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Welcome to your NEET FULL TEST VI (06.12.2025)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
PHYSICS
1) 0.25 Å2) 0.5 Å3) 1.5 Å4) 2 Å
1) Mass2) Velocity3) Momentum 4) Charge
1) 500 Å2) 5000 Å3) 2000 Å 4) 1000 Å
1) 5893 Å 2) 10683 Å3) 2791 Å4) 528 Å
1) 2.1 kJ2) 333 J3) 500 J4) 4.0 kJ
1) ΔQ2) ΔW3) ΔQ + ΔW 4) ΔQ-ΔW
1) Pγ V=constant2) Tγ V=constant3) TVγ-1=constant4) TVγ=constant
1) 1/2 PV2) 3/2 RT3) 3/2 PV4) 5/2 kT
1) 18.5 km/s2) 31.7 km/s3) 26.8 km/s 4) 42.8 km/s
1) R2) 2R3) R/3 4) 7R
1) angular momentum2) energy3) linear momentum 4) mass
1) 52) 103) 204) 2
1) g/R2) R/g 3) gR4) g/R2
1) U/2r2) U/3r 3) U/4r4) Ur
1) R 2) 2R3) 3R4) 4R
1) 15%2) 20.3% 3) 66.7%4) 33.33%
1) Zero2) 23) 44) 6
1) 4s2) 3s3) 2s4) 1s
1) 5×10−3 N m 2) 5×10−4 N m3) 5×10−5 N m 4) 1×10−5 N m
1) 0.009 kg\m22) 0.018 kg\m23) 0.036 kg\m24) 0.00018 kg\m2
1) 200J2) 300J3) 400J4) 500J
1) Moving with variable acceleration2) Angular momentum is conserved3) Moving with variable velocity4) Linear momentum is conserved
1) Position of the centre of mass2) Velocity of centre of mass3) Momentum of centre of mass4) None of the above
1) 55.4 2) 55.38 3) 55 4) 56
1) [M1 L0 T-2 A2 ] 2) [M-1L0 T2A-2]3) [M-1L0 T2 A2] 4) [M1L0 T2 A2]
1) 0.5212) 0.026 3) 0.0324) 0.05
1) [M-1 L2 T4 A2]2) [M1 L-2 T4 A2 ]3) [M-1L-2 T4 A2] 4) [M-1 L2 T-4 A2 ]
Deselect Answer
1) 0°2) 90°3) 120°4) 180°
1) 60: 12) 1: 603) 30: 14) 1: 30
1) A and B only 2) B and C only3) A and C only 4) A, B and C
1) Only B2) Only B and C3) Only A and C 4) Only C
CHEMISTRY
1) H2S2) H2Se3) H2Te4) H2O
1) B3N3H6 2) B3N33) SiC 4) Fe(CO)5
1) 1&22) 1&33) 2&34) 3 Only
1) C-12) C-23) C-34) C-1 & C-2
1) +0.52 V 2) -0.52V3) 1.34V4) -1.34V
1) Glucose oxime 2) Sorbitol3) Glucaric Acid 4) Gluconic Acid
1) Cu2) Cu2+3) Zn 4) Zn2+
1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B23) Vitamin C4) Vitamin B6
1) 0.01 S Cm-1 2) 0.24 S Cm-13) 1.67 S Cm-1 4) 1.35 S Cm-1
1) 0.34 V2) -0.34 V3) 0 V 4) -76V
1) 0.2342) 0.3253) 0.56 4) 0.45
1) Carbon2) C=O3) Oxygen4) Both C and O
1) [Zn(NH3)6]2+2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+3) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ 4) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
1) Halogens (X) 2) CN–3) H2O4) NH3
1) [Cr(NH3)6]3+2) [Mn(H20)6] 2+3) Ni(CO)4 4) None of the above
1) 02) 1.7323) 3.87 4) 4.90
1) [CoCl3 (NH3)3]2) [CoCl2 (NH3)4]Cl3) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl24) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
1) POCI3 and H3PO3 2) POCI3 and H3PO43) H3PO4 and POCI3 4) H3PO3 and POCI3
1) MnO22) Aluminium isopropoxide3) Acetone4) Ozone
1) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol2) Benzoic acid3) o-Nitrophenol4) Benzenesulphonic acid
1) Aromatic acid 2) Schiff base3) Ketone 4) Carboxylic acid
BIOLOGY
91. Homeostasis is best defined as:1) A process where an organism changes rapidly in response to every environmental fluctuation. 2) The ability of an organism to maintain internal stability despite external changes. 3) A failure of regulatory control leading to physiological imbalance. 4) The principle behind preparing medicinal extracts in homeopathy.
92. A species that normally occupies only a limited geographical range due to pressure from a stronger competitor suddenly expands its habitat size when that competitor is removed experimentally. This ecological phenomenon is known as:1) Competitive Exclusion 2) Competitive Release 3) Competitive Supremacy 4) Competitive Inclusion
93. To ensure pollination by bees, the Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses which strategy?1) Sexual deceit2) Pseudo-copulation 3) Reward in the form of nectar 4) Providing a site for laying eggs
94. A rocky tide-pool community originally contained 15 species of invertebrates. After researchers eliminated one particular species, the community collapsed to only 8 species, even though no other species were directly removed.The eliminated species was most likely functioning as a:1) Minor parasite with negligible host impact 2) Mutualistic partner offering shared resources 3) Keystone predator regulating community structure 4) Non-selective herbivore grazing on algae
95. Species that exhibit extremely high intrinsic rates of natural increase (r) typically show which characteristic?1) Prolonged generation time resulting in slow population turnover 2) Very short generation time allowing rapid multiplication 3) Absence of mating rituals leading to faster reproduction 4) Lack of any upper limit on population size in nature
96. Despite long evolutionary histories, no predator achieves perfect hunting efficiency. The most fundamental reason for this is:1) Predators lack advanced cognitive abilities compared to prey. 2) Large body size in predators restricts rapid pursuit of prey. 3) Faster reproductive cycles of prey prevent predator specialization. 4) Prey continuously evolve diverse structural and behavioural defences.
97. The logistic equation dN/dt = rN(1−N/K) predicts zero population growth when:1) Population size only approaches K but does not reach it. 2) The ratio N/K becomes negligible. 3) Mortality exceeds natality due to crowding. 4) Population size becomes equal to the carrying capacity (N = K).
98. Two species of Paramecium are cultured together on identical food resources. Over time, one species dies out while the other thrives. This scenario best illustrates:1) Competitive suppression of species with differing diets 2) Competitive exclusion due to overlapping niches 3) Size advantage determining species survival 4) Numerical dominance as the key factor in survival
99. During a short rainy season, an insect population multiplies rapidly and then vanishes completely by season’s end. Which population growth model does this exemplify?1) Logistic (sigmoid) growth with carrying capacity 2) Decline due to plant senescence 3) Exponential (J-shaped) growth with subsequent crash 4) Predator-mediated population control
100. A group of ecologists marks 80 fishes and releases them into a pond. On recapture, 100 fishes are caught, including 40 marked ones. Using the Lincoln-Petersen method, the estimated fish population in the pond is closest to:1) 502) 1003) 200 4) 4000
101. Which of the following statements about salinity tolerance in aquatic organisms is incorrect?1) Euryhaline species tolerate a wide range of salinities. 2) Stenohaline species are limited to narrow salinity ranges. 3) Salt concentration in inland waters is usually <5 ppt. 4) Marine animals can survive long in freshwater due to osmotic balance.
102. In interspecific interactions: Which interaction is correctly represented as benefiting one species and harming the other?1) Amensalism → (–/0)2) Commensalism → (+/0) 3) Competition → (–/–) 4) Predation → (+/–)
103. Match List-I with List-II:Choose the correct answer from the options given below:1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
104. The evolution of the animal immune system was most likely driven by:1) Herbivores pushing animals toward extinction 2) The selective pressures of parasitic and disease-causing organisms 3) Competition between animals and their habitats 4) Symbiosis between animals and their predators
105. The innate potential of a species to grow in number (intrinsic growth rate) does not follow which of the following?1) Each species has this ability 2) When resources are unlimited, this potential is realized 3) This represents an idealized situation 4) Resource availability is not essential for unimpeded growth
106. Consider the following regarding the reasons for the fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and not in Plantae: I. They are prokaryotes. II. The cell wall of cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan. III. They can fix atomspheric nitrogen The correct explanations would be:1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
107. Which of the following illustrate the limitations of the two-kingdom classification (Plantae and Animalia) by Linnaeus?I. Euglena has features of both plants (chlorophyll, photosynthesis) and animals (motility, heterotrophy). II.Chlamydomonas is autotrophic but possesses flagella. III. Slime molds resemble animals in one phase of their life cycle and plants in the other phase.1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only4) I, II and III
108. Consider the following statements regarding characters of Archaebacteria that they share with eukaryotes: I. The cell wall does not contain peptidoglycan. II. DNA associated with histones. III. Translation initiated with formylated methionine. IV. RNA polymerase similar to eukaryotic RNA polymerase II V. ATPase similarity VI. Similar DNA replication and repair How many of the above characters Archaebacteria share with eukaryotes?1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
109. Consider the following statements regarding Mycoplasma: I. They are a genus of bacteria that have a unique cell wall of their own. II.In their genetic code UGA codes for tryptophan. III. None of them is pathogenic to humans. IV. They have a large genome. V. They can be killed by penicillins. VI. They can survive without oxygen The number of correct statements is:1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
110. Consider the following characters: I. Heterotroph organisms II. A dikaryon stage III. Cell wall made of chitin IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis Which of the above relate to fungi?1) I, II and III 2) I, III and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
111. No predator can become proficient at acquiring prey because:1) Predators are not as intelligent as prey. 2) Predators are too large to be fast enough. 3) Prey populations evolve more rapidly than predator populations.4) Prey populations evolve anti predatory traits.
112. Which of the following is not an edible mushroom?1) Agaricus bispora 2) Pleurotus ostreatus 3) Lentinula edodes 4) Amantia phalloides
113. Identify the group of fungi that is not correctly matched with all the characters given below:1) Phycomycetes – Mycelium aseptate and coenocytic / Asexual reproduction by motile zoospores or by nonmotile aplanospores/spores-endogenously produced in the sporangium 2) Ascomycetes – Mycelium unbranched and septate / Asexual spores are conidia / Conidia produced endogenously on conidiophores 3) Basidiomycetes – Mycelium-branched and septate / Asexual spores are generally not found 4) Deuteromycetes – Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi are known
114. Bulliform cells help in:1) Rolling the leaves inward in monocots 2) Protecting the plant from salt stress 3) Increasing photosynthesis in monocots 4) Creating large cavities for sugar storage
115. Xylem and phloem are termed complex tissues because:1) They consist of several different kinds of cells 2) They carry water and food, respectively 3) They are found together in vascular bundles 4) They also give mechanical strength
116. Casparian strips in roots are made of—1) Lignin 2) Suberin 3) Cutin 4) Pectin
117. The periderm of an old stem replaces—1) Pith 2) Cortex 3) Epidermis 4) Secondary phloem
118. Companion cells are found in—1) Gymnosperms only 2) Angiosperms only 3) Pteridophytes 4) All vascular plants
119. In monocot roots, the number of xylem arms is usually—1) 2–32) 43) polyarchy 4) Always 2
120. The hypodermis in monocot stem is usually—1) Parenchymatous 2) Collenchymatous 3) Sclerenchymatous 4) Meristematic
121. Interfascicular cambium in dicot stems arises from—1) Sclerenchyma 2) Parenchyma of medullary rays 3) Xylem vessels 4) Endodermis
122. The tissue that provides elasticity to young stems is—1) Sclerenchyma 2) Collenchyma 3) Parenchyma 4) Chlorenchyma
123. If a root develops endarch xylem instead of exarch, what major problem will arise?1) It cannot elongate properly 2) Water conduction reverses direction 3) Phloem development stops 4) Cortex becomes lignified
124. If a dicot stem produces MORE secondary phloem than xylem, which cambial change happened?1) Cambium became more active on outer side 2) Cambium stopped dividing 3) Cambium shifted to pericycle 4) Cambium produced only tracheids
125. If medullary rays become fully lignified, the first function lost would be—1) Lateral movement of water and food 2) Vascular bundle protection 3) Storage of starch 4) Transport through phloem
126. A forest receives heavy rainfall but has very cold climate. What will happen first?1) Humus accumulates 2) Decomposition speeds up 3) Ammonification increases 4) Mineralisation becomes complete
127. If detritivores in a forest become absent but decomposers remain, what will happen first?1) Humus will form faster 2) Litter will accumulate 3) Mineral release becomes faster4) NPP decreases due to low GPP
128. If a grassland suddenly starts transferring 40% energy instead of 10%, which ecological outcome will occur?1) Shorter food chain 2) More trophic levels 3) Productivity becomes zero 4) Detritus food chain collapses
129. Two ponds have same NPP, but pond A has very high standing crop. This means—1) Herbivore population is low 2) Productivity is very high 3) Trophic efficiency is high 4) Decomposition is rapid
130. If a desert suddenly shows productivity equal to an aquatic ecosystem, which factor must have changed first?1) More decomposers evolved 2) Rainfall increased significantly 3) Food chain length decreased 4) Standing state became low
131. In a forest, if the DFC becomes stronger than the GFC, what changes first?1) More energy flows to apex predators 2) Herbivore population increases 3) Energy flow becomes dominated by decomposers 4) NPP becomes zero
132. The major conduit of energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem is—1) Grazing food chain 2) Detritus food chain 3) Both equally 4) Neither
133. In an ecosystem, which of the following determines the length of the food chain?1) Primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity 3) Trophic efficiency 4) Standing crop
134. Pyramid of numbers is generally inverted in—1) Grassland ecosystem 2) Pond ecosystem 3) Tree ecosystem 4) Ocean ecosystem
135. In a grazing food chain, the first trophic level is always:1) Green plants 2) Herbivores 3) Dead organic matter 4) Zooplankton
ZOOLOGY
136. The A-bands of skeletal muscle do not change their width during muscle contraction because1) Thick filaments are not involved in the sliding filament theory 2) A-bands are the thick filaments themselves which do not shorten 3) A-bands extend beyond the sarcomere 4) A-bands are the thin filaments themselves which do shorten
137. Which of the following includes non muscular movement? (a) Protoplasmic streaming (b) Pseudopodial movement (c) Flagellar movement (d) Ciliary movement1) (a) only 2) (b), (c) and (d) 3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 4) None of them
138. Observe the following figure of rib-cage and identify the labelled parts1) A – Vertebral column, B – True ribs, C – Sternum 2) A – Sternum, B – False ribs, C – Vertebral column 3) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Vertebral column 4) A – Sternum, B – True ribs, C – Sacrum
139. Assertion (A): Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction. Reason (R): Calcium binds to troponin, causing a conformational change that exposes the myosin binding sites on actin.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true.
140. Select the correct statement from the given options1) Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to CO₂ but not to H⁺ ions 2) Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre by reducing the duration of inspiration 3) Residual volume (RV) can be expelled out by forcible expiration 4) The alveolar sac consists of many alveoli which open into a common alveolar duct
141. Maximum amount of carbon dioxide is carried in blood in the form of1) Carbamino-haemoglobin 2) Dissolved in plasma 3) Carboxy-haemoglobin 4) Bicarbonate
142. Vasa recta in cortical nephrons1) Arises from afferent arteriole rather than efferent arteriole 2) Does not involved in counter current mechanism 3) Carries deoxygenated blood which is rich in urea 4) Is absent or highly reduced
143. Observe the given figure and select the correct labelling with their correct description/function1) a – Afferent arteriole: Carries deoxygenated blood to the glomerulus 2) e – ascending vasa recta: Carries blood which flows counter to ascending loop of Henle 3) d – Distal convoluted tubule: Carries dilute filtrate 4) f – Loop of Henle: Located in the cortical region of kidney
144. Match the following 1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
146. Statement I: Muscular movement is the fastest mode of locomotion in animals. Statement II: Hydra can use both its tentacles and pseudopodia for capturing prey.1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
147. Assertion: Arthritis refers to inflammation of joints. Reason: Gout is caused by excessive formation of uric acid in the joints.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true.
148. The given figure shows the sarcomere of myofibril. Identify the labelled parts1) A – I-band, B – Z-line, C – H-zone, D – A-band 2) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – H-Zone, D – I-band 3) A – H-zone, B – M-line, C – I-band, D – A-band 4) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – M-band, D – I-band
149. Which of the following statements is false?1) ADH helps in water elimination making urine hypotonic 2) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule 3) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule 4) Henle’s loop plays a crucial role in concentrating urine
150. The action of aldosterone in kidney regulation is inhibited by1) Angiotensin 2) Vasopressin 3) Atrial Natriuretic Factor 4) Adrenal cortex
151. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Clarias (Magur)?1) Absence of air bladder 2) Presence of operculum 3) Presence of tympanum 4) Pneumatic bones
152. The bone that does NOT occur in pairs in humans is1) Parietal 2) Nasal 3) Sternum 4) Maxilla
153. During muscle contraction:1) Actin and myosin filaments overlap more 2) Actin and myosin filaments separate from each other 3) Length of all bands increases 4) Sarcomere length increases
154. The respiratory rhythm centre is located in:1) Cerebrum 2) Medulla oblongata 3) Cerebellum 4) Hypothalamus
155. Assertion (A): Smoking increases the carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity. Reason (R): CO has much more affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen and forms carboxyhaemoglobin.1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
156. Which one of the following animals is not a protostome?1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 3) Annelida 4) Echinodermata
157. Red muscle fibres have abundance of:1) Myoglobin and mitochondria 2) Actin and myosin 3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum 4) Glycogen
158. Study the statements: (i) Coacervates can grow and divide. (ii) Coacervates have a lipid bilayer. (iii) Coacervates can selectively absorb molecules. (iv) Coacervates arise from aggregation of colloidal molecules. Which combination is correct for coacervates?1) i,ii, iv2) ii, iii3) i, ii, iii 4) i, iii, iv
159. According to Oparin–Haldane theory, first life forms were:1) Autotrophic anaerobes 2) Heterotrophic anaerobes 3) Autotrophic aerobes 4) Heterotrophic aerobes
160. Miller and Urey’s experiment did not produce:1) Glycine 2) Alanine 3) Ascorbic acid 4) Aspartic acid
161. Assertion (A): Miller and Urey used CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in their experiment. Reason (R): Early Earth’s atmosphere was strongly oxidising.1) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A 2) A is true, R is true, but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is false but R is true
162. Match the following:1) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A 2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B 3) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B 4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
163. Which of the following is the best example of divergent evolution?1) Wing of bat and wing of bird 2) Flippers of whale and fins of fish 3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita 4) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals
164. Fossils of Archaeopteryx indicate:1) Reptiles evolved from birds 2) Transitional form between reptiles and birds 3) Evolution of mammals from reptiles 4) Homologous organs in mammals
165. Assertion (A): Homologous organs indicate common ancestry among organisms. Reason (R): Homologous organs perform similar functions in all organisms possessing them.1) A and R true; R is correct explanation 2) A and R true; R not the explanation 3) A true; R false 4) A false; R true
166. A research lab studies embryos of vertebrates. They observe that early embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals show pharyngeal gill slits and tails. This similarity provides evidence for:1) Convergent evolution 2) Common ancestry 3) Analogous development 4) Independent origin
167. Assertion (A): Archaeopteryx is considered a “connecting link” fossil. Reason (R): It possessed both reptilian and avian characters.1) True, True – R explains A 2) True, True – R does NOT explain 3) True, False 4) False, True
168. Assertion: Adrenocorticotropic Releasing Hormones (ARH) excite the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Reason: ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones.1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. 2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. 3) Assertion is true but reason is false. 4) Both assertion and reason are false.
169. Choose the incorrect statement.1) The secretion of the posterior lobe of pituitary is known as pituitrin. 2) High blood level of ADH is characterised by dilute blood and high plasma sodium. 3) Somatostatin is secreted from hypothalamus. 4) Thyrocalcitonin is secreted when calcium level in blood is high.
170. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to insulin.1) It stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen. 2) Insulin inhibits cellular glucose uptake and utilisation. 3) Deficiency of insulin can cause formation of harm harmfu compounds known as ketone bodies. 4) Insulin is a peptide hormone.
171. X controls the secretion of a type of glucocorticoid ‘Y’ secreted from layer ‘Z’ of the adrenal cortex. Identify X, Y and Z.1) X: ACTH; Y: Cortisol; Z: Zona fasciculata 2) X: TSH; Y: Epinephrine; Z: Zona reticularis 3) X: GnRH; Y: Testosterone; Z: Zona reticularis 4) X: ACTH; Y: Aldosterone; Z: Zona glomerułosa
172. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.1) Insulin is secreted by α-cells while glucagon is secreted by ẞ-cells. 2) Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeo-genesis while insulin stimulates the glycogenesis. 3) The glucose homeostasis in blood is maintained by both insulin and glucagon jointly. 4) Prolonged hypoglycemia leads to diabetes mellitus which is associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compound known as ketone bodies.1) A and D2) B and D 3) C and D4) A, B, C and D
173. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option. (A) Glucagon is a protein hormone and maintains normal blood glucose. (B) Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis and reduces blood sugar level. (C) Glucagon promotes cellular glucose consumption. (D) Glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.1) A and B are correct. 2) B, C and D are correct. 3) A and D are correct. 4) B and D are correct.
174. Match the following columns and select the correct option
175. During prolonged fasting, which combination of hormones is MOST crucial for maintaining blood glucose?1) Insulin, Glucagon ↑, GH ↑ 2) Insulin ↑, Glucagon↓, Cortisol ↑ 3) Insulin, Somatostatin ↑ 4) Glucagon, GH ↑
176. Which hormone from the anterior pituitary is controlled mainly by inhibition rather than stimulation?1) GH 2) TSH 3) ACTH 4) Prolactin
177. Which statement about Miller-Urey experiment is INCORRECT?1) It simulated conditions of primitive Earth 2) It proved that life originated from inorganic molecules 3) Amino acids were formed 4) The atmosphere used was strongly reducing
178. Select the incorrect statement.1) Cells of zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex secrete glucocorticoids which affect glucose homeostasis. 2) Cushing’s syndrome is caused by excess of cortisol which may be due to a tumour of adrenal cortex. 3) Adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system function as an integrated system. 4) Adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoid only
179. Adrenal cortex is divided into three zones. The inner region called (i) secretes (ii), the middle layer (iii) secretes (iv) and the outer zone known as (v) secretes (vi).1) (i) zona fasciculata, (ii)glucocorticoids,(v) zona reticularis 2) (ii) gonadocorticoids, (iii) zona fasciculata, (v) zona glomerulosa, (vi) mineralocorticoids 3) (i) zona fasciculata, (iv) cortisone,(v) zona glomerulosa,(vi)mineralocorticoid 4) (i) zona reticularis, (ii)glucocorticoids,(vi) zona fasciculata
180. A woman after childbirth shows inability to eject milk but normal milk production. Which hormone is deficient?1) Prolactin 2) Oxytocin 3) Estrogen4) TSH