Bite of mosquito vectors3) Drinking water containing egg of4) Droplet infection
59. Which of the following vaccine has been produced from yeast by recombinant DNA technology?1) Hepatitis B 2) Oral polio vaccine 3) Salk vaccine 4) DPT vaccine
60. The organ which got damaged in a malarial patient is1) Lungs 2) Heart 3) Liver 4) Kidney
61. The genera of fungi which is responsible for skin infection is/are1) Microsporum 2) Trichophyton 3) Epidermophyton 4) All of these
62. The formation of gametocytes of Plasmodium takes place inside1) Human RBC 2) Liver 3) Gut of mosquito 4) Salivary glands of mosquito
63. Identify the correct statement from below regarding the life cycle of Plasmodium1) Sporozoites reproduce sexually in liver cells 2) Formation of zygote occurs in the gut of female Anopheles mosquito 3) Female mosquito takes up merozoite along with blood meal 4) Micro and macro merozoites are released during rupturing of RBC
64. Which of the following cells are not a part of cellular barrier of innate immunity?1) Neutrophils 2) NK cells 3) Macrophages 4) Helper T-cells
65. The ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms is called1) Allergy 2) DNA technology 3) Immunity 4) Antibody
66. Saliva in the mouth belongs to which type of barrier?1) Cytokine barrier 2) Physiological barrier 3) Physical barrier 4) Cellular barrier
67. Which of the following are polymorphonuclear leucocytes?1) Neutrophils2) Lymphocytes3) Monocytes 4) NK cells
68. Observe the given figure and identify A, B and C1) A-Epitope, B-Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 2) A-Paratope, B- Variable region of light chain, C-Variable region of heavy chain 3) A-FC region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain 4) A-Variable region, B-Constant region of light chain, C-Constant region of heavy chain
69. Assertion: Auxins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages. Reason: Auxins promote the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.1) 1.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true, but R is false 4) A is false, but R is true
70. One hormone hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation, while the third hormone increases the tolerance of plants to various stresses. They are respectively1) Gibberellin, Auxin, Ethylene 2) Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin 3) Gibberellin, Auxin, ABA 4) Auxin, Gibberellin, ABA.
71. Match the interaction of PGRs1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii) 2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii) 3) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii) 4) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
72. In tissue culture experiment, leaf mesophyll cells are put in culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as1) Development 2) Senescence 3) Differentiation 4) Dedifferentiation
73. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements 3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
74. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is included under intrinsic factors?1) Growth regulators 2) Water 3) Oxygen 4) All of these
75. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Plasticity is influenced by both growth phases and environmental conditions. Statement II: Larkspur heterophylly is an example of environmental plasticity. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. 2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. 4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
76. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by1) High auxin : cytokinin ratio 2) High cytokinin : auxin ratio 3) High gibberellin : auxin ratio 4) High gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
77. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin 2) cytokinin 3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
78. Which of the following is an example of differentiation?1) Lignocellulosic wall thickenings of tracheids 2) Loss of nucleus, vacuolisation and end wall perforations in sieve tube elements3) Major structural changes occur in protoplasm 4) All of these
79. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in1) Annual plants 2) Floral parts 3) Vessels and tracheid differentiation 4) Leaf abscission
80. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?1) IAA and gibberellin 2) Auxin and cytokinin 3) Auxin and abscisic acid 4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
81. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone1) auxin2) cytokinin3) ethylene 4) abscisic acid
82. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?1) Cyanobacteria 2) Diatoms 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Euglenoids
83. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomes because1) they both need food molecules 2) they require both RNA and DNA 3) both require the environment of a cell to replicate 4) they both require oxygen for respiration
84. Black rust of wheat is caused by1) Puccinia 2) Aspergillus 3) Mucor 4) Rhizopus
85. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of1) Phytophthora 2) Uncinula 3) Ustilago 4) Claviceps
86. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey 2) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water3) using flagella for locomotion 4) having two types of nuclei
87. Which of the following organisms possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?1) Bacteria 2) Euglena 3) Mycoplasma 4) Paramecium
88. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates4) Slime moulds
89. TO. Diener discovered a1) free infectious RNA 2) free infectious DNA 3) infectious protein 4) bacteriophage
90. Choose the wrong statement.1) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics 2) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics 3) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms 4) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation