NEET WEEKLY TEST CHEMISTRY (SDA KHATLA) (12.09.2026)

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1.

CHEMISTRY

1. Azimuthal quantum number for the last electron in Ca atom is:

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3Deselect Answer

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2.

2. The correct nomenclature for the following compound is

1. 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–6–enal
2. 2–carboxy–4–hydroxyhept–7–enal
3. 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–6–enoic acid
4. 2–formyl–4–hydroxyhept–7–enoic acidDeselect Answer

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3.

3. For the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), ΔU = −91.8 kJ at 298 K. Calculate ΔH.

1. −96.76 Kj
2. −86.8 kJ
3. −91.8 kJ
4. −100 kJDeselect Answer

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4.

4. How many spherical nodes are present in 5s orbital in a Hydrogen atom

1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. 0Deselect Answer

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5.

5. The energy of the first orbit of Be⁺ and Li²⁺in J per atom are

1. -19.62 x 10^-18, 34.88 x 10^-18
2. 88 x 10^-18, 19.62 x 10^-17
3. -19.62 x 10^-18, – 34.88 x 10^-18
4. 88 x 10^-18, -19.62 x 10^-18Deselect Answer

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6.

6. CORRECT order of stability for the following is

1. CH₂ = CH⁻> CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₃ – CH₂⁻
2. CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻> CH₃ – CH₂⁻
3. CH ≡ C⁻ > CH₃ – CH₂⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻
4. CH₃ – CH₂⁻ > CH₂ = CH⁻> CH ≡ C⁻Deselect Answer

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7.

7. An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa, increasing its volume from 2 × 10⁻³ m³ to 6 × 10⁻³ m³. If the process is adiabatic, the work done by the gas is:

1. +400 J
2. −400 J
3. +600 J
4. −600 JDeselect Answer

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8.

8. Choose the correct order regarding Lattice enthalpy

1. LiF > NaF > KF > RbF
2. LiF < NaF < KF < RbF
3. CaCl₂> CaF₂ > MgF₂
4. BeO > MgO >ZnO >MgSDeselect Answer

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9.

9. Arrange the following alkenes in decreasing order of stability.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. III > II > I > IV
2. I > III > IV > II
3. III > I > II > IV
4. I > III > II > IVDeselect Answer

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10.

10. Under isothermal conditions, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.20 L to 0.50 L against a constant external pressure of 1.5 bar. The work done by the gas is (Given 1 L bar = 100 J):

1. 45 J
2. 30 J
3. −45 J
4. 450 JDeselect Answer

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11.

11. Which of the following has minimum ionic character?

1. NaCl
2. KCl
3. CsCl
4. RbCl

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12.

12. For the following reactions:

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) addition reaction.
2. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.
3. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
4. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.

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13.

13. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers n=4, m_s = +1/2 is

1. 32
2. 16
3. 50
4. 18

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14.

14. Which of the following variables is an intensive thermodynamic property?

1. Enthalpy
2. Volume
3. Temperature
4. Mass

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15.

15. Assertion: The 19^th electron in Potassium atom enters into 4s-orbital and not in the 3d-orbital
Reason: ( ) rule is followed for determining the orbital of lowest energy state.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true

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16.

16. The major product of the following reaction is

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17.

17. Which of the following equations represents the correct relationship between enthalpy change and internal energy change for an ideal gas?

1. ΔH = ΔU − Δn_gRT
2. ΔH = ΔU + Δn_gRT
3. ΔH + ΔU = −Δn_gRT
4. ΔH + ΔU = Δn_gRT

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18.

18. The correct set of three quantum numbers for the valence electron of Cs atom is

1. 5, 1, 0, +1/2
2. 6, 0, 0, +1/2
3. 6, 1, 0, +1/2
4. 5, 0, 1, +1/2

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19.

19. The monochlorinated products (excluding stereo isomers) obtained from the reaction

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7

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20.

20. Which of the following statement is not true with respect to photoelectric effect

1. When light with a specific frequency hits a metal surface, it can eject electrons from the metal.
2. Threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light needed to eject the electrons.
3. The KE of the ejected electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation.
4. The number of electrons ejected per second from the metal surface depends upon its frequency

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21.

21. An ideal gas expands isothermally from 2 × 10⁻³ m³ to 8 × 10⁻³ m³ at 300 K against a constant external pressure of 2 × 10⁵ N m⁻². The work done on the gas is:

1. − 1200 J
2. +1200 J
3. − 600 J
4. + 600 J

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22.

22. Which of the following is not chiral?

1. 2-butanol
2. 2,3-dibromopentane
3. 3-bromopentane
4. 4. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

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23.

23. Which of the following has maximum bond angle?

1. CO₂
2. H₂O
3. NH₃4. PF₅

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24.

24. A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against a constant external pressure of 1.5 atm from an initial volume of 3.0 L to a final volume of 5.0 L. The change in internal energy ΔU of the gas is approximately: (1 L atm = 101.3 J)

1. −304 J
2. +304 J
3. −202.6 J
4 +202.6 J

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25.

25. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations?

1. II > I > III
2. II > III > I
3. III > I > II
4. I > II > III

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26.

26. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l=2, n=3 is

1. 8
2. 10
3. 18
4. 32

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27.

27. Four moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously into a vacuum. The work done will be:

1. Zero
2. Infinite
3. 4 J
4. 16 J

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28.

28. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbitals
n=3, l=2, m_l =0

1. 1
2. 2
3. 0
4. 5

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29.

29. Which of the following set is non permissible?

1. n=4, l= 3, m=0
2. n=4, l= 2, m= 1
3. n= 4, l= 4, m=1
4. n=4, l=0, m= 0

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30.

30. How many species among the following shows geometrical isomerism?
(i) But-2-ene
(ii) 2-methyl but-2-ene
(iii) 1,2-dichloroethene
(iv) 1-phenyl propene
(v) 3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(vi) 2-methyl propene

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

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31.

31. In case of d_x2–_y2orbital

1. Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane
2. Probability of finding the electron along y -axis is zero
3. Probability of finding the electron along x- axis is zero
4. Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y- axis

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32.

32. Find out the statements which are not true.
A. Resonating structures with more number of covalent bonds and lesser charge separation are more stable.
B. In electromeric effect, an unsaturated system shows +E effect with nucleophile and -E effect with electrophile.
C. Inductive effect is responsible for high melting point, boiling point and dipole moment of polar compounds.
D. The greater the number of alkyl groups attached to the doubly bonded carbon atoms, higher is the heat of hydrogenation.
E. Stability of carbanion increases with the increase in s – character of the carbon carrying the negative charge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B & D only
2. A, C & D only
3. B, D & E only
4. A, D & E only

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33.

33. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are
3ROH + PCI₃ 3RCI + A
ROH + PCI₅ RCI + HCI + B

1. POCI₃ and H₃PO₃
2. POCI₃ and H₃PO₄
3. H₃PO₄ and POCI₃
4. H₃PO₃and POCI₃

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34.

34. Which of the following pairs of d- orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

1. d_xy, d_yz2. d_yz, _x² _y²
3. d_z², d_x²–_y² 4. d_z², d_zx

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35.

36. Find the major product P

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36.

37. Which of the following is the correct option for the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic conditions?

1. q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
2. q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
3. q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
4. q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0

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37.

38. A gas undergoes free expansion from 4 L to 12 L in an insulated container. Which combination is correct for an ideal gas?

1. q = 0, w = 0, ΔU = 0
2. q = 0, w < 0, ΔU < 0
3. q > 0, w = 0, ΔU > 0
4. q = 0, w > 0, ΔU > 0

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38.

39. In thermodynamic processes, which statement is NOT true?

1. In an isochoric process, pressure remains constant
2. In an isothermal process, temperature remains constant
3. In an reversible adiabatic process, PV^y = constant
4. In an adiabatic process, the system is insulated from the surroundings

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39.

41. Which product was obtained when Br₂ is added to trans-but-2-ene?

1. Racemic mixture of 2,3-Dibromobutane
2. Meso form of 2,3-Dibromobutane
3. Dextro form of 2,3-Dibromobutane
4. Laevo form of 2,3-Dibromobutane

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40.

41. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 2 L to 20 L. The ΔU for this process is:

1. 183.7 cal
2. Zero
3. 1381.1 cal
4. 18 L atm

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41.

42. The standard enthalpies of formation are: Δ_fH°(CO₂) = −393.5 kJ mol⁻¹, Δ_fH°(H₂O(l)) = −285.8 kJ mol⁻¹, and Δ_fH°(CH₄) = −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹. The enthalpy change for CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l) is:

1. −890.3 kJ/mol
2. −965.1 kJ/mol
3. −74.8 kJ/mol
4. +890.3 kJ/mol

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42.

43. The standard enthalpy of formation of an element in its most stable state of aggregation is taken as:

1. Zero
2. 100 kJ/mol
3. Negative
4. Cannot be determined

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43.

44. Find the major product

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44.

45. Identify correct statements from the following:
A. Propanal and propanone are functional isomers.
B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers.
C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism.
D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers.
E. Pentane and 2, 2-dimethyl propane are chain isomers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. C, D and E only
4. A, B and E only

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45.

35. The molar heat capacity Cp of water is 75 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹. When 1.5 kJ of heat is supplied to 45 g of water, which is free to expand, the increase in temperature of water is:

1. 6.0 K
2. 8.0 K
3. 10.0 K
4. 12.0 K

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