Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

(a) Whatever one may (A)/ say of her, no one (B)/ dare call in question (C)/ her honesty of purpose (D)/ No error (E)

(b) When Mrs. Paul heard his knock,(A)/ she went to the door and opened it, (B)/but she did not recognize him at first (C)/because she was not wearing her glasses.(D)/ No error (E)

(c) Following a succession of Nazi defeats and the suicide (A)/of Adolf Hitler, Germany signed the instrument of surrender on May 7, 1945, (B)/in Reims in eastern France. The document stipulated (C)/ that hostilities had to cease tomorrow. (D)/ No Error (E)

(d) Loui and Satpute will use a similar (A)/physiological test, in addition to (B)/issuing two kinds of surveys, to triple-check that their (C)/ participants truly have musical anhedonia. (D)/ No Error (E)

(e) We would have enjoyed the (A)/ journey more if the old lady in (B)/the adjacent compartment (C)/ would not have snorted all the time. (D)/ No Error (E)

1. Which of the following parts in statement (A) has error?

(a) C              
(b) B               
(c) D               
(d) A              
(e) No Error

2. Which of the following parts in statement (B) has error?

(a) B               
(b) C               
(c) D               
(d) A              
(e) No Error

3. Which of the following parts in statement (C) has error?

(a) C               
(b) A              
(c) B               
(d) D              
(e) No Error

4. Which of the following parts in statement (D) has error?

(a) A               
(b) C              
(c) D              
(d) B               
(e) No Error

5. Which of the following parts in statement (E) has error?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) A               
(d) C               
(e) No Error

Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These five words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should interchange with each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice.

6. The (A) academician did a (B) commendable job in (C) highlighting the (D) dangers of the so called lethal weapon (E) systems.

(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required

7. Skills are a (A) asset (B) vital in today’s globalized economy where (C) threat jobs are under (D) unskilled of (E) automation.

(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required

8. (A) corruption employees (B) facing criminal or (C) government cases are under a (D) scanner of the Modi (E) administration.

(a) (D) – (E)
(b) (A) – (C)
(c) (A) – (B) and (C) and (D)
(d) (B) – (E)
(e) No interchange required

9. If the (A) obliged are (B) alternative, the (C) authorities are (D) flights to provide compensation or an (E) cancelled.

(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (B) – (C)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required

10. The revenue (A)department has asked customs (B)officials to ensure strict (C)implementation of (D) import on (E) prohibition of e-cigarettes.

(a) (A) – (E)
(b) (D) – (E)
(c) (B) – (E)
(d) (A) – (D) and (B) and (E)
(e) No interchange required

Directions(11-15):Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Six persons Hema, Nina, Keshav, Rani, Sam, and Tabu are sitting in a linear row. They all like different games Battlefield, Combat, Duty, Free Fire, Minecraft, and Pubg. All of them are facing north direction.

Nina likes Minecraft and not more than two persons are sitting to the left of Nina. One person sits between Nina and Hema. The person who likes Pubg is sitting to the immediate right of Keshav. The number of persons sitting  between Rani and Keshav is one less than the number of persons sitting to the right of Hema. Keshav and the person who like Pubg are not sitting at the extreme end. The person who likes Duty is sitting immediately right of Sam. Two persons sit between the person who likes Combat and Duty. The person who likes Free Fire is not an immediate neighbor of the one who likes Duty.

11. Which of the following statement is not true?

a) Two persons are sitting between the one who likes Pubg and Free fire
b) Hema is an immediate neighbor of the one who likes Free fire
c) Tabu likes Duty
d) Sam is an immediate neighbor of the one who likes Duty.
e) Nina and the one who likes Combat are immediate neighbors.

12. Which of the following combination is true?

a) Tabu – Free fire            
b) Sam – Duty       
c) Hema – Battlefield         
d) Keshav – combat
e) Rani – Pubg

13. Who will be immediately right of the person who likes Minecraft, if Rani takes place of Keshav, Keshav takes place of Tabu and Tabu takes place of Rani(the game they like remains the same even after rearrangement)?

a) Tabu
b) Rani
c) Sam     
d) Keshav         
e) Hema

14. How many persons are sitting between the one who likes Duty and Rani?

a) One         
b) Either one or two
c) Two           
d) Four
e) Three

15.Which of the following person sit immediately to the right of the person who likes Combat?

a) Hema       
b) Tabu                  
c) Rani                    
d) Nina         
e) Keshav

Directions(16-20):Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Fourteen persons are sitting in two parallel rows and facing each other. In row 1, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are facing south. In row 2, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are facing north but necessarily in the same order. Not less than three persons sit to the right of R. The one, who sits opposite R, sits immediately to the left of B. Three persons sit between B and G. The one, who sits opposite to G, sits second to the right of S. A, and D are immediate neighbors. D does not sit opposite to R. F sits second to the right of A. Two persons sit between R and Q. U is sitting second to the left of S. U is not sitting at the extreme end. U is opposite to the one who sits immediately left of E. T sits neither opposite to C nor E. V sits second to the right of T.

16. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.

a) Q and G          
b) P and E              
c) F and U               
d) T and A            
e) V and C

17. Who among the following person sits at the left end in row 2?

a) F                      
b) The one who is sitting immediately right of B         
c) E                 
d) A    
e) The one who is sitting immediately left of G

18. The number of persons seated between T and R is same as the number of persons seated between Gand ___.

a) E           
b) A              
c) D              
d) B              
e) C

19. Who is seated third to the right of P?

a) V            
b) T              
c) R               
d) S              
e) U

20. How many persons are seated between C and the one who faces U?

a) Three     
b) Two          
c) Five           
d) Four
e) One

21. What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question? 120% of 620 + 20% of 525 + 150% of 750 =?

a) 1972
b) 2184
c) 2197
d) 1989
e) 1973

22. What should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(5/6) + (7/5) + (2/3) + (3/10)=? + (47/15)

a) 11/30
b) 1/15
c) 4/15
d) 7/30
e) 2/15

23. what approximate value will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?√323.91 × ∛124.96 ÷ (25.01×17.99) + (19.99×20.09) + 25.01 = ?

a) 620

b) 525.5          

c) 425.2

d) 400

e) 200

24. what approximate value will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?(1/2) of (675.99)^1/2 x 168.69 x (2196.99)^1/3{13 x (10+3)}=13 ?

a) 0
b) 1     
c) 2      
d) 3
e) 4

25. what approximate value will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
70.98 x 35.02 + 1235.99 – 48.03 x 24.96 – ? ÷2.96 = 99.98 x 24.97

a) 63
b) 61
c) 66
d) 69
e) 68

26. what will come in the place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
(3/13) of {325/(3)^-3} x ? ² = 25 x 10⁴ x (1.5)⁴

a) 675
b) 75    
c) 575 
d) 25
e) 45

27. what will come in the place of question mark ‘?’ in the following question?
[(343 x 7²)/49]^1/3 + [(5² x 5³)/5⁴]³= (?)²+ 32

a) 11
b) 25   
c) 10   
d) 20
e) 12

28. 12% of 150 + 24 % of [1520 + (5/12) of 168 – 15% of 10²]=?

a) 390
b) 392 
c) 394 
d) 396
e) 399

29. (5.05 x 4.98 x 6.05 – 3.04³+1.9)^? = 2.09 x 1.505 + 3.9⁵

a) 3

b) 2     
c) 1/3 
d) 1/2
e) 1/4

30. [94.95 99 x 1.92³+ 3.13] 8.08²=? x 42.98/127.98

a) 6
b) 4     
c) 9     
d) 2
e) 7

Directions (1- 10): Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the king’s palace. Elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well-treated. There was also a dog who lived near the elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.

One day, the dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow managed to sneak into the elephant’s mouth. He linked the rice so much, that he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food. Gradually, the dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food. Finally the elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.

The elephant enjoyed the company of the dog and started sharing his food with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together. While playing, the elephant would hold the dog in his trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.

Then one day, a man saw the dog and asked the elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this dog. What price do you want for it? “The elephant-keeper didn’t own the dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the dog to his home village, which was far away. The king’s elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.

Finally, the elephant-keeper reported this to the king; however he didn’t mention anything about the dog. The king had a wise minister, who was known for his keen understanding of animals. The king ordered the minister, “Go to the elephant’s shed and find out the reason for the elephant’s condition”. The intelligent minister went to the elephant’s shed and found the elephant very sad. He examined the elephant and asked the elephant-keeper, “there is nothing wrong with this elephant’s body, then why does he look so sad? I think this elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this elephant shared a close friendship with anyone?”

The elephant-keeper said, “There was a dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the king and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal elephant is not sick, but he his lonesome without his dear friend, the dog”. The king said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that dog is?” The Minister replied, “elephant-keeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The king asked, “How can we bring back my elephant’s friend and make him happy again?” The minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal elephant’s shed will be penalized”. The king did the same and the man who had taken the dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.

As soon as he was freed, the dog ran back as fast as he could to the elephant’s shed. The elephant was so delighted to see the dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The dog wagged his tail, while the elephant’s sparkled with happiness. The king was content to see the elephant happy once again and rewarded the minister for his wise judgment.

1. What was the minister’s diagnosis of the elephant’s condition?

a) The elephant hated his keeper

b) The elephant was lonely

c)  The elephant was starving

d) The elephant had hurt his leg and was is pain

e) None of these

2. What method did the Minister suggest to king to get back the dog?

a) To declare that whoever had that particular dog would be punished
b) To keep a bowl of rice for the dog in the elephant’s shed so that he could be lured back to the place
c) To command the elephant-keeper to look for the dog in the village
d) To persuade the elephant to call out to the dog e. none of these
e) None of these

3. Why had the elephant become very sad?

a) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
b) He was unhappy with the king for having sold the dog
c) He missed his friend, the dog
d) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
e) None of these

4. What of the following can definitely be said about the elephant-keeper?
I. He was greedy.
II. He was insensitive.
III. He was brave.

a) Only I
b) Only I
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of above

5. Which of the following can definitely be said about the king?
I. He was compassionate.
II. He was deceitful.
III. He loved animals.

a) Only I
b) Only I and III
c) Only I and II
d) only B
e) All of above

Directions (11-15): Study the data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Input: access 61 few 33 28 case 67 torn dusky 53 yak 98

Step I: case access 61 few 33 28 67 torn dusky yak 98 53

Step II: yak case access few 33 28 67 torn dusky 98 53 61

Step III: torn yak case access few 33 28 dusky 98 53 61 67

Step IV: access torn yak case few 33 dusky 98 53 61 67 28

Step V: few access torn yak case dusky 98 53 61 67 28 33

Step VI: dusky few access torn yak case 53 61 67 28 33 98

And Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the steps for the given input.

Input: 55 fastest 75 sail 47 bow 48 oven 32 mayor 53 peace

11. Which of the following element is third from the right end in step III?

a) 48

b) 47

c) Mayor

d) 53

e) None of these

12. Which of the following is step V?

a) Fastest mayor oven sail peace 75 bow 47 53 32 55 48
b) Mayor oven sail peace 55 fastest 75 bow 47 53 32 48
c) Bow fastest mayor oven sail peace 47 53 32 48 55 75
d) Fastest mayor oven sail peace 75 bow 47 53 32 48 55
e) None of these

13. How many steps are required to get the output?

a) Seven
b) Five
c) Four
d) Six
e) None of these

14. What is the position of ‘sail’ in step IV?

a) Fourth from the left
b) Seventh from the right
c) Third from the left
d) Eighth from the right
e) None of these

15. In which of the following steps, ‘sail peace 47’ is found in the same order?

a) Step II
b) Step VI
c) Step V
d) Step III
e) None of these

Directions: (16-18) Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the family. N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I. N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.

16. How is L related to maternal uncle of N?

a) son
b) daughter
c) nephew
d) niece
e) CND

17. If G does not have a brother, how is I related to the sister-in-law of H?

a) maternal aunt
b) paternal uncle
c) maternal uncle
d) paternal aunt
e) CND

18. If L is the daughter of G, how many male members are there in the family?

a) 5
b) 7
c) 6
d) CND
e) NOT

Direction(19-20): In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered Iand II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

19. Statements:
Maximum Bulb is Tubelight
No Tubelight is a Lamp
Some Lamp is headlight.
Conclusion:
I. Some Headlight is not Tubelight.
II. Some Bulb is not Lamp

a) Only II follows
b) Either I or II follows
c) Neither I nor II follows
d) Only I follows
e) Both I and II follows

20. Statements:
Some Erasers are not pencils.
Only a few Pencil is Cutter.
No Cutter is Sharpner.
Conclusion:
I. Some erasers are sharpeners.
II. No Sharpener is an Eraser.

a) Only II follows
b) Either I or II follows
c) Neither I nor II follows
d) Only I follows
e) Both I and II follows

Direction (21-25): What will come in the place of questions (?) mark in following number series

21. 8, 12, 30, 105, ?, 2598.75

(a) 472.5
(b) 470.5
(c) 476.5
(d) 471.5
(e) 468.5

22. 9, 19, 39, 79, ?, 319

(a) 221
(b) 175
(c) 125
(d) 159
(e) 199

23. 580, 557, 528, 497, ?, 419

(a) 463
(b) 457
(c) 461
(d) 459
(e) 460

24. 81, 72, 136, 111, ?, 278

(a) 325
(b) 347
(c) 323
(d) 327
(e) 321

25. 14, 20, 28, 39, ?, 74

(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 54
(d) 56
(e) 59

Direction (26-29): What will come in the place of question mark (?) in following series?

26. 33, 36, 44, 59, ?, 118

(a) 85
(b) 83
(c) 81
(d) 87
(e) 91

27. 162, 125, 94, 65, ?, 23

(a) 42
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 41
(e) 43

28. 2, 15, 64, 195, ?, 393

(a) 381
(b) 387
(c) 392
(d) 389
(e) 385

29. 322, ?, 82, 42, 22, 12

(a) 172
(b) 165
(c) 164
(d) 158
(e) 162

Direction : A set of 2 number series is given below. Both series follow a similar pattern. Answer the questions based on it using information given below:
I. 5, 6, 13, 40, 161, 806
II. 2, p, q, r, s

30. Find the value of s.

(a) 22
(b) 82
(c) 89
(d) 84
(e) 77

Directions (1 -2): Five statements are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E, among these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.

1.A. A recent event in Delhi brought together two Indian winners of the 2016 Ramon Magsaysay Award,Bezwada Wilson and T.M. Krishna, in a wide-ranging conversation about freedom of expression, nationalism and inequality, issues of pressing concern.

B. The Magsaysay Award jury was astute indeed in recognising the laudable public spiritedness of both Wilson and Krishna, and their common concern with the problem of caste.

C. They come from absolutely unrelated areas of engagement, and from personal backgrounds that are far apart, but what is remarkable is how they converge in their social activism as well as their shared ability to communicate clearly and forcefully with large audiences.

D. Untouchability may have been outlawed through Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, but that is only the most extreme way to keep human beings and fellow citizens apart.

E. The two men share a commitment to free speech and equal citizenship, to addressing entrenched forms of exclusion, discrimination and violence based on caste, to democratic rights and the Indian

Constitution.

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

2. A. Latest data from the National Family Health Survey 2015-16 (NFHS-4) show that in most of the States for which data is available, overweight men and women far outnumber underweight ones, in some instances double the number.

B. Health and nutrition are two areas where India’s achievements have not been quite up to the mark during the previous era of Millennium Development Goals (MDGs), particularly given the high economic growth in the last decade.

C. At the same time, India is undergoing simultaneous transitions.

D. In parallel, a nutritional transition is happening — earlier, India was characterised by a high prevalence of under nutrition, but this era has also brought a double burden of under nutrition as well as over nutrition.

E. A health SDG index released in September by The Lancet ranked India at 143 among 188 countries and in the Global Hunger Index published by the International Food Policy Research Institute in October, India is ranked 97th among a total of 118 countries, signifying a high level of hunger and under nutrition.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

Directions (3 – 5): A word given in bold is followed by I, II and III, each of which consists of two sentences. You need to identify the options where the given word can be used as a connector to combine the two statements into a single one while maintaining the meaning and coherence of the sentence.

3. Unless
I. Prosperity in the country was not possible. Human rights issues also could not be implemented.
II. Unemployment rate among young people aged between 15 and 24 has hit an alarming 63 per cent. As the government grapples with the bloated wage bill.
III. In developed economies, the data protection laws do not allow universities to disclose private credentials of students to third parties. The students do not explicitly ask them to make the disclosure.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only I and 2
e) None of the above

4. Even with
I. It is almost impossible to defeat a militia that is well entrenched in a civilian population. If one has the most sophisticated weapons.
II. Beijing may still have peace of mind as Pyongyang remains as its ideological ally. It has a nuclear-armed North Korea on its doorstep.
III. Manipuri sportspersons face a lot of inconvenience; they managed to perform exceedingly well bringing laurels for India.

a) Only I
b) Only III
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above

5. Moreover
I. Bond prices fall due to the selling pressure. The yields will spike due to the inverse relationship between price and interest rates.
II. Borrowing costs of Indian companies that have raised funds from international markets will go up. The value of dollar-denominated debt will jump.
III. As India started easing interest rates and the US started hiking its rates, the interest rate differential is narrowing fast which impacts the speculative money coming into the domestic financial markets.
Reversing foreign inflows will create an upward pressure on domestic interest rates that will affect new projects.

a) Only III
b) Only I
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) Only I and III

Directions (6 – 8): In the given statement some words have been highlighted. These words may not be at the correct place making the sentence grammatically and contextually incorrect.
Choose the option which represents the correct sequence of words, which will make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is correct as it is, choose E i.e. ‘No rearrangement required’ as your answer.

6. COLUMN 1
(A) Entrepreneurs are relieved that start-ups registered with
(B) Malls are great places to shop because
(C) The fire-fighters doused the flames

COLUMN 2
(D) one can find everything one need under a single roof.
(E) that had engulfed the building.
(F) the DPIIT can avail of angel tax exemption.

a) Only A-F
b) Only B-D
c) Only A-F, C-E
d) Only B-D, C-E
e) None of these

7. COLUMN 1
(A) Simply offering price support does not tackle the problem
(B) Those with more wealth in a society always had
(C) Most of the students

COLUMN 2
(D) greater power to influence the rules of the game.
(E) of cropping patterns out of sync with agro-climatic conditions.
(F) go to prison to pay for their crimes

a) Only B-D
b) Only B-D, A-E
c) Only A-E
d) Only A-E, C-F
e) None of these

8. COLUMN 1
(A) The scheme provides substantial relief in tax dues for
(B) A strict upbringing is necessary
(C) Rules require WhatsApp to submit a third-party auditor report that all data

COLUMN 2
(D) for the floors to remain clean.
(E) involved in payments will be only stored on servers in India.
(F) all categories of cases as well as full waiver of interest, fine or penalty

a) Only A-F
b) Only B-D
c) Only B-D, C-E
d) Only A-F, C-E
e) None of these

Directions (9 – 10): In each of the questions given below, a paragraph is given which has some blanks and those blanks have to be filled with the same word out of five words given below it.
You have to choose that same word as your answer and fill up the blanks with that appropriate word.

9. These statements are _________ aimed at nipping in the bud any attempts to change the governance structure of the central bank. He is most _________ going to end this story after the next board meeting by calling it a day. _________ , the central bank has no idea regarding the might of the central government which is elected by the people of the country.

a) Ferociously
b) Tentatively
c) Probably
d) Dryly
e) None of the above

10. The staggering loss of an estimated 153 billion hours of labour during 2017 due to rising temperatures around the globe is a reminder to governments that they are not doing enough to dramatically curb greenhouse gas _________ . It is vital that India gets more ambitious about cutting back on carbon _________ . The poisonous gases _________ from the factory lead to pollution of the river and its adjoining areas.

a) Attrition
b) Attribution
c) Contribution
d) Emissions
e) None of the above

Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
In a certain code language:
‘focus on economic development’ is written as ‘vl no py su’
‘greater growth more development’ is written as ‘wr ea vl om’
‘more focus is important’ is written as ‘su ta nx ea’
‘economic growth is important’ is written as ‘ta py om nx’

11. What is the code for ‘economic’?

a) no
b) py
c) nx
d) ta

12. ‘su’ is the code for which of the following?

a) more
b) development
c) focus
d) on

13. What is the code for ‘growth is important’?

a) om ta py
b) om ta nx
c) wr ta nx
d) Cannot be determined

14. What is the code for ‘important’?

a) ta
b) nx
c) om
d) Cannot be determined

15. What is the code for ‘greater’?

a) wr
b) ea
c) vl
d) om

Directions (16-20): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a certain code:
‘must respect old rules’ is code for ‘za la ka ga’
‘we respect the elders’ is code for ‘za fa sa na’
‘we must be elders’ is code for ‘na la da sa’
‘be elders respect younger’ is code for ‘wa sa za da’

16. What is the code for ‘respect’?

a) la
b) za
c) sa
d) fa

17. If code ‘respect mut old’ is ‘za la ga’ then what is the code for ‘rules’?

a) na
b) da
c) ka
d) za

18. ‘ga’ code represents which word?

a) be
b) old
c) rules
d) Either b or c

19. What is the possible code of ‘we must respect elders’?

a) za na za sa
b) na za sa wa
c) la na za sa
d) ga na za sa

20.’da’ code represent which word?

a) be
b) we
c) respect
d) must

Directions (1-7) : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

According to a concept paper prepared by the country’s Economic Relations Department, food imports in Bangladesh have tripled in the last 10 years due to population growth. But, as by 2031, the country’s population increases by about another three crores, the pressures will only increase.

While we can ask what the government is doing, perhaps it’s best to be prudent and turn the mirror on ourselves and our individual choices. At a friend’s wedding dinner, I was pleasantly surprised to be served with a plethora of options at the dining hall — a buttery tandoori roti, mutton rezala, a spicy tandoori chicken, kacchi biryani with large chunks of meat and fat, a jali kabab, salad and firni.

Like other weddings, the dishes were being replenished when nearing an end. As expected, guests, myself included, filled our plates to the brim to gorge on the feast before us. In the end, most of it was wasted.

Where did that wasted food go?

Outside an up-and-coming convention hall in the capital’s Dhanmondi, one can often find a number of blue-coloured drums full of wedding food that went uneaten.

It’s a sign of overzealous parents or a soon-to- be-married couple who had ordered a ton of food that no one had eaten or eaten partially. For the event on that particular night, four such drums and one long rag were full of wasted food — kacchi biryani, generous helpings of meat, potatoes and chicken.

Right next to the waste, sat four people — two young girls and two elderly women — all begging passersby for money or sustenance. It was quite juxtaposition.

I asked a man, who was sitting near the now- garbage, what the food was being stored here for. “Fish feed,” he replied.

The food would be taken across the Buriganga, where it would be turned into nutritious fish feed. The whole ordeal  spoke about Bangladeshis’ hidden ability to recycle anything. But it was disturbing 6 nonetheless.

The numbers, when it comes to Bangladesh’s unhealthy relationship with food, are jarring. Households in the country waste around 10.62 million tonnes of food each year, according to the Food Waste Index Report 2021 conducted by the United Nations Environment Programme and WRAP, a UK-based non-government organisation.

On average, a Bangladeshi wasted 65kgs of food each year, which is much higher than that being wasted by someone in Russia (33kg) or the United States of America (59kg) .

Surprisingly, in the same report, it was mentioned that Afghanistan was the country that wasted the most food. So, the entire data can be taken with a ___________.

Even then, there are other equally eye-opening data.

Bangladesh was ranked 84th out of 113 countries in the Global Food Security Index (GFSI) . It was the worst ranking among all South Asian countries.

The GSFI, conducted by the Economist Intelligence Unit, this year considered four categories — food affordability, availability, quality, safety, and natural resources and resilience.

The study found that Bangladesh’s overall score in the index had dropped for the past two years, meaning the food security situation in the country could be going from bad to worse. Amid all this, when our big lavish weddings toss away generous amounts of food because the hosts don’t want to be ashamed in front of their once-a-death-marriage-or-decade guest or the guest, like me, becomes a temporary gluten, the whole food crisis issue becomes harder to digest.

1. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Bangladesh?

I. The quantity of food wasted in Bangladesh in a year is lesser than that wasted in Russia.

II. As per GFSI Bangladesh ranks 84th out of 120 countries.

III. Bangladesh’s food imports have increased three times over the last ten years.

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Only III

(d) Both II and III

(e) Both I and II

2. Which of the following words is wrongly spelled or is incorrect as per the context of the passage?

(a) Juxtaposition
(b) Jarring
(c) Resilience
(d) Overzealous
(e) Gluten

3. What does the author mean by the following statement? “Add the ongoing climate crisis to the equation and what you have is a recipe for disaster.”

(a) The author tries to state the recipe of a dish that he ate in the wedding he attended.
(b) He tries to analyze the situation of prevalent food crisis and predict the future risk.
(c) He tries to beware the government about the upcoming climate crisis.
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

4. Which country’s name is not mentioned in the passage?

(a) Russia
(b) United States of America
(c) Afghanistan
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

5. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to the highlighted word in the passage?
Ordeal

(a) pleasure
(b) bliss
(c) elation
(d) tragedy
(e) joke

6. Which of the following phrase can correctly fill the given blank?

(a) Spoon of salt
(b) Sprinkle of salt
(c) Grain of salt
(d) To pieces
(e) To heart

7. Suggest a suitable title for the passage?

(a) The growing condition of Bangladesh: A matter to consider
(b) The growing food crisis: A matter hard to digest
(c) The soaring population: What should be the next step
(d) The food quality index: A matter of concern
(e) Place of Bangladesh in food ranking: Top 10 among 120 countries

Directions (8-10): A sentence with two blanks is given, each blank indicating that something is omitted. Choose the words that can be filled in the blanks to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
8. Despite the _______ weather, they decided to _______ the hiking trail.

(a) inclement, abandon
(b) sunny, explore
(c) unpredictable, trek
(d) harsh, navigate
(e) gloomy, forsake

9. The orchestra played with _______ precision, creating a _______ atmosphere.

(a) impeccable, serene
(b) chaotic, joyful
(c) flawless, tense
(d) rhythmic, lively
(e) haphazard, peaceful

10. The _______ detective carefully examined the _______ evidence.

(a) inexperienced, crucial
(b) diligent, irrelevant
(c) astute, insignificant
(d) meticulous, pertinent
(e) amateur, trivial

11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘MACHINE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (considering both ways)?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of the above

12. If it is possible to form a word with the first, fourth, seventh and eleventh letters in the word ‘SUPERFLUOUS’, write the first letter of that word.

(a) E
(b) L
(c) O
(d) S
(e) None of the above

Direction (13-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Six persons – G, H, M, P, R, and W has a different height. G is not the tallest but taller than R. P is taller than W but not as much as G and H. R is taller than only three persons. H is shorter to R and M but not as much as P. The one who is the second shortest is 4 feet and the second tallest one is 7 feet.

13. What is the possible height of R?

(a) 6 feet
(b) 8 feet
(c) 5 feet
(d) Either A or C
(e) None of the above

14. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) R is shorter than P
(b) Possible height of M is 8 feet
(c) P is the third tallest person
(d) H is the second tallest
(e) None of the above

15. Who is the second tallest?

(a) R
(b) G
(c) W
(d) M
(e) None of the above

Direction (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:
A person started running in a playground. Initially, he started at point B and runs towards north for 3m to reach point F from where he turns to his right and runs for 9m. Then he takes a right turn again and runs for 6m, after reaching point E. He then takes a right turn from point C to reach point H which is 3m apart. Now from point H, he runs towards the direction in which he started the running initially and runs for 1m more than the distance between points H and C. Then he turns to his left at point G and runs for 5m to reach point D and he finally stops.

16. What is the approximate shortest distance between points F and C?

(a)10m
(b)11m
(c) 9m
(d)12m
(e) None of the above

17. What is the position of C with respect to F?

(a) South-East
(b) South-West
(c) South
(d) North-West
(e) None of the above

18. Find the odd one out.

(a) FE
(b) HC
(c) BF
(d) DG
(e) None of the above

19. What is the shortest distance between G and C?

(a) 6m
(b) 7m
(c) 5m
(d) 9m
(e) None of the above

20. What is the total distance between B and G?

(a) 25m
(b) 26m
(c) 21m
(d) 24m
(e) None of the above

21. P and Q started a business by investing Rs. X and Rs. (X + 100) respectively. After three months, P withdrew 40% of his initial investment. If at the end of year, P got Rs. 210 as profit share out of total profit of Rs. 530, then find the value of X.

(a) 1750
(b) 1250
(c) 2500
(d) 1500
(e) 2000

22. Ram alone can complete a work in 40 days. If Ram and Shayam together take 37.5% less time than Ram to complete the same work, then find in how many days Shayam alone can complete the work?

(a) 56   2/3 days
(b) 58 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 66   𝟐/𝟑 days
(e) 33   1 /3 days

23. P invested Rs.21000 in a business and after few months Q joined him with Rs.28000. At the end of a year profit share of P and Q is equal. Find after how many months B joined the business?

(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3

(d) 5
(e) 6

24. Three students Ria, Ram and Pooja got total 74 marks in an exam. The ratio of marks obtained by Ria to Pooja is 4 : 5 and the ratio of marks obtained by Pooja to Ram is 3 : 2. Find the total marks score by Ram.

(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 40

25. A invested Rs.1600 and B invested Rs.2000 in a business. A invested for ‘t’ months and B invested for (t + 3) months and A received Rs.400 out of total profit of Rs.1400, then find for how many months B invested?

(a) 10 months
(b) 5 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 9 months
(e) 6 months

26. A and B invested Rs. X & Rs. (X +900) respectively in a business. After eight months, B left the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs. 5800 and profit share of B is Rs. 1000 more than that of A. Find X (in Rs.).

(a) 1000
(b) 1600
(c) 600
(d) 1200
(e) 800

27. If 25% & 50% of total residents of wings A and B respectively do not watch a newly arrived web shows ‘M’. Total number of residents do not watch web show ‘M’ from wing C are equal to the average number of residents watch the web show ‘M’ in wings A & B. Find the percentage of total number of residents watch web show ‘M’ from wing C with respect of total number of people in the society?

(a) 12.5%
(b) 14.5%
(c) 15.5%
(d) 20.5%
(e) 30%

28. A spend 25 % of her monthly salary on house rent. From the remaining, he spends 30% on food, 10% on grocery, 40% on miscellaneous. If the amount he saves is Rs.9150, then find the monthly salary of A (in Rs.).

(a) Rs.60000
(b) Rs.61000
(c) Rs.51000
(d) Rs.40000
(e) Rs.45000

29. A spend 25% of his monthly salary on household and 20% of the remaining salary spend on rent. A spend remaining salary on travelling and food in the ratio of 2:3 respectively. Difference between amounts spend on food and household is Rs.1540, then find the monthly expenditure of A.

(a) Rs.18000
(b) Rs.15600
(c) Rs.12100
(d) Rs.14000
(e) Rs.9050

30. If 45% of X is equal to 60% of Y and the average of both the numbers is 20 less than the X, then find 60% of Y.

(a) 108
(b) 64
(c) 72
(d) 96
(e) 80

1. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 by the Institute for Human Development and International Labour Organization poses questions on the trickle-down effect of benefits to the working class in the backdrop of a 5.4% average real economic growth, from 2015-16 to 2022-23. It also shows a divergent trend between rural and urban areas in terms of employment and income. It demonstrates a relatively higher unemployment rate in urban areas, at 4.8% in 2000 over the 1.5% in rural areas. However, average monthly earnings are higher by 76% for self-employed, 44% for regular employed and 22% for casual labour in urban areas in 2022. The coexistence of higher unemployment and wages requires further investigation to understand its implications for the urban poor. This article looks at the dynamics of employment and wages in pockets of deep urban poverty, such as slums, and juxtaposes these with the findings of the IER 2024.
The higher income in urban areas and a better life have underrated rural-urban migration in the past. As in the IER 2024, although overall migration has increased, the migration of males has declined by 1.2% during 2000-08 and further marginally in 2021. This implies that migration for economic mobility is losing its sheen. An analysis of income and employment trends among slum dwellers in urban India reveals prospects for economic mobility and decent work, as poor rural households often migrate to slums rather than formal settlements. This writer and a team surveyed 37 slums across different parts of Kolkata in 2012. These slums were again surveyed in 2022- 23. However, we could track only 29 slums as the other slums had either been redeveloped or evicted. We surveyed 513 slum households in 2012 and 396 in 2021-22. To get the overall trends from 2012, we collected data on income and employment in slums in 2019, the pre-COVID-19 year, to avoid the COVID-19-affected years of 2019-22, for comparison.
The major occupations in slums in Kolkata have remained the same over the decade, with a fourth of the working population taking on unskilled labour. It is the most stable and significant occupation in slums. The IER 2024 also finds that a fourth of workers in India were engaged in unskilled work during this period. Other major occupations in slums were skilled or semi-skilled labour work, and people as employees in private organisations, and owning petty businesses or small shops. Unlike unskilled labour, the share of employment in skilled and semi-skilled labour was reduced by 6%, and in private organisations by 3% between 2012-19. On the other hand, employment has increased by 9% in petty businesses or small shops. Surprisingly, the share of other self-employed has also declined by 3%. Among occupations that were less popular earlier but which gained momentum in the last 10 years are truck driving and cleaning, by 5%, and construction and related work, by 4%. The number of people employed in construction and related work was minuscule in 2012.

What does the passage reveal about the evolution of major occupations in Kolkata’s slums over the past decade?

a) There has been a significant shift towards skilled and semi-skilled labour occupations.
b) Unskilled labour remains the most stable and predominant occupation in slums.
c) Employment in private organizations has consistently increased over the years.
d) The number of self-employed individuals has declined steadily since 2012.
e) Truck driving and cleaning declined in popularity compared to construction work.

2. What does the passage suggest about the migration patterns in India based on the IER 2024?

a) Female migration is increasing, contributing to urbanization without slum settlement preference.
b) Economic factors are driving increased migration to rural areas instead of urban centres.
c) Migration patterns are stable, with no significant changes observed in rural-urban migration trends.
d) Economic factors are driving increased migration to urban centres instead of rural areas.
e) Male migration for economic reasons is decreasing, leading to increased migration to urban slums

3. Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?
A. Over the decade, the proportion of individuals engaged in skilled and semi-skilled labour decreased by 6%.
B. Higher unemployment rates in urban areas are juxtaposed with significantly higher average monthly earnings.
C. Migration for economic mobility among males declined by 1.2% during 2000-08 and marginally in 2021.

a) Only A
b) Both B and C
c) Only C
d) All A, B, and C
e) None of these

4. What trend does the IER 2024 highlight regarding unemployment rates between rural and urban areas?

a) Urban areas consistently have lower unemployment rates compared to rural areas.
b) Urban areas experience higher unemployment rates compared to rural areas.
c) There is no significant difference in unemployment rates between rural and urban areas.
d) Unemployment rates have been declining steadily in both rural and urban areas.
e) Urban areas witness a surge in unemployment rates while rural areas remain stable.

5. Which of the highlighted words from the passage is grammatically/contextually incorrect?

a) coexistence
b) underrated
c) petty
d) momentum
e) All are correct

6. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the underlined sentence from the passage?

a) Migration to urban slums in India offers potential economic advancement and job opportunities for poor rural households.
b) Stagnation in urban slums’ economy persists, with a significant portion engaged in unskilled labour for over a decade.
c) Choosing formal settlements over urban slums limits economic mobility and work prospects for poor rural households in India.
d) Investigating simultaneous high unemployment and wages is crucial for understanding urban poverty dynamics.
e) Income and employment conditions in urban slums tend to perpetuate rather than alleviate systemic poverty and inequality

7. Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?
A. Skilled and semi-skilled labour saw a 6% increase, unlike unskilled labour.
B. Employment in skilled and semi-skilled labour decreased over the decade.
C. The urban unemployment rate decreased consistently from 2015-16 to 2022-23.
D. The number of surveyed slum households decreased from 513 to 396.
E. Urban areas exhibit higher unemployment rates compared to rural areas.

a) Both B and C are true
b) Only D is false
c) All B, D, and E are true
d) Both B and D are false
e) All A, B, and C are true

10. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) Neither the contestants nor the principal were aware of the fire.

b) Instead criticizing why don’t you help with the presentation?

c) It is requested that a detailed report be sent urgent on the representations and ongoing strike by the employees.

d) Neither Sameera nor Vinod knows anything about the accident.

e) All are correct.

11. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) The developers submitted building plans to the council for the approval.
b) The girl, with several others, was late for school.
c) She was heavily fined last month for coming lately.
d) Each of the ladies have a designer handbag.
e) All are correct.

12. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) I see you have eaten fewer than ten percent of your mashed potatoes
b) A different policeman has been assigned with the case.
c) No sooner had he arrived in Delhi than he was kidnapped.
d) Five kilograms of flour are all that I need for my baking.
e) All are correct.

13. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) Several members of the party have resurrected the idea of constitutional change.
b) I clearly empathize with the people who lives in those neighborhoods.
c) When the ship finally reached land, only a few of the crew was left to witness the event.
d) Everyone have their own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
e) All are correct

14. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer. were not protected in the epidemic, and (A)/ the outbreak was originally mistaken for Japanese encephalitis, (B)/ who had been vaccinated against Japanese encephalitis (C)/ but physicians in the area noted that persons (D)/ the number of cases among adults was unusual (E)/

a) DABEC
b) ABCED
c) CBDAE
d) EDABC
e) BDCAE

15. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged
properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer.
Of petroleum-based jet fuel but with a fraction (A)/ of its carbon footprint, giving airlines solid footing (B)/ SAF made from renewable biomass and waste resources (C)/ for decoupling greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from flight (D)/ has the potential to deliver the performance (E)/

a) AEDCB
b) CEABD
c) DCBAE
d) EDCBA
e) BCDEA

16. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged
properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best
alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer.
registered with the Bureau of Patents (A)/ first mass-produced commercially by (B)/ Magdalo V. Francisco Sr. who founded (C)/ in 1942, banana ketchup was (D)/ the brand name Mafran which he (E)/

a) BAEDC
b) EBACD
c) CAEBD
d) DBCEA
e) ADCBE

17. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Rekha’s family hired _______ personnel to _______ her in daily tasks like bathing and preparing meals.

a) assistive, support
b) sabotage, antagonistic
c) undercut, hostile
d) weaken, fierce
e) controvert, scrape

18. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Red Cross workers usually _______ in the _______ of victims of natural disasters by providing medical care to those who are injured.

a) relapse, obstacle
b) regression, constraint
c) aid, recovery
d) loss, hindrance
e) misplace, drawback

19. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. My supervisor won’t _______ my day off because there is no one to _______ my shift.

a) bare, proscribe
b) approve, cover
c) expose, prohibit
d) omit, interdict
e) slur, neglect

20. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
If you want to _______ your lawn, you will need to water it _______ so it stays nice and fresh.

a) rare, ignore
b) seldom, withdraw
c) perpetually, retract
d) maintain, frequently
e) constant, negotiate

21 Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, You need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Educated at the University of Pennsylvania in physics, Musk started getting his feet wet as a serial tech entrepreneur.
B. He is surpassed only by Jeff Bezos as the richest person in the world.
C. He was instrumental in creating the company that became PayPal.
D.Elon Musk is the charismatic co-founder and CEO of electric car maker Tesla and rocket manufacturer SpaceX.
E. His astounding success has given rise to comparisons to other visionary businessmen.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

24. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

25. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

26. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
As a whole, the Malays are, however, remarkably healthy people, and deformity and hereditary diseases is rare between them.

a) Is rare among them
b) Was rare between them
c) Was rare among them
d) Are rare among them
e) No correction required

27. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
The location is one of the most important things to consider when buying a house.

a) Are one of the most important things
b) Is one of the most important thing
c) Are one of the most important thing
d) One of the most important thing
e) No correction required

28. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
It is also important to check to see if each resident has a pitcher of water in his or her room for reach of the bed.

a) Her room during reach
b) Her room within reach
c) Her room among reach
d) His room across reach
e) No correction required

29. Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
If you want to maintain(A) your lawn, you will need to fresh(B) the grass and water it frequently(C) so it stays nice and mow(D).

a) A-C
b) B-D
c) C-D
d) A-B
e) No change required

30. Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
Even though the alibi(A) could not substantiate(B) his defendant(C) for the night of the murder, he was still found innocent(D) of all charges.

a) D-A
b) C-B
c) B-D
d) A-C
e) No change required

31. Table below shows the number of male and female students studying in three different institutions AMU, MMH, and LPU in two sections A and B.

Institutions	Ratio of male students in section A to that in               section   B	Ratio of female students   in  section A to that in                    section B	Number of students in     section B is how much more  than the number of     students in   section A
AMU	3:4	6:5	10
MMH	1:3	5:4	20
LPU	4:3	2:3	15

Note:
1. Male students in AMU college are 50 more than female students in that college.
2. Female students in colleges MMH and LPU are 30 and 55 respectively more than the number of male students.
Number of males in section B from college AMU is what percentage of the total number of males from section B
from all the colleges.

a) 55.55%
b) 44.44%
c) 34.78%
d) 88.78%
e) 33.33%

32. If average number of male students in section A of colleges AMU, MMH, LPU, and PQR is 45 and average number of female students in section A of these 4 colleges is 40, then find the total number of students in section A to college PQR.

a) 150
b) 140
c) 110
d) 120
e) 130

33. Find the ratio of total number of students in section A to colleges AMU and MMH together to the total number of female students in section B of all the three colleges together.

a) 1: 1
b) 2: 1
c) 3: 2
d) 2: 3
e) 1: 2

34. If ratio of male students to female students in section C of LPU college is 10: 7 and total students in section C in LPU college is equal to the total students in section B of MMH college, then find the total number of male students in all the three sections together of LPU college.

a) 140
b) 120
c) 130
d) 150
e) 160

35. Find the difference between the total number of male students from the colleges AMU and MMH together and the total number of female students the colleges MMH and LPU together.

a) 75
b) 60
c) 65
d) 50
e) 55

36. Out of total male and female students from college MMH, x and (x + 10) are interested in internships respectively. If total students from college MMH who are not interested in internship are 40, find the value of ‘x’.

a) 35
b) 45
c) 50
d) 55
e) 40

37. The ratio of the speed of a boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 5 ∶ 1, if a boat can row a distance of 120 km upstream in 2 hrs more than the time taken to travel the same distance downstream, find the speed of boat in still water?

a) 12 km/hr
b) 18 km/hr
c) 25 km/hr
d) 20 km/hr
e) 21 km/hr

38. A sum of money is invested for ‘2t’ years at R% simple rate of interest and interest amount received is 40% of the sum invested. If same sum is invested at 2 years at 2R% annual rate of compound interest, then interest amount received is 44% of the sum invested. Find the value of ‘t’.

a) 8 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 2 years
e) None of these

39. Two partners Nisha and Arun enter into a partnership with initial investment of Rs. 2000 and Rs. 3000 respectively. After 4 months, Nisha invested Rs. P more such that share of Arun in the annual profit is 9/10 of Nisha’s profit share. Find the value of P.

a) Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 4000
c) Rs. 6000
d) Rs. 1000
e) None of these

40. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
(71.98 + 143.9 × 3.99) ÷ 17.95 + 27.98 = ?

a) 72
b) 64
c) 56
d) 48
e) 32

41. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 39.99% of (124.95 ÷ 25.05 × 3.94 + 15.05) = ?

a) 21
b) 7
c) 24
d) 14
e) 28

42. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 6.97 + 161.92 ÷ 2.99 – 6.99 × 8.99 = ?

a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
d) 161
e) 12

43. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
79.98% of 599.98 + 192.02 ÷ 31.92 = √35.96 × ?

a) 63
b) 56
c) 78
d) 72
e) 81

44. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
11.98 – [25.96 – {1.98 + 4.95 × (6.06 – 2.93)}] = ?

a) 7
b) 3
c) 1
d) -2
e) 5

45. Cost of a fan is 250 more than the cost of a bulb. If bulb is sold at 35% profit and fan is sold at 40% loss, the selling price of bulb and fan becomes equal. Find the cost of bulb.

a) Rs. 600
b) Rs. 300
c) Rs. 200
d) Rs. 500
e) Rs. 400

46. Width of a rectangle is 6 cm and length of rectangle is equal to the side of a square. If side of a square is decreased by 4, then area of square becomes 3 cm2 more than the area of rectangle, then find the area of rectangle.

a) 67
b) 54
c) 78
d) 88
e) 90

47. Train A running with the speed of 36 km/hr crosses a pole in 20 seconds. Another train B whose length is 100 metre more than length of train A is running with the speed of 18 km/hr. Find the time taken by train B to cross a platform of length 500 metre.

a) 200 seconds
b) 150 seconds
c) 160 seconds
d) 140 seconds
e) None of these

48. The given bar – graph shows the total number of health insurance sold to male and females, and the number of vehicle insurance sold to females by three different agents A, B and C.

Note:
1)All the agents each sold health insurance to 50 males
2) Ratio of vehicle insurance sold to female to male by each agent is 5: 4 respectively.
If agent A sold ‘2y’ more health and ‘y’ more vehicle insurance such that total number of vehicle insurance sold by him becomes 27 less than total number of health insurance sold by him. Find the value of ‘y’.

a) 25
b) 45
c) 30
d) 35
e) 40

49. Find the ratio between the health and vehicle insurance sold by A to the number of health and vehicle insurance sold by C.

a) 322: 351
b) 303: 239
c) 301: 334
d) 327: 329
e) None of these

50. If cost per person of health insurance and vehicle insurance policy is ₹1500 and 2000 respectively, then find the difference between total cost of all the health insurance done by B and total cost of all the vehicle insurance done by C?

a) 21000
b) 18000
c) 12000
d) 15000
e) 19000

51. Health insurance sold to females by agent A is what percentage of the total number of health insurance sold to females by all the agents.

a) 43.78%
b) 28.89%
c) 34.78%
d) 38.46%
e) 26.68%

52. If the vehicle insurance sold by B to all the people is 21% of ‘x ‘then the health insurance sold by B to all the people is what percent value of x?

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 20%
e) 25%

53. A and B are two inlet pipes connected to a cistern, can alone fill it in 20 hours and 24 hours respectively. There is third pipe C which can empty 160 litres of water in one hour from the cistern. If all three pipes are opened together cistern gets filled in 40 hours. Find the total capacity of the cistern.

a) 1920 liters
b) 2400 liters
c) 2240 liters
d) 2720 liters
e) 3000 liters

54. A mixture contains Alcohol and water in the ratio 7 : 5. When 5 litres of water and 6 litres of alcohol is added to the mixture, the ratio of alcohol to water in the resultant mixture becomes 34 : 25. Find the initial quantity of the mixture.

a) 189 litres
b) 190 litres
c) 48 litres
d) 58 litres
e) None of these

55. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
63, 80, 99, ?, 143, 168

a) 121
b) 122
c) 124
d) 126
e) 120

56. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
7, 8, 17, 52, ?, 1046

a) 209
b) 316
c) 329
d) 263
e) 291

57. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
16, 160, 281, 381, ?, 526

a) 432
b) 442
c) 462
d) 452
e) 472

58. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
103, 615, 958, 1174, 1299, 1363, ?

a) 1390
b) 1408
c) 1583
d) 1498
e) 2458

59. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
7, 7, 14, ?, 168, 840

a) 39
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42
e) 43

60. Tickets numbered 1 to 50 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 8?

a) 1/7
b) 7/26
c) 3/25
d) 2/5
e) 3/5

61. Set A contains 3 consecutive prime numbers while set B contains 2 consecutive odd numbers. Sum of largest number of set A and set B is 64 while largest number of set A is 4 less than the 3 times of largest number of set B. Find the smallest number of set A.

a) 47
b) 43
c) 53
d) 59
e) 41

62. Subhash spends 40% of his monthly income on household items, 20% of his monthly income on buying clothes, 10% of his monthly income on investing in recurring deposits, and the remaining amount of Rs. 15,000 he saves. What is Subhash’s monthly income?

a) Rs. 25,000

b) Rs. 1,00,000

c) Rs. 50,000

d) Rs. 45,000

e) Rs. 48,000

63, Directions: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
a = -3, b = -1 and c = 6
Quantity I: Find the value of (a³ + b² +c²)/4
Quantity II: Find the value of {a/(a³+ b²)}

a) Quantity I = Quantity II
b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ˂ Quantity II
e) Quantity I ˃ Quantity II

64. Direction: Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the perimeter of a rectangle of length 11 cm and breadth 10 cm.
Quantity A: What is the circumference of the semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square?
Quantity B: What is the circumference of the circle which is inscribed inside the square?

a) Quantity A > Quantity B
b) Quantity A < Quantity B
c) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
d) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
e) Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

65. Directions: Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.
Quantity A – Distance between trains after 3 hours. Train X travels 420 km in 7 hours. Ratio of speeds of train X and Y is 5 : 3. Trains are 100 km apart and are travelling towards each other.
Quantity B – Distance (in km) travelled in 2 hours. Bus can travel 300 m in 12 seconds.

a) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
b) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
c) Quantity A = Quantity B or no relationship can be established
d) Quantity A > Quantity B
e) Quantity A < Quantity B

66. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight row. Some of them are facing the north while others face the south direction. Two people sit between B and A, who sit at one of the extreme ends of the row. B is second to the left of E. E and A are facing the same direction. E is not an immediate neighbor of A. D is sitting second to the right of G. G faces opposite the direction of E. Persons sitting on the extreme ends face opposite directions. C is not sitting on the extreme end and is not the immediate neighbor of F. F is sitting to the right of D but is not an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the south direction. The immediate neighbor of D faces the same direction. Not more than two persons facing north direction sit adjacent to each other.

Who sits second to the left of B?

a) E
b) D
c) G
d) A
e) C

67. Number of persons sitting right to C is one less than the number of persons sitting to the left of __.

a) The one who sits immediate right of D.
b) A
c) G
d) The one who sits immediate left of F.
e) F

68. Who among the following person is standing to the right of the one who stands immediate left of G?

a) The one who stand immediate left of E.
b) A
c) The one who stands immediate right of D.
d) F
e) C

69. What is the position of D from the left end?

a) First
b) Fifth
c) Sixth
d) Second
e) Third

70. How many persons are facing North direction?

a) Two
b) One
c) Five
d) Three
e) Seven

71. Each of the vowels in the word “RANDOM” is replaced by number “2” and each consonant is replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in the word i.e., R by 1, N by 3 and so on.

What is the total of all the numbers once the replacement is completed?

a) 14
b) 15
c) 20
d) 18
e) 19

72. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
M < T ≤ Q A = W ≥ D
Conclusions:
I. W ≥ T
II. P > Q

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Both I and II follow
e) Neither I or II follows

73. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
R C ≥ S S
Conclusions:
I. V > O
II. Q > C

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Neither I or II follows
d) Both follow
e) Either I or II follows

74. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
C

N > S; Z < S ≤ O < G
Conclusions:
I. O > R
II. P > Z

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Neither I or II follows
d) Either I or II follows
e) Both I and II follow

75. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six persons Meena, Ritu, Karan, Priya, Vivek, and Lalit visited different Label ATMs on two different dates either the 5th or 18th in three months viz. January, March, and April of the same year. Each of them uses different types of ATMs viz. Green, Brown, Yellow, Pink, Orange, and White. All the information given is not in the same order. Karan and Priya visited the ATM in the same month. Karan visited the ATM before Ritu. A person visited the white Label ATM on 5th January. Two persons visited in between the persons who visited White and Brown Label ATMs. Lalit and Vivek visited the ATM on the same date. The person visited Pink Label ATM in the month which has 30 days only. Two Persons visited in between Meena and the one who visited the Pink Label ATM. Ritu does not visit Pink Label ATM. Priya and Vivek visited the ATM on different dates. The person visited the Green Label ATM just before the Yellow Label ATM. Meena does not visit Yellow Label ATM. Lalit does not visit Pink Label ATM.
Which of the following colors does ATM Karan like?

a) Orange
b) Pink
c) Brown
d) Yellow
e) White

76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group.

a) Lalit
b) Ritu
c) Priya
d) Meena
e) Karan

78. Which of the following statements is/are false with respect to Vivek?
I. Vivek went to Pink Label ATM.
II. Vivek went to an ATM in April.
III. Vivek went to the ATM on the18th.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) Only III

79. Who among the following pairs are visiting ATM in month of April?

a) Meena, Ritu
b) Vivek, Ritu
c) Lalit, Priya
d) Karan, Meena
e) Vivek, Meena

80. Directions: Study the given information and answer the questions that follow.
Point A is 12 meters to the West of B. B is to the North of C. H is the midpoint of B and C. F is 9 meters to the West of E. E is 13 meters to the North of D. Distance Between C and D is 6 meters. E is in the North East direction of C. Distance between A and H is 13 meters. G is 8 meters South of F. G is in the West direction of H.

What is the distance between B and C?

a) 8 meters
b)10 meters
c) 12 meters
d) 14 meters
e) None of these

81. What Is the Distance between G and H?

a) 7 meters
b) 11 meters
c) 3 meters
d) 5 meters
e) None of these

82. In which direction is C with respect to D?

a) South
b) East
c) West
d) South East
e) None of these

83. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “MACAROONS” which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabetical order (both forward and backward)?

a) Three
b) One
c) More than three
d) Two
e) None of these

84. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Five friends Ajay, Rahul, Soni, Mayank, and Paras are living in a five-storey building. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor above it is 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 5. Each of them has a different bike viz. Hero, Royal Enfield, Jawa, Ola, and Ampere. All the given information is not necessarily in the same order. The person sitting on the third floor has an Ampere bike. One floor is between Soni and the one who has an Ampere bike. Mayank is living either immediately above or below Soni. The one who has Ola lives immediately above the one who has a Royal Enfield bike. One person lives between Ajay and Paras. Rahul does not have a Jawa or Hero bike. Soni does not have a Hero bike. Ajay does not have Ola and Royal Enfield. Paras does not live on the topmost floor.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the final arrangement.

a) Rahul has Royal Enfield.

b) Mayank lives three floors above Soni.

c) Soni lives on the floor above Ajay.

d) Paras has a Hero bike.

e) Ajay lives on the second floor

85. Who among the following person lives immediately above the one who have Ola?

a) The one who have Hero bike.
b) Soni
c) The one who lives immediately below Paras.
d) The one who has Ampere bike.
e) Mayank

86. Who lives on the floor number three?

a) Ajay
b) Mayank
c) Paras
d) Soni
e) Rahul

87. Who among the following has Hero bike?

a) Ajay
b) Paras
c) Rahul
d) Soni
e) Mayank

88. How many people are living between the floor of Paras and Soni?

a) Either two or three
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
e) Either one or two

89. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at a variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow the given statements.
Statements:
I. All dams are wood.
II. Some wood are chairs.
III. No chairs are umbrellas.
Conclusions:
I. Some umbrellas are wood.
II. All wood are dams.

a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
c) Only conclusion II follows
d) Both conclusion I and II follow
e) Either conclusion I or II follows

90. Directions: In the question below are given statements followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Only a few Genes are DNA
Some DNA is RNA
No RNA is Protein
Conclusion:
I. All DNA is Protein is a possibility
II. All Genes being Protein is a possibility
III. All Protein is DNA

a) Only I follow
b) Both I and III follows
c) Either I or III follows
d) Only II follows
e) None follows

91. Directions: In the question below are given statement followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Only a few Fan are bulb
All Bulb are switch
Some switch are tube light
Conclusion:
I: All Fan is switch is a possibility
II: Some switch is fan
III: Some bulb is tube light

a) Either I or II and III follows
b) Both I and II follows
c) Both II and III follows
d) None follows
e) Only II follows

92. If each vowel of the word ‘VOLUME’ is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be a fourth letter from the left end?

a) U
b) V
c) P
d) K
e) L

93. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and J are kept one above the other in a single stack. The bottommost position is numbered one and the topmost is numbered nine. But not necessarily in the same order. Three boxes are placed between C and E. Two boxes are placed between E and J. J and C are not immediate neighbors. E is kept in two boxes above G. E and G are kept in the even-numbered boxes. Box B is placed just above F. The Same number of boxes are between A and H as between E and G. A is placed above H. Box A is not placed adjacent to Box G. At least two boxes are between D and F.
As many boxes are kept above E as below ___.

a) A
b) J
c) D
d) B
e) F

94. Which of the following box is kept exactly in the middle of J and A?

a) G
b) D
c) H
d) C
e) F

95. How many boxes are kept between H and B?

a) As many boxes kept above F.
b) As many boxes kept below B.
c) Two
d) As many boxes kept between D and G.
e) One