NEET WEEKLY TEST 4 (08.08.2026)

1. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

1. pre-synaptic membrane
2. tips of axons
3. post-synaptic membrane
4. membranes of synaptic vesicles

2. The ______ neuron receives a signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the ______. The ______ neuron then carries signals from CNS to the _______.

1. Efferent, PNS, afferent, effector
2. Efferent, PNS, afferent, receptor
3. Afferent, CNS, efferent, receptor
4. Afferent, CNS, efferent, effector

3. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding conduction of nerve impulse?

1. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na* ions.
2. Fluid outside the axon has a high concentration of Na+ and low concentration of K¹, in a resting neuron.
3. Ionic gradients are maintained by Na-K pump across the resting membrane, which transports 3Na ions outwards for 2K+ ions into the cell.
4. A neuron is polarised only when the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a negative charge and its inner surface is positively charged

4. Read the statements about human neural system and find the wrong one.

1. The CNS includes brain and spinal cord.
2. The PNS is divided into somatic and autonomic neural system.
3. The somatic neural system is classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system.
4. The autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles

5. Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Movement of skeletal muscles are under the control of autonomic neural system.
Statement B: Involuntary activities of various organs are under control of autonomic neural system.

1. Both statements A and B are correct.
2. Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
3. Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct.
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect

6. Assertion: All motor neurons are efferent neurons.
    Reason: Motor neurons conduct nerve impulses from the spinal cord to the brain.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false

7. Which one is wrongly matched?

1. Gemma cup – Marchantia
2. Chlamydomonas – multicellular organism
3. Biflagellate zoospores – brown algae
4. Unicellular organism – Chlorella

8. Assertion: Somatic neural system is the voluntary division of PNS.
     Reason: Somatic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Both assertion and reason are false

9. Assertion: A Protonema stage occur in mosses.
    Reason: Protonema is a juvenile stage.

1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion is false but reason is true.

10. Nerve impulse generates in a neuron due to movement of

1. Cl- ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
2. Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
3. K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
4. Cl- ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

11. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kind of spores. Such plants are called

1. homosporous
3. Homosorus
2. heterosorus
4. Heterosporus

12. Synaptic knob is a bulb-like structure found at the

1. axon terminal
2. in cell body
3. in myelin sheath
4. at dendrites branching

13. In Dryopteris, the dominant phase is

1. Unicellular gametophyte
2. zygote
3. Unicellular sporophyte
4. Multicellular sporophyte

14. Naked seeds of gymnosperms meant for absence of which of the following

1. Seed coat
2. Integument
3. Embryo
4. Ovary wall

15. Nissl’s granules are mainly composed of:

1. Lipids and glycoge
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Mitochondria

16. Which part of a neuron receives nerve impulses from other neurons?

1. Axon
3. Dendrites
2. Axon terminal
4. Myelin sheath

17. The junction between two neurons where nerve impulses are transmitted is called the:

1. Node of Ranvier
2. Synapse
3. Neurilemma
4. Dendrite

18. The antherozoids of Funaria are

1. uniflagellate
2. biflagellate
3. multiflagellate
4. Do not have flagella

19. Protonema is structure found in bryophytes

1. which is sporophytic in moss
2. which is gametophytic in moss
3. which is sporophytic in liverwort
4. which is gametophytic in liverwort

20. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing

1. Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
2. Independent gametophyte and sporophyte
3. Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
4. No sporophyte

21. Which sequence correctly shows the path of a nerve impulse through a neuron?

1. Axon → Cell body → Dendrites
2. Dendrites → Cell body → Axon → Axon terminals
3. Cell body → Dendrites → Axon
4. Axon terminals → Dendrites → Cell body

22. Repolarization of the neuron occurs mainly due to the:

1. Influx of Na⁺ ions
2. Efflux of K⁺ ions
3. Influx of Ca²⁺ ions
4. Efflux of Cl⁻ ions

23. Which sequence correctly represents the stages of an action potential?

1. Repolarization → Depolarization → Resting potential
2. Resting potential → Depolarization → Repolarization → Resting potential
3. Depolarization → Resting potential → Repolarization
4. Resting potential → Repolarization → Depolarization

24. The small gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes is called the:

1. Axoplasm
2. Synaptic cleft
3. Neurolemma
4. Cell junction

25. The direction of impulse transmission across a synapse is from the:

1. Dendrite to axon terminal
2. Postsynaptic neuron to presynaptic neuron
3. Presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron
4. Cell body to dendrite only

26. Which statement about chemical synapses is CORRECT?

1. They transmit impulses faster than electrical synapses.
2. Neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic cleft to transmit the signal.
3. Synaptic transmission is always bidirectional.
4. Synaptic vesicles are located in the postsynaptic membrane.

27. The type of circulation where blood is circulated through a series of vessels of varying diameters is called

1. Open type
2. Closed type
3. Single type
4. Double type

28. Peat moss is

1. Polytrichum
2. Funaria
3. Marchantia
4. Sphagnum

29. Method of vegetative reproduction in bryophytes is

1. gemmae
2. Budding of secondary protonema
3. Fragmentation of secondary protonema
4. All of these

30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates

1. Single hollow dorsal nerve chord
2. Pharynx perforated by gill slits
3. Post-anal tail
4. Dorsal heart

31. Observe the following statements and select the phylum it best describes
(i) Worm-like marine animals
(ii) Organ-system level of organization
(iii) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(iv) Body is composed of proboscis, collar and trunk

1. Phylum Annelida
2. Phylum Hemichordata
3. Phylum Platyhelminthes
4. Phylum Aschelminthes

32. Which of the following group of animals possess mammary glands

1. Columba, Pteropus, Chelone
2. Hippocampus, Equus, Canis
3. Felis, Camelus, Macaca
4. Hyla, Hemidactylus, Myxine

33. Which of the following is not a function of water canal system in sponges?

1. Anchorage
2. Food gathering
3. Exchange of gases
4. Removal of wastes

34. Statement I: Cnidarians have tube within a tube body plan with single opening called hypostome.
       Statement II: Cnidarians such as Obelia exhibit a characteristic feature called metagenesis.

1. Only Statement I is correct
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both statements are correct
4. Both statements are incorrect

35. The given figure belongs to which phylum


1. Phylum Ctenophora
2. Phylum Porifera
3. Phylum Coelenterata
4. Phylum Urochordata

36. Notochord is present only in larval tail in

1. Urochordata
2. Cephalochordata
3. Vertebrata
4. Protochordate

37. Which of the following animals have scattered cells with organization?

1. Sponges
2. Hydra cell-tissue
3. Liver fluke
4. Ascaris

38. How many of the following organisms are sessile?
Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla, Hydra, Jelly fish, Earthworm

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

39. Which of the following is correct regarding reproduction in sponges?

1. They undergo asexual reproduction such as gemmule formation and fragmentation
2. Fertilization is internal
3. Development is indirect
4. All of these

40. Match the following


1. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
2. A-1, B-2, C-3, C-4
3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
4. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

41. Urochordata and cephalochordate are referred as

1. Non-chordates
2. Vertebrates
3. Protochordates
4. Hemichordates

42. In which of the following phylum the body is generally divided into head, thorax and abdomen?

1. Mollusca
2. Echinodermata
3. Arthropoda
4. Annelida

43. Which statement is correct regarding taxonomic categories?

1. Species contains the largest number of organisms.
2. Kingdom contains organisms having maximum similarities.
3. As we move from species to kingdom, similarities decrease.
4. As we move from kingdom to species, diversity increases.

44. Assertion (A): Amphioxus belongs to Cephalochordata.
       Reason (R): It retains the notochord throughout its life.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

45. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Cnidoblasts are absent in ctenophores.
B. Cnidarians exhibit tissue-level organization.
C. Corals belong to Ctenophora.
D. Hydra exists only in medusa form.

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and D only
4. All are correct

46. Which of the following are true regarding Cyclostomes?
(i) Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates.
(ii) They possess paired fins.
(iii) They have a sucking mouth.
(iv) They are ectoparasites on fishes.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. All are correct

47. Which of the following is known as Portuguese man-of-war?

1. Obelia
2. Aurelia
3. Gorgonia
4. Physalia

48. Camouflage in frogs is primarily an example of:

1. Structural adaptation for protection
2. Behavioural adaptation for protection
3. Morphological adaptation for protection
4. Physiological adaptation for protection

49. Which statement is NOT correct

1. Species is the basic unit of classification.
2. Taxa at a higher level have fewer common characteristics.
3. Organisms in the same genus always belong to different families.
4. Taxonomic hierarchy is the arrangement of categories in ascending order.

50. Arrange the parts of the alimentary canal of frog in correct sequence:
1. Stomach                  2. Ileum
3. Buccal cavity          4. Rectum
5. Oesophagus            6. Duodenum

1. 3 → 5 → 6 → 1 → 2 → 4
2. 3 → 1 → 5 → 6 → 2 → 4
3. 5 → 3 → 1 → 6 → 4 → 2
4. 3 → 5 → 1 → 6 → 2 → 4

51. A frog is called a poikilothermic animal because:

1. It maintains a constant body temperature.
2. Its body temperature varies with the environmental temperature.
3. It can survive only in water.
4. It produces heat internally.

52. Assertion (A): Male frogs exhibit external sexual dimorphism.
      Reason (R): Vocal sacs and nuptial pads are accessory reproductive structures that aid successful reproduction.

1. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the\ correct explanation.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

53. Consider the following statements about the frog’s tongue:
1. It is attached anteriorly to the floor of the mouth.
2. Its end is free and bifid.
3. It helps in capturing insects.
4. It is attached posteriorly like in humans.
Choose the correct answer:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

54. Which of the following statements about the frog’s eyelids is incorrect?

1. The upper eyelid is immovable.
2. The lower eyelid is movable.
3. The nictitating membrane is transparent.
4. The upper eyelid closes the eye during swimming.

55. Consider the following.
A. Felis domesticus         B. Panthera leo
C. Panthera tigris
Which share the same family?

1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C
4. A and C only

56. Two frogs are examined during the breeding season.
Frog X: Vocal sacs present; nuptial pads absent.
Frog Y: Vocal sacs absent; nuptial pads absent.
Which conclusion is most appropriate?

1. X is definitely male; Y is definitely female.
2. X is definitely female; Y is definitely male.
3. X is most likely a male with abnormal or undeveloped nuptial pads; Y is most likely female.
4. Sex cannot be inferred from these observations.

57. Assertion (A): Frogs undergo aestivation during hot and dry seasons.
      Reason (R): Aestivation helps them avoid desiccation and survive unfavorable conditions.
Choose the correct option:

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

58. Which statement is incorrect regarding the external morphology of an adult frog?

1. The head is triangular in shape.
2. The trunk bears a pair of limbs.
3. The cloacal aperture opens at the posterior end of the trunk.
4. The trunk is divided into head and trunk.

59. Which of the following is the best sequence involved in frog reproduction?

1. Vocal sac inflation → Attraction of female → Amplexus → External fertilization
2. Amplexus → Vocal sac inflation → External fertilization → Egg laying
3. Egg laying → Vocal sac inflation → Amplexus → Fertilization
4. Amplexus → Egg laying → Internal fertilization → Tadpole

60. Which statement about the head of a frog is correct?

1. It bears two pairs of eyes
2. It bears external nares.
3. It is divided into thorax and abdomen.
4. It is provided with a neck.

61. Which statement regarding dermal plicae is correct?

1. They are modified scales.
2. They are folds of skin along the dorsolateral region.
3. They are present only in female frogs.
4. They are folds of skin extending present on ventral region.

62. Consider the following statements regarding the alimentary canal:
1. The stomach opens into the duodenum.
2. The duodenum is followed by the ileum.
3. The rectum opens into the cloaca.
4. The cloaca is present only in male frogs.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct

63. Which statement is incorrect regarding sexual dimorphism in frogs?

1. Vocal sacs are accessory structures found in males.
2. Nuptial pads are temporary breeding adaptations in males.
3. Females possess rudimentary vocal sacs that function during breeding.
4. Sexual dimorphism is externally evident mainly during the breeding season.

64. Which statement correctly distinguishes camouflage from mimicry?

1. Camouflage involves resembling another organism.
2. Mimicry involves blending with the background.
3. Camouflage helps organisms blend with the environment, whereas mimicry involves resembling another organism.
4. Both are identical adaptations.

65. Statement 1: The ileum is involved in absorption of digested nutrients.
      Statement 2: The ileum is a part of the large intestine.

1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only 2 is correct
3. Both are correct
4. Both are incorrect

66. Which of the following correctly matches the body part with its feature?
1. Head- Bears external nares and tympanum
2. Trunk- Divided into thorax and abdomen
3. Head -Bears eardrums
4. Trunk- Bears external nares

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

67. Consider the following statements:
1. Rectum is a part of the large intestine of frog.
2. Rectum opens into the cloaca.
3. Rectum secretes digestive enzymes.
Which statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct

68. Which taxonomic category includes one or more related genera?

1. Species
2. Family
3. Order
4. Class

69. Which statement is correct?

1. Every genus has only one species.
2. Every family has only one genus.
3. A genus may contain one or more species.
4. A class contains related kingdoms.

70. Which of the following experiments provided the first direct evidence that DNA is the transforming principle?

1. Griffith’s experiment
2. Avery–MacLeod–McCarty experiment
3. Hershey–Chase experiment
4. Meselson–Stahl experiment

71. Which statement is NOT supported by Griffith’s experiment?

1. Dead bacteria can transfer hereditary information.
2. Transformation occurs in bacteria.
3. DNA is responsible for transformation.
4. Non-virulent bacteria may become virulent.

72. During the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive sulfur was absent from bacterial cells because

1. sulfur cannot enter bacteria.
2. protein coats remain outside the bacterial cell.
3. proteins degrade immediately after infection.
4. sulfur is absent in bacteriophages.

73. Which observation would contradict Hershey and Chase’s conclusion?

1. ³²P found in bacterial pellet
2. ³⁵S found in supernatant
3. ³⁵S found inside bacterial DNA
4. ³²P detected in progeny phages

74. Assertion (A): Transformation failed only after DNase treatment.
      Reason (R): Phosphorus clung to DNA among the major biomolecules involved in Hershey and Chase experiment.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the explanation.
3. A true, R false.
4. A false, R true.

75. Assertion(A): Heat-killed S bacteria alone did not kill mice.
      Reason (R): Heating destroyed the transforming principle.

1. Both true
2. A true, R false
3. A false, R true
4. Both false

76. The primary purpose of the blender in the Hershey-Chase experiment was to

1. break bacterial cells.
2. separate phage coats from infected bacteria.
3. separate DNA from protein.
4. destroy bacteriophages.

77. Consider the following statements.
A. DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups.
B. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
C. Histones bind DNA through electrostatic interactions.
D. Histones are rich in glutamic acid.
Choose the correct option.

1. A, B and C only
2. A and D only
3. B and D only
4. A, B, C and D

78. Which sequence correctly represents increasing levels of DNA compaction?

1. DNA → Histone octamer → nucleosome → 30 nm fibre → Looped domains → Chromosome
2. DNA → Chromatosome → Nucleosome → 30 nm fibre → Chromosome
3. DNA → 30 nm fibre → Nucleosome → Chromosome
4. DNA → Histone → Chromosome

79. Read the following statements regarding Phaeophyceae (Brown algae):
I. Reserve food is stored mainly as mannitol and laminarin.
II. Their cell wall consists of cellulose and is usually covered externally by a gelatinous coating of algin.
III. The photosynthetic pigments include chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
IV. Asexual reproduction occurs by biflagellate zoospores having two unequal laterally attached flagella.
V. Sexual reproduction is exclusively oogamous.
Choose the correct option.

1. I, II, III and IV only
2. I, II, III and V only
3. II, III, IV and V only
4. I, III, IV and V only

80. Match the following column


1. (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(iii); (d)-(v); (e)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii); (e)-(v)
3. (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i); (e)-(v)
4. (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(i); (d)-(v); (e)-(iv)

81. In Moss, peristome function mainly in

1. Photosynthesis
2. Absorption
3. Spore dispersal
4. Protection

82.
In above diagram, the labelling ‘C’ is

1. Root
3. Holdfast
2. Modified leaf root
4. Rhizoid

83. Read the following statements regarding the prothallus of pteridophytes.
I. The prothallus is usually small, photosynthetic and independent.
II. It bears both antheridia and archegonia.
III. The antheridia and archegonia generally mature simultaneously.
IV. Different maturation time of male and female sex organs reduces self fertilization.
Choose the correct option.

1. I, II and III only
2. II, III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. I, III and IV only

84. Linnaeus classification is based on

1. Anatomy of plant
2. Phylogenetic relationship
3. Number of stamens and carpel
4. Mode of nutrition

85. Members of Rhodophyceae are

1. Green algae
2. Blue algae
3. Brown algae
4. Red algae

86. Read the following statements. How many statements are correct?
I. Artificial classification system assumes that organisms belonging to the same taxa have common ancestor.
II. Pattern of syngamy is same in red algae and volvox.
III. In all amphibians of plant kingdom, sporophyte is not free living, but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derived nourishment from it.
IV. In conifers, the needle like foliage leaves reduce surface area thus reduce water loss.

1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 3

87. Which statement is incorrect?

1. Each category is referred to as a taxon.
2. Kingdom is the highest category.
3. Family consists of related orders.
4. Species is the lowest taxonomic category.

88. Assertion (A): As we move from kingdom to species, the number of common characteristics increases.
       Reason (R): Lower taxonomic categories contain more closely related organisms.

1. Both A and R are true, and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true.

89. If two organisms belong to the same genus, they must belong to the same

1. Family only
2. Family, Order, Class, Phylum and Kingdom
3. Species
4. Species and Family only

90. Which one of the following is NOT a taxonomic category?

1. Division
2. Taxon
3. Species
4. Family