Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

1. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
The India Employment Report (IER) 2024 by the Institute for Human Development and International Labour Organization poses questions on the trickle-down effect of benefits to the working class in the backdrop of a 5.4% average real economic growth, from 2015-16 to 2022-23. It also shows a divergent trend between rural and urban areas in terms of employment and income. It demonstrates a relatively higher unemployment rate in urban areas, at 4.8% in 2000 over the 1.5% in rural areas. However, average monthly earnings are higher by 76% for self-employed, 44% for regular employed and 22% for casual labour in urban areas in 2022. The coexistence of higher unemployment and wages requires further investigation to understand its implications for the urban poor. This article looks at the dynamics of employment and wages in pockets of deep urban poverty, such as slums, and juxtaposes these with the findings of the IER 2024.
The higher income in urban areas and a better life have underrated rural-urban migration in the past. As in the IER 2024, although overall migration has increased, the migration of males has declined by 1.2% during 2000-08 and further marginally in 2021. This implies that migration for economic mobility is losing its sheen. An analysis of income and employment trends among slum dwellers in urban India reveals prospects for economic mobility and decent work, as poor rural households often migrate to slums rather than formal settlements. This writer and a team surveyed 37 slums across different parts of Kolkata in 2012. These slums were again surveyed in 2022- 23. However, we could track only 29 slums as the other slums had either been redeveloped or evicted. We surveyed 513 slum households in 2012 and 396 in 2021-22. To get the overall trends from 2012, we collected data on income and employment in slums in 2019, the pre-COVID-19 year, to avoid the COVID-19-affected years of 2019-22, for comparison.
The major occupations in slums in Kolkata have remained the same over the decade, with a fourth of the working population taking on unskilled labour. It is the most stable and significant occupation in slums. The IER 2024 also finds that a fourth of workers in India were engaged in unskilled work during this period. Other major occupations in slums were skilled or semi-skilled labour work, and people as employees in private organisations, and owning petty businesses or small shops. Unlike unskilled labour, the share of employment in skilled and semi-skilled labour was reduced by 6%, and in private organisations by 3% between 2012-19. On the other hand, employment has increased by 9% in petty businesses or small shops. Surprisingly, the share of other self-employed has also declined by 3%. Among occupations that were less popular earlier but which gained momentum in the last 10 years are truck driving and cleaning, by 5%, and construction and related work, by 4%. The number of people employed in construction and related work was minuscule in 2012.

What does the passage reveal about the evolution of major occupations in Kolkata’s slums over the past decade?

a) There has been a significant shift towards skilled and semi-skilled labour occupations.
b) Unskilled labour remains the most stable and predominant occupation in slums.
c) Employment in private organizations has consistently increased over the years.
d) The number of self-employed individuals has declined steadily since 2012.
e) Truck driving and cleaning declined in popularity compared to construction work.

2. What does the passage suggest about the migration patterns in India based on the IER 2024?

a) Female migration is increasing, contributing to urbanization without slum settlement preference.
b) Economic factors are driving increased migration to rural areas instead of urban centres.
c) Migration patterns are stable, with no significant changes observed in rural-urban migration trends.
d) Economic factors are driving increased migration to urban centres instead of rural areas.
e) Male migration for economic reasons is decreasing, leading to increased migration to urban slums

3. Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?
A. Over the decade, the proportion of individuals engaged in skilled and semi-skilled labour decreased by 6%.
B. Higher unemployment rates in urban areas are juxtaposed with significantly higher average monthly earnings.
C. Migration for economic mobility among males declined by 1.2% during 2000-08 and marginally in 2021.

a) Only A
b) Both B and C
c) Only C
d) All A, B, and C
e) None of these

4. What trend does the IER 2024 highlight regarding unemployment rates between rural and urban areas?

a) Urban areas consistently have lower unemployment rates compared to rural areas.
b) Urban areas experience higher unemployment rates compared to rural areas.
c) There is no significant difference in unemployment rates between rural and urban areas.
d) Unemployment rates have been declining steadily in both rural and urban areas.
e) Urban areas witness a surge in unemployment rates while rural areas remain stable.

5. Which of the highlighted words from the passage is grammatically/contextually incorrect?

a) coexistence
b) underrated
c) petty
d) momentum
e) All are correct

6. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the underlined sentence from the passage?

a) Migration to urban slums in India offers potential economic advancement and job opportunities for poor rural households.
b) Stagnation in urban slums’ economy persists, with a significant portion engaged in unskilled labour for over a decade.
c) Choosing formal settlements over urban slums limits economic mobility and work prospects for poor rural households in India.
d) Investigating simultaneous high unemployment and wages is crucial for understanding urban poverty dynamics.
e) Income and employment conditions in urban slums tend to perpetuate rather than alleviate systemic poverty and inequality

7. Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?
A. Skilled and semi-skilled labour saw a 6% increase, unlike unskilled labour.
B. Employment in skilled and semi-skilled labour decreased over the decade.
C. The urban unemployment rate decreased consistently from 2015-16 to 2022-23.
D. The number of surveyed slum households decreased from 513 to 396.
E. Urban areas exhibit higher unemployment rates compared to rural areas.

a) Both B and C are true
b) Only D is false
c) All B, D, and E are true
d) Both B and D are false
e) All A, B, and C are true

10. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) Neither the contestants nor the principal were aware of the fire.

b) Instead criticizing why don’t you help with the presentation?

c) It is requested that a detailed report be sent urgent on the representations and ongoing strike by the employees.

d) Neither Sameera nor Vinod knows anything about the accident.

e) All are correct.

11. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) The developers submitted building plans to the council for the approval.
b) The girl, with several others, was late for school.
c) She was heavily fined last month for coming lately.
d) Each of the ladies have a designer handbag.
e) All are correct.

12. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) I see you have eaten fewer than ten percent of your mashed potatoes
b) A different policeman has been assigned with the case.
c) No sooner had he arrived in Delhi than he was kidnapped.
d) Five kilograms of flour are all that I need for my baking.
e) All are correct.

13. Directions: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given that may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically as well as contextually correct and meaningful. If all the sentences are correct, mark ‘All are correct as your answer’.

a) Several members of the party have resurrected the idea of constitutional change.
b) I clearly empathize with the people who lives in those neighborhoods.
c) When the ship finally reached land, only a few of the crew was left to witness the event.
d) Everyone have their own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
e) All are correct

14. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer. were not protected in the epidemic, and (A)/ the outbreak was originally mistaken for Japanese encephalitis, (B)/ who had been vaccinated against Japanese encephalitis (C)/ but physicians in the area noted that persons (D)/ the number of cases among adults was unusual (E)/

a) DABEC
b) ABCED
c) CBDAE
d) EDABC
e) BDCAE

15. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged
properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer.
Of petroleum-based jet fuel but with a fraction (A)/ of its carbon footprint, giving airlines solid footing (B)/ SAF made from renewable biomass and waste resources (C)/ for decoupling greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from flight (D)/ has the potential to deliver the performance (E)/

a) AEDCB
b) CEABD
c) DCBAE
d) EDCBA
e) BCDEA

16. Directions: In the following questions, there is a statement divided into five parts, when arranged
properly forms a coherent sentence both grammatically and contextually. Choose the best
alternative among the five options given below each statement as your answer.
registered with the Bureau of Patents (A)/ first mass-produced commercially by (B)/ Magdalo V. Francisco Sr. who founded (C)/ in 1942, banana ketchup was (D)/ the brand name Mafran which he (E)/

a) BAEDC
b) EBACD
c) CAEBD
d) DBCEA
e) ADCBE

17. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Rekha’s family hired _______ personnel to _______ her in daily tasks like bathing and preparing meals.

a) assistive, support
b) sabotage, antagonistic
c) undercut, hostile
d) weaken, fierce
e) controvert, scrape

18. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Red Cross workers usually _______ in the _______ of victims of natural disasters by providing medical care to those who are injured.

a) relapse, obstacle
b) regression, constraint
c) aid, recovery
d) loss, hindrance
e) misplace, drawback

19. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. My supervisor won’t _______ my day off because there is no one to _______ my shift.

a) bare, proscribe
b) approve, cover
c) expose, prohibit
d) omit, interdict
e) slur, neglect

20. Directions: The question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
If you want to _______ your lawn, you will need to water it _______ so it stays nice and fresh.

a) rare, ignore
b) seldom, withdraw
c) perpetually, retract
d) maintain, frequently
e) constant, negotiate

21 Directions: Five sentences A, B, C, D, and E are given below, You need to rearrange the sentences so that the five sentences can together form a meaningful paragraph.
A. Educated at the University of Pennsylvania in physics, Musk started getting his feet wet as a serial tech entrepreneur.
B. He is surpassed only by Jeff Bezos as the richest person in the world.
C. He was instrumental in creating the company that became PayPal.
D.Elon Musk is the charismatic co-founder and CEO of electric car maker Tesla and rocket manufacturer SpaceX.
E. His astounding success has given rise to comparisons to other visionary businessmen.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

24. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

25. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

26. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
As a whole, the Malays are, however, remarkably healthy people, and deformity and hereditary diseases is rare between them.

a) Is rare among them
b) Was rare between them
c) Was rare among them
d) Are rare among them
e) No correction required

27. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
The location is one of the most important things to consider when buying a house.

a) Are one of the most important things
b) Is one of the most important thing
c) Are one of the most important thing
d) One of the most important thing
e) No correction required

28. Directions: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically correct. If the sentence is already correct, select ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
It is also important to check to see if each resident has a pitcher of water in his or her room for reach of the bed.

a) Her room during reach
b) Her room within reach
c) Her room among reach
d) His room across reach
e) No correction required

29. Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
If you want to maintain(A) your lawn, you will need to fresh(B) the grass and water it frequently(C) so it stays nice and mow(D).

a) A-C
b) B-D
c) C-D
d) A-B
e) No change required

30. Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.
Even though the alibi(A) could not substantiate(B) his defendant(C) for the night of the murder, he was still found innocent(D) of all charges.

a) D-A
b) C-B
c) B-D
d) A-C
e) No change required

31. Table below shows the number of male and female students studying in three different institutions AMU, MMH, and LPU in two sections A and B.

Institutions	Ratio of male students in section A to that in               section   B	Ratio of female students   in  section A to that in                    section B	Number of students in     section B is how much more  than the number of     students in   section A
AMU	3:4	6:5	10
MMH	1:3	5:4	20
LPU	4:3	2:3	15

Note:
1. Male students in AMU college are 50 more than female students in that college.
2. Female students in colleges MMH and LPU are 30 and 55 respectively more than the number of male students.
Number of males in section B from college AMU is what percentage of the total number of males from section B
from all the colleges.

a) 55.55%
b) 44.44%
c) 34.78%
d) 88.78%
e) 33.33%

32. If average number of male students in section A of colleges AMU, MMH, LPU, and PQR is 45 and average number of female students in section A of these 4 colleges is 40, then find the total number of students in section A to college PQR.

a) 150
b) 140
c) 110
d) 120
e) 130

33. Find the ratio of total number of students in section A to colleges AMU and MMH together to the total number of female students in section B of all the three colleges together.

a) 1: 1
b) 2: 1
c) 3: 2
d) 2: 3
e) 1: 2

34. If ratio of male students to female students in section C of LPU college is 10: 7 and total students in section C in LPU college is equal to the total students in section B of MMH college, then find the total number of male students in all the three sections together of LPU college.

a) 140
b) 120
c) 130
d) 150
e) 160

35. Find the difference between the total number of male students from the colleges AMU and MMH together and the total number of female students the colleges MMH and LPU together.

a) 75
b) 60
c) 65
d) 50
e) 55

36. Out of total male and female students from college MMH, x and (x + 10) are interested in internships respectively. If total students from college MMH who are not interested in internship are 40, find the value of ‘x’.

a) 35
b) 45
c) 50
d) 55
e) 40

37. The ratio of the speed of a boat in still water to the speed of the stream is 5 ∶ 1, if a boat can row a distance of 120 km upstream in 2 hrs more than the time taken to travel the same distance downstream, find the speed of boat in still water?

a) 12 km/hr
b) 18 km/hr
c) 25 km/hr
d) 20 km/hr
e) 21 km/hr

38. A sum of money is invested for ‘2t’ years at R% simple rate of interest and interest amount received is 40% of the sum invested. If same sum is invested at 2 years at 2R% annual rate of compound interest, then interest amount received is 44% of the sum invested. Find the value of ‘t’.

a) 8 years
b) 5 years
c) 6 years
d) 2 years
e) None of these

39. Two partners Nisha and Arun enter into a partnership with initial investment of Rs. 2000 and Rs. 3000 respectively. After 4 months, Nisha invested Rs. P more such that share of Arun in the annual profit is 9/10 of Nisha’s profit share. Find the value of P.

a) Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 4000
c) Rs. 6000
d) Rs. 1000
e) None of these

40. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
(71.98 + 143.9 × 3.99) ÷ 17.95 + 27.98 = ?

a) 72
b) 64
c) 56
d) 48
e) 32

41. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 39.99% of (124.95 ÷ 25.05 × 3.94 + 15.05) = ?

a) 21
b) 7
c) 24
d) 14
e) 28

42. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 6.97 + 161.92 ÷ 2.99 – 6.99 × 8.99 = ?

a) 8
b) 4
c) 2
d) 161
e) 12

43. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
79.98% of 599.98 + 192.02 ÷ 31.92 = √35.96 × ?

a) 63
b) 56
c) 78
d) 72
e) 81

44. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?
11.98 – [25.96 – {1.98 + 4.95 × (6.06 – 2.93)}] = ?

a) 7
b) 3
c) 1
d) -2
e) 5

45. Cost of a fan is 250 more than the cost of a bulb. If bulb is sold at 35% profit and fan is sold at 40% loss, the selling price of bulb and fan becomes equal. Find the cost of bulb.

a) Rs. 600
b) Rs. 300
c) Rs. 200
d) Rs. 500
e) Rs. 400

46. Width of a rectangle is 6 cm and length of rectangle is equal to the side of a square. If side of a square is decreased by 4, then area of square becomes 3 cm2 more than the area of rectangle, then find the area of rectangle.

a) 67
b) 54
c) 78
d) 88
e) 90

47. Train A running with the speed of 36 km/hr crosses a pole in 20 seconds. Another train B whose length is 100 metre more than length of train A is running with the speed of 18 km/hr. Find the time taken by train B to cross a platform of length 500 metre.

a) 200 seconds
b) 150 seconds
c) 160 seconds
d) 140 seconds
e) None of these

48. The given bar – graph shows the total number of health insurance sold to male and females, and the number of vehicle insurance sold to females by three different agents A, B and C.

Note:
1)All the agents each sold health insurance to 50 males
2) Ratio of vehicle insurance sold to female to male by each agent is 5: 4 respectively.
If agent A sold ‘2y’ more health and ‘y’ more vehicle insurance such that total number of vehicle insurance sold by him becomes 27 less than total number of health insurance sold by him. Find the value of ‘y’.

a) 25
b) 45
c) 30
d) 35
e) 40

49. Find the ratio between the health and vehicle insurance sold by A to the number of health and vehicle insurance sold by C.

a) 322: 351
b) 303: 239
c) 301: 334
d) 327: 329
e) None of these

50. If cost per person of health insurance and vehicle insurance policy is ₹1500 and 2000 respectively, then find the difference between total cost of all the health insurance done by B and total cost of all the vehicle insurance done by C?

a) 21000
b) 18000
c) 12000
d) 15000
e) 19000

51. Health insurance sold to females by agent A is what percentage of the total number of health insurance sold to females by all the agents.

a) 43.78%
b) 28.89%
c) 34.78%
d) 38.46%
e) 26.68%

52. If the vehicle insurance sold by B to all the people is 21% of ‘x ‘then the health insurance sold by B to all the people is what percent value of x?

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 30%
d) 20%
e) 25%

53. A and B are two inlet pipes connected to a cistern, can alone fill it in 20 hours and 24 hours respectively. There is third pipe C which can empty 160 litres of water in one hour from the cistern. If all three pipes are opened together cistern gets filled in 40 hours. Find the total capacity of the cistern.

a) 1920 liters
b) 2400 liters
c) 2240 liters
d) 2720 liters
e) 3000 liters

54. A mixture contains Alcohol and water in the ratio 7 : 5. When 5 litres of water and 6 litres of alcohol is added to the mixture, the ratio of alcohol to water in the resultant mixture becomes 34 : 25. Find the initial quantity of the mixture.

a) 189 litres
b) 190 litres
c) 48 litres
d) 58 litres
e) None of these

55. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
63, 80, 99, ?, 143, 168

a) 121
b) 122
c) 124
d) 126
e) 120

56. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
7, 8, 17, 52, ?, 1046

a) 209
b) 316
c) 329
d) 263
e) 291

57. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
16, 160, 281, 381, ?, 526

a) 432
b) 442
c) 462
d) 452
e) 472

58. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
103, 615, 958, 1174, 1299, 1363, ?

a) 1390
b) 1408
c) 1583
d) 1498
e) 2458

59. What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series?
7, 7, 14, ?, 168, 840

a) 39
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42
e) 43

60. Tickets numbered 1 to 50 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn bears a number which is a multiple of 8?

a) 1/7
b) 7/26
c) 3/25
d) 2/5
e) 3/5

61. Set A contains 3 consecutive prime numbers while set B contains 2 consecutive odd numbers. Sum of largest number of set A and set B is 64 while largest number of set A is 4 less than the 3 times of largest number of set B. Find the smallest number of set A.

a) 47
b) 43
c) 53
d) 59
e) 41

62. Subhash spends 40% of his monthly income on household items, 20% of his monthly income on buying clothes, 10% of his monthly income on investing in recurring deposits, and the remaining amount of Rs. 15,000 he saves. What is Subhash’s monthly income?

a) Rs. 25,000

b) Rs. 1,00,000

c) Rs. 50,000

d) Rs. 45,000

e) Rs. 48,000

63, Directions: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
a = -3, b = -1 and c = 6
Quantity I: Find the value of (a³ + b² +c²)/4
Quantity II: Find the value of {a/(a³+ b²)}

a) Quantity I = Quantity II
b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ˂ Quantity II
e) Quantity I ˃ Quantity II

64. Direction: Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given information you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.
The perimeter of a square is equal to twice the perimeter of a rectangle of length 11 cm and breadth 10 cm.
Quantity A: What is the circumference of the semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square?
Quantity B: What is the circumference of the circle which is inscribed inside the square?

a) Quantity A > Quantity B
b) Quantity A < Quantity B
c) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
d) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
e) Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

65. Directions: Two quantities A and B are given in the following questions. You have to find the value to both A and B by using your knowledge of mathematics and choose the most suitable relation between the magnitude of A and B from the given options.
Quantity A – Distance between trains after 3 hours. Train X travels 420 km in 7 hours. Ratio of speeds of train X and Y is 5 : 3. Trains are 100 km apart and are travelling towards each other.
Quantity B – Distance (in km) travelled in 2 hours. Bus can travel 300 m in 12 seconds.

a) Quantity A ≥ Quantity B
b) Quantity A ≤ Quantity B
c) Quantity A = Quantity B or no relationship can be established
d) Quantity A > Quantity B
e) Quantity A < Quantity B

66. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight row. Some of them are facing the north while others face the south direction. Two people sit between B and A, who sit at one of the extreme ends of the row. B is second to the left of E. E and A are facing the same direction. E is not an immediate neighbor of A. D is sitting second to the right of G. G faces opposite the direction of E. Persons sitting on the extreme ends face opposite directions. C is not sitting on the extreme end and is not the immediate neighbor of F. F is sitting to the right of D but is not an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the south direction. The immediate neighbor of D faces the same direction. Not more than two persons facing north direction sit adjacent to each other.

Who sits second to the left of B?

a) E
b) D
c) G
d) A
e) C

67. Number of persons sitting right to C is one less than the number of persons sitting to the left of __.

a) The one who sits immediate right of D.
b) A
c) G
d) The one who sits immediate left of F.
e) F

68. Who among the following person is standing to the right of the one who stands immediate left of G?

a) The one who stand immediate left of E.
b) A
c) The one who stands immediate right of D.
d) F
e) C

69. What is the position of D from the left end?

a) First
b) Fifth
c) Sixth
d) Second
e) Third

70. How many persons are facing North direction?

a) Two
b) One
c) Five
d) Three
e) Seven

71. Each of the vowels in the word “RANDOM” is replaced by number “2” and each consonant is replaced by a number which is the serial number of that consonant in the word i.e., R by 1, N by 3 and so on.

What is the total of all the numbers once the replacement is completed?

a) 14
b) 15
c) 20
d) 18
e) 19

72. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
M < T ≤ Q A = W ≥ D
Conclusions:
I. W ≥ T
II. P > Q

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Both I and II follow
e) Neither I or II follows

73. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
R C ≥ S S
Conclusions:
I. V > O
II. Q > C

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Neither I or II follows
d) Both follow
e) Either I or II follows

74. Direction: In the following question, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.
Statement:
C

N > S; Z < S ≤ O < G
Conclusions:
I. O > R
II. P > Z

a) Only I follows
b) Only Il follows
c) Neither I or II follows
d) Either I or II follows
e) Both I and II follow

75. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six persons Meena, Ritu, Karan, Priya, Vivek, and Lalit visited different Label ATMs on two different dates either the 5th or 18th in three months viz. January, March, and April of the same year. Each of them uses different types of ATMs viz. Green, Brown, Yellow, Pink, Orange, and White. All the information given is not in the same order. Karan and Priya visited the ATM in the same month. Karan visited the ATM before Ritu. A person visited the white Label ATM on 5th January. Two persons visited in between the persons who visited White and Brown Label ATMs. Lalit and Vivek visited the ATM on the same date. The person visited Pink Label ATM in the month which has 30 days only. Two Persons visited in between Meena and the one who visited the Pink Label ATM. Ritu does not visit Pink Label ATM. Priya and Vivek visited the ATM on different dates. The person visited the Green Label ATM just before the Yellow Label ATM. Meena does not visit Yellow Label ATM. Lalit does not visit Pink Label ATM.
Which of the following colors does ATM Karan like?

a) Orange
b) Pink
c) Brown
d) Yellow
e) White

76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group.

a) Lalit
b) Ritu
c) Priya
d) Meena
e) Karan

78. Which of the following statements is/are false with respect to Vivek?
I. Vivek went to Pink Label ATM.
II. Vivek went to an ATM in April.
III. Vivek went to the ATM on the18th.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) Only III

79. Who among the following pairs are visiting ATM in month of April?

a) Meena, Ritu
b) Vivek, Ritu
c) Lalit, Priya
d) Karan, Meena
e) Vivek, Meena

80. Directions: Study the given information and answer the questions that follow.
Point A is 12 meters to the West of B. B is to the North of C. H is the midpoint of B and C. F is 9 meters to the West of E. E is 13 meters to the North of D. Distance Between C and D is 6 meters. E is in the North East direction of C. Distance between A and H is 13 meters. G is 8 meters South of F. G is in the West direction of H.

What is the distance between B and C?

a) 8 meters
b)10 meters
c) 12 meters
d) 14 meters
e) None of these

81. What Is the Distance between G and H?

a) 7 meters
b) 11 meters
c) 3 meters
d) 5 meters
e) None of these

82. In which direction is C with respect to D?

a) South
b) East
c) West
d) South East
e) None of these

83. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “MACAROONS” which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabetical order (both forward and backward)?

a) Three
b) One
c) More than three
d) Two
e) None of these

84. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Five friends Ajay, Rahul, Soni, Mayank, and Paras are living in a five-storey building. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor above it is 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 5. Each of them has a different bike viz. Hero, Royal Enfield, Jawa, Ola, and Ampere. All the given information is not necessarily in the same order. The person sitting on the third floor has an Ampere bike. One floor is between Soni and the one who has an Ampere bike. Mayank is living either immediately above or below Soni. The one who has Ola lives immediately above the one who has a Royal Enfield bike. One person lives between Ajay and Paras. Rahul does not have a Jawa or Hero bike. Soni does not have a Hero bike. Ajay does not have Ola and Royal Enfield. Paras does not live on the topmost floor.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the final arrangement.

a) Rahul has Royal Enfield.

b) Mayank lives three floors above Soni.

c) Soni lives on the floor above Ajay.

d) Paras has a Hero bike.

e) Ajay lives on the second floor

85. Who among the following person lives immediately above the one who have Ola?

a) The one who have Hero bike.
b) Soni
c) The one who lives immediately below Paras.
d) The one who has Ampere bike.
e) Mayank

86. Who lives on the floor number three?

a) Ajay
b) Mayank
c) Paras
d) Soni
e) Rahul

87. Who among the following has Hero bike?

a) Ajay
b) Paras
c) Rahul
d) Soni
e) Mayank

88. How many people are living between the floor of Paras and Soni?

a) Either two or three
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
e) Either one or two

89. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions based on those statements. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at a variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow the given statements.
Statements:
I. All dams are wood.
II. Some wood are chairs.
III. No chairs are umbrellas.
Conclusions:
I. Some umbrellas are wood.
II. All wood are dams.

a) Only conclusion I follows
b) Neither conclusion I nor II follow
c) Only conclusion II follows
d) Both conclusion I and II follow
e) Either conclusion I or II follows

90. Directions: In the question below are given statements followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Only a few Genes are DNA
Some DNA is RNA
No RNA is Protein
Conclusion:
I. All DNA is Protein is a possibility
II. All Genes being Protein is a possibility
III. All Protein is DNA

a) Only I follow
b) Both I and III follows
c) Either I or III follows
d) Only II follows
e) None follows

91. Directions: In the question below are given statement followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Only a few Fan are bulb
All Bulb are switch
Some switch are tube light
Conclusion:
I: All Fan is switch is a possibility
II: Some switch is fan
III: Some bulb is tube light

a) Either I or II and III follows
b) Both I and II follows
c) Both II and III follows
d) None follows
e) Only II follows

92. If each vowel of the word ‘VOLUME’ is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be a fourth letter from the left end?

a) U
b) V
c) P
d) K
e) L

93. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and J are kept one above the other in a single stack. The bottommost position is numbered one and the topmost is numbered nine. But not necessarily in the same order. Three boxes are placed between C and E. Two boxes are placed between E and J. J and C are not immediate neighbors. E is kept in two boxes above G. E and G are kept in the even-numbered boxes. Box B is placed just above F. The Same number of boxes are between A and H as between E and G. A is placed above H. Box A is not placed adjacent to Box G. At least two boxes are between D and F.
As many boxes are kept above E as below ___.

a) A
b) J
c) D
d) B
e) F

94. Which of the following box is kept exactly in the middle of J and A?

a) G
b) D
c) H
d) C
e) F

95. How many boxes are kept between H and B?

a) As many boxes kept above F.
b) As many boxes kept below B.
c) Two
d) As many boxes kept between D and G.
e) One

96. If all the boxes are kept in the alphabetical order from bottom to top, then how many boxes remains unchanged in its position?

a) Two
b) Four
c) Three
d) Five
e) One

 97. Which of the following box is kept second from the top of the stack?

a) The box which is kept two boxes above J.
b) The box which is kept immediately below D.
c) Box E
d) Box A
e) The box which is kept immediately above H.

98. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six people Mehak, Renu, Atul, Parul, Kiku, and Lata are standing in the bank line one after the other to deposit cash in their respective accounts but not necessarily in the same order. The line is set so that the person standing first will deposit the maximum amount and the person in the last will deposit the least amount. At least two people are standing ahead of Renu. Renu is not the last person in the line. Mehak is standing just before Parul. As many persons are ahead of Kiku as after Renu. Mehak is not standing first in the line. Lata is standing ahead of Atul, who has Rs. 3000 to deposit in the bank. Parul wants to deposit Rs. 5000 in her bank account.

Which of the following statement is true with respect to the final arrangement?

a) Kiku is first in the line.
b) Three persons are standing between Mehak and Lata
c) Parul is the last one in the line.
d) Only two persons are standing before Renu.
e) Only one person is standing after Renu.

99. What is the position of Parul with respect to the first position?

a) Third
b) Fourth
c) Second
d) Fifth
d) Sixth

100. What could be the amount Renu deposit in bank?

a) 2000
b) 4222
c) 5500
d) 2996
e) 5100

1. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A certain number of persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing north and some of them are facing south. Each of them is from a different cities. The person from Prague sits third to the right of Q who is facing south. Six persons sit between H and the person who is from Prague. H and the person from Prague are facing opposite directions. M sits second to the left of H. The person from Alexandria sits second to the right of M and facing the opposite direction to M. M sits sixth to the left of the one from Istanbul. T is an immediate neighbor of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who is from Alexandria and D. The one who is from Istanbul sits third to the right of the one who is from Prague. The one who sits fourth to the left of W sits at one of the extreme ends. The number of people sitting to the right of W is thrice the number of people sitting to the left of W. Immediate neighbors of T are facing the same direction but opposite to T. The one who sits fourth to the left of D sits second to the left of the one who is seventh from one end. The number of persons sitting between D and the one from Damascus is thrice the number of people sitting between W and the one from Damascus. Q is sitting at an extreme end. W and the one from Damascus are facing opposite directions to D.

The same number of persons are sitting to the left of W as to the right of ___.

a) the one who is sitting second to the right of H.

b) the one who belong to Prague

c) the one who belong to Istanbul.

d) The one who is sitting second to the left of H

e) the one who belongs to Damascus.

2. Who is sitting fourth to the right of the person who is sitting second to the right of M?

a) the one who belong to Alexandria
b) the one who is sitting immediately right of the one who belong to Prague.
c) the person who is sitting exactly in the middle of H and D.
d) the person who is second to the right of the person who belongs to Istanbul.
e) the one who is sitting second to the left of D.

3. Which of the following pair is sitting second to the right of each other?

a) T and the one who is from Prague
b) Q and the one who is from Alexandria
c) The one who is from Istanbul and W
d) H and D
e) The one who is from Prague and Damascus

4. How many persons are sitting between D and Q?

a) One
b) Seven
c) Five
d) Ten
e) Eight

5. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows. Four persons are sitting in each row. P, Q, R, and S are sitting in row 1 and they are facing south. A, B, C, and D are sitting in row 2 and they are facing north. All the persons are equidistant and facing each other in the opposite row.
Statement I: A is sitting second from one end of the row. Q is not sitting adjacent to R. B is not sitting adjacent to A. The one who is facing A sits immediately right of P. One person sits between P and R.
Statement II: Q is sitting at one of the extreme ends. S is sitting second to the right of the one facing B. S is not sitting at any extreme end.
Statement III: C and D are not sitting adjacent to each other. S and P are sitting adjacent to each other. P is not facing A. A is sitting second from one of the ends. One person sits between the one who is facing C and R. C is not sitting to the left of D.

Who is sitting immediately left of the person who is facing Q?

a) The data in Statement III is alone is sufficient to answer the question
b) The data in both the Statements I and III together is sufficient to answer the question
c) The data in both Statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.
d) The data in both Statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question
e) The data in Statement II is alone is sufficient to answer the question

6. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F were born in six different months January, March, April, May, June, and July.
Statement I: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before E was the same as persons born after D. B was born in a month of 30 days. A was born one month before F.
Statement II: Two persons were born between B and E. As many persons were born before C was the same as persons born after F. D was immediately born before C. C was born before F. C was born in March.
Statement III: F was born after May. Three persons are born between F and D. One person was born between B and D. C was born before F.

Who was born in March?

a) The data given in Statement III is sufficient to answer the question.
b) The data given in Statement I alone and Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
c) The data given in both statement I and II is not sufficient to answer the question.
d) The data given in Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
e) The data given in both Statement I and Statement III is not sufficient to answer the question

7. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight persons B, D, M, N, P, R, S, and Y are related to each other born in 1952, 1956, 1962, 1981, 1984, 1987, 2014, and 2017 not necessarily in the same order. Age is calculated from 2023. M’s spouse has a niece who is N. The difference between N and N’s mother’s age is a multiple of 10. The difference between B and B’s mother-in-law’s age is a multiple of five. M’s uncle’s age was prime but he was not the eldest. The difference between D and D’s son is a prime number less than twenty. The difference between B and B’s spouse’s age is double the difference between the M and S age. B has a sibling only. M has a son. M’s uncle is not D but M’s uncle’s age is a prime number. S is not married to B. M has a father. There is an equal number of males and females. D has no siblings. P is the grandmother of M’s only son. P is the grandmother of Y. M’s father has no sibling of his own and M’s mother has no sister.

Which of the following age is a perfect square?

a) the one who is born immediately after M.
b) Y
c) the one who is born immediately after P
d) R
e) the one who is born immediately after S.

11. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, M, N, O, and P are sitting on a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Five of them are facing the center and the rest are facing away from the center. Consecutive Alphabetical persons are not sitting next to each other. O sits second to the right of B. C sits third to the right of O. Three persons sit between C and D. D sits second to the left of A. M is facing away from the center. P sits immediately right of N. P and A are facing opposite directions to each other. Immediate neighbors of P are facing the same direction. The one who sits second to the left of P is facing away from the center.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. A is sitting second to the right of D.

II. N and P are immediate neighbors.

III. Two persons are sitting between B and C when counted to the right of B.

a) Both I and II

b) Both II and III

c) Only II

d) Both I and III

e) Only III

12. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are ten trains P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y which are at the base station. Four platforms P1, P2, P3, and P4 where the first train can reach at 5 AM, 6 AM, 7 AM, and 8 AM respectively. Platform P1 is the nearest Platform and Platform P4 is the farthest. There must be a gap of one hour between the two trains reaching a particular station. The speed of the trains is considered to be the same. At most three trains can have a platform as its destination.
Train R and S started from the base station and reached the nearest platform in a gap of 1 hour. R started its journey earlier than S. R reached the destination at 6 AM. Train P stopped its journey at a platform which is two more than Train S. Train X reached the last platform. Train W’s destination is not the same as the destination of R, T and Y. Destinations of U and V are the same. The destination of U and V is not the same as the destination of S and X. Train Q’s destination is the same as the destination of Y. There is only one more train at the platform where Train X reached its destination. Train T’s final destination is not P1 and P4. Train Q’s destination is ahead of Train T’s destination.

Which of the following platforms have more than two trains?

a) P1 and P4
b) P2 and P3
c) P1 and P2
d) P3 and P4
e) P2 and P4

13. Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. Train Q’s destination is P4.
II. Train T and Train U’s destinations are the same.
III. Train S’s destination is ahead of Train U’s destination

a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III
c) All I, II and III
d) Only II
e) Only I and III

14. Which of the following trains have destination as P3?

a) Train P, Train Q, Train Y.
b) Train U and Train R
c) Train P, Train W
d) Train X and Train S
e) Train W and Train U

15. At what time Train S reached the platform P1?

a) 9AM
b) 8AM
c) 7AM
d) 10 AM
e) 12 AM

16. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A certain number of boxes are kept in two stacks (Stack 1 and Stack 2) one above the other such that Stack 1 is in west of Stack 2. The bottommost box is numbered as 1 and the box just above it is numbered as 2 and so on. Both stacks have different numbers of boxes. The sum of the total number of boxes kept in both stacks is Thirteen. At most eight boxes are kept in each stack. Out of these thirteen boxes, six boxes are of different Colours (Red, Pink, Blue, Cyan, Aqua, and Lime). The remaining boxes are White.
Note: If it is given that a box is kept one/two/three boxes above/below another box then both the boxes are kept in the same stack unless stated otherwise. If it is given that a box is kept adjacent to another box, then the position (box number) of both boxes must be the same unless stated otherwise. Each of the stacks has a box (no stack is vacant).
P is not kept in Stack 2. K is kept three boxes above J which is kept in the same stack as G. F which is a White box is kept adjacent to G which is an even-numbered box. E and G are kept in different stacks. T which is the pink box is kept adjacent to K which is a White box. Blue box is kept two boxes above the Lime box which is kept in the same stack as the T. Cyan box and Lime box are not kept in the same stack. M is kept two boxes above L but not in the same stack. P is kept in one box below N but not in the same stack. H which is a White box is kept adjacent to the blue box. The Aqua box is kept one box above the cyan box but not in the same stack. C is kept three boxes above D which is an even prime numbered box. E which is a red color box kept two boxes above C. G is not the topmost box.
Which of the following statements is false?
I. Box L is in Stack 2.
II. Box D is of Lime color.
III. Box F and Box G are adjacent to each other.

a) Only I
b) Both I and II
c) Both II and III
d) Only II
e) Only II

17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

a) Box H
b) Box L
c) Box J
d) Box G
e) Box K

18. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight employees of a company need to be divided into four groups. Four groups A, B, C, and D need to be formed based on the employee’s Experience, Salary, Qualification, and Interest. Each group has two members only.
Condition 1: Meena is not in groups A and D. The one with B.Sc Chemistry and Harsh do not work in the same group.
Condition 2: Group D has a member with three years of experience. Group A has a member who knows Design.
Condition 3: Group B Members’ cumulative salary is Rs.1,05,000. Group A has at least one member with four years of experience.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Meena and Anju belong to the same group.
II. Group A has members with an interest in Design and Python
III. Group C has members who have experience of two years.

a) Only II
b) Only I
c) Only III
d) Only II and III
e) Only I and III

19.What are the topic of Interest of the members who belong to Group C?

a) Design and Science
b) English and Chemistry
c) C++ and English
d) Mathematics and Python
e) Python and Java

20. If the member of Group A with one year of experience is interchanged with the member of B having five years of experience then the members of Group B are?

a) Tia and Piyush
b) Meena and Harsh
c) Anju and Nitin
d) Geeta and Tia
e) Nitin and Geeta

21.What is the difference in the monthly salary of members of Group D?

a) 25000
b) 15000
c) 20000
d) 30000
e) 10000

22. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Ten people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J sit at two rectangular tables X and Y. Three of them like horror novels, three like thriller novels and the remaining like romance novels. Four people sit at table X and the remaining sit at table Y. The person sitting in the middle faces outside the center and the person sitting in the corner faces inside the center. People sitting at Table X sit in the middle of the table and at Table Y four persons sit in the middle and four sit in the corner. Two seats are vacant in Table Y. D sits at table X. J does not sit at table Y. G sits immediately left of J and neither of them like thrillers. The one who likes romance does not sit in the middle of table Y. D likes romance and sits opposite G. E likes romance and sits at table Y. Both the immediate neighbors of E like thrillers. A sits immediately left of the one who likes thrillers. F sits third to the right of A. C sits at table X. B does not like thrillers and romance. Two persons sit between D and the one who likes thrillers. I sit 2nd to the right of a vacant seat. Both the vacant seats are not adjacent to each other. One of the persons who likes horror sits the immediate right of the one who likes romance.
After the arrangement:
I. J and H change their novels.
II. F and G change their novels.
III. D changes his novel with the one who sits immediately left of A.
IV. B and E change their place but not the novels.
Note: The final arrangement is obtained after the I, II, III, and IV changes are done.
Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. G likes Horror novels.
II. E, F, and J are sitting on the table Y.
III. A and I are immediate neighbors.

a) Only II
b) Only I
c) Only III
d) Only I and III
e) Only II and III

23.The person who is sitting third to the right of person who is sitting immediately right of F likes ____ novels.

a) Thriller
b) Either Horror or Romance
c) Horror
d) Romance
e) Either Thriller or Horror

24.Who are the immediate neighbors of J?

a) E and H
b) G and D
c) A and B
d) C and F
e) A and F

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which among the following one does not belong to the group?

a) E
b) F
c) H
d) I
e) A

26. Which of the following group of people have horror novel only?

a) G, D, F
b) H, I, J
c) A, B, E
d) J, E, F
e) G, H, B

27. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Twelve persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V live in a five-storeyed building such that the ground floor is numbered 1, above it is floor 2 then the top floor is numbered 5. Each of the floors has four flats in it Flat A, Flat B, Flat C, and Flat D. Floor 2 of Flat A is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat A and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat A and so on. In the same way, Floor 2 of Flat B is immediately above Floor 1 of Flat B and immediately below Floor 3 of Flat B. Flat A is in the west of Flat B, Flat B is in the west of Flat C, and Flat C is to the west of Flat D. Eight flats are vacant.
Note: Minimum two and not more than three people live on a floor.
M lives in flat B on an even number floor. There is a gap of two floors between R and M. No one lives to the west of R. There are two flats between the flats of L and P on the same floor. L lives to the west of P. O lives immediately above the flat of P. One person lives between R and K on the same floor. One vacant flat is just above and one is just below the flat of T. S lives to the west of N but not to the adjacent of N. N lives on an even floor and lives immediately above U’s flat. L does not live on the same floor as M and T. Q is sitting just in between two vacant flats on the same floor. N and T do not live on the same floor. T does not live in flat B. T lives on the adjacent floor of K.
Four among the five of the following are same in a manner. Which of the following is odd one out?

a) O
b) M
c) K
d) P
e) U

28. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. R lives on the floor 4.
II. L lives on the flat A and Floor 3.
III. K and V lives on the same flat.

a) Only I
b) Only III
c) Both I and III
d) Both I and II
e) Only II

29. Who else is living in the same floor as M?

a) S and P
b) K and O
c) S and N
d) M and Q
e) T and K

30. How many persons are living in the Flat D?

a) Two
b) Three
c) One
d) Five
e) Four

31. In which of the floor and Flat Q live?

a) Floor 1 and Flat B
b) Floor 3 and Flat C
c) Floor 5 and Flat A
d) Floor 2 and Flat D
e) Floor 4 and Flat A

32. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
The popularity of physical newspapers is decreasing nowadays because people prefer digital newspapers more.
So, there is a demand to ban physical newspapers.
I. People nowadays prefer to download e-newspaper and magazines as they are handy and can be easily available anytime.
II. Even today, a few people prefer physical newspapers because they are not tech-friendly and cannot operate the internet.
III. Some Newspaper agencies have also started their online e-magazines and e-newspaper at affordable prices and monthly subscriptions.
IV. Some printing presses are unable to continue their printing press due to the loss incurred by them.
V. Digital newspapers contain unlimited content with various new features for their readers.

Which of the following will weaken the above statement?

a) Only II
b) Only III
c) Only I
d) Only IV
e) Only V

33. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
Sportec, a sports manufacturing company, provides jerseys and sponsorship of other equipment to the National Football Team of Country X. They renew their contracts every two years and this year the contract will be ending in two months. Xpact another sports manufacturing company from country X, is hopeful for seeking a contract when Sportec’s contract ends.
I. Six months ago, there was a change in the upper management body of the governing country X’s football institution, and they might be interested in changing the terms and conditions of the contract with Sportec.
II. This year, there have been reports that Sportec encountered huge losses and they have been struggling in the sports market of country X.
III. Sportec, which belongs to country X has conflicted with the two neighboring countries of country Z.
IV Xpact is providing many new features to the National Team that are not being provided by Sportec.
V. Xpact is the only company other than Sportec that manufactures jerseys and other equipment related to football.

Which among the following, If true will allow the team to not renew their contract with the company Sportec and help Xpact to get the contract?

a) Only IV
b) Only IV and II
c) Only II and III
d) Only I
e) Only V

34. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by four statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
A company called Abeba is a multinational IT company, that has branches in fifteen countries around the world and has its headquarters in country H, where it has twenty branches. Therefore, the company hires freshers from engineering colleges and universities throughout the country. Recently the company has let go of many of the freshers of the company and also many have left the company due to the work not being done properly which is making the company’s performance weak in the market.
I. There has to be a mandatory two years experience required from other software companies so that they will be eligible to join the company.
II. The company can take in freshers but there has to be strictness required to be held for the freshers so that only the best can be recruited.
III. There is no need to take in any freshers from country H.
IV. The freshers should be paid less as they are completely new as compared to the ones who are already in this industry.

What could be the course of action?

a) Only II
b) Only III and II
c) Only I , II and III
d) Only IV
e) Only III

35. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There is a matrix that contains four rows (I, II, III, and IV) from top to bottom and four columns (I, II, III, and IV) from left to right. Word will be formed when we go left to right in a row and top to bottom in the column.
Conditions:
1. No letters are repeated more than twice.
2. If a column/row has one letter then the entire column/row should not have that letter. For example: If row I and column I has x letters then that letter should not repeat in entire row I or column I.
3. Alphabets are coded as A1, B2, C3, D4, E5, F1, G2, H3, …Z1
4. Place values of column and row are added to get the cell value of a particular row or column.
5. A Meaningful letter has to be formed in each column.
Column I: I, II, and IV positions contain V, A, and T respectively.
Column II: III and IV positions contain H and O respectively.
Column III: II position contains R.
Column IV: I, III, and IV positions contain N, T, and S respectively.

What is the sum of the place values of (I, IV) and ( III, I)?

a) Six
b) Eight
c) Nine
d) Two
e) Five

36. What is the alphabet at (Row III, Column III)?

a) I
b) U
c) O
d) Y
e) T

37. What is the sum of positional value of the letter in (III, III) and that in (I, III), where the brackets represent(row, column)?

a) 9
b) 6
c) 11
d) 8
e) 10

38. What is the difference between the value of column I and of row II?

a) Eight
b) Two
c) Six
d) Zero
e) Five

39. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
There is a much-anticipated planning of three parks across three major locations in the city mainly focused on younger children’s physical and mental development, bearing the slogan ‘Learn and Play’ through games and exercise. There will also be a nominal fee charged for every adult who makes entry into the park.
I. The children will be mostly accompanied by their guardians in the parks.
II. Two out of three localities are situated near high schools and one of these locations is situated near a college, where students will frequently enter the park.
III. Eight out of ten rides in these parks are made for adults and not for children’s use.
IV. The parks are divided into three sections, each section will be charged accordingly.
V. Few activities in the park are near the electricity station which supplies electricity to the park, therefore the park has to be opened at 6 AM for the children.

Which of the following if true will most weaken the planning committee’s plan of building these children’s parks?

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

40. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
University X allows admissions for both men and women. They are allowed to fill out the detailed application form. A recent report given by some agencies has revealed that the admission process at University X is gender biased.
I. The technical course offers more seats for men than women.
II. The technical skills required vary from course to course in the university.
III. Last year more seats were allotted to women as compared to men.
IV. Many courses offered in the university allow only men to enroll in it.
V. There is no female faculty for the ongoing courses at the university.

Which of the following statements strengthens the report?

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

41. Directions: In the question given below, a passage is given followed by five statements. Read the information and answer the question that follows.
To encourage Higher education from Government Institutions, the Government is setting up all the Public Sector Institutions with the basic as well as advanced amenities at par with the Private Institutions.
Which of the following most weakens the decision of the Government?
I. Many people are interested in joining the Private Institutions due to a lack of trust in Public Institutions.
II. Private Institutions are better equipped than Public Institutions.
III. Public Institutions have a limited number of faculties as compared to the vast number of faculties in Private Institutions.
IV. Private institutions provide guaranteed jobs to the students after the course ends.
V. Private Institutions are run by a franchise and if they incur any sort of loss, they can be shut down anytime.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Only III
d) Only IV
e) Only V

42. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
When a word and a number rearrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 7289 CLAY 2854 POUR 5941 ABLE 6217 FLIP 9723 ONUS
Step I: 49398 ABLE 4963 ONUS 251050 CLAY 36326 FLIP 81832 POUR
Step II: 48399 BAKF 4639 PMVR 2155 BKBX 26633 EKJO 28813 OPVQ
Step III: 1221 BKF 1012 PMVR 211 KX 146 KJ 184 PVQ
Step IV: 429 BFK 134 MPRV 119 KX 22 JK 2 PQV
Step V: 432 130 117 20 5
Step V is the last step for the above input. Find out the appropriate steps for the following input.
Input: 8345 UNIT 4972 DROP 3186 EVEN 5294 SOUP 1376 PLAY

Which is the right most word set in Step IV?

a) NMY
b) POU
c) MYT
d) TYN
e) PRV

43. What is the difference between the greatest and second smallest digit in Step V?

a) 324
b) 503
c) 342
d) 203
e) 213

44. What is the difference between third largest number obtained in Step III and the fourth smallest number obtained in the same step?

a) 32
b) 65
c) 27
d) 47
e) 94

45. In Step II, What number is immediately left of ‘FUFM’?

a) 44465
b) 46383
c) 33567
d) 22657
e) 45273

46. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) has launched a Psyche Aircraft for the Psyche Mission for the exploration of a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the sun between _______ and _______.

a) Earth; Mars
b) Mars; Jupiter
c) Mercury; Venus
d) Jupiter; Saturn
e) Venus; Earth

47. Which of the following person to head panel formed on ‘One Nation, One Election’?

a) Ram Nath Kovind
b) Ranjan Gogoi
c) Pratibha Devisingh Patil
d) Yashwant Sinha
e) Amit Shah

48. What is India’s 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site?

a) Sanchi Stupa
b) Vishwanath Temple
c) Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas
d) Victoria Memorial
e) Gateway of India

49. In October 2023, IMF raises India’s 2023 GDP growth forecast to?

a) 6.3%
b) 6.1%
c) 6.5%
d) 6.7%
e) None of the above

50. India’s 1st state-of-the-art 3D-Printed post office opens In ___________

a) Mumbai
b) Jaipur
c) Lucknow
d) Bengaluru
e) Patna

51. Which of the following has recently launched a new consumer-facing application ‘Pincode ‘which will be integrated into India’s Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) framework?

a) PhonePe
b) Razorpay
c) Paytm
d) Cashfree Payments
e) Mobikwik

52. The RBI asked banks to maintain an Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (ICRR) of what percent on the increase in their deposits between May 19 and July 28, 2023?

a) 6%
b) 13.5%
c) 10%
d) 12%
e) 15%

53. What does “O” stand for in GLOF?

a) Output
b) Offer
c) Ordinance
d) Outburst
e) Open

54. What is the amount of viability gap funding approved by the Cabinet for the development of Battery Energy Storage System?

a) Rs 3,760 crores.
b) Rs 3,670 crores.
c) Rs 3,780 crores.
d) Rs 3,790 crores.
e) None of these

55. Which of the following person received the Spinoza Prize 2023 in the field of climate change?

a) Ignas Snellen
b) Prof. Dr Joyeeta Gupta
c) Toby Kiers
d) Only (2) and (3)
e) All of the above

56. SBI Funds Management Limited received the RBI’s approval to acquire up to a 9.99% paid-up share capital in which bank?

a) Indian Bank
b) IndusInd Bank
c) Yes Bank
d) HDFC Bank
e) ICICI Bank

57. ________ recently launched Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes.

a) SBI
b) Yes Bank
c) Bank of Baroda
d) Axis Bank
e) HDFC

58. Who was Valery Polyakov, who passed away in September 2022?

a) Russian Scientist
b) Russian Cosmonaut
c) Russian Actor
d) Russian Former President
e) Russian Chess Grandmaster

59. Name the non-profit organisation that has recently signed a new cooperation agreement with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) & Olympic Museum to promote the Olympic Values Education Programme (OVEP) in India.

a) Infosys Foundation
b) Reliance Foundation
c) Akshaya Patra Foundation
d) Paani Foundation
e) Smile Foundation

60. Who has expanded its partnership with Standard Bank Group (SBG) to centralize its custody and securities settlement operations in over 15 markets?

a) Tata Consultancy Services
b) Infosys
c) IBM
d) Wipro
e) None of the above

61. What is India’s rank in Crude Oil Refining?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

62 Who has introduced Card Verification Code (CVC)-free online transactions for customers who have tokenized their debit and credit cards on merchant platforms?

a) Visa
b) Mastercard
c) RuPay
d) American Express
e) 1, 2 and 3

63. Which of the following country restarted ferry services connecting Nagapattinam from India to Kankesanthurai after 40 years?

a) Thailand
b) Bangladesh
c) Maldives
d) Sri Lanka
e) Pakistan

64. Which of the following is NOT the sport added in the Los Angeles Olympics 2028?

a) Baseball
b) Cricket
c) Lacrosse
d) Billiards
e) Squash

65. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently came out with new guidelines to enhance safety in transportation of dangerous, hazardous goods posing threat to public safety, properties and environment. BIS works under the aegis of which of the following ministries?

a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
e) Ministry of Science and Technology

66. Nobel Prizes are distributed annually at

a) Geneva
b) New York
c) Manila
d) Stockholm
e) Oslo

67. Which bank has recently partnered with Social Worth Technologies Private Limited (Fibe) to launch India’s first-ever numberless credit card?

a) Axis Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) HDFC Bank
d) Indusind Bank
e) YES Bank

68. Consider the following regarding the Global Biofuels Alliance:
1. This Alliance will be aimed at facilitating cooperation and intensifying the use of sustainable biofuels, including in the transportation sector.
2. It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide.
3. The GBA has been in the works for some time now and is a key initiative and priority under India’s G20 presidency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct here?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
e) All of the above

69. Who has signed a MoU with Tata Power Solar Systems Limited to provide financing for Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) to set up solar rooftops?

a) State Bank of India
b) ICICI Bank
c) Axis Bank
d) Small Industries Development Bank of India
e) HDFC Bank

70. Which of the following method securities are not issued directly to the public but through stock brokers, who in turn, resell them to the investing public in the primary market?

a) Offer through Prospectus
b) Offer for sale
c) Private placement
d) Rights Issue
d) e-IPOs

71. Which company has recently acquired India’s first Airbus A350-900 aircraft through a finance lease transaction with HSBC via the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City ?

a) Air India
b) IndiGo
c) Go First
d) Vistara
e) None of these

72. Who has been appointed as the 11th fund manager authorised to manage retirement savings within the National Pension System by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)?

a) LIC Pension Fund Managers
b) DSP Pension Fund Managers
c) Kotak Pension Fund Managers
d) HDFC Pension Fund Managers
e) SBI Pension Fund Managers

73. ‘Longpi Hampai pottery’, is indigenously related to which of the following?

a) Mizoram
b) Meghalaya
c) Manipur
d) Assam
e) Nagaland

74. The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that enable the measurement of the deepening and penetration of digital payments in the country over different time periods. Which of the parameters is not included in DPI??

a) Payment Enablers
b) Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors
c) Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors
d) Payment Performance
e) Retailer Centricity

75. Which ministry launched Enhanced Access and Service Excellence-EASE 5.0 for state-run lenders?

a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
b) Ministry of Law and Justice
c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
d) Ministry of Mines
e)  Ministry of Finance

76. On the occasion of the 2nd edition of NPS Diwas observed on October 1, 2023, which pension management company has launched a first-of-its-kind ‘National Pension System (NPS) Preference Index’?

a) HDFC Pension Management
b) SBI Pension Fund Management
c) Aditya Birla Sun Life Pension Management
d) ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management
e) Kotak Mahindra Pension Fund Management

77. Which company that has been recently named as the official sponsor of the Indian Contingent for the 19th Asian Games 2022?

a) OPPO
b) MRF
c) Paytm
d) PUMA
e) Amul

78. Which of the following commissions set-up by the President of India decides the distribution of tax incomes between the Central and State Governments?

a) Central Law Commission
b) Pay Commission for Government Employees
c) Administrative Reforms Commission
d) Planning Commission
e) Finance Commission

79. ___ was established in the Year: 2000, as an Independent Authority, to Regulate and Develop the Insurance Industry.

a) Reserve Bank of India (R.B.I.)
b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (S.E.B.I.)
c) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (I.R.D.A.)
d) Association of Mutual Funds in India (A.M.F.I.)
e) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (P.F.R.D.A.)

80. Which of the following pairs are the top two stock broker companies in India?

a) Zerodha, Groww
b) Groww, Angel One
c) Angel One, Upstox
d) Zerodha, Upstox
e) Groww, Upstox

81. Name the bank that has recently partnered with OneCard to launch mobile-first VISA Signature metal co-branded credit cards.

a) Punjab National Bank
b)  Canara Bank
c) Bank of India
d) Indian Bank
e) Bank of Baroda

82. Meta has partnered with which company for its latest AI model called LLAMA-2?

a) Google
b) Amazon
c) Microsoft
d) Facebook
e) AWS

83. In May 2023, The gross GST revenue collected in the month of April, 2023 is ₹ 1,87,035 crore. What is the increment compared to April 2022 ?

a) 20%
b) 12%
c) 18%
d) 19%
e) 25%

84. Which of the following schemes is/are related to the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)?

a) PMFBY
b) PM KISAN
c) NFSM
d) APY
e) All of the Above

85. What is the name of Israel’s air defense system?

a) S 400 Defense System
b) Iron Dome
c) Air defense Dome
d) Kavach
e) Blanket Protector

86. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.

The CEO’s foresight regarding the company’s trajectory was audacious(A), delineated by pioneering(B) methodologies to circumvent market unpredictability and endorsed(C) by the entire organizational hierarchy.

a) ACB
b) CBA
c)  CAB
d) Both 1 & 3
e) None of these

87.  Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.

The legislative amendments were contentious(A), acclaimed(B) by the populace for their lucidity, and scrutinized(C) by diverse interest groups.

a) ABC
b) CAB
c) BCA
d) Both 1 & 3
e) All of the above

88. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The historical narrative was enriched(A) in its depiction of events, grounded (B) by a rich variety of sources, and comprehensive(C) in the author’s personal insights.

a) ABC
b) ACB
c) BCA
d) Both 2 & 3
e) None of these

89. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The chef’s approach to traditional recipes is innovative(A), as seen in his meticulous(B) to ingredient selection and exemplified(C) in his cooking techniques.

a) CAB
b) BCA
c) ABC
d) Both 1 & 2
e) Both 2 & 3

90. Read the sentence carefully. You are given three descriptive words marked as A, B, and C.
Determine which sequence of letters (A, B, C) correctly completes the sentence to convey a coherent and logical meaning. More than one sequence might be correct. Choose the option that correctly identifies all valid sequences.
The research highlighted the subtle(A) effects of climate change, which are often underscored(B) by rapid shifts in weather patterns and corroborated(C) by extensive scientific studies.

a) ABC
b) BAC
c) CAB
d) Both 1 & 3
e) Both 2 & 3

91. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

In the digital era, data privacy has become a cornerstone of consumer trust and business ethics. However, not all companies adhere to the sanctity of personal information. One glaring example emerged when a tech giant was accused of massive data breaches, affecting millions of users. This breach not only exposed sensitive personal information but also undermined public trust in digital enterprises.
This company, known for its extensive digital footprint, failed to secure its databases properly, leading to unauthorized access by cybercriminals. Personal details such as social security numbers, email addresses, and financial information were compromised, leaving consumers vulnerable to identity theft and fraud. The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory ________.
Amidst the turmoil, an opponent company, CyberShield Inc., stepped into the spotlight, offering a stark contrast in the handling of data security. CyberShield Inc., a firm specializing in cybersecurity solutions, quickly addressed the pressing concerns raised by the breach. Recognizing the urgency to restore public confidence, they launched a new suite of privacy protection tools designed to safeguard user data effectively.
CyberShield’s response was swift and robust. They introduced an advanced real-time monitoring system that utilized artificial intelligence to detect potential breaches before they could inflict harm. Moreover, their new encryption protocols ensured that data, even if intercepted, would remain indecipherable to unauthorized parties.CyberShield also initiated widespread public awareness campaigns, educating consumers on safeguarding their digital footprints against such vulnerabilities.
Their proactive approach not only provided a blueprint for effective data management but also positioned CyberShield as a leader in the cybersecurity field. The company’s dedication to upholding data privacy contrasted sharply with the negligent practices of its competitor. By prioritizing user safety, CyberShield not only captured a significant market share but also established new industry standards for data protection.
This incident serves as a critical lesson for all digital enterprises: in the age of cyber threats, the protection of consumer data is not just a regulatory requirement but a fundamental component of customer trust and business integrity. Companies that fail to understand this risk not only legal repercussions but also irreversible damage to their reputation and consumer trust. In contrast, those who lead the way in cybersecurity measures set themselves apart in an increasingly competitive and privacy-conscious market.

What is implied about the impact of the data breach on consumers?

a) Consumers were indifferent to the breach of their personal data.
b) There was a significant shift in consumer trust away from companies that failed to protect data.
c) Consumers filed lawsuits against CyberShield Inc. for failing to protect their data.
d) The data breach had no real impact on consumer behavior or attitudes.
e) Consumers’ financial information was unaffected by the breach.

92. How might the tech industry respond to the increasing occurrences of data breaches, as suggested by the passage?

a) There will likely be a decline in the use of digital platforms due to security concerns.
b) New regulations could push companies to adopt stricter security measures.
c) Companies might shift their focus from innovation to data protection.
d) Businesses are expected to downplay the importance of data security to maintain customer loyalty.
e) Most companies will ignore the need for change and continue with existing security protocols.

93. What is the likely effect of CyberShield Inc.’s proactive measures on its industry reputation?

a) CyberShield Inc. is recognized as taking advantage of the situation for marketing purposes.
b) The industry views CyberShield Inc.’s actions as standard and not particularly innovative.
c) CyberShield Inc. sets a new standard in the industry for how to handle data breaches effectively.
d) CyberShield’s initiatives are seen as superficial and unlikely to provide real security improvements.
e) The company is criticized for not collaborating with other industry leaders to address the issue

94. What likely influenced CyberShield Inc.’s decision to launch new privacy protection tools following the data breach incident?

a) A direct request from affected consumers.
b) Market research indicating a need for enhanced security products.
c) Competitive pressures from other tech companies.
d) The urgency to restore public confidence and trust in digital privacy.
e) Financial incentives offered by cybersecurity insurance providers.

95. Fill in the blank:
The breach was not just a failure of technology but a stark revelation of the company’s lax approach to data security and regulatory _______.

a) implementation
b) compliance
c) legislation
d) enforcement
e) protocol

96. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.
Critics ________ Russia will use the ________ project to expand its ________ in Europe.
A. infrastructure
B. assume
C. fear
D. boundary
E. influence

a) BAD
b) EDA
c) DEC
d) CAE
e) ECA

97. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.
A pandemic, an _________ crisis of historic proportions and a _________ endless upwards surge in the price of houses — it _________ an unlikely combination.
A. global
B. seemingly
C. look
D. economic
E. seems

a) ADC
b) ABE
c) DBE
d) DBC
e) ACE

98. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The volume of _________ investment, particularly in the form of international _________ flows from major corporations, hedge _________ and other financial market actors.
A. large
B. institutional
C. capital
D. investment
E. funds

a) BCE
b) ADE
c) BDA
d) CDE
e) ABD

99. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

The European Commission on Thursday _________ a plan to provide digital _________ for the EU’s 450 million residents to _________ their identity documents.
A. store
B. shrouded
C. bring
D. unveiled
E. wallets

a) DEC
b) BAC
c) BEC
d) BED
e) DEA

100. Directions: The given question has three blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the combination of words that would fit in the blanks correctly.

Belgium has a ________ ID card that has a mobile app equivalent that is used to ________ taxes, carry out bank transfers or request ________ documents from local authorities.
A. mandatory
B. pay
C. key
D. amazing
E. all

a) DBA
b) ABE
c) ABC
d) ABD
e) DBC

101. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Infrastructure is a tricky business. When it comes to public infrastructure projects, the benefits are long-term but the costs are short-term. (______). So an elected leader gets all the flak from those who oppose this white elephant/blot on the landscape but none of the praise for the reduced traffic jams or cheaper power that ensue.

1. Private investors are happy to own infrastructure projects once they are up and running and delivering reliable yields, they are less keen on financing Greenfield projects with all the risks that go with them.
2. The politician that authorises the project is rarely the same one that opens it.
3. Infrastructure can have positive externalities that are not captured by investors but will benefit society (the building of the internet or America’s interstate highway system, for example).
4. Far too many projects get build and the overall returns are disappointing.
5. All the given options fit.

102. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence that fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.
(____). By 2023 more than 4.5 million are expected every year- about the same as the country’s resident population. Tourism has overtaken dairy produce as the biggest export, helped by a large number of visitors from China. They are seen to experience the natural beauty promised by the country’s “100% pure New Zealand” advertising campaign and shown off in the film adaptations of “The Lord of the Rings” and ‘The Hobbit”, which were shot in New Zealand’s breathtaking wilderness.

a) In 2016 New Zealand hosted 3.5 million tourists from overseas.
b) Tourists already contribute around NZ $1.1 billion through the country’s 15 percent sales tax.
c) It would be difficult to prevent tourists from sneaking around the toll booths.
d) Many New Zealanders foresee a huge influx of foreigners who have been seeking to four national parks.
e) All the given options fit

103. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

(______). Rising prosperity in the region means the cost of manual work, outsourced to the region is rising. Labour shortages loom. Certain jobs require craft skills which are becoming rarer. From the first sketch of a completely new pair of trainers to making and testing prototypes, ordering materials, sending samples back and forth, rebooting a factory, working up production, and eventually shipping the finished goods to the shops can take the industry as long as 18 months.

a) Currently, trainers (shoes) are made mostly by hand in giant factories, often in Asian countries, with people assembling components or shaping, bonding and sewing materials
b) In Asia wealth is rising
c) Many people now have the wherewithal to avoid tasks that are thought of as manual and monstrous.
d) The company will use robots and novel production techniques such as 3D printing to reinvent its manufacturing process.
e) All the given options fit.

104. Direction: In this question, a paragraph with a blank space indicated by (______) is given. The blank space stands for a sentence which fits contextually but presently hidden. From the given alternatives, find the sentence which is/are perfect to fit in terms of grammar as well as the context in the blank space of the paragraph.

Work smarter, not harder: It is one of the more irritating things a book can tell you. But at the macroeconomic level, it is important. Growth can come from having more labour (recruiting more workers, or making existing employees work for longer hours), more capital, or by using that labour and capital more effectively- something known as total factor productivity (TFP). This can come from the kind of brilliant innovations devised by Thomas Edison. (______)

a) This shows that at the global level, total factor productivity fell last year, was flat the two years before, and has barely budged since 2007.
b) It could also come from the less-heralded but equally important improvements such as the adoption of the moving conveyor belt to speed up assembly work.
c) Whatever the reason, economic growth did not rebound until productivity perked up
d) A recovery has been underway for a while.
e) Others might counter that the full benefits of new technology are not reflected in the data

105. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) / recommends QR codes on food products for ensure (A) / accessibility for visually impaired individuals, (B) / promoting informed consumer choices (C) / and addressing rising non-communicable diseases. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

106. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman expressed concerns (A) / about fuel, food security, and supply chain disruptions, (B) / emphasizing the need to prevent / essential supplies from becoming (C) / instruments of war and disruption. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

107. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

If daily salt intake is reduced (A) / by five to eight grams, / the risk of cardiovascular disease can be lowered, (B) / and this reduction can help preventing (C) / obesity and high blood pressure. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

108. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

These companies exploit celebrity endorsements (A) / for seemingly harmless products like elaichi / to indirectly promote tobacco and nicotine items, (B) / capitalizing on legal loopholes and lucrative revenue, (C) / and casting ethical concerns beside. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

109. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

The shift towards the gig economy (A) / and short-term contracts poses an unique (B) / challenge for India, where a growing youth population (C) / seeks dignified work / and social security amid rapid economic growth. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

110. Directions: Read the following sentence to determine if there is any grammatical or contextual error within it. If there is an error, it will be in one part of the sentence. Identify the part in which the error exists and mark it as your answer. Please consider the part in bold as grammatically correct. If there is no error, select E, i.e., ‘No error’ as your answer. Please ignore punctuation errors.

Film critics often faces pressure to (A) / write positive reviews or risk losing / access to exclusive screenings, (B) / talent interactions, and merchandise due to (C) / the influence of marketing and social media fandom. (D) No error (E)

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E

111. Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question
will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.
In recent years, minimalism has emerged as a guiding philosophy, advocating for a simplified and intentional approach to life. Sudha Murty, a prominent writer and philanthropist, recently addressed a gathering dominated by children and young adults, urging them to embrace a minimalist lifestyle. This concept, gaining traction, especially in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals from unnecessary baggage, fostering a more peaceful and contented existence. At its core, minimalism encourages making intelligent choices about what to keep and what to eliminate, with decluttering serving as its cornerstone. Bedrooms, often the most cluttered spaces in many homes, can significantly impact occupants’ well-being and sleep habits. Advocates of minimalism suggest opting for minimalist bedrooms with streamlined wardrobes, creating environments conducive to focus and relaxation. Toys, too, occupy considerable space in modern households. Minimalism suggests decluttering by either eliminating unused items or donating them to orphanages, promoting a more purposeful use of living space. The philosophy extends beyond physical possessions, calling for a modification of lifestyle, a shift in mindset, and a reduction in unnecessary comforts. It emphasizes satisfying needs over succumbing to greed, prompting individuals to scrutinize each purchase for its absolute necessity.
Minimalism provides tangible benefits, including a more economical use of money and resources, decluttered living spaces, reduced waste generation, and a lower environmental impact. Fewer possessions translate to fewer distractions and increased happiness within the home. The philosophy encourages the use of convertible or multipurpose furniture, promoting a more efficient and versatile use of space. The kitchen, often prone to becoming a dumping ground for unnecessary items, is another target for minimalism. Advocates recommend buying only essential, locally sourced food items to minimise carbon emissions from transportation. Emphasizing nutrient-dense, environmentally friendly food choices, the philosophy suggests a mindful approach to consumption. In the digital age, minimalism extends to academics, researchers, and readers, urging them to replace printed books with digital versions. This not only saves space but also reduces the pressure on forests by decreasing paper consumption. The philosophy encourages the purchase of durable, reusable products, discouraging reliance on single-use items. It even suggests carrying reusable utensils during travel to minimise pollution from disposable items.
Consumerism, deeply entrenched in modern society, often leads to impulsive and unnecessary purchases.Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases. The philosophy advocates for a holistic approach, encouraging individuals to declutter not only their physical spaces but also their thoughts, memories, and practices. In conclusion, minimalism is more than a trend; it is a way of life that promises dividends when embraced intentionally. Sudha Murty’s call for a minimalist lifestyle resonates with the growing desire for simplicity and purpose in an increasingly complex world. By deliberately simplifying and decluttering various aspects of life, individuals can experience the tangible benefits of minimalism, leading to a more fulfilling and mindful existence.

Which of the following words is similar in meaning to “conducive” in the context of the passage?

a) haphazard
b) propitious
c) irrelevant
d) tenacious
e) superficial

112. Which of the following words is opposite in meaning to “impulsive” in the context of the passage?

a) extravagant
b) inanimate
c) deliberate
d) spontaneous
e) compulsive

113. Which of the following words should fill in the blank taken from the passage?
Minimalist living advises individuals to ________ spending, avoid falling into the consumerist trap set by supermarkets and shopping malls, and focus on intentional, essential purchases.

a) ponder
b) amplify
c) elaborate
d) curtail
e) meander

114. What is the primary goal of minimalism, as mentioned in the passage?

a) To encourage impulsive purchases and consumerism.
b) To foster a more complex and cluttered existence.
c) To emphasize unnecessary comforts and indulgence.
d) To promote a simplified and intentional approach to life.
e) To discourage individuals from scrutinizing their purchases.

115. Which of the following sentences are TRUE/FALSE according to the passage?
A. Sudha Murty advocates for a minimalist lifestyle, addressing the importance of intentional living.
B. Bedrooms and kitchens are suggested spaces for minimalist approaches, promoting focus and eco-friendly habits.
C. Minimalism, gaining traction in developed nations, aims to unburden individuals for a contented existence.

a) Only B is true
b) Both A and B are false
c) Only A is true
d) All A, B, and C are false
e) All A, B, and C are true

116. In the context of the passage, what is suggested to minimize carbon emissions in the kitchen?

a) Buying only essential, locally sourced food items.
b) Maintaining a diverse range of international food choices.
c) Supporting local farmers by purchasing a variety of items.
d) Using eco-friendly disposable utensils during travel.
e) Emphasizing quantity and variety in food choices.

117. According to the passage, what are some of the tangible benefits of minimalism mentioned?

a) Accumulating more possessions for a luxurious lifestyle.
b) More economical use of money and resources.
c) Promoting focus and heightened happiness within the home.
d) Enhancing environmental sustainability by generating minimal waste.
e) Fostering intentional and purposeful purchases.

118. Which of the following best describes the summary of the given passage?

a) Sudha Murty promotes minimalism to create clutter-free bedrooms and encourages mindful food choices, extending it to academics and travel utensils.
b) Minimalism, a guiding philosophy, emphasizes intentional living, decluttering physical spaces, and reducing waste, with Sudha Murty advocating its benefits for a fulfilling existence.
c) The passage discusses the popularity of minimalism, focusing on bedroom decluttering, toy management, and the use of digital resources, with a call for intentional living.
d) Sudha Murty’s minimalist lifestyle suggestion involves converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence.
e) The philosophy of minimalism, highlighted by Sudha Murty, mainly focuses on converting to digital books, reducing kitchen waste, and advocating reusable travel utensils for a mindful existence

119. Directions: In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.
Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

a) rigorous, superficial
b) comprehensive, thorough
c) irrelevant, perfunctory
d) extraneous, irrelevant
e) exhaustive, superficia

120. Directions: In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.
In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners’ tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

a) standardized, customized
b) customized, uniform
c) generic, individualized
d) personalized, tailored
e) specialized, common

121. A survey of certain restaurants was conducted in four restaurants A, B, C and D on 16th November 2019 was collected. It was found that while making a transaction customers used either Debit card or Cash. Out of those making transactions using debit cards some of them (in percentage) getting 10% cash back, while those making transactions using some of them (in percentage) getting 2% cashback.

In Restaurant D the number of people getting 2% cashback for using cash is 450. Find the total number of people who didn’t get cashback while using debit cards and cash.

a) 3300
b) 3450
c) 3150
d) 3240
e) 3670

122, In Restaurant C on the given day Rs. 200 per person has been made as the cashback while making transactions through debit card and the number of people visiting the restaurant has been 800. What would have been the amount returned by the restaurant as cashback to the people who made transactions using a debit card?

a) Rs.41600
b) Rs. 32400
c) Rs.38400
d) Rs. 25600
e) Rs.42600

123. On November 20, 210 people in restaurant A used debit cards and didn’t get cashback. On 20th November, what is the difference between the number of people who visited restaurant A and the number of people who paid through cash and didn’t get 2% cashback?
(Note: Consider the data for 20th November = 16th November)

a) 426
b) 436
c) 476
d) 546
e) 666

124. On the given day If 1200 customers visited restaurant A. How many people used cash and get 2% cashback?

a) 200
b) 190
c) 210
d) 180
e) 120

125. If the total number of people visiting restaurant B was 2400 , what would be the difference between the number of people who used debit cards and did not get cashback and those who used cash and got cashback of 2% in restaurant B.

a) 128
b) 157
c) 192
d) 140
e) 143