Archives: Quizzes & Surveys

MPSC TEST SERIES 29

MPSC TEST SERIES 29

Name

Email

1. Which act took away the exclusive right of the company to trade in India?

a) Regulating Act of 1773
b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
c) Charter Act of 1813
d) Charter Act of 1833

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Which act clearly distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company?

a) Charter Act of 1813

b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

c) Charter Act of 1833

d) Charter Act of 1853

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. Which act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of the government, territories, and revenues to the British Crown?

a) Charter Act of 1853

b) Government of India Act 1858

c) Indian Councils Act of 1861

d) Indian Councils Act of 1892

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. The Bengal Regulation Act of 1829 dealt with which of the following issues primarily

a) Abolition of sati
b) Female infanticide
c) Child marriages
d) Dowry prohibition

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The main purpose of Brahmo Samaj for which it was set up are

a) Purify Hinduism and to preach monotheism
b) Criticize social evils, oppose idolatry and emphasize human dignity
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. Which of the following is the decision taken by British to reform the Indian Society?

a) Law against the practice of Sati
b) They encouraged the remarriage of widow
c) English education was actively promoted
d) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act ________

a) 1856
b) 1858
c) 1865
d) 1946

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. What language is used by computers to process data?

a) Binary
b) Processing
c) Kilobyte
d) Representational

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9.(1010)²equivalent decimal number is

a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. The primary purpose of an operating system is to

a) make the most efficient use of the computer hardware
b) allow people to use the computer
c) keep systems programmers employed
d) make computers easier to use

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. Global Positioning System (GPS) is a spacebased satellite navigation system developed by

a) United States of America
b) European Union
c) Microsoft
d) Google

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. It is used to produce large drawings or images such as construction plans, blueprints for mechnanical object etc.

a) Printer

b) Plotter

c) MICR

d) OCR

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Windows operating system is …… and ……

a) multitasking, multiuser
b) multi user, single tasking
c) single user, multitasking
d) single tasking, single user

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. Which of the following produces high quality output?

a) Impact printer
b) Non-impact printer
c) Plotter
d) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Conversion of decimal number (61)_10 to its binary number equivalent is

a) (110011)_2
b) (11001110)_2
c) (111101)_2
d) (11111)_2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. How many values can be represented by a single byte?

a) 4
b) 16
c) 64
d) 256

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. You create a new document. You want to copy the texts to other document. After selecting texts on the first document, you have to press a combination of keys on the other document:

a) Control key + S and then Control key + C on the other document

b) Control key + C and then Control key + V

c) Shiftkey+PandthenAltkey+C

d) Altkey+CandAltkey+P

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer
b) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer
c) Speed of both the computers is the same
d) The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Which of the following is a temporary memory?

a) ROM
b) RAM
c) Both A and B
d) Noneofthese

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. Which one can be electrically erased and reprogrammed?

a) Protocol
b) Modem
c) Flash Memory
d) Gateway

(a0

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 27

MPSC TEST SERIES 27

Name

Email

1. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to ‘stimulate’ as used in the passage

(a) invigorate
(b) stigmatize
(c) energize
(d) suppress

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Direction for Questions No. 2 – 4 : Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each of the questions out of the four alternatives. Long ago Emperson wrote: ‘‘A man’s task is his life-preserver’’. This seems to be remarkably correct in our modern life. The man without task is like a ship without a ballast and anchor, he is all too often merely a drifter. Few men seem to have initiative enough to choose a task for themselves if they do not need to work. When the inevitable disappointments come, as they assuredly will, they are completely overwhelmed. But the man who has his task has no time for vain regret, he escapes the disastrous fate which overtakes his less fortunate brother.Work is one of the greatest safety-valves which was ever invented, and youth especially needs it.

2. It seems to be remarkably correct in modern life that

(a) a man has enough leisure

(b) youth needs less work and more rest

(c) the correct choice of task preserves one’s life

(d) men fail to choose a task for themselves

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The expression ‘safety-valve’ means

(a) something which blows up safety
(b) an outlet for pent-up energy
(c) something which guarantees safety
(d) the leaf of a folding door

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. A man who suffers from vain regrets must have

(a) chosen his life’s work rather carelessly
(b) met with disastrous fate
(c) been a victim of adverse circumstances
(d) not need to work

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Directions for Questions No. 5 – 9 : Read the following passage carefully, and answer the questions that follow, choosing the best answer out of the alternatives given:We live in a God-gifted world, but humans are the reason behind the deterioration of the environment. Everything that surrounds us constitutes the environment. The earth is made up of various environments in which all living and non-living things coexist. Nature’s biological, physical and natural forces interact to generate conditions that allow creatures to survive. The environment is a term used to describe such circumstances. A derivative of the word environment is the French word ‘environ, ’which means ‘to surround.’ The environment is made up of all biotic (living) and abiotic (nonliving) things. Plants, animals, human beings,and insects are examples of biotic components.They are classified as biological environmental components. Every living thing has a predetermined life cycle. The human being, for example, is the most powerful living entity on the planet. To meet his needs, he requires plants and animals. Without these components, the life of human beings will be disordered. The atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere are all examples of abiotic/physical components. The atmosphere is a gaseous layer containing nitrogen, oxygen, and other gases.The hydrosphere is made up of all the waterbodies, such as rivers and oceans. The lithosphere is the earth’s solid outer shell. It is composed of the crust, covering the earth’s mantle, rocks, and soil. The biosphere, where life exists, is the most essential layer. There are ecosystems in the water, on land, and in the air. All of these species’ lives are predicated on their ongoing interaction with one another. Their functioning is organised by nature, and once spent, it might be eliminated. The destruction of the environment has now become a big issue that humans must address.

5. The reason behind the deterioration of the environment is

(a) God’s punishment
(b) Human beings
(c) Animals
(d) Forests

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. Nature’s biological, physical and natural forces __________ to generate conditions for survival.

(a) Work together

(b) Fight against each other

(c) Oppose

(d) Congregate

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. Abiotic refers to

(a) All plant forms
(b) All animal forms
(c) Geographical forms
(d) Non-living things

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. All water bodies make up the

(a) Environment
(b) Troposphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Hydrosphere

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. Nature organizes the functioning of

(a) Biotic world
(b) Abiotic things
(c) All species
d) The atmosphere

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. “A statement of estimated receipts and expenditures called annual Financial Statement has to be placed before parliament for each financial year.” The above provision has been enshrined in which among the following articles of Constitution of India?

a) Article 110

b) Article 111

c) Article 112

d) Article 113

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. Which one of the following forms the largest share of deficit of Government of India Budget?

a) Primary deficit
b) Fiscal deficit.
c) Budgetary deficit
d) Revenue deficit

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. Fiscal Policy is connected with:

a) Policy of agriculture
b) Public revenue & expenditure
c) Policy of population
d) Policy of industry

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. The actions government should take on its overall expenditure to check inflating forces –

a) Increase expenditure on necessities
b) No change in expenditure
c) Reduce expenditure
d) Increase expenditure

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. Fiscal policy refers to the policy of:

a) Commercial banks
b) Government finance
c) Money authority
d) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Which of the following is the objective of Fiscal Policy?

a) To maintain equilibrium in the Balance of Payments.
b) To promote the economic development of underdeveloped countries.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. Which of the following statements is correct about direct taxes?

a) The direct taxes are collected from the income earners
b) The direct taxes are collected from the producers on the goods or services produced by them
c) The direct taxes are collected from the sellers on the goods or services sold by them
d) The direct taxes are collected from the buyers on the goods or services bought by them

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. What is the duration of a financial year?

a) October 1st to Sep
b) April 1st to March 31st
c) January 1st to December 31st
d) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Which of the following statements about the capital budget is correct?

a) The capital budget consists of direct and indirect tax
b) The capital budget consists of capital expenditure and capital receipts
c) The capital budget consists of revenue expenditure and revenue receipts
d) The capital budget consists of direct taxes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Choose the incorrect statement

a) In an unbalanced budget, the expenditure is relatively higher than income
b) In an unbalanced budget, the income is greater than the expenditure
c) In an unbalanced budget, the deficit gets covered either by loans or by printing notes
d) None of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. What is the name of the process under which the government liquidates its assets?

a) Disinvestment
b) Monetary expansion
c) Open market operations
d) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 26

MPSC TEST SERIES 26

Name

Email

1. Which of the following is the brightest planet?

a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Jupiter

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Which planet is known as ‘Morning Star’?

a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Mars
d) Jupiter

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. Parsec is the unit of measurement of ________

a) Density of stars
b) Astronomical distance
c) Brightness of heavenly bodies
d) Orbital velocity of giant stars

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. The Planets that have no natural satellites are ________.

a) Mercury and Venus
b) Earth and Mars
c) Jupiter and Saturn
d) Uranus and Neptune

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The darkest part of the shadow during eclipse is

a) Halo
b) Umbra
c) Penumbra
d) Black Hole

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The period of one revolution of sun around the centre of galaxy is called ________

a) Parsec
b) Astronomical year
c) Cosmic year
d) Light year

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The planet that is nearly comparable to Earth as regards its size and mass is

a) Pluto
b) Mars
c) Venus
d) Mercury

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Who founded the word “Geography”?

a) Ptolemy
b) Eratosthenes
c) Hicatus
d) Herodotus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. Asteroids have their orbits between the planets ________

a) Mercury and Venus
b) Earth and Mars
c) Mars and Jupiter
d) Jupiter and Saturn

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. The planet with the maximum number of satellites is ________.

a) Uranus
b) Jupiter
c) Saturn
d) Neptune

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. The outermost layer of Sun is called ________

a) Convection zone
b) Photosphere
c) Chromosphere
d) Corona

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. Which is the nearest planet to Sun?

a) Earth
b) Mercury
c) Mars
d) Venus

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Direction for Questions No. 13 – 17 : Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each of the questions out of the four alternatives.It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or despised.A successful businessman does nothing to increase his popularity by being careful with his money. He is expected to display his success,to have a smart car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with his hospitality. If he is not so, he is considered mean and his reputation in business may even suffer in consequence. The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first place, he would never have achieved his present wealth. Among the low income groups, a different set of values exists.The young clerk who makes his wife a present of a new dress when he hadn’t paid his house rent, is condemned as extravagant. Carefulness with money to the point of meanness is applauded as a virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills.The ideal wife for such a man separates her house keeping money into joyless little piles —so much for rent, for food, for the children’s shoes; she is able to face the milkman with equanimity and never knows the guilt of buying something she can’t really afford. As for myself,I fall into neither of these categories. If I have money to spare, I can be extravagant, but when,as is usually the case, I am hard up, then I am the meanest man imaginable.

13. In the opinion of the writer, a successful businessman

(a) is more popular if he appears to be doing nothing
(b) should not bother about his popularity
(c) must be extravagant before achieving success
(d) is expected to have expensive tastes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. The phrase ‘lavish with his hospitality’ signifies

(a) miserliness in dealing with his friends
(b) considerateness in spending on guests and strangers
(c) extravagance in entertaining guests
(d) indifference in treating his friends and relatives

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The word ‘paradox’ means

(a) Statement based on facts
(b) that which brings out the inner meaning
(c) that which is seemingly absurd or contradictory
(d) statement based on the popular opinion

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. How does the housewife, described by the writer, feel when she saves money?

(a) Is content to be so thrifty.
(b) Wishes life were less burdensome.
(c) Is still troubled by a sense of guilt.
(d) Wishes she could sometimes be extravagant.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. As far as money is concerned, we get the impression that the writer

(a) is incapable of saving anything
(b) is never inclined to be extravagant
(c) would like to be considered extravagant
(d) doesn’t often have enough to spare

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Direction for Questions No. 58 – 61 : Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each of the questions out of the four alternatives. Many of the underdeveloped countries will promote the growth of their economies in one way or another no matter whether they receive substantial outside aid in the process or not. The character of that development, however, is likely to be strongly influenced by the types and amounts of aid available. The outcome is much more likely to be favourable, from the stand point of the objectives for successful development set up previously, if there is substantial international aid than if there is not.By substantial aid I mean not only large amounts of technical assistance but also of capital. Initially,the capacity of an underdeveloped country to use capital productivity may be surprisingly small-limited by lack of organization, trained personnel and other social obstacles.At this stage, technical assistance is its mainneed from outside, with comparatively small amounts of capital, much of which may have to be in the form of grants for non self-liquidating projects in education, health, access roads to rural areas, and the like. If, at this stage,substantial capital is available from outside supplement what can be formed internally (and to stimulate internal capital formation, for it does that too) the rate of economic growth can be considerably increased, and the strains and frustrations and political risks of the development process are likely to be considerably less. In the absence of outside aid the only way to accumulate capital is to increase production without taking much of the benefit in more consumption, or even while pushing consumption standards down. Where the people are already near the subsistence level this may mean extreme hardship. Somehow the people must be motivated to change their accustomed ways quickly to work hard and to forego present consumption so that capitals can be made.

18. Substantial aid in this context means

(a) technical assistance in the form of trained personnel

(b) capital in the form of bank loans and overdrafts

(c) large amounts of technical assistance and Capital

(d) a cheap and plentiful supply of labour

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. In the absence of outside aid, the only way to accumulate capital is to

(a) increase tax and import duties
(b) launch an internal campaign for the conservation of goods and property
(c) increase production without taking much of the benefit in more consumption
(d) make conditions attractive to foreign investor

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. Choose the word which is closest in meaning to ‘subsistence’ as used in the passage

(a) sustenance
(b) ignorance
(c) substantial
(d) subside

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 25

MPSC TEST SERIES 25

Name

Email

1. The State Reorganisation Bill requires ________ in both house of Parliament

a) Simple majority
b) Absolute majority
c) Special majority
d) Full majority

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Citizenship Amendment Act came fully into force on

a) 10th Jan 2020
b) 15th May 2024
c) 20th June 2022
d) 11th March 2024

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

(a) 4
(b) -6
(c) 2
(d) 0

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

(a) 5
(b) 5.3
(c) 3.5
(d) 4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. 6 −(9−{18− (15 −12 − 9)}]

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. 486 ÷ ? × 7392 ÷66 = 1008

(a) 54
(b) 55
(c) 52
(d) 53

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. 57 – 1725 ÷69 = 4×?

(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 13
(d) 7

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. 1 1/4+1 5/9 ×1 5/8 ÷ 6 1/2= ?

(a) 17
(b) 27
(c) 42
(d) 1 23/36

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. A recipe requires 2 cups of flour for 8 cupcakes. How many cups of flour are needed for 12 cupcakes?

(a) 3 cups

(b) 48 cups

(c) 24 cups

(d) 6 cups

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. If 7 meters of cloth cost $14, what is the cost of 3 meters of cloth?

(a)$3
(b)$6
(c)$8
(d)$12

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. A painter needs 5 liters of paint to cover 20 square meters of wall. How much paint is needed to cover 10 square meters?

(a) 200 liters

(b) 2 liters

(c) 2.5 liters

(d) 5 liters

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. If 3 kg of rice costs $27, find the cost of 5 kg of rice.

(a) $45
(b) 90
(c) 30
(d) 55

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Rewrite 0.54545454… in p/q form

(a) 49/99
(b) 17/33
(c) 19/33
(d) 18/33

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. Rewrite 0.5333… in p/q form

(a) 8/15
(b) 53/99
(c) 5/9
(d) 53/90

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Rewrite 24.5 in p/q formm

(a) 1106/45
(b) 1006/45
(c) 1106/90
(d) 1006/90

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. The product of 𝑋 − 8/𝑋+8 and its multiplicative inverse is

(a) 𝑋+7/𝑥−8
(b) – (x -8)/(x+8)
(c) (x -8)/(x+7)
(d) 0

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. Sum of all integers

(a) ∞
(b) – ∞
(c) 1
(d) 0

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. The radiant energy of the sun is transmitted in the form of ________

a) Short waves
b) Long waves
c) Particles
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Which of the following is called “Blue Planet”?

a) Saturn
b) Earth
c) Jupiter
d) Mars

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. The four largest planets of the solar system indescending order are

a) Jupiter Mercury Saturn and Uranus
b) Mercury Jupiter Saturn and Neptune
c) Jupiter Saturn Uranus and Neptune
d) Jupiter Mercury Saturn and Neptune

(a0

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 23

MPSC TEST SERIES 23

Name

Email

1. The difference between simple and compound interest on sum of 10000 is 64 for 2 years. Find the rate of interest.

(a) 8

(b) 64

(c) 4

(d) 2

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. The difference between simple and compound interest compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:

(a) 625

(b) 630

(c) 640

(d) 650

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. Find the compound interest on Rs. 12500 at 8% per annum for 9 months compounded quarterly.

(a) Rs. 1020
(b) Rs. 1428
(c) Rs. 510
(d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Find the compound Interest on Rs. 32000 at 20% per annum for 1 year, compounded half yearly.

(a) Rs. 6320
(b) Rs. 6720
(c) Rs. 6400
(d) Rs. 6500

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The difference between C.I. & S.I. on Rs. 700 in 2 years at 5% per annum is:

(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 5
(c) Rs. 1
(d) Rs. 1.75

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The difference between the compound and simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 6 per annum is Rs. 10. The sum is

(a) Rs. 2000

(b) Rs. 2200

(c) Rs. 2560

(d) Rs. 2600

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. If a sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at S.I. then the rate of interest per annum is:

(a) Rs. 10.5
(b) Rs. 12.5
(c) Rs. 11.5
(d) Rs. 13.5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. What sum lent at 10% per year on S.I. will amount to Rs. 450 in 2 years?

(a) Rs. 350
(b) Rs. 375
(c) Rs. 240
(d) Rs. 280

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. Nutan invest Rs. 22400 on S.I. at rate 12 p.c.p.a. How much amount she will get after seven year.

(a) 41,116
(b) 41,216
(c) 42,116
(d) 42,216

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. What time taken by sum of Rs. 7000 to became 10500 at the rate of 5% per annum?

(a) 8 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 15 years

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. A man goes from his house to his office with the speed of 4km/h and returns with the speed of 16km/h. Then average speed of whole journey is

(a) 10km/h
(b) 6km/h
(c) 6.4km/h
(d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. A man travels with a speed of 2/5 of his usual speed. And reaches his office 15min late. The time taken with his usual speed is ?

(a) 10min
(b) 15min
(c) 20min
(d) 25min

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Walking at 4km/h, Amit reaches his school 10 mins early, if he walks at 3km/h, then he will be 10min late. The distance of his school from his house is

(a) 6km
(b) 4.5km
(c) 4km
(d) 3km

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. How much distance will a bus cover in 8h. if it is moving with a uniform speed of 37km/h?

(a) 246km
(b) 289km
(c) 296km
(d) 276km

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

(a) 3.6
(b) 7.2
(c) 8.4
(d) 10

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.

(a) 220 km

(b) 224 km

(c) 230 km

(d) 234 km

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is :

(a) ¼
(b)1/10
(c) 7/15
(d) 8/15

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys in doing the same type of work will be:

(a)4 days

(b)5 days

(c)6 days

(d)7 days

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?

(a) 8 hours
(b) 10 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 daysand left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?

(a)5
(b)6
(c)8
(d)5

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 22

MPSC TEST SERIES 22

Name

Email

1. In which year Sri Lanka was discovered by the Portuguese?

a) 1498
b) 1505
c) 1610
d) 1718

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. Consider the following statements
1.The Portuguese provided cartaz to the ships carrying commodities.
2. Dutch’s first factory in India was established at Pulicat.
3. The English Ambassador Captain Hawkins arrived at Jahangir’s Court.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The land of Bombay was given to the English Prince Charles II as Dowry by the

a) Danish
b) Portuguese
c) Dutch.
d) English

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Who was the founder of Madras city?

a) Robert Clive
b) Francis Day
c) Gabriel Boughton
d) Streysham Master

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Which Portuguese governor introduced ‘the policy of Imperialism‘?

a) Francisco de Almeida
b) Nino da Cunha
c) William Hawkins
d) Alfonso de Albuquerque

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

26. Which Mughal ruler granted the permission to English East India Company to start a factory in Surat?

a) Bahadur Shah
b) Aurangzeb
c) Shahjahan
d) Jahangir

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. First European fort situated in India located in?

a) Surat
b) Goa
c) Cochin
d) Calicut

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. Who were the last foreigners to leave India?

a) The British
b) The Portuguese
c) The French
d) The Dutch

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. When was the Mizoram flagship programme in ‘Mizoram Bana Kaih (Handholding) Scheme’ launched?

(a) September 2

(b) September 19

(c) February 30

(d) August 29

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Which hospital in Mizoram has passed the three tests and received the certificate?

(a) Civil Hospital, Lunglei
(b) Civil Hospital, Aizawl
(c) Civil Hospital, Serchhip
(d) Civil Hospital, Champhai

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. What is “Caldwell 45”, recently highlighted by NASA?

(a) Spiral galaxy
(b) Asteroid
(c) Black hole
(d) Exo planet

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. What is the rank of India in the ‘Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024’?

(a) 35th
(b) 36th
(c) 37th
(d) 39th

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. Andro, recently bagged ‘Best Heritage Tourism Village Award 2024’, is located in which state?

(a) Manipur

(b) Nagaland

(c) Assam

(d) Mizoram

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. Recently, who has been awarded the prestigious 2024 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize?

(a) Ruixiang Zhang
(b) Adinarayana Doddi
(c) Rita Sinha
(d) Alexander Dunn

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. Which African country recently reported an outbreak of the Marburg virus?

(a) Tanzania
(b) Kenya
(c) Somalia
(d) Rwanda

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. Which country recently supported India’s bid for permanent membership in the UN Security Council?

(a) Nepal

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Bhutan

(d) Myanmar

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. Who was recently elected as the New Prime Minister of Japan?

(a) Paetongtarn Shinawatra
(b) Shigeru Ishiba
(c) Min Aung Hlaing
(d) Philemon Yang

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Which central minister has launched the web portal “Paridhi 24×25” and the AI Taxonomy e-book?

(a) S. Jaishankar
(b) Rajnath Singh
(c) Giriraj Singh
(d) Chirag Paswan

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Indian-origin Ravi Ahuja has recently been appointed the new CEO of which company?

(a) Meta
(b) Microsoft
(c) Boeing
(d) Sony Pictures Entertainment

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. Which misison has been launched to promote cruise tourism in India?

(a) Cruise Bharat Mission
(b) Kalsh Mission
(c) Cruise Jalavihar Mission
(d) Cruz Sndhi Mission

(a0

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 20

MPSC TEST SERIES 20

Name

Email

1. The staff ____ (is/are) friendly and helpful.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. The information ____ (is/are) confidential.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. The luggage ____ (is/are) being loaded.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. The air ____ (is/are) polluted.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. The majority of the students ____ (is/are) in favor of the proposal.

a) is

b) are

c) has

d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. The new policy ____ (is/are) aimed at reducing costs.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. The contents of the package ____ (is/are) unknown.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. The crew of the ship ____ (is/are) on strike.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The aftermath of the storm ____ (is/are) still being assessed.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Who was the first recipient of the Mizo Academy Award awarded by Mizo Academy of Letters?

(a) Rev. Liangkhaia
(b) James Dokhuma
(c) L.Keivom
(d) Lalthangfala Sailo

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(a) N.E Parry issued an order to rebuild Zawlbuk in the year 1928.
(b) Zawlbuk came to an end in 1938
(c) Zawlbuk was placed under the charge of a leader called Pasaltha
(d) The Superitendent who closed the Zawlbuk was N.E Parry

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. A feast performed with dance in honour of the spirit of the ancestor was

(a) Chai
(b) Chheih lam
(c) Mitthirawp Lam
(d) Sakung

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. The term ‘Thingthiah’ in traditional Mizo society relates with

(a) Thihthiap ven
(b) Sekhuang
(c) Sakei lu lam
(d) Khuangchawi

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 19

MPSC TEST SERIES 19

Name

Email

1. 22 – [9 – {6 – (10 – )}]

a) 12
b) 14
c) 10
d) 8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. The digits of a two-digit number differ by 3. If digits are interchanged and the resulting number is added to the original number, we get 121. Find the original number.

a) 77
b) 74
c) 57
d) 11

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. Two Notebook and one pen cost Rs. 35 and 3 Notebook and four pen cost Rs. 65. Find the cost of Notebook and pen separately.

a) Rs 15, Rs 5
b) Rs 35, Rs 65
c) Rs 7 ,Rs 5
d) Rs 6, Rs 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Seven bells ring at intervals of 2,3,4,6,8,9 and 12 min respectively. They started ringing simultaneously at 5:00 in the morning. What will be the next time they all ring simultaneously?

a) 1:12 a.m.

b) 6:00 a.m

c) 6:12 a.m

d) 7:12 a.m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Three-fourth of two-third of a number is 782. What is three-fifth of one fourth of the same number?

a) 234.6
b) 2346
c) 2465
d) 246.8

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. One-fourth of a number exceeds its oneseventh by 24. What is the number?

a) 221
b) 222
c) 234
d) 224

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places, then what is the number

a) 56

b) 55

c) 54

d) 53

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. How many even numbers are prime

a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Which of the following is co prime?

a) (8,12)
b) (21,36)
c) (17,102)
d) (17,25)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the light house is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:

a) 173 m

b) 200 m

c) 273 m

d) 300 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

51. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladderis 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:

a) 2.3 m

b) 4.6 m

c) 7.8 m

d) 9.2 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree 3 times the height of the tree, is:

a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. On the same side of tower, two objects are located. Observed from the top of the tower,their angles of depression are 45° and 60°. If the height of the tower is 150 m, the distance between the objects is- (Take v3=1.27)

a) 63.5 m

b) 76.9 m

c) 86.7 m

d) 90 m

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. If a 30 m ladder is placed against a 15 m wall such that it just reaches the top of the wall,then the elevation of the wall is equal to

a) 45°

b) 30°

c) 60°

d) 50°

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The data ____ (is/are) still being collected.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. The team ____ (is/are) playing well this season.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. The water ____ (is/are) flowing rapidly.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. The furniture ____ (is/are) being delivered tomorrow.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. The news ____ (is/are) shocking.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. The research ____ (is/are) ongoing.

a) is
b) are
c) has
d) have

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 11, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 18

MPSC TEST SERIES 18

Name

Email

1. The historical ‘Moidams’ included in the UNESCO World Heritage List is located in which state?

(a) Bihar
(b) Assam
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Gujarat

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

2. India’s first integrated agri-export facility will be set up at which port?

(a) Paradip Port
(b) Visakhapatnam Port
(c) Kamarajar Port
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. What is India’s rank in the recently released Global Passport Index?

(a) 81st
(b) 82nd
(c) 83rd
(d) 84th

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Which will be the fourth capital city of the North-East region to come under railway connectivity by July next year?

(a) Guwahati
(b) Agartala
(c) Aizawl
(d) Itanagar

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Who has been re-elected President of the European Parliament?

(a) Geeta Gopinath
(b) Antonio Guterres
(c) Roberta Metsola
(d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. One degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of ________

a) 34.5 miles
b) 50 miles
c) 60 miles
d) 69 miles

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. Lunar eclipse is caused when the ________

a) Moon comes between the sun and the earth
b) Earth comes between the sun and the moon
c) Sun comes between the earth and moon
d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

28. The time of Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich time Cairo is situated at

a) 27° East
b) 27° West
c) 30° East
d) 30° West

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. The light of Sun takes how much time to reach to Earth

a) 8 hours
b) 8 minutes
c) 8 seconds
d) 20 seconds

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, what is the time at New York (74° W) ?

a) 4.56 p.m.
b) 4.56 a.m.
c) 7.04 p.m.
d) 7.04 a.m.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. Which one of the following would have occurred if the earth had not been inclined on its own axis?

a) All the seasons would have been of same duration
b) The seasons would not have changed
c) The summers would have been of longer duration
d) The winters would have been of longer duration

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

32. For a time difference of two hours, the longitudinal distance will be equal to

a) 15°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

33. The earth is at the largest distance from the sun (Apehelion) on ________

a) June 21st
b) January 3rd
c) July 4th
d) September 23rd

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. On the 21st June, the day light is seen at the North Pole for

a) Zero hrs.
b) 12 hrs.
c) 18 hrs.
d) 24 hrs.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

15. The distance between the earth and the sun is smallest in the month of

a) January
b) March
c) June
d) September

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. Which of the following areas, the “Midnight Sun” can be seen?

a) In tropical areas
b) In temperate areas
c) Arctic and Antarctica circle
d) Anywhere during solar eclipse

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. The surface of Earth that lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called ________

a) North Temperate Zone
b) Frigid Zone
c) South Temperate Zone
d) Torrid Zone

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. What are the imaginary lines encircling the Earth horizontally called?

a) Latitudes
b) Longitudes
c) Isobars
d) Isotherms

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. The Sun shines vertically on the equator

a) Throughout the year
b) For six months
c) Twice a year
d) Once a year

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. The position of a planet when it is nearest to the Sun, is called ____

a) Perihelion
b) Apihelion
c) Apigee
d) Perigee

(a0

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 10, 2024
MPSC TEST SERIES 16

MPSC TEST SERIES 16

Name

Email

1. Which of the following is not an Industrial Finance Institution?

(a) LDB
(b) IDBI
(c) NABARD
(d) ICICI

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

42. MUDRA has been set up for funding unfunded enterprises in the country. What is the meaning of ‘M’in MUDRA?

(a) Maximum
(b) Mini
(c) Micro
(d) Multi

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

3. EPZ stands for

(a) Export Promotion Zone
(b) Export Policy Zone
(c) Export Product Zone
(d) Export Processing Zone

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

4. Rice, maize, millets, cotton, sugarcane are-

(a) the chief Rabbi Crops
(b) the main Cash Crops
(c) the chief Kharif Crops
(d) the Plantation Crops

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

5. Permanent Settlement 1793 was introduced by-

(a) Lord Mayo
(b) William Bentinck
(c) John Shore
(d) Lord Cornwallis

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

6. Any change in the agriculture sector, positive or negative, will have a multiplier effect on the

(a) Industrial sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Entire economy
(d) None of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

7. Organic Farming is also known as

(a) Strategical Farming
(b) Green Farming
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Chemical-based Farming

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

8. In how many different ways can the letter of the word ‘FINISH’ be arranged?

(a) 80
(b)120
(c) 360
(d) 720

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

9. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘WATCH’ be arranged?

(a) 120
(b)360
(c) 60
(d)180

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

10. In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all the boysstand together and all the girls stand together?

(a) 75
(b) 576
(c) 288
(d) 24

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

11. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘PRAISE’ be arranged?

(a) 720
(b) 610
(c) 360
(d) 210

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

12. On a shelf there are 4 books on economics , 3 books on management and 4 books on statistics .In how many different ways can the book be arranged so that the books on Economics are kept together?

(a) 967680

(b) 120960

(c) 5040

(d) 40320

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

13. The number of words which can be formed from the letters of the word ‘MAXIMUM’ , if two consonants cannot occur together is?

(a) 4!

(b) 3!x4!

(c) 7!

(d) none of these

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

14. In how many ways can 5 boys and 5 girls sit in a circle , so that no two boys sit together?

(a) 3870
(b) 2880
(c) 1440
(d) 1550

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

55. In a party of 10 persons, total number of handshakes possible is?

(a) 10
(b) 90
(c) 50
(d) 45

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

16. How many numbers of four digits can be formed with the digits 1,2,3,4 and 5? (Repitition not allowed)

(a) 240
(b) 120
(c) 625
(d) 450

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

17. In how any ways 5 girls can be seated in a row?

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 120
(d) 240

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

18. Which of the following statement is incorect?

(a) Mizo tawng is a Mono syllabic language
(b) Mizo tawng belongs to Anglo-Buman
(c) The Mizo language is fomerly known as Duhlian
(d) Mizo tawng is a tonal language

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

19. Those who took refuge in the Chief’s house due to poverty were called

(a) inpuichhung bawi

(b) tukluh bawi

(c) chemsen bawi

(d) inhrang bawi

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

20. Which Mizo chief was the first to emancipate a slave?

(a) Khamliana
(b) Zahmuaka
(c) Khawvelthanga
(D) Ropuiliani

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)
None

Time’s up
Time is Up!

December 10, 2024

error: Content is protected !!

Enable Notifications OK No thanks