NEET REVISION VIII TEST (21.02.2026)

1. To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 Ω, a capacitor of reactance 25 Ω and an inductor of reactance 45 Ω are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively

7. A 30 m deep well is having water up to 15 m. An engine evacuates it in one hour. The power of the engine, if the diameter of the well is 4m is:

8. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to a string 4 m long and is rotated at constant speed of 40 ms^-1in a vertical circle. The ratio of the tension at the top and the bottom is (take, g = 10 ms^-2)

1) 11:12
2) 39: 41
3) 41:39
4) 12:11

9. The bob A of a simple pendulum is released when the string makes an angle of 45° with the vertical. It hits another bob B of the same material and the same mass kept at rest on a table. If the collision is elastic:


1) Both A and B rise to the same height
2) Both A and B come to rest at B
3) A comes to rest and B moves with the velocity of A
4) Both A and B move with the same velocity of A

10. A straight wire carrying current I is made into a circular loop. If M is the magnetic moment of the loop. Then, length of the wire is

11. The primary of a transformer when connected to a dc battery of 10 Volt draws a current of 1 mA. The number of turns of the primary and secondary windings are 50 and 100 respectively. The voltage in the secondary and the current drawn by the circuit in the secondary are respectively

1) 20 V and 2.0 mA
2) 10 V and 0.5 mA
3) Zero volt and therefore no current
4) 20 V and 0.5 mA

12. Modulus of rigidity of ideal liquids is

1) infinity
2) zero
3) unity                            
4) some finite small non-zero constant value

13. The stress-strain graphs for two materials are shown in Fig. (not to scale)
 

1) Material (ii) is more elastic than material (i) and hence material (ii) is more brittle
2) Material (i) and (ii) have the same elasticity and the same brittleness
3) Material (ii) is more brittle than material (i)
4) Material (ii) is elastic over a larger region of strain as compared to (i)

14. The diameter of ball A is half that of ball B, both made of same material. What will be their ratio of their terminal velocities in water?

1) 4: 1
2) 1: 4  
3) 2: 3
4) 3: 4

15. The pressure inside an air bubble of radius 0.1 mm situated just below the surface of water if surface tension of water is 7.2×10^-2) Nm^(-1) and atmospheric pressure be given by 1.013×10⁵  Nm^-2 is

1) 1.056×10⁵  Nm^-2 
2) 1.032×10⁵  Nm^-2 
3) 1.027×10⁵  Nm^-2 
4) 1.021×10⁵  Nm^-2 

16. Water rises to a height h in a capillary tube. If the length of the tube above the surface of water is made less than h, then

1) water does not rise at all
2) water starts to overflow from the tube
3) water rises to a height that is below the top of the tube
4) water rises to the top of the tube and stays there without overflowing

17. Consider the following statements for capillary rise and choose the correct statement(s)
A. For water to rise, angle of contact must be complementary
B. Water rises faster when gravity increases
C. Different liquids follow the same height inside the tube
d. As temperature increases, capillary rise decreases

1) Only A and B
2) Only C and D
3) Only D
4) Only C

18. A solid sphere reduces its volume by 2% due to a stress of 200 GPa. The compressibility of the sphere is

1) 10^-4  (GPa)^-1
2) 10^-6  (GPa)^-1
3) 10^-3  (GPa)^-1
4) None

19. Calculate the mass of an airplane having wing span of 20 m², where air speeds are 89 m/s and 83 m/s on its wings. Take density of air to be unity. (use g=10 ms^-2)

1) 1056 kg
2) 1032 kg        
3) 1060 kg
4) 1030 kg

20. Consider a U-tube containing water and spirit separated by mercury. If the tube has uniform cross section and height of water in one of the arms is 60 cm. Calculate the height of spirit on the second arm so that the mercury levels in both the arms are same. (Given specific gravity of spirit is 0.6)

1) 1.5 m
2) 1.2 m           
3) 2 m
4) 1 m

21. An object is situated on the ocean floor which is 10 km in depth. The bulk modulus of the object is 10¹² Calculate the strain on the object given that density of water ρ_w=1025 kgm^-3, g=10 ms^-2.

1) 1.025×10⁴
2) 1.025×10^-4
3) 1.025×10⁵
4) 1.025×10^-5

22. Choose the correct statement
A. For a perfectly rigid body, Young’s modulus is infinite
B. Young’s modulus is directly proportional to temperature
C. Identical wires with different lengths have different Young’s modulus

1) Only A and B
2) Only B and C
3) Only A
4) Only C

23. Internal energy remains the same throughout the process along the path in

1) Adiabatic process
2) Isothermal process
3) Cyclic process
4) both (2) & (3)

24. In the given (V-T) diagram, what is the relation between pressure P₁ and P₂?


1) P₂ > P₁
2) P₂ = P₁
3) P₁ > P₂
4) cannot be predicted

25. If  over a surface, then:

1) the electric field inside the surface is necessarily uniform.
2) the number of flux lines entering the surface must be equal to the number of flux lines leaving it.
3) the magnitude of electric field on the surface is constant.
4) all the charges must necessarily be inside the surface.

26. Which of the following statements about electric field lines (due to static charges) is incorrect?

1) electric field lines never cross each other at any point.
2) electric field lines do not form any closed loop.
3) electric field lines cannot be taken as continuous curves.
4) electric field lines start from a positive charge and end on a negative charge.

27. In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal A and terminal B is:

1) 1μF
2) 4 μ
3) 0.5 μF
4) 2μF

28. Four charges +Q, – Q, + Q, – Q are placed at the corners of a square taken in order. At the centre of the square

1) E=0, V=0
2) E=0, V≠0
3) E≠0, V=0
4) E≠0, V≠0

29. In the network shown, the potential at junction D is

1) 180/11  V
2) 11/180  V
3) 10 V
4) 5 V

30. Which among the following verified the wave nature of electrons experimentally?

1) De-Broglie
2) Hertz
3) Einstein
4) Davisson and Germer

31. The number of photoelectrons emitted for the light of a frequency ν (higher than the threshold frequency ν₀) is proportional to:

1) (ν-ν₀)
2) threshold frequency (ν₀)
3) intensity of light
4) frequency of light (ν)

32. The ground state energy of a hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize the hydrogen atom from its second excited state will be:

1) 13.6 eV
2) 1.51 eV
3) 6.8 eV 
4) 3.4 eV

33. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level. The wavelength of the photon is: ( R=1.097×10⁷ m^-1)

1) 97 nm
2) 89 nm
3) 80 nm
4) 45 nm

34. The binding energy of nucleus is a measure of its

1) Charge
2) Mass
3) Momentum
4) Stability

35. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation θ (t)= 2t³-6t². The torque on the wheel becomes 0 at

1) t= 1s
2) t= 0.5s
3) t= 0.25s
4) t= 2s

36. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of 60∘enters a glass sphere with refractive index √3 and it is reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is:

1) 50°
2) 60°
3) 90°
4) 40°

37. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium f refractive index μ, falls on a surface separating the medium from air at an angle of incidence of 45∘. For which of the following value of μ the ray can undergo total internal reflection?

1) μ=1.33
2) μ=1.40
3) μ=1.50
4) μ=1.25

38. A body is executing S.H.M. when its displacement from the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the corresponding velocity of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the time period of the body is

1) π sec 
2) 2π sec
3) 3π sec
4) 4π sec

39. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ₁=12000Å and λ₂=10000Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

1) 8mm
2) 6mm
3) 4mm 
4) 3mm

40. The displacement of an elastic wave is given by the function y=3sinωt+4cosωt. where y is in cm and t is in second. Calculate the resultant amplitude.

1) 3 cm
2) 4 cm
3) 5 cm
4) 7 cm

41. Two similar thin Equi-convex lenses, of focal f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the focal length of the combination is F1, When the space between the two lens is filled with glycerine (which has the same refractive index μ=1.5 as that of glass) then the equivalent focal length is F2, the ratio F1:F2 will be

1) 3:2
2) 2 :1
3) 1: 2
4) 2 :3

42. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is

1)  2(√3) cm
2) 2(√5) cm
3)  √5cm
4) √3cm

43. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 100 kHz in air. If this sound meets a water surface, the wavelengths of the reflected and transmitted sound are (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s⁻¹and in water = 1500 m s⁻¹)

1) 3.4mm,30mm 
2) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
3) 3.4 mm, 15 mm
4) 6.8 mm, 30 mm

44. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50cm, the length of closed pipe is

1) 25cm
2) 12.5cm
3) 100cm
4) 200cm

45. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). the angel of minimum deviation is

1) 180°−3A
2) 180°−2A
3) 90°−A 
4) 180°+2A

CHEMISTRY

46. The number of mole of phenylhydrazine needed to form fructosazone when react with Fructose is

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

47. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) Molecularity can be fractional
2) Unit of rate constant for second order reaction is Mol^-2L^-2 s^-1
3) At a fixed temperature, the value of k is contant
4) All of the above

48. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?

1) Li₂
2) F₂
3) Li₂⁺
4) Be₂

49. In a first order reaction, A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reaction is 0.7 M, then the half -life is

1) 0.693/2k
2) Log2/k
3) In2/k 
4) 0.693/0.7k

50. Zn²⁺ → Zn ; E ֯ cell = -0.76 V
Cu²⁺ → Cu ; E ֯ cell = -0.34 V
Which of the following is spontaneous?

1) Zn²⁺ + Cu → Zn + Cu²⁺
2) Cu²⁺ + Zn → Cu + Zn²⁺
3) Zn²⁺ + Cu²⁺ → Zn + Cu
4) All of these

51. If the energy difference between the ground state of an atom and its excited states is 6.6 x 10-4 J, the wavelength of photon required to produce the transition is

1) 4.52 x 10^-22 m
2) 3.01 x 10^-22 m
3) 1.26 x 10^-12 m
4) 2.6 x 10^-12 m

52. The emf of Daniel cell at 298K is E₁ Zn/ZnSO₄ (0.01M) // CuSO₄(0.1)/Cu
When the concentration of ZnSO₄ is 1.0 M and that of CuSO₄ is 0.01M, the emf changed to E₂. What is the relation between E₁ and E₂?

1) E₁ = E₂
2) E₁ > E₂
3) E₁ < E₂
4) E₁ ≤ E₂

53. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to

1) √2h/2π
2) √6h/2π
3) √9h/2π
4) √3h/2π

54. How many chiral carbon are present in α-D- Glucose

1) 3
2) 2
3) 5
4) 4

55. Which of the following represents the electronic configuration of the most electropositive element?

1) [Ne] 3s¹
2) [Ne] 3s²
3) [Xe] 6s¹
4) [Xe] 6s²

56. A sigma bonded molecule MX₄ is See Saw shape. The number of non – bonding pairs of electron is

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

57. Uuu

1) Copernicium
2) Meitnerium
3) Darmstadium
4) Rontgenium

58. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is

1) Cl₂O < ClO₂ < ClO₂^–
2) Cl₂O > ClO₂ > ClO₂^–
3) ClO₂ < ClO₂^– < Cl₂O
4) Cl0₂ > Cl₂O > ClO₂^–

59. For a first order reaction, to obtain a positive slope, we need to plot (where [A] is the concentration of reactant A)

1) [A] vs t
2) log₁₀ [A] vs log t
3) -log₁₀ [A] vs t
4) -log_e [A] vs t 

60. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of 0.01 M BaCl₂ in water. Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds in water, the concentration of XY (in mol L⁻¹) in solution is

1) 6 × 10⁻² 
2) 4 × 10⁻⁴
3) 4 × 10⁻² 
4) 16 × 10⁻⁴

61. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol⁻¹) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol⁻¹) in 100 mL of water at 27 °C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is (R = 0.08206 L atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

1) 8.2 atm
2) 2.46 atm
3) 4.92 atm
4) 1.64 atm

62. The stability of Cu²⁺ is more than Cu⁺ salts in aqueous solution due to
 
1) hydration energy
2) second ionisation enthalpy
3) first ionisation enthalpy
4) enthalpy of atomization.

63. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium KMnO₄ oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

1) +7 to +4
2) +6 to +4
3) +7 to +3
4) +6 to +5

64. Reaction of thionyl chloride with white phosphorus forms a compound [A], which on hydrolysis gives [B], a dibasic acid. [A] and [B] are respectively

1) P₄O₆ and H₃PO₃ 
2) PCl₅ and H₃PO₄
3) PCl₃ and H₃PO₃  
4) POCl₃ and H₃PO₄

65. For the reaction in equilibrium:
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), ΔH = −Q
The reaction is favored in the forward direction by:

1) Use of catalyst
2) Decreasing concentration of N₂
3) Low pressure, high temperature, and high concentration of ammonia
4) High pressure, low temperature, and higher

66. Which of the following compounds is the weakest Lewis acid?

1) BF₃
2) BCl₃
3) BBr₃
4) BI₃

67. Prussian blue is formed when–

1) ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl₃
2) ferric sulphate reacts with K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
3) ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl₃
4) ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl₃

68. Which combination of the following substances will result in the formation of an acidic buffer when mixed?
(Given: pKa of the acid = pKb of the base)

1) Weak acid and its salt with a strong base.
2) Equal volumes of equimolar solutions of weak acid and weak base.
3) Strong acid and its salt with a strong base.
4) Strong acid and its salt with a weak base.

69. Statement I: Acid strength increases in the order given as
HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II: As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr, and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
2) Both statement I and statement II are true.
3) Both statement I and statement II are false.
4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.

70. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

71. Which of the following molecules has the maximum number of stereoisomers?

72. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-IV
2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-I

73. Which of the following compound is not aromatic?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) (B) and (C) only.
2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
3) (B), (C) and (D) only
4) (D) only

1) Acetaldehyde
2) Propene
3) Acetone
4) Propanal

75. Bromination of cyclohexene under conditions given below yields

76. Increasing order of electrophilic substitution for following compounds

1) IV<I<II< III
2) III<II<I<IV
3) I<IV<III < I
4) III<II<I<IV

77. An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism?

1) Secondary alcohol by SN1
2) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
3) Secondary alcohol by SN2
4) Tertiary alcohol by SN2

78. Consider the following bromides

The correct order of S_N 1 reactivity is

1) A > B > C
2) B>C>A
3) B>A>C
4) C>B>A

79. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.


1) (A)→(i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
2) (A)→(iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
3) (A)→(iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
4) (A)→(ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)

80. The product of the following reaction is

80. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the compounds is
(A) CH₃COOH       (B) MeOCH₂COOH
(C) CF₃COOH       (D) CO₂H –C(Me)₂

1) B < D < A < C   
2) D < A < C < B
3) D < A < B < C
4) A < D < C < B

89. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H₂SO₄by mass and has a density of 1.80 g mL^-1. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H₂SO₄ solution is

90. The mole fraction of solute in a 2 molal aqueous solution is:

1) 0.034
2) 0.054
3) 0.065
4) 0.018

BIOLOGY

91. Which of the following statements regarding cancer cells are correct?
I. Normal cells show the property of contact inhibition.
II. Benign tumors do not cause any damage while malignant tumors cause mass damage to surrounding cells
III. Malignant tumors show the property of metastasis
IV. Proto-oncogenes are cancer causing genes

1) I and II
2) I and III
3) I, II and III
4) I, II, III and IV

92. Lubrication of penis during sexual intercourse is done by the secretions of

1) Seminal vesicles
2) Prostate glands
3) Bulbourethral glands
4) All of the above

93. Which of the following disorders show criss-cross pattern of inheritance?

1) Haemophilia
2) Sickle cell anaemia
3) Phenylketonuria
4) Thalassemia

94. Select the correct statement from the following

1) The distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water canal system
2) Sub-phylum vertebrata is further divided into two divisions – Cyclostomata and Gnathostomata
3) Phylum annelida are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and acoelomate animals
4) The body of phylum Mollusca is covered by a calcareous shell

95. Which of the following organs does not play a role in excretion?

1) Lungs
2) Skin
3) Thymus
4) Liver

96. The most widely used barrier method to prevent contraception is

1) Condoms
2) Cervical caps
3) Spermicidal creams and jellies
4) Tubectomy

97. Match the following diseases with their treatment


1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E, V-D
2) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A, V-E
3) I-B, II-E, III-C, IV-A, V-D
4) I-E, II-A, III-D, IV-B, V-C

98. Observe the given figure of sarcomere and identify the labelled parts


1) A – I-band, B – M-line, C – A-band, D – H-zone
2) A – A-band, B – Z-line, C – I-band, D – H-zone
3) A – light band, B – Z-disc, C – dark band, D – H-line
4) A – A band, B – Z-disc, C – I-band, D – H-zone

99. Assertion (A): Relaxation of uterine wall at the end of pregnancy causes expulsion of the baby
   Reason (R): The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion results in weakening contractions

1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
4) Both Assertion and Reason are not correct

100. Body tissues obtain oxygen from haemoglobin because its dissociation in tissues is caused by

1) Low oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration
2) High oxygen concentration 
3) Low carbon dioxide concentration
4) High carbon dioxide concentration

101. Study the pedigree chart of a family showing inheritance pattern of certain disorder. Select the option that correctly identifies the nature of the trait that is depicted in the pedigree chart.


1) Autosomal dominant
2) X – Linked dominant
3) X – Linked recessive
4) None of the above

102. Which of the following organisms possess a symmetry in which any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves?

1) Fasciola
2) Aplysia
3) Physalia
4) Sycon

103. Assertion (A): Barrier methods like condoms are helpful in preventing both pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases.
        Reason (R): They prevent physical contact between sperm and ovum.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

104. Mention the names of the hormones responsible for ovarian changes during the menstrual cycle in the boxes provided.


1) a – FSH, b – Progesterone, c – LH
2) a – FSH, b – LH, c – Progesterone
3) a – LH, b – FSH, c – Progesterone
4) a – Estrogen, b – Progesterone, c – LH

105. Increase of temperature of blood will

1) Reduce the rate of heart beat
2) Reduce the blood supply to the brain
3) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
4) Release of bicarbonate ions by the liver

106. After maturation in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary
lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like:
A. Thymus
B. Bone marrow
C. Spleen
D. Lymph nodes
E. Peyer’s patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A, B, C only
2) E, A, B only
3) C, D, E only
4) B, C, D only

107. The non-specific type of defense in the body is

1) Innate immunity
2) Cell-mediated immunity
3) Humoral immunity
4) Acquired immunity

108. Angiotensinogen is a plasma protein secreted by

1) Juxtaglomerular cells
2) Macula densa cells
3) Lungs
4) Liver

109. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in human

1) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.
2) A decreased level of estrogen causes osteoporosis in old people.
3) The length of sarcomere remains constant during muscle contraction.
4) The vertebral column has six lumbar vertebrae.

110. Select the incorrect statements with respect to cyclostomes
A. They lack scales and paired fins
B. They have rectangular mouth without jaws
C. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
D. They migrate to deep sea for spawning

1) A and D only
2) A and B only
3) C and D only
4) B and D only

111. Which of the following regarding human ovum is incorrect?

1) A non-cellular structure called zona pellucida is present beneath the vitelline membrane
2) The cell is surrounded by a plasma membrane called vitelline membrane
3) The corona radiata which covers the cell is made up of follicular cells
4) The ovum is spherical in shape

112. The embryo transfer (ET) technique after IVF includes which of the following process?

1) ICSI
2) IUT
3) GIFT
4) AI

113. A male whose father is disease free and mother suffering from haemophilia marries a normal woman. What percentage of their sons will suffer from haemophilia?

1) 0%
2) 25%
3) 50%
4) 100%

114. During mitosis in a eukaryotic cell, several structural and molecular changes occur in a definite sequence. Consider the following statements related to different stages of mitosis:
I. The nucleolus disappears completely and chromosomes start becoming visible due to condensation of chromatin fibres
II. Chromosomes align at the equatorial plane of the cell due to equal tension exerted by spindle fibres attached to kinetochores.
III. Sister chromatids remain attached to each other by centromeres throughout metaphase and separate only after splitting of centromeres.
IV. Disc-shaped proteinaceous structures develop on centromeres and serve as attachment sites for spindle fibres.
Which of the following options correctly represents the true statements only?

1) I, II and IV
2) II, III and IV
3) I, III and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

115. A cell observed under a microscope shows reappearance of nucleolus, disappearance of spindle fibres and loss of distinct chromosome morphology. Which of the  following events must have occurred earlier but not at this stage?

1) Maximum condensation of chromosomes
2) Splitting of centromeres
3) Reformation of nuclear membrane
4) Decondensation of chromatin

116. A bacterial culture initially contains 2.5×10⁴ cells per mL. The bacteria divide by binary fission every 30 minutes. However, after 120 minutes, due to nutrient limitation, only 75% of the cells continue to divide, while the rest become dormant. Assuming no cell death, what will be the approximate number of cells per mL after 180 minutes?

1) 1.6×10⁶
2) 2.0×10⁶
3) 2.4×10⁶
4) 3.2×10⁶

117. During anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes move towards opposite poles of the cell. This movement is characterized by a specific orientation of chromosome parts due to spindle fibre attachment. In this process, the __________ of each chromosome faces the pole, while the __________ trail behind due to resistance offered by the cytoplasm.

1) arms, centromere
2) chromatids, centromere
3) telomeres, kinetochores
4) centromere, arms

118. In a eukaryotic cell, a protein destined for secretion follows a specific pathway. Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of organelles involved?

1) SER → RER → Golgi → Lysosome → Plasma membrane
2) Golgi → RER → SER → plasma membrane
3) RER → Golgi cis-face → trans Golgi → secretory vesicles
4) RER → lysosome → Golgi → plasma membrane

119. Consider the following statements regarding mitochondria and chloroplasts:
I. Both contain circular DNA and 70S ribosomes.
II. Inner mitochondrial membrane is selectively permeable, while chloroplast inner membrane is freely permeable.
III. Cristae increase surface area for ATP synthesis, whereas thylakoids house photosynthetic pigments.
IV. Both organelles are believed to have evolved from endosymbiotic bacteria.
Which option is correct?

1) I, III and IV
2) I and II only
3) II and IV only
4) I, II, III and IV

120. The nucleus of a eukaryotic cell plays a crucial role in cellular regulation. Identify the incorrect statement:

1) Nuclear pores regulate exchange of materials between nucleus and cytoplasm
2) Nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly
3) Nuclear envelope is continuous with endoplasmic reticulum
4) Nuclear matrix is involved only in chromosome segregation during mitosis

121. Members of Kingdom Monera show immense diversity in their structure and metabolism. Consider the following statements regarding bacteria and cyanobacteria:
I. All bacteria possess peptidoglycan in their cell wall.
II. Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a and perform oxygenic photosynthesis.
III. Some bacteria survive extreme conditions due to the presence of unusual cell wall structures.
IV. Photosynthetic pigments in cyanobacteria are located in membrane-bound chloroplasts.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1) I and II only
2) II and III only
3) I, II and III
4) II, III and IV

122. Different groups of fungi show variation in their mode of reproduction and cellular organization. Consider the following statements:
I. Members of Phycomycetes are usually coenocytic and aseptate.
II. Ascomycetes produce sexual spores called basidiospores.
III. Basidiomycetes lack asexual reproduction by conidia.
IV. Dikaryotic stage is absent in Basidiomycetes.
Select the correct set of statements:

1) I and III only
2) II and IV only
3) I, II and III
4) I, III and IV

123. Kingdom Protista includes diverse unicellular eukaryotes. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1) Euglenoids possess both plant-like and animal-like characteristics
2) Dinoflagellates have two flagella placed in grooves perpendicular to each other
3) Diatoms possess silica cell walls and are major contributors to marine productivity
4) Slime moulds are photosynthetic during their vegetative phase

124. A plant group shows dominant sporophyte, heterospory, and endosporic development of female gametophyte, but seeds are absent. This group is best represented by:

1) Bryophytes
2) Pteridophytes
3) Gymnosperms
4) Angiosperms

125. A botanist discovers a plant with naked ovules, wind pollination, and absence of fruits. Which additional feature is most likely to be present?

1) Triploid endosperm
2) Double fertilization
3) Haploid endosperm
4) Presence of vessels in xylem

126. Bryophytes are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom. Consider the following statements:
I. Gametophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic phase.
II. Sporophyte is completely independent of the gametophyte.
III. Fertilization requires water for transfer of male gametes.
IV. Vascular tissues are absent in all bryophytes.
Which statements are correct?

1) I, III and IV
2) I and II only
3) II and III only
4) I, II, III and IV

127. A flower shows the following features on interpretation of its floral diagram:
(a) Bracteate and pedicellate flower
(b) Actinomorphic and bisexual
(c) Calyx of 5 united sepals, persistent
(d) Corolla of 5 petals, showing vexillary aestivation
(e) Androecium of 10 stamens, arranged
(f) Monocarpellary, superior ovary with marginal placentation
The flower most likely belongs to:

1) Solanaceae
2) Fabaceae
3) Malvaceae
4) Brassicaceae

128. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1) Tendril of pea — Leaf modification
2) Thorn of Bougainvillea — Stem modification
3) Pitcher of Nepenthes — Leaf modification
4) Storage roots of sweet potato — Stem modification

129. Interpret the following floral diagram description:

(a) Flower is epigynous
(b) Calyx and corolla are free
(c) Androecium consists of 5 stamens, epipetalous
(d) Ovary is bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior
(e) Placentation is basal

130. This floral diagram most likely belongs to:

1) Solanaceae
2) Brassicaceae
3) Asteraceae
4) Fabaceae

131. A plant organ increases in length from 2 cm to 10 cm in 4 days. During this period, the rate of growth was maximum on the second day. Which of the following growth curves best represents this pattern?

1) Linear growth curve
2) Exponential growth curve
3) Sigmoid (S-shaped) growth curve
4) Stepped growth curve

132. Two plants A and B show the following increase in height over 10 days:
(a) Plant A: 2 cm → 6 cm
(b) Plant B: 10 cm → 18 cm
Which conclusion is correct?

1) Absolute growth rate is higher in plant A
2) Absolute growth rate is higher in plant B
3) Relative growth rate is same in both
4) Relative growth rate is higher in plant B

133. A plant shows delayed senescence, enhanced lateral bud growth, and nutrient mobilization towards young leaves.
Which hormone is most likely responsible?

1) Auxin
2) Gibberellin
3) Cytokinin
4) Abscisic acid

134. Application of which hormone combination would most effectively promote lateral root initiation in a young seedling?

1) Auxin + cytokinin
2) Auxin + gibberellin
3) Cytokinin + gibberellins
4) Auxin + ethylene

135. In an ecosystem, species A benefits, species B is unaffected. Species C is harmed due to species A’s presence. The interaction between A and B, and A and C respectively is:

1) Mutualism; Predation
2) Commensalism; Amensalism
3) Protocooperation; Parasitism
4) Commensalism; Predation

136. Introduction of an alien fish species into a freshwater lake leads to extinction of native fish within a few years. The most likely reason is:

1) Lack of predators for alien species
2) Higher mutation rate in alien species
3) Occupation of an empty ecological niche
4) Lower carrying capacity of the lake

137. Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in biotechnology for developing insectresistant crops. Consider the following statements:
I. Bacillus thuringiensis produces crystal (Cry) proteins.
II. Cry proteins are protoxins that become active only in the acidic gut of insects.
III. The activated toxin binds to epithelial cells of insect foregut and creates pores.
IV. Bt toxin genes introduced into plants produce resistance against specific insect pests only.
Which of the following options is correct?

1) I, II, III and IV
2) I, III and IV
3) II and III
4) I and IV

138. With reference to RNAi technology, consider the following statements:
I. RNA interference involves silencing of a specific gene at the mRNA level.
II. Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) is the key molecule that initiates RNAi.
III. RNAi technology has been used to develop nematode-resistant tobacco plants.
IV. The nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects roots of tobacco plants.
V. RNAi is effective because both sense and antisense RNA strands are produced.
Which of the following options is correct?

1) I, II, III, IV and V
2) I, II, III and IV
3) II, III, IV and V
4) I, II, IV and V

139. Shelf life of Flavr Savr tomato is increased mainly due to

1) Reduced ethylene synthesis
2) Increased photosynthesis
3) Reduced pectin degradation
4) Increased water content

140. Which of the following statements about ABO blood group system are correct?
I. Blood group O has no antigens on RBC surface
II. Blood group AB has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
III. ABO blood group is controlled by three alleles
IV. Antigens are proteins and antibodies are carbohydrates

1) II and IV
2) I and III
3) I, II and III
4) I, III and IV

141. Assertion (A): Second heart sound is produced due to closure of semilunar valves.
        Reason (R): It marks the beginning of ventricular systole.

1) Both A and R are true, R explains A
2) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true

142. If heart rate is 72/min and stroke volume is 70 mL, cardiac output will be:

1) 3.5 L/min
2) 4.2 L/min
3) 5.0 L/min
4) 7.0 L/min

143. Identify the correct statements about lymph:
I. Lymph contains plasma proteins in lower concentration
II. Lymphocytes are present in lymph
III. Lymph helps in absorption of fats
IV. Lymph contains RBCs

1) I, II and III
2) II and IV
3) I and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

144. A person is unable to regulate body temperature and feels excessive hunger. The damaged part of brain is:

1) Cerebrum
2) Thalamus
3) Pons
4) Hypothalamus

145. Assertion (A): Cerebellum damage leads to loss of posture and balance
        Reason (R): Cerebellum integrates sensory perception and motor control.

1) Both A and R are true, R explains A
2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true

146. Which of the following statements about frog morphology is incorrect?

1) Frog skin is moist and richly supplied with glands
2) Cloacal aperture opens on the ventral side of the body
3) Tympanum represents the external ear
4) Hind limbs are longer and muscular compared to forelimbs

147. Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus is characterized by hyperglycemia.
        Reason (R): Insulin deficiency reduces glucose uptake by cells.

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true

148. Regarding structure and function of neurons, consider the following statements:
1) Dendrites conduct impulses towards the cell body.
2) Axon hillock is the usual site of action potential generation.
3) Myelin sheath is produced by Schwann cells in PNS
4) Nodes of Ranvier increase the speed of impulse conduction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1) I and II only
2) I, II and IV only
3) II, III and IV only
4) I, II, III and IV

149. Match the following:


1) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-3
2) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
3) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
4) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

150. Assertion (A): Cardiac muscle fibres are branched and interconnected.
        Reason (R): Presence of intercalated discs allows rapid spread of impulses.

1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true

151. Which of the following statements correctly explains multiple allelism?

1) A gene having more than two alleles in a zygote
2) A gene having more than two alleles in a population
3) Presence of both dominant and recessive alleles
4) A gene showing incomplete dominance

152. A pea plant with yellow seeds is crossed with a plant having green seeds. The progeny shows all yellow seeds. The genotype of the yellow-seeded parent is:

1) Either YY or Yy
2) Yy
3) Yy
4) YY

153. Which statement is correct?

1) Back cross is always with recessive parent
2) Test cross is always with homozygous dominant parent
3) All test crosses are back crosses
4) All back crosses are test crosses

154. In a population, the frequency of allele A is 0.7 and a is 0.3. After a few generations, it is observed that homozygous recessive individuals are decreasing rapidly. Which of the following is/are correct?
I. The population is not in Hardy– Weinberg equilibrium
II. Natural selection is acting against the recessive genotype
III. Gene flow must be the cause of change
IV. Allele frequencies will change over generations.

1) I and II only
2) II and IV only
3) I, II and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

155. Assertion (A): Gene flow can cause evolution even in the absence of natural selection.
        Reason (R): Migration of individuals can alter allele frequencies of a population.
 
1) Both A and R are true, R explains A
2) Both A and R are true, R does not explain A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true

156. Which of the following best supports adaptive radiation?

1) Homologous structures in mammals
2) Analogous wings of insects and birds
3) Evolution of marsupials in Australia
4) Industrial melanism

157. If the number of DNA molecules at the start of PCR is 1, how many DNA molecules will be present after 5 cycles, assuming 100% efficiency?

1) 16
2) 32
3) 64
4) 128

158. Which of the following statements are correct?
i. ampᴿ gene provides resistance against ampicillin
ii. tetᴿ gene can be inactivated by insertion of foreign DNA
iii. pBR322 was constructed by Herbert Boyer
iv. ori is responsible for replication and copy number control

1) i, ii, iii and iv
2) i, iii and iv
3) ii, iii and iv
4) i, ii and iv

159. A biomolecule is composed of repeating units joined by covalent bonds. The molecule shows 1,4 glycosidic linkages, is
stored in plants, and gives blue colour with iodine.
Which of the following statements regarding this biomolecule are correct?
I. It is a homopolysaccharide
II. It is a reducing sugar
III. It has helical structure
IV. It serves as an immediate source of energy

1) I and III
2) I, II and III
3) I, III and IV
4) II and IV

160. During protein denaturation, changes occur in the organisation of the polypeptide chain without breaking peptide bonds.
Which of the following levels of protein structure are affected?
I. Primary structure
II. Secondary structure
III. Tertiary structure
IV. Quaternary structure

1) II only
2) II and III only
3) II, III and IV
4) I, II, III and IV

161. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Each nucleotide contains a pentose sugar
II. RNA contains thymine
III. Phosphodiester bonds link nucleotides
IV. Nitrogenous bases are linked to sugar by glycosidic bond

1) I, III and IV
2) I and II only
3) II and III only
4) I, II, III and IV

162. The structure of DNA is stabilised by multiple interactions.
Which of the following contribute to DNA stability?
I. Hydrogen bonding between complementary bases
II. Phosphodiester bonds in backbone
III. Hydrophobic interactions between bases
IV. Peptide bonds

1) I and II only
2) I, II and III
3) II and IV only
4) I, III and IV

163. Which of the following cannot be correctly associated with the same biomolecule?

1. β-1,4 linkage – Structural role
2. Homopolymer – Repeating monomer
3. Helical structure – Iodine test positive
4. Reducing sugar – Non-reducing disaccharide

164. Which of the following pairs represent the same type of bond but in different biomolecules?

1) Peptide bond – Phosphodiester bond
2) Glycosidic bond – Ester bond
3) Hydrogen bond in DNA – Hydrogen bond in protein secondary structure
4) Disulphide bond – Ionic bond

165. If the active site of an enzyme is altered slightly, the most immediate effect will be on:

1) Reaction equilibrium
2) Activation energy
3) Substrate specificity
4) Product stability

166. Which option correctly represents the direction of synthesis of nucleic acid and protein, respectively?

1) DNA 5′→3′; Protein N→C
2) DNA 3′→5′; Protein C→N
3) DNA 5′→3′; Protein C→N
4) DNA 3′→5′; Protein N→C

167. Which of the following enzymes is NOT directly involved in DNA replication?

1) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
2) DNA ligase
3) RNA polymerase
4) Helicase

168. Which option correctly matches the RNA polymerase and its function in eukaryotes?

1) RNA pol I – tRNA synthesis
2) RNA pol II – mRNA synthesis
3) RNA pol III – rRNA synthesis
4) RNA pol I – hnRNA synthesis

169. A mutation changes the codon UAU → UAA in an mRNA sequence. The most likely consequence of this mutation is:

1) Incorporation of a different amino acid
2) Elongation of polypeptide chain
3) Premature termination of translation
4) No change in protein structure

170. In lac operon, the operator gene is best described as:

1) A gene coding for β-galactosidase
2) A DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds
3) A regulatory sequence where repressor binds
4) A gene coding for repressor protein

171. If the promoter region of lac operon is mutated such that RNA polymerase cannot bind, then:

1) Repressor cannot bind operator
2) Structural genes will never be transcribed
3) Inducer will activate transcription
4) CAP–cAMP complex will restore transcription

172. Which of the following correctly explains why lagging strand synthesis is discontinuous?

1) DNA polymerase cannot work without ligase
2) DNA polymerase can synthesise only in 5′→3′ direction
3) Helicase opens DNA only in one direction
4) Primase functions intermittently

173. A mutation in the TATA box of a eukaryotic gene will most directly affect:

1) Termination of transcription
2) Binding of transcription factors
3) Polyadenylation of mRNA
4) Splicing of introns

174. The following coding strand of a gene is given:
5′- ATG GCT TTT ACC GAA GGA TGA CCT -3′
A deletion occurs at nucleotide position 5 (from the 5′ end).

1) Which of the following outcomes is MOST accurate?
2) Only the second amino acid is altered
3) Reading frame is shifted from the second codon onward
4) A premature stop codon appears immediately
5) No effect due to degeneracy of code

175. A gene normally produces a polypeptide of 240 amino acids.
A mutation deletes two nucleotides at positions 718 and 719. Which statement is correct?

1) Exactly one amino acid will be deleted
2) Frameshift occurs affecting only last amino acid
3) Frameshift occurs affecting downstream sequence
4) No effect because deletion is near 3′ end

176. Consider a gene with the following mRNA sequence:
5′- AUG UCU GGC AAA UAU GAA UAG GCU -3′
Two separate mutations occur:
• Mutation I: Insertion of one nucleotide between positions 4 and 5
•Mutation II: Deletion of three nucleotides at positions 19–21
Which option correctly describes the final polypeptide?

1) Only one amino acid altered
2) Frameshift occurs then reading frame restored later
3) Early termination without frameshift
4) No change in protein length

177. During aerobic respiration, which pair of events occurs in the same cellular compartment?

1) Glycolysis and Krebs cycle
2) Krebs cycle and ETS
3) Glycolysis and fermentation
4) Link reaction and glycolysis

178. Which of the following steps is irreversible under cellular conditions?

1) Glucose → Glucose-6-phosphate
2) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose1,6-bisphosphate
3) Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate
4) All of the above

179. Which of the following processes occurs in cytosol but is indirectly dependent on mitochondria?

1) Glycolysis
2) Fermentation
3) Krebs cycle
4) ETS

180. A plant cell is supplied with glucose under aerobic conditions. Oxygen is present, but the activity of cytochrome oxidase is suddenly inhibited.
Which sequence of effects is MOST likely?

1) Glycolysis stops → Krebs cycle continues → NADH decreases
2) ETS stops → NADH accumulates → Krebs cycle slows down
3) Fermentation stops → ATP synthesis increases
4) Link reaction accelerates → CO₂ production increases