NEET COMBINE TEST (29.08.2026)

1. A plane of total wing area 500 m² has a mass of 2×10⁴ kg. Taking the density of air as 1 kg m^-3 and g=10m\/s², which of the following pairs of upper and lower surface air velocities (in m/s) respectively will provide the minimum required lift to get the plane off the ground?

2. Ultraviolet radiations of 2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (Work function = 4.2 eV ). The stopping potential energy in joules of the fastest electron emitted is approximately

1. 3.2×10^-21
2. 3.2×10^-19
3. 3.2×10^-17
4. 3.2×10^-15

3. A horizontal pipe of cross section 80 cm² that tapers to 40 cm² is situated on top of a table of height 80 m. Water flows from the larger end to the lower end with a speed of 5 m/s. If the smaller end of the pipe rests on the edge of the table, the range of water coming from the smaller cross section will be

1. 20 m
2. 40 m
3. 32 m
4. 50 m

4. Two metals A and B, when exposed to light of wavelength 400 nm shows the photoelectric effect. However, when light of wavelength 620 nm is used photoemission from A just stops but B still shows photoemission. When the latter wavelength is doubled, then photoemission from B just stops. Take hC = 1240 eV- nm. The fastest photoelectrons emitted, in all the experiments, have an energy of:

1. 3.1 eV
2. 2.1 eV
3. 1 eV
4. 3 eV

5. In an experiment of terminal velocities of different balls of different radius but same density in a liquid, the variation of terminal velocity with the radius of the balls is best represented by

6. The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5 (h/π) .The energy in the same orbit is nearly:

1. -1.51 eV
2. -13.6 eV
3. -3.4 eV
4. -0.85 ev

7. A horizontal pipe of non-uniform cross-section has water flowing through it. At a point where the cross-sectional area is A, the water speed is v and the pressure is P. At another point where the cross-sectional area is A/3, the pressure is P/2. What is the speed of water v at the first point? (Density of water = ρ)

8. The number of spectral lines that are visible when an electron jumps from fifth excited state to ground state is

1. 4
2. 10
3. 15
4. 3

9. A large open cylindrical tank of height H is completely filled with water. A small hole is made at a depth h below the top surface. The horizontal range R of the water jet emerging from the hole on the ground is maximum when h is equal to:

1. H/4​
2. H/3​
3. H/2​
4. H

10. A flat plate of area 100 cm² is placed on a layer of oil If the coefficient of viscosity of the oil is 1.5 N s m^-2, the horizontal force required to move the plate with a steady speed of 5cm/s  is:

1. 0.0375 N
​2. 0.375
3. 3.75 N ​
4. 37.5 N ​

11. In the first excited state of hydrogen atom, the energy of its electron is -3.4 eV. The radial distance of the electron from the hydrogen nucleus in this case is approximately:
(Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10^-19)  J, e = 1.6 × 10^-19  C and 1/(4πε₀  )  = 9 × 10⁹  N m² /C² )

1. 2.1 × 10^-9  m
2. 2.1 × 10^-8  m
3. 2.1 × 10^-10  m
4. 2.1 × 10^-11  m 

12. A small sphere of density ρ falls from rest in a viscous liquid of density σ (ρ>σ). The variation of its velocity with time t is best represented by which of the following curves?

1. Linear growth starting from origin (v ∝ t)
2. Parabolic curve opening upwards
3. Exponential approach towards a constant maximum velocity v_T
4. Oscillatory curve approaching zero velocity

13. An electron and a photon have the same wavelength and their momenta are P_e and P_v We can conclude that:

1. p_e >p_v
2. p_e<p_v
3. p_e =p_v
4. No inference can be made

14. Water stands up to a height h in a closed tank. The air above the water surface is compressed to a pressure P, which is higher than atmospheric pressure P₀. A small orifice is opened at the bottom of the tank. The speed of efflux of water through the orifice is given by:

15. Light, having a wavelength equal to the first line of the Balmer series, is incident onto a metal of work-function 2eV. The kinetic energy of the ejected electron is:

1. 1.4 eV
2. 0.5 eV
3. 0.11 eV
4. No electrons are ejected

16. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by =a+bt², where a=8.5 m and b=2.5 ms^-2 and t is measured in seconds. The average velocity of the object between t=2 s and t=4 s is

1. 5 m s^-1
2. 10 m s^-1
3. 15 m s^-1
4. 20 m s^-1

17. A spherical metal ball of radius r₁ moves with a terminal velocity v₁ in a liquid. Another sphere of the same material but of radius r₂=3r₁ falls in the same liquid. The ratio of viscous force acting on the second sphere to that on the first sphere at their respective terminal velocities is

1. 3:1
​2. 9:1​
3. 27:1​
4. 81:1

18. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 200 V. After this, their de-Broglie wavelengths are λ_α and λ_p The ratio λ_p/λ_αis:

1. 3.8
2. 8
3. 7.8
4. 2.8

19. A particle of mass 2 kg moves along the -axis under a force F(x)=x+αx². It starts from rest at x=0 and reaches x=5m with a speed of 10 m/s.  Find the value of .

1. 21/15 N/m
2. 21/10 N/m
3. 25/51 N/m
4. 15/21 N/m

20. A uniform rod of length L and mass M lies along the x-axis with its centre at the origin. A small particle of mass m is attached at the right end of the rod. The combined system is then placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. The particle is suddenly removed and moves with velocity v towards the right. What is the velocity of the centre of mass of the rod immediately after the particle is removed?

1. mv/M towards the left
2. mv/M towards the right
3. mv/(M+m) towards the left
4. Zero

21. A force F=1+10y² acts on a particle in the y-direction, where F is in newton and y is in meter. Work done by this force to move the particle from y=0 to y=1m is

1. 10/3 J
2. 3/10 J
3. 10 J
4. 3 J

22. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Displacement is independent of the choice of origin of the axis.
2. Displacement may or may not be equal to the distance travelled.
3. When a particle returns to its starting point, its displacement is not zero.
4. Displacement does not tell the nature of the actual motion of a particle between the points.

23. A system consists of two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg placed at positions x=0 m and x=5 m respectively. The 3 kg particle is now moved to x=10 m, while the 2 kg particle remains fixed. What is the displacement of the centre of mass of the system?

1. 2 m
2. 3 m
3. 4 m
4. 5 m

25. A system consists of two particles of masses ‘m’ and ‘2m’. The first particle is at (2,3) m and the second is at (5,6) m. The position of vector of the centre of mass is:

26. A ball of mass 10 kg is fired vertically upwards with a speed of 50 m/s, it reaches the maximum height of 25 m. Find The resistive force exerted by air resistance?

1. 42.5 N (upward)
2. 425 N (downward)
3. 40.0 N (upward)
4. 400 N (downward)

27. Two particle of masses 2m and 3m are placed at x=0 and x=10m, respectively. A third particle of mass 5m is placed at x=x₀. If the centre of mass is at , then x₀ is

1. 2cm
2. 4cm
3. 6cm
4. 8cm

28. A particle of mass 10 kg is raised from the bottom a circle of radius 1 m along the inner surface upto a height equal to radius of the circle. The maximum gain in energy of the particle is

1. 10 J
2. 49 J
3. 100 J
4. zero

29. A particle moves along the-axis such that its coordinate x varies with time as x=2t²-3t, where  is in meters and is in seconds. The instantaneous velocity of the particle at t=2 s is:

1. 5 m/s
2. 8 m/s
3. 3 m/s
4. 2 m/s

30. The centre of mass of the particles moves with the constant velocity

1. Net external force is zero
2. Internal force is zero
3. All particles have equal masses
4. All particles have equal velocities

31. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force given by The power developed by the force at the time t is given by:

1. (3t³+6t⁵) W
2. (9t⁵+6t³) W
3. (6t⁴+9t⁵) W
4. (9t³+6t⁵) W

32. The area under velocity-time graph for a particle in a given interval of time represents

1. Velocity
2. Acceleration
3. work done
4. displacement

33. A 2kg particle is moving with velocity 6 m/s collides with 4kg particle moving in opposite direction with velocity 3 m/s. Find the velocity of centre of mass

1. 1 m/s
2. 2 m/s
3. 3 m/s
4. zero

34. A particle of mass 500 gm is moving in a straight line with velocity v=bx^5/2. The work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 1 m is: (Take b=0.5m^-3/2 s^-1).

1. 62.5 mJ
2. 72.4 mJ
3. 81.15 mJ
4. 16.25 mJ

35. A uniform rod of length 20m has a mass of 10kg. Its centre of mass is located at

1. 10m from one end
2. 5m from either end
3. At one end
4. 5.5m from one end

36. If ρ is the density of water. The power required to empty the cylindrical container of radius 1 m, contains water upto height 10 m, varies with density as

37. A body at rest is moved along a horizontal straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance moved by the body in time ‘t‘ is proportional to:

1. t^3/4
2. t^1/2
3. t^3/2
4. t^1/3

38. The centre of mass of a system of particles does not depend upon

1. Masses of particles
2. Position of particles
3. Force acting on particles
4. Relative distance between particles

39. A uniform sphere has radius R. A sphere of diameter R is cut from its edge. Then the distance of centre of mass of remaining portion from the centre of mass of the original sphere is.

1. R/4
2.  R/7
3. R/14
4.  R/16

40. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is

1. 1.67 Å
2. 3.33 Å
3. 1.06 Å
4. 6.66 Å

41. The displacement –time graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point


1. C
2. D
3. E
4. F

42. The displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of a constant force is related to time t by the equation t=√x+3, where xis in meters and t is in seconds. What is the displacement of the particle when its velocity is zero?

1. 3 m
2. 6 m
3. 0 m
4. 9 m

43. In the following velocity-time graph, the distance travelled by the body in metres is


1. 200
2. 250
3. 300
4. 400

44. The position-time (x-t) graph of a moving particle is initially a straight line inclined at an angle of 60° with the time axis. After 2 seconds, the graph changes to a straight line inclined at 30° with the time axis. The ratio of the initial velocity to the final velocity of the particle is:

1. 3:1
2. 1:3
3. √3: 1
4. 1:√3

45. For a particle moving in a straight line, which of the following kinematic graphs is physically NOT possible?

1. A position-time graph with a negative slope
2. A velocity-time graph with a negative slope
3. A position-time graph that is a vertical straight line
4. An acceleration-time graph with a negative value

CHEMISTRY

46. The correct stability order for the following species is:


1. (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)
2. (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
3. (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
4. (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)

47. A p-block element belonging to 4^th period, group 13 has an atomic number

1. 30
2. 31
3. 32
4. 33

48. The correct order of the stability of carbocation is


1. P > Q > R > S
2. Q > R > S > P
3. S > Q > R > P
4. S > R > Q > P

49. The atomic number of an element having IUPAC symbol uno is

1. 128
2. 108
3. 198
4. 138

50. Which of the following compounds cannot exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?

51. Oxygen family are also called

1. Coinage metals
2. Pnictogens
3. Chalcogensq
4. Aerogens

52. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

1. 2-Phenyl-1-butene
2. 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propane
3. 1-Phenyl-2-butene
4. 3-Phenyl-1-butane

53. Which electronic configuration corresponds to highest first I.E

1. [He]2s¹
2. [Ne]3s¹
3. [Ar]4s¹
4. [Kr]5s¹

54. The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as shown below has


1. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
2. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond
3. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds
4. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bond.

55. Which of the following is correct

1. r_covalent < r_{van der waals} < r_crystal
2. r_covalent < r_crystal < r_{van der waals}
3. r_crystal > r_covalent > r_{van der waals}
4. r_{van der waals} > r_covalent > r_crystal

56. The order of stability of the following carbocations is


1. III>I>II
2. III>II>I
3. II>III>I
4. I> II > III

57. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

1. Mg<Ca<Cl<P
2. Cl<P<Mg<Ca
3. Ca<Mg<P<Cl
4. P<Cl<Ca<Mg

58. Which of the following compound is chiral:

1. Penta-2, 3-diene
2. 2,3-Dibromopentane
3. 3-cyclopentenol
4. All of these

59. Palladium has an electronic configuration of 4d¹⁰. The period and group it belongs to will be

1. Period 4, group 10
2. Period 5, group 10
3. Period 6, group 10
4. None of these

60. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is:


1. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
2. 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
3. 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

61. Which statement is incorrect about ionization enthalpy (I.E)

1. The more stable the electronic configuration, greater is the I.E
2. E increase with increase in size of an atom
3. E increase with increase in nuclear charge
4. E decrease with increase in screening effect

62. The compound which shows metamerism is:

1. C₅H₁₂
2. C₃H₈O
3. C₃H₆O
4. C₄H₁₀O

63. Among the following, the most stable carbanion is

64. Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic? Al³⁺, Cl^–, O^2-, O^–, Mg²⁺

1. Al³⁺ O^– and Cl^–
2. Al³⁺ O^2- and Mg²⁺
3. O^– O^2- and Mg²⁺
4. Cl^– O^– and O^2-

65. The state of hybridization of C₂, C₃, C₅, and C₆, of the hydrocarbon,
CH₃ CH₂-CH₂-CH=CH-CH_2-C≡CH is in the following sequence :-

1. sp, sp², sp³ and sp²
2. sp, sp³, sp² and sp³
3. sp³, sp², sp² and sp
4. sp, sp², sp² and sp³

66. Arrange the following elements in their increasing order of first ionization enthalpy (I.E) : Li,Be,B,C,N. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Li < Be < B < C < N
2. Li < B < Be < C < N
3. Li < Be < C < B < N
4. Li < Be < N < B < C

67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion(A): Inductive effect operates in compound having  bond.
Reason(R): Inductive effect is permanent effect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true

68. The molarity of the solution obtained by adding 5 grams of NaOH to 200 ml of water is:

1. 1.043 M
2. 1.725 M
3. 0.825 M
4. 0.625 M

69. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of Hydrogen?

1. +3.4 eV
2. -13.6 eV
3. -3.4 eV
4. +13.6 eV

70. Two compartments, A and B, are separated by a semipermeable membrane.
Compartment A contains 0.01 M Na₂SO₄ solution, and compartment B contains 0.02 M BaCl₂ solution. In which compartment will the precipitate of BaSO₄ be formed?

1. Compartment A
2. Compartment B
3. No precipitate is formed in any compartment
4. Precipitate forms in both compartments A and B

72. At 25°C, liquids A and B behave ideally across all compositions. Two mixtures are prepared such that the mole fraction of A is 0.25 in one case and 0.50 in the other. The corresponding total vapour pressures of these mixtures are found to be 0.3 bar and 0.4 bar, respectively.

73. The uncertainty in measuring velocity of a proton is 4 x 10³ m/s. The minimum uncertainty involved in measuring the position of proton will be?

1. 3.7 X 10⁴ m
2. 4.3 x 10^-12 m
3. 7.9 X 10 ^-12 m
4. 3.7 X 10⁸ m

74. The following two statements are given.
Given: Atomic masses are C = 12, H = 1, O =16, Cl = 35.5 g mol⁻¹.
Statement I: In a 30% (w/w) solution of methanol in CCl₄ at temperature T, the mole fraction of CCl₄ is 0.33.
Statement II: A mixture of methanol and CCl₄ exhibits positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Based on the above statements, choose the correct option:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4, Statement I is false but Statement II is true

75. The value if Planck’s constant is 6.64 X 10 ^-34 J/s. The speed of light is 3 x 10 ⁸ ms^-1. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 5 x 10¹⁵ s ^-1

1. 50 nm
2. 60 nm
3. 70 nm
4. 10 nm

76. For the equilibrium PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)
One mole of PCl₅ is taken in a 2 L vessel at equilibrium. If 40% of PCl₅ dissociates, the value of Kc is:

1. 0.067
2. 0.133
3. 0.267
4. 0.533

77. Select the correct statements from the following
A. The electromagnetic radiation does not require any medium for propagation
B. Rutherford cannot explain the stability of atom
C. Mass number, A = No.of protons + of Electrons
D. Isobars have the same number of neutrons but different mass number
E. The deflection of anode rays is in the opposite direction to that of the cathode ray

1. A, B and C
2. A, B, C and E
3. A, B, and E
4. C, D and E

78. One mole of sugar is dissolved in three moles of water at 298 K. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is:

1. 0.25
2. 0.15
3. 0.50
4. 0.33

79. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transitions in the H-atom will give rise to the highest energetic photon?

1. n=5 to n=3
2. n=5 to n=4
3. n=6 to n=1
4. n=6 to n=5

80. The van’t Hoff factor, i, for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively.

1. less than one and less than one
2. greater than one and less than one
3. greater than one and greater than one
4. less than one and greater than one

81. The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He⁺ is

1. 26.45
2. 0.529
3. 52.9
4. 92.7

82. The plot of osmotic pressure (π) vs concentration (mol L⁻¹) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar mol⁻¹. The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is (Use R = 0.083 L bar mol⁻¹ K⁻¹).

1. 37 °C
2. 310 °C
3. 25.73 °C
4. 12.05 °C

83. The de-Broglie wavelength of a cricket ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 meters per second is approximately (h = 6.63 X 10^-34 J/s)

1. 1 X 10 ^-31 meters
2. 1 X 10 ^-30 meters
3. 1 X 10 ^-28 meters
4. 1 X 10 ^-33 meters

84. Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

1. 0.01 M Urea
2. 0.01 M KNO₃
3. 0.01 M Na₂SO₄
4. 0.015 M C₆H₁₂O₆

85. Which one is incorrect about Photoelectric effect

1. The electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light strikes the surface.
2. The Kinetic energy of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
3. The number of electrons ejected per second from the metal surface do not depends upon the intensity or brightness of incident radiation but depend upon its frequency.
4. Few metals such as Cs, Rb and K in which the electrons are loosely held by the nucleus show this effect when visible light falls upon them.

86. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

87. Calculate the energy associated with the first orbit of He⁺.

1. -8.72 x 10^-18 J
2. – 2.76 x 10^-18 J
3. 7.85 x 10^-16 J
4. 2.64 x 10^-16 J

88. A solution of acetone in ethanol

1. shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
2. shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
3. behaves like a near ideal solution
4. obeys Raoult’s law

89. What is the value of orbital angular momentum for an electron in 5s orbital?

1. 1
2. 0
3. 2
4. 4

90. Who proposed the law of octaves

1. Johann Dobereiner
2. De Chancourtois
3. John Newlands
4. Lother Meyer

91. In spermatogenesis, a primary spermatocyte produces four similar sperms while in oogenesis a primary oocyte form

1. One ovum
2. Three ovum and one polar body
3. Two ovum and two polar body
4. One ovum and 2-3 polar body

92. The cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by:

1. Corpus callosum
2. Central canal
3. Cerebral aqueduct
4. A deep cleft

93. Assertion: Oogonia starts division and enters into prophase I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary oocyte.
      Reason: Each primary oocyte gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells.

1. Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3. Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
4. Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

94. A patient exhibits the following symptoms:
– disturbed regulation of body temperature
– abnormal hunger and thirst
– altered water balance
However, coordination of movement and equilibrium remain normal.
Which region is most likely affected?

1. Cerebellum
2. Hypothalamus
3. Medulla
4. Occipital lobe

95. Seminal plasma of human is rich in

1. Fructose and certain enzymes, poor in Ca2+
2. Fructose, Ca2+ and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, Ca2+ but no enzymes
4. Glucose, certain enzymes but no Ca2+

96. A lesion selectively affects the hypothalamus while leaving the cerebral cortex and brainstem intact. Which combination of functions is most likely to be disturbed?

1. Vision and hearing
2. Body temperature, hunger and water balance
3. Voluntary movement and speech only
4. Posture and skeletal muscle coordination only

97. Consider the following statements about the human brain:
1. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by the corpus callosum.
2. The cerebellum is responsible for the maintenance of posture and equilibrium.
3. The hypothalamus is involved in regulation of body temperature and hunger.
4. The medulla forms the major sensory relay centre of the brain.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

98. Ovum is liberated from ovary during ovulation in which state

1. Secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase
2. Primary oocyte arrested at metaphase
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at prophase
4. Primary oocyte arrested at prophase

99. Which of the following structures is correctly arranged from superior to inferior?

1. Cerebrum → cerebellum → medulla → spinal cord
2. Cerebrum → midbrain → pons → medulla → spinal cord
3. Cerebellum → cerebrum → pons → spinal cord
4. Cerebrum → medulla → midbrain → spinal cord

100. Observe the given diagram and select the option that correctly identifies the labelled part along with its characteristic.


1. 1 – Ampulla – Site of blastocyst implantation
2. 2 – Ovary – Site of oogenesis
3. 3 – Cervix – Secrete hCG
4. 4 – Uterus – Site of fertilization

101. If K⁺ channels fail to open properly following depolarisation, which process would be most directly impaired?

1. Generation of resting potential
2. Depolarisation
3. Repolarisation
4. Reception of stimulus by dendrites

102. Cluster of cells in mammary lobes is known as

1. Mammary duct
2. Ampulla
3. Tubules
4. Alveoli

103. Consider the following statements:
1. Na⁺ influx is associated  with depolarisation.
2. K⁺ efflux is associated with repolarisation.
3. The resting membrane is polarised.
4. The Na⁺/K⁺ pump helps maintain ionic gradients.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

104. Which sequence correctly represents the major changes during generation of a nerve impulse?

1. Repolarisation → depolarisation → resting state
2. Depolarisation → repolarisation → restoration of resting state
3. Resting state → repolarisation → depolarisation
4. Hyperpolarisation → depolarisation → resting state

105. The difference between primary follicle and secondary follicle in the human ovary is

1. The primary follicle contains the primary oocyte whereas the secondary follicle contains the secondary oocyte
2. The primary follicle contains an oocyte and the 1st polar body whereas the secondary follicle contains an oocyte and the 2nd polar body
3. The oocyte in the primary follicle is diploid whereas the oocyte in the secondary follicle is haploid
4. In primary follicle, the oocyte is surrounded by a single layer of cells whereas in secondary follicle the oocyte is surrounded by multiple layers of granulosa cells

106. During depolarisation of a neuronal membrane:

1. Na⁺ channels open and Na⁺ enters the neuron
2. K⁺ channels open and K⁺ enters the neuron
3. Na⁺ leaves the neuron
4. Cl⁻ leaves the neuron

107. The infundibulum of fallopian tube leads to

1. Isthmus
2. Ampulla
3. Fimbriae
4. Uterus

108. During the resting state of a neuron, the membrane is:

1. Depolarised
3. Repolarised
2. Polarised
4. Hyperpolarised

109. In human, the unpaired male reproductive structure is

1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate
3. Testis
4. Vas deferens

110. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Type                  of                 Characteristic
neuron
         
1. Unipolar                          One axon and one dendrite
2. Bipolar                            One axon and several dendrites
3. Multipolar                      One axon and several dendrites
4. Bipolar                             No axon

111. If a primary oocyte has 46 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in each cell at the end of first meiotic division and in mature oocyte respectively?

1. 23, 23
2. 46, 23
3. 23, 46
4. 46, 46

112. Nissl’s granules are mainly associated with:

1. Protein synthesis
2. ATP production
3. Myelin formation
4. Neurotransmitter degradation

113. The three phases in spermatogenesis is followed by

1. Spermatids formation
2. Spermiation
3. Spermatocytogenesis
4. Spermiogenesis

114. Consider the following statements about a neuron:
1. Dendrites generally conduct impulses towards the cell body.
2. Axons generally conduct impulses away from the cell body.
3. Myelination increases the speed of impulse conduction.
4. Nodes of Ranvier are gaps in the myelin sheath.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

115. After which cell division is 2nd polar body formed?

1. Meiosis II
2. Meiosis I
3. Mitosis
4. Both 1 and 2

116. The correct sequence for transmission of an impulse within a neuron is:

A. Axon → dendrite → cell body → axon terminal
B. Dendrite → cell body → axon → axon terminal
C. Cell body → dendrite → axon → axon terminal
D. Dendrite → axon terminal → cell body → axon

117. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoa?

1. 100
2. 150
3. 200
4. 400

118. In gymnosperms, the outermost protective layer of the seed, known as the seed coat, originates from which of the following structures?

1. megaspore
2. microspore
3. megasporangium
4. microsporangium.

119. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding epididymis in males?

1. It is a site where sperms undergo physiological maturation
2. They are positioned on the ventral side of testis
3. They link the rete testis and vas deferens
4. They are lined with pseudostratified epithelium which secretes nutrients

120. Select the correct statement with respect to given type of life cycle.


1. Meiosis occurs at the time of gametes formation in sporophytic plant.
2. Gametophytic plant is produced by germination of spores.
3. This life cycle is exhibited by most algae and some seed bearing plants.
4. This life cycle is exhibited by many gymnosperm and angiosperm.

121. What is the function of bulbourethral gland secretion?

1. Nourishing sperms
2. Activating sperms
3. Serves as lubricant during sexual intercourse
4. Enhancing mobility of sperms

122. Recognise the given life cycle and find the suitable matching for A, B, C and D


1. A-sporophyll, B-thallus, C-embryo, D gametophyte
2. A-sporophyll, B-thallus, C-Zygote, D sporophyte
3. A-spotangium, B-prothallus, C-Zygote, D sporophyte
4. A-gametangia, B-thallus, C-zygote, D gametophyte

123. Which of the following scientists first demonstrated that a substance from dead bacteria could transform living bacteria?

1. Griffith
2. Hershey
3. Watson
4. Meselson

124. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is incorrect?

1. DNA polymerase requires a primer.
2. DNA synthesis occurs in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
3. The leading strand is synthesised continuously.
4. DNA polymerase initiates DNA synthesis de novo

125. Peat, which has long been used as fuel, is mainly formed from:

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Funaria
4. Sphagnum

126. Consider the following statements about nucleosomes:
A. Histone proteins are positively charged.
B. DNA is negatively charged.
C. Histones facilitate DNA packaging.
D. The histone octamer contains H1, H2A, H2B and H3.
Which are correct?

1. A, B and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, B, C and D

127. Read the following statements regarding the economic importance of algae:
I. Chlorella and Spirulina are rich in proteins and are used as food supplements.
II. Agar obtained from red algae is used in the preparation of culture media.
III. Algae such as Laminaria and Sargassum are sources of algin.
IV. All algae used as food are freshwater forms.
Choose the correct option:

1. I and II only
2. I, II and III only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

128. In the Hershey–Chase experiment, if ³⁵S is detected predominantly in the bacterial supernatant, the best conclusion is:

1. Protein entered the bacteria.
2. Sulphur entered the bacteria.
3. Protein remained outside the bacterial cells.
4. DNA remained outside the bacterial cells.

129. A botanist observes the following features in an unknown plant:
A. Dominant plant body is diploid and independent.
B. Gametophytes are highly reduced.
C. Two types of spores are produced.
The plant most likely belongs to:

1. Bryophyta
2. Homosporous pteridophyta
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Gymnospermae

130. A DNA molecule has 1000 base pairs, and 30% of its bases are adenine. The total number of hydrogen bonds is:

1.2000
2. 2200
3. 2400
4. 2600

131. A plant possesses the following characteristics:
A. True roots, stem and leaves are present.
B. Vascular tissues are well developed.
C. Sporophyte is the dominant plant body.
D. Fertilisation requires water.
The plant most appropriately belongs to:

1. Bryophyta
2. Pteridophyta
3. Gymnospermae
4. Angiospermae

132. Assertion: DNA replication is semiconservative.
Reason: During replication, each newly formed DNA molecule contains one old\ strand and one newly synthesised strand.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

133. Which of the following are gametophytic structures?
(a) Protonema of moss
(b) Prothallus of fern
(c) foliage of moss
(d) Main plant body of Fucus
Choose the correct answer.

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

134. If DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only to the 3′ end, why is the lagging strand discontinuous?

1. DNA polymerase works only on RNA.
2. The two DNA strands are antiparallel.
3. The lagging strand contains uracil.
4. Helicase cannot unwind the lagging strand.

135. Select the correct sequence of ploidy changes in the typical life cycle of a haplo diplontic organism:

1. (n) gametophyte → meiosis → (2n) sporophyte → fertilisation → (n) zygote
2. (n) gametophyte → fertilisation → (2n) zygote → mitosis → (2n) sporophyte → meiosis → (n) spores
3. (2n) gametophyte → fertilisation → (n) zygote → meiosis → (2n) spores
4. (n) sporophyte → meiosis → (2n) spores → fertilisation → (n) gametophyte

136. If DNA ligase is completely inactive during replication, what would be the immediateconsequence?

1. DNA strands cannot unwind.
2. RNA primers cannot form.
3. Okazaki fragments cannot be joined.
4. DNA polymerase cannot add nucleotides.

137. In gymnosperms, the female gametophyte:

1. Is independent and photosynthetic like the prothallus of most pteridophytes
2. Produces archegonia containing female gametes
3. Is formed from microspores
4. Develops after fertilisation to form endosperm

138. A replication fork is moving from left to right. Which statement is correct?

1. Both new strands are synthesised continuously in the direction of fork movement.
2. The leading strand is synthesised continuously, whereas the lagging strand\ is synthesised discontinuously.
3. The lagging strand is synthesised continuously because DNA polymerase works 5′ → 3′.
4. Both strands discontinuously are synthesised because DNA polymerase cannot work continuously.

139. Which one of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the dominant phase or reproductive strategy of the respective plant group?

1. Bryophytes gametophyte possess a dominant and a nutritionally dependent sporophyte.
2. Pteridophytes possess a dependent sporophyte and a dependent gametophyte.
3. Most algae reproduce both sexually and asexually.
4. Pteridophytes produce zygote after fertilisation.

140. A eukaryotic chromosome contains DNA that is approximately 200 bp per nucleosome. If a region contains 2,000 bp of DNA, approximately how many nucleosomes would be associated with it?

1. 5
2. 10
3. 20
4. 200

141. Which pair of pteridophytes is heterosporous?

1. Lycopodium and Pteris
2. Selaginella and Salvinia
3. Equisetum and Adiantum
4. Pteris and Dryopteris

142. Coding strand: 5′–ATG CCG TTA–3′ What will be the mRNA sequence?

1. 3′–UAC GGC AAU–5′
2. 5′–AUG CCG UUA–3′
3. 5′–UAC GGC AAU–3′
4. 3′–AUG CCG UUA–5′

143. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms.
i) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes\ have an independent existence.
ii) The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
iii) The gymnosperms are homosporous.
iv) These are seed bearing plants in which seeds are produced via cone like structure.
Choose the set of incorrect statement(s) from the following options.

1. i and iii
2. ii, iii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i only

144. RNA polymerase moves along the template DNA strand in:

1. 5′ → 3′ direction and synthesises RNA 3′ → 5′
2. 3′ → 5′ direction and synthesises RNA 5′ → 3′
3. 5′ → 3′ direction and synthesises RNA 5′ → 3′
4. 3′ → 5′ direction and synthesises RNA 3′ → 5′

145. Heterospory is considered an important step towards the evolution of seed habit because it involves:

1. Production of only one type of spore
2. Production of male and female gametes by the same spore
3. Production of microspores and megaspores giving rise to separate gametophytes
4. Development of flowers enclosing the ovules

146. In the absence of lactose, which sequence is correct?

1. i gene inactive → repressor absent → transcription occurs
2. i gene produces repressor → repressor binds operator → transcription is prevented
3. i gene produces repressor → repressor binds promoter → transcription is prevented
4. Lactose binds operator → structural genes are switched off

147. Ploidy level of antherozoid mother cell, rhizoid and archegonia in a typical Pteridophyte is:

1. Haploid (n)
2. Diploid (2n)
3. Triploid (3n)
4. Tetraploid (4n)

148. Suppose a mutation changes an mRNA codon from:
UUU → UUC
Both codons specify phenylalanine.
What type of property of the genetic code is demonstrated?

1. Universal
2. Degenerate
3. Unambiguous
4. Non-overlapping

149. Which one correctly distinguishes liverworts from mosses?

1. Liverworts possess vascular tissues, whereas mosses do not.
2. Protonema is characteristic of liverworts only.
3. In mosses, the gametophyte has a protonema and leafy stage.
4. Sporophyte is dominant in mosses but gametophyte is dominant in liverworts.

150. The genetic material should be able to:

1. Replicate, be stable, and express itself
2. Only replicate and mutate
3. Only express itself
4. Undergo translation and transcription

151. Which of the following features would be expected in a typical bryophyte but not in a pteridophyte?

1. Dominant independent sporophyte
2. Vascular tissues
3. Free-living gametophyte
4. Sporophyte completely or partially dependent upon gametophyte

152. The distance between two consecutive base pairs in DNA is:

1. 0.34 nm
2. 3.4 nm
3. 34 nm
4. 0.034 nm

153. Assertion (A): The sporophytic generation is almost absent in organisms with a haplontic life cycle.
        Reason (R): The zygote immediately undergo meiosis to produce multicellular sporophyte.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

154. The diameter of the DNA double helix is:

1. 0.34 nm
2. 2 nm
3. 3.4 nm
4. 20 nm

155. Regarding the classification of algae, consider the following statements:
I. Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae differ primarily in the type of pigments present and stored food.
II. All members of Phaeophyceae possess chlorophyll a and b.
III. Floridean starch is the reserve food material of Rhodophyceae.
IV. Members of Chlorophyceae generally possess a cell wall with an inner cellulose layer and an outer pectose layer.
Choose the correct option:

1. I, II and III only
2. I, III and IV only
3. II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

156. The nucleosome is the repeating unit of:

1. Euchromatin
2. Chromatin
3. RNA
4. Ribosome

157. In a frog, the blood from the ventricle is distributed through:

1. Only pulmonary arteries
2. Only systemic arteries
3. Conus arteriosus and arterial arches
4. Sinus venosus

158. The segment of DNA that codes for RNA is called:

1. Cistron
2. Operon
3. Replicon
4. Codon

159. Which sequence correctly describes the passage of an egg in a female frog?

1. Ovary → oviduct → body cavity → cloaca
2. Ovary → cloaca → oviduct → water
3. Ovary → kidney → oviduct → cloaca
4. Ovary → body cavity → oviduct → cloaca

160. The genetic code was finally deciphered by:

1. Watson and Crick
2. Nirenberg and Matthaei
3. Griffith
4. Meselson and Stahl

161. Fertilization in frog is:

1. External and aquatic
2. Internal and aquatic
3. Internal and terrestrial
4. External and terrestrial

162. What is a codon

1. A triplet of nucleotides on tRNA
2. A triplet of nucleotides on mRNA
3. A triplet of amino acids
4. A triplet of nucleotides on DNA only

163. The genetic code is:

1. Overlapping and ambiguous
2. Degenerate and unambiguous
3. Non-degenerate and ambiguous
4. Random and overlapping

164. Select the correct sequence representing an increase in complexity of plant body organisation among the following algae:

1. Volvox → Ulothrix → Chlamydomonas → Fucus
2. Fucus → Ulothrix → Volvox → Chlamydomonas
3. Ulothrix → Chlamydomonas → Volvox → Fucus
4. Chlamydomonas → Volvox → Ulothrix → Fucus

165. Which of the following correctly distinguishes  buccopharyngeal correctly from pulmonary respiration?

1. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs through skin, pulmonary occurs through lungs
2. Buccopharyngeal respiration involves the buccopharyngeal lining, pulmonary respiration involves the lungs
3. Both occur exclusively through lungs
4. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs only underwater

166. In frogs, the kidneys are located:

1. In the thoracic cavity
2. Inside the urinary bladder
3. On the dorsal side of the abdominal cavity
4. In the pelvic cavity only

167. Choose the correct combination:
1. Frog possesses three respiratory modes in adult life.
2. Cutaneous respiration requires a moist skin surface.
3. Buccopharyngeal respiration occurs through the vascularised lining of the buccopharyngeal cavity.
4. Pulmonary respiration is performed by rhythmic movements of the buccal cavity.

1. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

168. Frog blood differs from human blood because frog RBCs are:

1. Enucleated and biconcave
2. Nucleated and oval
3. Nucleated and spherical
4. Enucleated and oval

169. The correct sequence of chambers through which blood passes in the frog heart is:

1. Right atrium → ventricle → left atrium
2. Sinus venosus → ventricle → atria → conus arteriosus
3. Right atrium → left atrium → ventricle → conus arteriosus
4. Sinus venosus → right atrium → ventricle → conus arteriosus

170. The renal portal system in frog is important because:

1. Blood from the hindlimbs passes through renal capillaries before returning to the heart.
2. Blood from lungs passes through renal capillaries.
3. Blood from intestine passes through kidneys before reaching liver.
4. It directly connects the liver and kidneys.

171. Which statement is incorrect about frog eggs?

1. They are mesolecithal.
2. They are telolecithal.
3. Yolk is more abundant toward the vegetal pole.
4. Yolk is uniformly distributed throughout the egg.

172. Which of the following correctly represents the pathway of sperm in male frog?

1. Testis → kidney → vasa efferentia → cloaca
2. Testis → vasa efferentia → kidney → Bidder’s canal → ureter → cloaca
3. Testis → Bidder’s canal → vasa efferentia → cloaca
4. Testis → ureter →Vasa efferentia →Bidder’s canal→ kidney → cloaca

173. Which combination represents changes occurring during metamorphosis?
1. Gills → lungs
2. Tail → disappears
3. Limbs → develop
4. Omnivorous diet → carnivorous diet

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

174. Which combination is correct?
1. Kidney — Excretion
2. Vasa efferentia — Sperm transport
3. Oviduct — Transport of ova
4. Urinary bladder — Storage of sperm

1. Only 1 and 2
2. Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Only 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

175. Which statement incorrectly compares male and female frog?

1. Kidneys occur in both sexes.
2. Ureters occur in both sexes.
3. Vasa efferentia occur in both sexes.
4. Oviducts occur in both sexes

176. A student says: “Since the male frog’s ureter carries sperm, it is a reproductive duct and has no urinary function.” The statement is:

1. Completely correct
2. Correct only in the breeding season
3. Incorrect because the ureter functions as a urinogenital duct
4. Incorrect because sperm never passes through the ureter

177. Match Column I with Column II.

Choose the correct option:

1. a-ii, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-iv
4. a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

178. Which of the following organisms shows a diplontic life cycle?

1. Spirogyra
2. Volvox
3. Fucus
4. Ulothrix

179. Refer to the given figure and select the correct option

180. Which of the following is NOT a function primarily associated with the hypothalamus?

1. Regulation of body temperature
2. Regulation of hunger
3. Regulation of thirst
4. Coordination of skeletal muscle activity