NEET REVISION TEST 2 (28.01.2026)

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Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST 2 (28.01.2026)

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REVISION TEST-II
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contain 180 questions. Each question carried 4 marks for each correct responsed , the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use of Cell phone/Electronics gadgets/Calculator etc. are not allowed inside the Examination Hall.

PHYSICS

1. Assume that the earth and the sun are spherical bodies with uniform mass distributions. If the radius of the sun is halved without changing its mass, the force of gravitation on the earth, exerted by the sun, will:

1. be doubled
2. be 4 times (quadrupled)
3. behaved
4. remain unchanged

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2. Equal and opposite charges are placed at the two vertices of an equilateral triangle, giving a dipole moment p. A small dipole p^′ is placed at the third vertex, parallel to the previous dipole. If the electric fields due to both dipoles p, p^′, at the mid-point of the dipole p, are equal, then

equals:

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3. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to v(x) = βx⁻²ⁿ where β and n are constants and x is theposition of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x is given by:

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4. Atomic number increases in:

1. α-decay.
2. β⁻-decay.
3. β⁺–decay
4. K-electron capture.

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5. Diodes D₁, D₂ are identical and ideal. The load resistor (100 Ω) is connected between C and the ground. The input voltages are applied at A, B.

If V_A = +5 V and V_B = −5 V, the current i through the resistor will be:

1. 0.05
2. -0.05 A
3. 0.1A
4. -0.1 A

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6. The current in the circuit shown in the figure considering the ideal diode is

1. 20A
2. 2×10^-3 A
3. 200 A
4. 2×10^-4A

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7. The position vector of a particle is expressed as

.Which of the following statements correctly describes the direction of the particle’s acceleration?

1. It is directed along the positive y-axis.
2. It is directed along the positive x-axis
3. It is equally inclined to the positive x and y-axis
4. It is directed along the positive z-axis

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8. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be:(m is the mass of hydrogen atom, R is Rydberg constant and h is Plank’s constant

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9. An alternating voltage of peak value 300 V and a frequency 50 Hz is applied across an inductor L= 2 mH in a circuit.The induced voltage across the inductor has the peak value:

1. equal to 300 V
2. less than 300 V
3. greater than 300 V
4. Zero

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10. The 2 kg block (A) lies on a smooth horizontal table and is connected by a light string passing over a smooth light pulley.The string is connected to a second 2 kg block (B). The system is released from rest. Take g = 10m/s^²

The acceleration of block A is

1. 10 m/s²2. 5 m/s²3. 15 m/s²4. Zero

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11. The angle of 1′ (minute of an arc) in radian is nearly equal to:

1. 2.91 × 10^-4rad
2. 4.85 ×10^-4 rad
3. 4.0.8 ×10^-6 rad
4. 1.75 × 10^-2 rad

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12. Current varying at the rate 4 A/s in a coil generates an EMF of 16 mV in a nearby coil. The mutual inductance of the two coils is:

1. 4.0 × 10^-3mH
2. 4.0 × 10^-3H
3. 2.5 × 10^-2H
4. 2.5 × 10^-2mH

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13. The nucleus of an atom has a radius which is of the order of:

1. 10^-9m
2. 10^-12m
3. 10^-15m
4. 10^-18m

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14. Under the action of a force, a mass of 2 kg moves such that its position x at any time t is given by: x = t ³ / 3 where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The work done by the force in the first two seconds is:

1. 16 J
2. 1.6 J
3. 160 J
4. 16 kJ

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15. A ball released from a height falls 5 m in one second. In 4 s, it falls through: (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 40 m
2. 20 m
3. 80 m
4. 120 m

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16. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: If white light is used in a standard Young’s double-slit experiment, then coloured fringes are formed on the screen.
Statement II: If white light is used in a standard Young’s double-slit experiment, then the central fringe remains white.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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17. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square, while a charge q is placed at each of the other two corners. If the net electrostatic force on Q is zero, the ratio of Q/q equals to:

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18. A refracting telescope consists of an objective lens and an (O, focal length fo) and an eyepiece (E, focal length f_E) placed co-axially, with a separation d. The object is at infinity and the image formed by the objective lens is viewed through the eyepiece: the eye being placed just behind the eyepiece, E.

If the final image, seen by the eye, is at infinity, the separation d is given by:

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19. Two metals A and B, when exposed to light of wavelength 400 nm shows the photoelectric effect. However, when light of wavelength 620 nm is used photoemission from A just stops but B still shows photoemission. When the latter wavelength is doubled, then photoemission from B just stops. Take hc = 1240 eV – nm
The fastest photoelectrons emitted, in all the experiments, have an energy of:

1. 3.1 eV
2. 2.1 eV
3. 1 eV
4. 3 eV

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20. At what distance from a long straight current-carrying wire will the magnetic field have the same magnitude as that at the centre of a circular wire of radius r, if both wires carry the same current?

1. 2πr
2. πr
3. r/π
4. r/2π

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21. Statement I: The dc-current flowing through a capacitor, in the steady state, is zero.
Statement II: When a capacitor is working as part of a circuit, the plates of the capacitor carry equal and opposite charges.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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22. A person is standing with his arms folded at the centre of a platform which is rotating about its axis with kinetic energy of 10 J. Standing at the same place, he stretches his arms outwards such that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the system becomes:

1. 20 J
2. 5 J
3. 2.5 J
4. 40 J

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23. Given below are two statements:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A)is True but (R) is False.
4. (A)is False but (R) is True.

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24. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

1. 8
2.11
3. 9
4.10

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25. A block of iron of volume (in air) is taken to a depth x under the sea (assume that the density of sea-water is constant). The volume of this block decreases by ∆V due to pressure of sea-water. Then, ∆V is proportional to:

1. x
2. x²
3. x³
4. x^-3

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26. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the molecular forces vanish away, is:

1. 5.6 m³
2. 5.6 ×10⁶ m³
3. 5.6 × 10³ m³
4. 15.6 ×10^-3m³

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27. In the circuit shown, the current I₁ and I₂ are, respectively:

1. 4 A; 4 A
2. 2 A; 6 A
3. 6A; 2A
4. 5 A; 3 A

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28. When a standard Young’s double-slit experiment is conducted with monochromatic light of wavelength λ = 600nm, the fringe width is observed to be 0.3 mm. The same experiment is now conducted in water (refractive index = 4/3 ). The fringe width becomes:

1. 0.2 mm
2. 0.4 mm
3. 0.45 mm
4. 0.225 mm

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29. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in the x-direction with a constant speed of 10 ms^-1 is subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 to 30 m. Its final kinetic energy will be:

1. 475 J
2. 450 J
3. 275 J
4. 250 J

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30. Two wires of equal lengths (L) and cross-section (A) but different Young’s moduli Y₁ and Y₂ are joined as shown. The total elongation of the composite wire, if a force F is applied at the bottom, is:

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31. Find the dimension of the quantity ε_O hc: (where ε_O = permittivity of free space, h = Planck’s constant, and c = speed of light in vacuum)

1. (charge) x (energy)
2. (energy)2
3. (change)2
4. charge / energy

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32. Two masses A and B each of mass M are fixed together by a massless spring. A force acts on the mass B as shown in the figure. If mass A starts moving away from mass B with acceleration a, then the acceleration of mass B will be:

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33. A mechanical wave propagates in a medium along the X-axis. The particles of the medium:
(a)must move on the X-axis
(b)must move on the Y-axis
(c)may move on the X-axis
(d)may move on the Y-axis
Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (c) and (d) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

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34. Three identical capacitances C each are connected in the form of a triangle:

The capacitance of the combination, between A and B, is:

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35. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index u, of the prism, is:

1. 2sin A
2. 2cos A
3. 1/2cos A
4. tan A

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36. Suppose the velocity of water waves is equal to λ^K a^L p^M, where λ is wavelength, a is acceleration due to gravity and p is the density of water. Then, the values K, L, M arc:

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37. An electromagnetic wave travelling along the x-axis, has its electric field

given by:

sin (wt-kx) where w, k are constants. The intensity of this wave is proportional to:

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38. A small sphere of radius r falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to the viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity is proportional to:

1. r³
2. r²
3. r⁵
4. r⁴

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39. Consider the reverse processes shown in the adjacent diagram, undergone by an ideal gas. Which, of the following statements, is true?

1. Process AB is isobaric
2. Pressure at A < pressure at C.
3. Magnitude of work done in process AB< magnitude of work done in process CD.
4. All the above are true.

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40. An arrow is shot into the air with a range of 200 m and a flight time of 5 s. Assuming g to be 10 m/s², what is the horizontal component of the arrow’s velocity?

1. 25 m/s
2. 40 m/s
3. 31.25 m/s
4. 12.5 m/s

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41. If the distance between the Sun and the Earth is increased to three times its original distance, how will the gravitational attraction between the two planets (Sun and Earth) change?

1. remain constant
2. decrease by 63%
3. increase by 63%
4. decrease by 89%

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42. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or a bus at a high speed.
Reason (R): The value of the coefficient of friction is lowered when the surface is wetted.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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43. Two cities are 150 km apart. The electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires, The fall of potential per km is 8 volts and the average resistance per km is 0.5 ohm. The power loss in the wire is:

1. 19.2 W
2. 19.2 kW
3. 19.2 J
4. 12.2 kW

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44. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2Wb /m² . The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium will be:

1. 0.15 N-m
2. 0.20 N-m
3. 0.24 N-m
4. 0.12 N-m

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45. For very high frequencies, the effective impedance of the circuit (shown in the figure) will be:

1. 4Ω
2. 6Ω
3. 1Ω
4. 3Ω

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CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following is the ionization isomer of [Cr (H₂O)₄Cl(N0₂)] Cl?

1. [Cr (H₂O)₄(O₂N)] Cl₂
2. [Cr (H₂O)₄ Cl₂] (NO₂)
3. [Cr (H₂O)₄ Cl (ONO)] Cl
4. [Cr (H₂O)₄ Cl₂(NO₂)]. H₂O

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47. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?

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48. Which compound is least reactive for nucleaphilic addition reaction?

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49. Which of the following statements about the isomers ethylene dichloride and ethylidene chloride are correct?
a. Both the compounds form the same product on treatment with alcoholic KOH.
b. Both the compounds form the same product on treatment with aq. NaOH.
c. Both the compounds form the same product on reduction.
d. Both compounds are optically active.
Choose the correct option:

1. a and b
2. b and e
3. e and d
4. a and c

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50. The conductivity of 0.0024 mol/L solution of methanoic acid is 110 ×10^-6 S cm^-1 . The degree of dissociation of a weak acid is

1. 0.981
2. 0.792
3. 0.113
4. 0.501

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51. A mixture of O₂ and gas “Y” (mol. wt. 80) in the mole ratio a b has a mean molecular weight of 40. What would be the mean molecular weight, if the gases are mixed in the ratio b: a under identical conditions? (assume that these gases do not react)

1. 40
2. 48
3. 62
4. 72

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52. Identify the Incorrect statement:

1. Carbon has the tendency to form chains and rings with itself.
2. Silicon and Germanium are useful in semiconductor industry.
3. Boron trifluoride is a strong Lewis acid.
4. Common oxidation states of group 14 elements are +1 and +3.

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53. The correct statement among the following regarding the hydrogen atom is:

1. 3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals: all have the same energy.
2. 3s and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than 3d-orbital.
3. 3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital.
4. 3s-orbital is lower in energy than 3p-orbital.

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54. Denaturation of proteins involves:

1. Loss of tertiary structure.
2. Loss of primary structure.
3. Loss of peptide bonds.
4. Loss of linear chain structure.

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55. The product of the below-mentioned reaction is:

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56. The correct statements among the following is:
(i) A porous membrane used in reverse osmosis is a film of cellulose acetate placed over a suitable support.
(ii) To increase the solubility of CO₂ in soft drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure.
(iii) In osmosis, only the solvent moves while in diffusion both solute and solvent move.

1. Only (1) and (ii)
2. Only (ii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

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1. 1.214 × 10^-7 m
2. 816 × 10^-10 m
3. 6500 × 10^-17 m
4. 0.5 × 10^-13 mDeselect Answer

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58. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy aluminum is lower than that magnesium.
Reason (R): Ionic radius of aluminum cation ( Al³⁺) is smaller than that of magnesium cation ( Mg²⁺)

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are FalseDeselect Answer

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59. What is the correct increasing order of basicity for the following compounds in aqueous solution?

1. (D) < (C) < (B) < (A)
2. (D) < (C) < (A) < (B)
3. (A)< (B) < (C) < (D)
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60. The product formed in the following reaction will be:

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61. Which of the following combinations can be used to prepare a buffer solution?
I. Sodium acetate and acetic acid in water
II. Sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water
III. Ammonia and ammonium chloride in water
IV. Ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water.

1. I, III, IV
2. III, IV
3. I, II, IV
4. I, IIIDeselect Answer

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62. The following graph captures potential energy on the y-axis for hydrogen gas formation as a function of the internuclear distance on the x-axis:

The bond energy of H₂can be represented by:

1. (c – a)
2. (b – a)
3. (c – a) / 2
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63. Which of the following is the strongest Brönsted- Lowry acid?

1. HBrO
2. HBrO₃
3. HBrO₂ 4. HBrO₄

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64.

Which bond is most reactive towards the attack of H⁺ ?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. All x bonds have same reactivity

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65. The three cells with their values are given below:

The standard Gibbs free energy change values for three cells are, respectively:
(F represents the charge on 1 mole of electrons.)

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66. Which compound among the following exhibits the fastest rate of dehydration?

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67. Match column I with column II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
2. A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
3. A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
4. A-S, B-R, C-Q.D-P

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68. The molecular geometry of Xe F₅⁺will be:

1. Square pyramidal
2. Square planar
3. Trigonal bipyramidal
4. OctahedralDeselect Answer

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69. Statement I: The standard enthalpy change for the formation of one mole of a compound from its elements in their most stable states (reference states) is called standard molar enthalpy of formation.

1. Both statements I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true; and statement II is false.
3. Both statements I and II are false.
4. Statement I is false; statement II is true.

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70. A solution of phenol in chloroform when treated with aqueous NaOH gives compound Pas a major product. The mass percentage of carbon in P is: (to the nearest integer) (Atomic mass C = 12; H = 1; 0-16)

1. 65
2. 69
3. 73
4. 76

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71. What is the correct increasing order of ionic radii for the ions Ce³⁺, La³⁺, Pm³⁺, and Yb³⁺?

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72. Mark the incorrect order for the bond angle:

1. NH₃ > NF₃
2. NF₃ < PF₃
3. NH₃ > PH₃
4. NH₃ > H₂O

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73. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value.
(C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.
(D) The total number of nodes is given by n – 2
Codes:

1. (A), (C) and (D) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4, (A), (B), and (C) only

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74. The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 ml. of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess acid required 20 ml. of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is:

1. 46.6%
2. 50.4%
3. 42.8%
4. 40.5%

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75. Identify the correct statement regarding lactose among the following:

1. It is non-reducing sugar.
2. Glycosidic bond [1, 4] between glucose and galactose.
3. Glycosidic bond [1, 4] between glucose and fructose.
4. Glycosidic bond [1, 2] between glucose and galactose.

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76. The correct statement among the following regarding solutions is:

1. A saturated solution will remain saturated at all temperatures.
2. A plant cell swells when placed in a hypertonic solution.
3. The depression in the freezing point is directly proportional to the molality of the solution.
4. Lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property.

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77. Consider the following statements:
A. Carnallite (KCl.MgCl2.6H2O) is an example of double salt.
B. Thiocyanato ligand behaves as an ambidentate ligand.
C. [CoF₆]^3-called a spin-free complex.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. A and B
2. B and C
3. A and C
4. A. B. and C

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78. The correct matches of reagents that are used to react with diazonium salt

to get the product given against each reagent are:

1. (a) and (b)
2. (a), (b), and (c)
3. (a), (b), (c), and (d)
4. (a), (b), and (d)

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79. Which of the following is the most preferred method for preparing pure alkyl chlorides from alcohols?

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80. Match the periodic properties given in List I with the corresponding elements given in List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-V

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81. The incorrect oxidation number of the underlined atom in the following species is:

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82.

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83. Which of the following statements does not hold true?

1. Copper liberates hydrogen from acids.
2. In its higher oxidation states, manganese forms stable compounds with oxygen and fluorine.
3. Mn³⁺ and Co³⁺ are oxidising agents in aqueous solution.
4. Ti²⁺ and Cr²⁺ are reducing agents in aqueous solution.Deselect Answer

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84. Which of the following cannot act both as a Bronsted acid and as a Bronsted base?

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85. In a reaction, A + B →Product, the rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and the rate increases by a factor of 8, when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are. The rate law for the reaction can be written as:

1. Rate-k[A][B]²
2. Rate-k[A]²[B]²
3. Rate- k[A][B]
4. Rate-k[A]²[B]

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86. Consider the below reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

1. CaO
2. DIBAL-H
3. B₂H₆
4. Red Phosphorus

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87. Methane reacts with conc. HNO3 at high temperature to yield:

1. CO₂ and H₂O
2. HCHO
3. HCOOH
4. CH₃NO₂

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88. The reduction of an alkyne to alkene using Lindlar’s catalyst results into:

1. Cis-addition of hydrogen atoms.
2. Trans-addition of hydrogen atoms.
3. A mixture obtained by cis- and trans-additions of hydrogen which are in equilibrium with each other.
4. A mixture obtained by cis- and trans-additions of hydrogen atoms which are not in equilibrium with each other.

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89. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and Care +0.5V, -3.0 V and -1.2 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals are:

1. B > C > A
2. A > B > C
3. C > B > A
4. A > C > B

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90. Identify the order of reaction and the unit of rate constant for the following rate expression:

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BIOLOGY

91. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes
2. Sporopollenin in made up of inorganic materials
3. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures as well as strong acids and alkalis.
4. Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature but strong acids.

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92. Consider the given two statements:
I. Meiosis is responsible for maintaining the chromosome number across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.
II. Meiosis results in reduction of chromosome number by half in the daughter cells.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct

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93. How do steroid hormones exert their effects on target cells?

1. Steroid hormones directly enter the target cells, bind to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus, and regulate gene expression.
2. Steroid hormones bind to membrane bound receptors and activate secondary messengers like cAMP to induce cellular responses.
3. Steroid hormones remain in the bloodstream and influence nearby cells by releasing signaling molecules without entering target cells.
4. Steroid hormones only function by inhibiting the release of peptide hormones from endocrine glands.

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94. Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A):The skin of a frog is always kept moist and has a mucus covering.
Reason (R):Frogs respire through the skin as well.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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95. The cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the cut vector with space can be joined together using:

1. DNA polymerase
2. DNA ligase
3. Restriction endonuclease
4. DNA helicase

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96. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: During pregnancy all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
Statement II: Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche and menopause.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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97. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Pollen grains in angiosperms are well preserved as fossils.
Reason (R): Pollen grains exine has pores to allow the growth of pollen tubes.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A)is True, (R) is False
4. (A)is False, (R) is True

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98. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
A. UUU-phenylalanine
B. GGG-Glycine
C. AAA-Proline
D. CCC-Lysine

1. A and B
2. C and D
3. A and C
4. B and D

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99. Which of the following statements best describes the Law of Limiting Factors as it applies to photosynthesis?

1. The rate of photosynthesis is solely determined by internal plant factors like chlorophyll content.
2. Photosynthesis is limited only by light and CO₂ levels, regardless of temperature.
3. Among multiple factors, the one closest to its minimum value controls the rate of photosynthesis.
4. Photosynthesis rate increases only with light intensity, ignoring CO2 , or water levels.

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100. What percentage of Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR) do plants capture, which sustains the entire living world?

1. 0.01-1%
2. 2-10%
3. 15-25%
4. 30-40%

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101. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The first stable product of the Calvin cycle is 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3 PGA).
Statement Π: The Calvin cycle is also known as the C3 pathway.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement II is correct
4. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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102. The correct differential white blood cell count [in order from most common to least common] will be:

1. basophils, cosinophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils
2. lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, cosinophils, basophils
3. neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils, cosinophils
4. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, cosinophils

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103. Under resting conditions, the axonal membrane is:

1. impermeable to Na+ ions and relatively more permeable to K⁺. ions.
2. impermeable to Na+ ions and K⁺..
3. freely permeable to Na+ ions and relatively more impermeable to K⁺. ions.
4. freely permeable to Na+ ions and K⁺.

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104. Cocaine produces euphoria by:

1. Inhibition of acetylcholine breakdown at synapses
2. Activation of opioid receptors in the central nervous system
3. Interaction with cannabinoid receptors in the brain
4. Blocking the transport of dopamine back into presynaptic neurons

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105. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): It is better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway rather than only as a catabolic one.
Reason (R): Breaking down processes within the living organism is catabolism, and synthesis is anabolism.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explains (A)
3. (A)is True but (R) is False
4. (A)is False but (R) is True

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106. What type of natural selection is shown in the given figure?

1. Stabilising
2. Directional
3. Disruptive
4. Reverse

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107. Kinetochores:
I. are small disc-shaped structures at the surface of the centromeres.
II. serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the chromosomes.
III. are same as centromeres.

1. I is correct; II & III are incorrect
2. I & II are correct; III is incorrect
3. I, II & III are correct
4. I, II & III are not correct.

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108. Cryopreservation is a technique used to preserve cells, tissues, or any other biological constructs by cooling them to very low temperatures. At what temperature, typically involving liquid nitrogen, is cryopreservation carried out to ensure the long-term preservation of biological samples?

1. − 20°C
2. − 80° C
3. − 150° C
4. − 196° C

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109. How many of the given statements are correct regarding cockroach?
I. 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles are present on the lateral side of the body.
II. Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules.
III. In the head region, the brain is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion.
IV. Each compound eye consists of about 20 rectangular ommatidia.

1.1
2.2
3.3
4.4

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110. Which of the following statements is true regarding biocontrol by ladybug and dragonfly?

1. Ladybug is used to control aphid populations, while dragonflies control mosquito populations.
2. Both ladybug and dragonfly are pests that harm agricultural crops.
3. Ladybug controls fungal infections in plants, whereas dragonflies prey on harmful worms.
4. Both are examples of harmful insects that need to be eradicated for crop safety.

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111. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): ADH prevents diuresis.
Reason (R): ADH facilitates water reabsorption from the latter parts of the tubule.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

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112. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that:
I. The first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (c.g. RNA, protein, etc.)
II. The formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., the formation of diverse organic molecules inorganic constituents.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct from
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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113. Which of the following is not true regarding comparison between the gymnosperms Pinus and Cycas?

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114. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases:

1. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
2. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
3. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
4. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

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115. Consider the following statements:
I. The diffusing capacity of CO2 , across the respiratory membrane is higher than that of O2
II. The presence of Hb increases the efficiency of O₂ transport by about 10 times.
III. Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with much more tenacity with respect to O2
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

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116. Match each item in Column 1 with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:

A       B          C          D
1. R S P          Q
2. R S          Q P
3. S R          P          Q
4. S R          Q         P

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117. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is:

1. 0.09
2. 0.9
3. 0.7
4. 0.007

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118. Which of the following best describes the principle of competitive exclusion?

1. Two species that have exactly the same requirements cannot coexist in exactly the same habitat.
2. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
3. Species with lesser competitive ability have an evolutionary advantage
4. Competition between two species always leads to

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119. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Classification of living organisms is important to make study of living organisms possible.
Statement II: Classification is the process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories based on some easily observable characters.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is correct

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120. If an Rh-ve mother is carrying an Rh+ve foetus, she is likely to be exposed to the Rh antigen:

1. At the time of implantation of the blastocyst
2. At the time when the placenta becomes functional
3. When the first movements of the baby can be felt
4. At the time of delivery

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121. How many of the given statements are true?
A: When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal
B: When stamens are attached to the perianth, they are epiphyllous as in lily
C: The stamens may be united into one bunch or one bundle (monadelphous) as in China rose
D: There may be a variation in the length of filaments within a flower, as in Salvia and mustard

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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122. What is the criterion for the movement of DNA fragments on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

1. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
2. Positively charged fragments move tom farther end
3. Negatively charged fragments do not move
4. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

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123. Match the following plant parts with their primary functions:

Codes:

A     B        C          D
1. S Q        R          P
2. P R        R          S
3. P R        Q         S
4. Q P         S          R

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124. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:

1. Oxytocin-posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.
2. Melatonin- pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.
3. Progesterone-corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs.
4. Atrial natriuretic factor- ventricular wall increases blood pressure.

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125. Viviparity is considered to be a more evolved reproductive strategy than other because:

1. laying eggs is energetically more expensive than viviparity
2. the young ones are protected by a thick shell
3. a more controlled and protected environment for the developing embryos can lead to higher survival rates
4. the embryo takes a long time to develop

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126. Consider the following statements:
In the Mitochondrial Electron Transport System, oxygen acts as
A: the final acceptor of electrons
B: the final acceptor of protons

1. only A is correct
2. only B is correct
3. both A and B are correct
4. both A and B are incorrect

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127. Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follows
5’AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUC GAUCG 3′?

1. 3’ATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGATCGA TCG 5′
2. 5’UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC UAGC 3′
3. 3’UAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGCUAGC UAGC 5′
4. 5’ATCGATCGATUGATCGATCGATCGA TCG 3′

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128. Identify the incorrectly matched row:

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129. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Ethidium bromide is commonly used in gel electrophoresis to visualize DNA fragments.
Reason (R): Ethidium bromide binds to DNA and fluoresces under UV light, allowing the DNA fragments to be seen.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is Falsc.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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130. Match the following types of placentation with examples:

1. I − В,ІІ − А,III − D,IV−C
2. I − D,II − A,III − B,IV−C
3. I − C,II − D,III− A,IV − B
4. I − A,II − B,III − C,IV− D

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131. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Homology implies divergent evolution.
Reason(R): Homologous organs are organs which do similar jobs in two taxa that were not present in their most recent common ancestor but rather evolved separately.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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132. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes on one hand and gymnosperms on the other because;

1. Unlike bryophytes, pteridophytes have a dominant gametophyte phase, and unlike gymnosperms, they reproduce only through spores.
2. Unlike bryophytes, pteridophytes lack alternation of generations, and unlike gymnosperms, they possess multicellular sex organs.
3. Unlike bryophytes, pteridophytes lack roots, stems, and leaves, but unlike gymnosperms, they have chlorophyll a and b.
4. Unlike bryophytes, pteridophytes have vascular tissue, but unlike gymnosperms, they do not produce seeds.

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133. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Each protein is a polymer of amino acids.
2. A protein is a heteropolymer and not a homopolymer.
3. Essential amino acids can be synthesized in our body.
4. Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world.

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134. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

1. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.
2. The names are derived from Latin and written in italics.
3. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.
4. Biological names can be written in any language.

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135. Which of the following effects is associated with the removal of the apical bud (decapitation)?

1. Inhibition of lateral bud growth
2. Promotion of lateral bud growth into branches
3. Prevention of root growth
4. Reduction in stem elongation

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136. Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option given below:

a b c
1. iii ii i
2. i ii iii
3. i iii ii
4. ii iii i

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137. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The risk of getting into drug/alcohol abuse is higher in adolescence.
Reason (R): The period between 12-18 years of age may be thought of as adolescence period.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A)is True: (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

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138. Consider the following statements:
An adult human being, on average, excretes
A: 1 to 1.5 liters of urine per day.
B: 25 to 30 grams of urea per day.

1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is correct.
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.

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139. How does the Atrial Natriuretic Factorn (ANF) act as a check on the Renin Angiotensin mechanism?

1. It promotes vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure.
2. It inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.
3. It enhances the reabsorption of Na+ to increase blood pressure.
4. It causes vasodilation, reducing blood pressure.

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140. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Measurement of biomass in terms of fresh weight is more accurate.
Reason (R): The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

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141. Select the correct statement regarding synapses:

1. Impulse Transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
2. The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
3. Electrical synapses are easier to regulate than the chemical synapses.
4. Chemical synapses do not use neurotransmitters

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142. Mitosis accomplishes:
I. the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into daughter nuclei (karyokinesis)
II. division of the cell into two daughter cells by the separation of cytoplasm (cytokinesis)

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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143. In green plants, which of the following statements best explains the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

1. Photosynthesis stores energy in chemical bonds, while respiration releases this energy in an oxidized form.
2. All plant cells perform photosynthesis, and no translocation of food is needed to non-green parts.
3. Photosynthesis occurs only in chloroplasts, while respiration occurs exclusively in cytoplasm.
4. Photosynthesis and respiration are identical processes, differing only in their cellular location.

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144. Three Scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s results on the inheritance of characters in 1900, They were:

1. Avery-MacLeod-McCarty
2. de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak
3. Nirenberg, Mathei, Khorana
4. Paul Berg. Boyer and Cohen

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145. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is called the quiescent stage (Go). This process occurs at the end of:

1. G₁ phase
2. S phase
3. G2 phase
4. M phase

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146. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): During pregnancy the levels of other hormones like estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are increased several-folds in the maternal blood.
Reason (R): Increased production of these hormones is essential for supporting the fetal growth, metabolic changes in the mother and maintenance of pregnancy.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is true

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147. Which statement is true about sickle cell anemia?

1. It is caused by a mutation that results in a valine to glutamic acid substitution in hemoglobin.
2. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition.
3. Individuals with one sickle cell allele are typically severely affected. 3.
4. Sickle cell anemia results from a deletion mutation in the hemoglobin gene.

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148. Consider the following statements:
I: RNA is the genetic material of the QB bacteriophage.
II: DNA chemically is less reactive and more stable than RNA.
III: Viruses having RNA genomes and shorter life spans mutate & evolve slowly.
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

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149. Chemosensitive areas that detect changes in CO₂ and 𝐻+ concentration are located:

1. In the lungs and diaphragm
2. Adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre in the medulla
3. In the hypothalamus
4. In the nasal cavity

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150. In a sewage treatment plant, the biological process of activated sludge formation occurs during the:

1. Primary treatment stage
2. Secondary treatment stage
3. Tertiary treatment stage
4. Final disposal stage

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151. Consider the following statements:
Downstream Processing
A: is the step that is carried out after them completion of the biosynthetic stage.
B: includes the separation and purification of the product.

1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is correct.
3. Both A and B are correct,
4. Both A and B are incorrect.

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152. Which of the following is an example of the narrowly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity?

1. Appreciating the aesthetic value of a natural forest
2. Understanding our moral duty to protect other species
3. Obtaining medicinal compounds from plants for pharmaceutical use
4. Protecting biodiversity hotspots due to their high levels of species richness

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153. Second Trimester Medical Termination of Pregnancy in India

1. is not allowed at all
2. is allowed on the opinion of a single registered medical practitioner
3. needs approval of two separate registered medical practitioners
4. is easily

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154. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous
II: When stamens are attached to the perianth, they are epiphyllous
III: A sterile stamen is called staminate
IV: Polyadelphous stamens are seen in citrus

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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155. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acids.
Reason (R): Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group as substituents on the same carbon.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does not explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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156. What key events occur during telophase?

1. Chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles
2. Chromatids move to opposite poles and nuclear envelope disintegrates
3. Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles, nuclear envelope forms, and nucleolus reforms
4. Chromosomes align at the equator a

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157. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder resulting from:

1. A deletion mutation leading to a lack of hemoglobin.
2. A point mutation affecting the structure of hemoglobin.
3. The underproduction of one or more of the globin chains of hemoglobin.
4. An extra chromosome 21.

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158. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism.
2. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body is metabolism.
3. No non-living metabolism.
4. Metabolic object reactions exhibits cannot be demonstrated outside the body in cell free systems.

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159. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cyanobacteria:

1. They have chlorophyll a (similar to green plants)
2. They are unicellular and never colonial or filamentous
3. They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
4. Some of them can fix atmospheric nitrogen

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160. The ionic gradients across the resting axonal membrane are maintained by:

1. the passive transport of sodium and potassium ions through membrane channels.
2. the passive transport of sodium and chloride ions through membrane channels.
3. the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump which transports 3 Na⁺ outwards for 2 K⁺ into the cell.
4. the active transport of ions by the sodium-chloride pump which transports 3 Na^– outwards for 2 Cl^– into the cell.

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161. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favorite for some astronomers, means:

1. Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
2. Creation of life from chemicals
3. Origin of sperm in human testes
4. Transfer of spores as a unit of life from other planets of Earth

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162. In eukaryotic transcription:
I. There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus (in addition to the RNA polymerase found in the organelles).
II. hnRNA undergoes modification to produce mature RNA.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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163. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Plasma is the main medium for the transport of oxygen in the blood.
Reason (R): Plasma contains a high percentage of water and proteins like albumin and fibrinogen.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A)is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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164. Consider the given two statements:
I. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
II. Similarly, the membrane is permeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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165. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Degeneration of corpus luteum in the absence of fertilization is the cause for disintegration of endometrium.
Statement II: Cyclic menstruation indicates normal reproductive phase in human females and extends between menarche and menopause.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
3. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
4. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.

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166. Transgenic animals are the animals that:

1. have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra [foreign] gene.
2. are genetically modified with the use of foreign genes from a sexually compatible donor organism.
3. are produced by interspecific hybridisation.
4. are produced by inbreeding.

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167. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion: The starch-I2 is blue in colour.
Reason: Starch forms helical secondary structures and can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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168. Under normal circumstances, which of the following are not important factors influencing population density in an area?
I: Natality
II: Mortality
III: Emigration
IV: Immigration

1. I and II
2. III and IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV

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169. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Cortisol is involved in the suppression of the immune system and has anti-inflammatory properties.
Reason (R): Cortisol is a strong bactericidal agent.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True, but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False, but (R) is True.

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170. T. H. Morgan was the first geneticist to:

1. associate a specific gene with a specific chromosome
2. explain the correct nature of the unit of inheritance
3. associate a metabolic block with inborn errors of metabolism
4. propose that a gene is responsible for making a protein

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171. When a female is born, her ovary contains a large number of:

1. primary follicles with primary oocytes arrested at Meiosis I
2. primary follicles with primary oocytes arrested at Meiosis II
3. secondary follicles with secondary oocytes arrested at Meiosis I
4. secondary follicles with secondary oocytes arrested at Meiosis II

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172. The relationship between a clownfish and an sea anemone is an example of which interaction?

1. Mutualism, as the clownfish receives protection and the anemone attracts prey.
2. Commensalism, as the anemone is unaffected but benefits the clownfish.
3. Amensalism, as the anemone is harmed and the clownfish benefits.
4. Parasitism, as the anemone provides shelter in exchange for food.

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173. Biopiracy is:

1. the exploration of natural sources for small molecules, macromolecules and biochemical and genetic information that could be developed into commercially valuable products,
2. exploitation of a region’s biological resources or indigenous knowledge unethically and without providing fair compensation.
3. the use of living organisms, like microbes and 3. bacteria, in the removal of contaminants, pollutants, and toxins from soil, water, and other environments
4. the process of developing a crop with bioavailable micronutrients in its edible parts.

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174. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:

1. The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
2. The smaller subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
3. The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
4. Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

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175. What type of levels of protein structure would be seen only in proteins which are an assembly of more than one polypeptide chain or subunits?

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary

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176. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

1. Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
2. The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T lymphocytes.
3. Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
4. Rejection of a kidney graft by the recipient is the function of B lymphocytes.

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177. What is the role of the basal body in cilia and flagella?

1. Connecting the peripheral doublets of the axoneme
2. Acting as a nucleation site for the formation of spindle fibres
3. Giving rise to cilia and flagella
4. Synthesizing proteins required for motility

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178. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Carbon dioxide is fixed in the Calvin cycle to form 1. organic compounds.
2. Oxygen is directly involved in the Calvin cycle
3. The Calvin cycle occurs in three stages: carboxylation, reduction, and regeneration.
4. Rubisco is an enzyme that catalyzes the first step of the Calvin cycle.

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179. The DNA present in chloroplast is:

1. Circular, double stranded
2. Linear, single stranded
3. Circular, single stranded
4. Linear, double stranded

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180. In a test cross AaBb X aabb [assuming independent assortment), the ratio of progeny with genotypes AaBb and aabb will be:

1. 1:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:1:1:1
4. 9:1

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