NEET REVISION TEST XIII (14.03.2026)

1. Two trains each of length 100 m, are running on parallel tracks. One train overtakes the other in 20 s and they cross each other in 10 s. What are the speeds of the two trains?

2. Two long parallel wires carrying currents I₁ and I₂ give a magnetic field of 3 G at a point exactly mid-way between the two wires. When one of the currents is reversed, the field becomes 5 G. The ratio of the large current to the smaller one is:

3. If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of the difference between the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is?

1. 90°
2. 45°
3. 180°
4. 0°

4. Representing the stopping potential V along y-axis and (1 / λ) along -axis for a given photocathode, the curve is a straight line, the slope of which is equal to:

1. e/hc
2. hc/e
3. ec/h
4. he/c

1. 8 J
2. 11J
3. 5 J
4. 2J

6. A car travels a distance AB in three equal segments: the first third at a velocity of v₁ m/s, the second third at v₂ m/s, and the final third at v₃ m/s. Given that v₃ = 3v₁, v₂ = 2v₁ and v₁ = 11 m/s, the average velocity of the car is:

1. 12 m/s
2. 18 m/s
3. 16 m/s
4. 11 m/s

7. When a body falls freely toward the earth, its total mechanical energy (ignoring air resistance):

1. increases
2. decreases
3. first increases and then decreases
4. remains constant

8. An excited H-atom, initially in the n = 2 state, undergoes a collision with a He⁺ ion and the H-atom makes a transition to the ground state. The He⁺ ion also undergoes a simultaneous transition to an excited state and no photons are emitted. Which, of the following, is possible? He⁺ ion makes a transition:

1. from n = 1 to n = 2
2. from n = 2 to n = 3
3. from n = 3 to n = 4
4. from n = 2 to n = 4

9. 1 g of water at 100 ℃ requires 540 cal in order to be converted to 1g of steam, at normal atmospheric pressure. The internal energy of the water is and the steam is U₂, Then:

1. U₂ = U₁
2. U₂– U₁= 540cal
3. U₂– U₁ > 540cal
4. U₂– U₁ < 540c

10. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation, X = Acos(ωt), where X = displacement at time t, ω frequency of oscillation.
Which one of the following graphs correctly shows the variation of acceleration, a with time, t?
(T = time period)

11. Three identical dipoles of dipole moment p (each) are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle ABC, of side a. The dipoles are parallel to the side; BC.

The potential energy of interaction between the dipoles at B, C equals: (k=1/(4πε₀)

12. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The frequencies of the incident and reflected beams of monochromatic light remain unchanged when passing from one medium to another.
Reason (R): The incident, reflected, and refracted rays are coplanar.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

13. The potential difference V_A V_B between the points A and B in the given figure is:

1. -3 V
2. 3V
3. + 6 V
4. + 9 V

14. Three liquids of densities p₁, p₂ and p₃ (p₁ > p₂ > p₃) having the same value of the surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ₁, θ₂ and θ₃ obey:

1. π/2 > θ₁ > θ₂ > θ₃ ≥ 0
2. 0 > θ₁ > θ₂>θ₃ ≥ π/2
3. π/2 > θ₁> θ₂> θ₃≥ 0
4. π > θ₁> θ₂> θ₃≥ π/2

15. A particle of mass m moves uniformly in a circle of radius R with a speed v. The average force acting on the particle when it completes a semi-circle is:

16. A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, both made of pure copper, are placed on the ground in contact with each other, as shown in the figure. Both have identical radii, and the height of one equals the height of the other. The center-of-mass of the combination:


1. is closer to A, centre of the sphere
2. is closer to B, centre of the cylinder
3. is at the mid-point of A and B
4. cannot be determined from the information given

17. In a purely resistive AC circuit, which of the following sketches represents the variation of the current amplitude I₀ with the frequency ω?

18. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is and its angle of minimum deviation is π/3 then the angle of the prism is:

19. An ideal gas forms the working substance of a Carnot engine, and is taken around the Carnot cycle. We form the integral: I = , where dQ is the heat supplied to the gas and T is the temperature of the gas. The integral is evaluated over the entire cycle. The value of the integral I is:

1. zero
2. negative
3. positive
4. non-negative (positive or zero)

20. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27 ℃. Its density is:
(R = 8.3 J mol^-1 K^-1)

1. 0.2kg / m³
2. 0.1kg / m³
3. 0.02kg / m³
4. 0.5kg / m³

21. A steady current I flows in a small square loop of wire of side L in a horizontal plane. The loop is now folded about its middle such that half of its lies in a vertical plane. Let μ₁ and μ₂ (vectors) denote the magnetic moment due to the current loop before and after folding, respectively. Then:

22. From a circular ring of mass M and radius R an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is K times MR² . The value of K will be:

1. 1/4
2. 1/8
3. 3/4
4. 7/8

23. If the electric lines of force in a region are depicted as shown in the figure, one can conclude that the electric field is:


1. non-uniform
2. uniform
3. both uniform and non-uniform
4. zero everywhere

24. A woman pushes a trunk on a railway platform which has a rough surface. She applies a force of 100 N over a distance of 10 m. Thereafter, she gets progressively tired and her applied force reduces linearly with distance to 50 N. The total distance through which the trunk has been moved is 20 m. The plot of force applied by the woman and the frictional force, which is 50 N versus displacement is given below. Work done by the two forces over 20 m are:


1. 1750 Jand-1000J
2. 1750 J and 1000 J
3. -1750 J and 1000 J
4. -1750 Jand-1000J

25. Two waveforms given by;

are superposed on the 2-axis.
Which, of the following, is true?

1. Node is formed at x = 0
2. Antinode is formed at x = 30cm
3. There is no vibration at x = 10cm
4. None of the above are true.

26. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would Earth (mass m = 5.98 ×10²⁴ kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole?

1. 10^-9 m
2. 10^-9 m
3. 10^-9 m
4. 100 m

27. A particle of charge q, mass m falls under gravity starting from rest. It falls through a height H, while being acted upon by an electric field, in addition to gravity. At the end of its motion, it briefly comes to rest. The potential difference between the two extreme points of its motion is:

1. mgH/q
2. 2mgH/q
3. mqH/2q
4. Zero

28. The rms value of the current:
i =4+4 cos ωt (in ampere),
ω being the angular frequency, is:

1. 4 A
2. 8 A
3. 4 + 2 √2 A
4. 2 √6A

29. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time .On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time  The time taken by her to walk upon the moving escalator will be:

30. Two identical balls of cork (C₁, C₂) are charged oppositely with equal amounts of charge distributed uniformly over their respective surfaces. Two similar (of same size) balls of copper (M₁, M₂) are charged in the same way as the previous two balls. C₁, C₂ are allowed to touch each other briefly and are separated, and the same is done with M₁, M₂ The electrostatic force between C₁, C₂ is F_c and that between M₁, M₂ is F_M at the same separation. Then:

1. F_c = 0, F_M ≠ 0
2. F_c ≠ 0, F_M ≠ 0
3. F_c = 0, F_M = 0
4. F_c ≠ 0, F_M ≠ 0

1. 13:1 and 14:1
2. 14:1 and 1:1
3. 1:1 and 14:1
4. 1:1 and 13:1

32. The energy density in a wire which is under stress is given by:

33. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by, F = 600 – 2 × 10⁵ t where F is in newton and t is in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?

1. 9 N-s
2. Zero
3. 0.9 N-s
4. 1.8 N-s

34. The error in the measurement of distance is 2%, while that in time is 1%. The error in speed, computed from the above, is:

35. An electromagnetic wave, given by its electric field , is travelling in space:  =  sin 2π (10³  s^-1)  t – x/λ) the wave:
(c = speed of light in vacuum = × 10⁸ m/s , nearly)

36. The magnetic field due to a short permanent magnet varies with distance r, from the magnet, as:

1. 1/r
2. 1/r²
3. 1/r³
4. 1/r⁴

37. How much work per kilogram needs to be done to shift a 1 kg mass from the surface of the earth to infinity? (Take acceleration due to = g and radius of the earth = R.)

1. g/R
2. R/g
3. gR
4. g/R²

38. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is:

1. twice per revolution.
2. four times per revolution.
3. six times per revolution.
4. once per revolution.

39. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (p) with temperature (T) for copper?

40. The Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is equal to:

1. zero
2. unity
3. infinity
4. may have any finite non-zero value

41. Consider the binary logic circuit shown in the figure, where the inputs are A, B, C while the output is Y. Then, Y equals:


1. A OR B
2. B OR C
3. A OR C
4. A OR B OR C

42. A projectile is fired with a constant speed v, at an angle & above the horizontal. The angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection, measured at the instant the projectile is at its highest point, is: (A: constant)

1. A sin θcos θ
2. A sin² θ cos θ
3. A sin θ cos² θ
4. A (sin θ + cos θ)

43. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the ratio of periods of revolution of an electron in = 2 and n = 1 orbits is:

1. 2:1
2. 4:1
3. 8:1
4. 16:1

44. The net force acting on a projectile at the highest point of its trajectory, moving with a speed v, at a height H is:
(m is the mass of the projectile)

1. zero
2. mg
3. mg + mv²/H
4. mg mv²/H

45. A moving charged particle (charge: q) enters a uniform vertical magnetic field B and emerges in the opposite direction, in the same horizontal plane but displaced by a distance d. The momentum carried by the particle is:

1. qBd/2
2 .qBd
3. 2qBd
4. qBd/4

CHEMISTRY

46. The below-mentioned reaction can be classified as:


1. Dehydation reaction
2. Williamson alcohol synthesis
3. Williamson ether synthesis
4. Dehydrogenation of alcohol

47. Which among the following compounds will give nucleophilic addition reaction?

48. Consider the following first-order reactions:
A → C ; t_(1/2)  = 15min,  B→ D; t_(1/2)  = 5min
The initial concentrations of A and B are 1 molar and 8 molar respectively. The time when the concentration of A and B becomes equal is ‘X’ minutes. The value of 2X is:

1. 40 min
2. 50 min
3. 45 min
4. 54 min

49. Carbylamine test is used to detect the presence of a primary amino group in an organic compound. Which of the following compound is formed when this test is performed with aniline?

50. Which species cannot act as both an oxidant and a reductant?

1. H₂ O₂
2. SO₂
3. SO₃
4. ΗΝΟ₂

1. Acetone
2. Methane
3. Acetaldehyde
4. Ethyl alcohol

52. In the given reaction, product A is:

53. The vapour pressures of pure benzene and toluene are 160 torr and 60 torr, respectively. The mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase in contact with an equimolar solution of benzene and toluene will be:

1. 0.50
2. 0.6
3. 0.27
4. 0.73

54. The reaction that is a part of large scale industrial preparation of nitric acid is:

55. In the following sequence of reactions:

The end product (c) is:

1. Acetone
2. Ethylamine
3. Acetic acid
4. Methylamine

56. Match the compounds in Column-I with their corresponding common names in Column-II:


Options:
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

57.
(p-ethyl phenol) (p-methyl anisole) (p-ethyl benzyl alcohol)
Above compounds can be differentiated by using the reagent :-

1. NaOH, Tollen’s reagent, FeCl3
2. CrO3, Tollen’s reagent, FeCl3,
3. Tollen’s reagent, CrO3, FeC13
4. Na, Tollen’s reagent, FeCl3

58. In a hydrogen concentration cell using solutions with pH 3 and pH 5, which pH belongs at the cathode to make the reaction spontaneous, and what is the resulting cell EMF respectively? (Given: 2.303RT/F = 0.059)

1. Solution of pH = 3and + 0.118V
2. Solution of pH = 5and + 0.118V
3. Solution of pH = 3and + 0.059V
4. Solution of pH = 5and + 0.059V

59. The number of moles of being reduced to Mn²⁺ under acidic conditions by 4.517 × 10²⁴ electrons are:

1. 1.5 moles
2. 7.5 moles
3. 2.5 moles
4. 5.0 moles

60. For the redox reaction, the correct stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants a, b, and c respectively for the balanced equation are:

1. 16,5,2
2. 2, 5, 16
3. 2, 16, 5`
4. 5, 16, 2

61. What is the correct order of boiling points for the hydrides of 15th group?

1. NH₃ > BiH₃  > SbH₃  > AsH₃  > PH₃
2. BiH₃ > NH₃  > SbH₃  > AsH₃  > PH₃
3. BiH₃ > SbH₃  > NH₃  > AsH₃  > PH₃
4. BiH₃ > SbH₃  > AsH₃  > NH₃  > PH₃

66. With the electronegativity values provided (H = 2.1 , F = 4 Cl = 3 Br = 2.8 12.3, N = 3), the correct order of decreasing electronegativity difference of the following compounds is:

67. Bohr’s atomic model provides explanations for:

1. The spectrum of hydrogen atoms only.
2. The spectrum of an atom or ion containing only one electron.
3. The spectrum of hydrogen molecule.
4. The solar spectrum.

68. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair around the central atom?

1. H₂O
2. BF₃

4. PCl₃

69. Identify the species in which the central atom exhibits sp² hybridization:

1. PH₃
2. NH₃

4. SbH₃

70. The boiling point of IM Urea solution is 101 deg * C At the same temperature, the boiling point of IM KCI solution will be:

1. 101 ℃
2. 102 ℃
3. 202℃          
4. Cannot be predicted (Insufficient Data)

71. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of a chemical reaction is:

1. HI
2. CuCN/KCN
3. H₂O
4. CH₃ CH₂ OH

72. With a ground state energy of 13.6 eV for a hydrogen atom, what would be the energy in the second excited state?

1. -6.8 eV
2. -3.4 eV
3. -1.51 eV
4. -4.53 eV

73. The number of significant figures in 1.0001 is/are:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5

74. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare Freon -12?

1. Wurtz reaction
2. Free radical halogenation
3. Fitting reaction
4. Swartz reaction

75. Lactose is a disaccharide composed of:

1. α- D-Glucose and β-D-Galactose
2. β- D-Glucose and β-D-Galactose
3. β-D-Glucose and α- D-Galactose
4. α- D-Glucose and α- D-Galactose

76. The correct order of alkene reactivity towards an electrophile is mentioned in:

1. CH₂ = CH – Cl > CH₂ = CH – OCH₃
2. CH₂=CHCI < CH₂ = CCl₂
3. CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃  – CH =CH₂
4. CH₂  = CH -OCH₃  > CH₂= CH -CH₂ OH

77. Consider the given half-cell reactions:

The standard electrode potential for the spontaneous reaction in the cell is x × 10^-2  V at 298 K. The value of z is: (Nearest Integer)

1. 32
2. 23
3. 45
4. 17

78. The correct shape and hybridization for XeF4 are:

1. Octahedral, sp³ d²
2. Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³ d³
3. Planar triangle, sp³ d³
4. Square planar, sp³ d²

79. The product ‘X’ in the below mentioned reaction is:

80. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

      (a)        (b)        (c)        (d)
1.    (iv)      (ii)        (iii)       (i)
2.    (ii)      (ii)        (iii)       (i)
3.    (iv)     (iii)       (i)         (iii)
4.     (i)      (iii)       (iv)       (ii)

81. Consider the given reaction:
2A(g) + B(g) + C(s)→ 2D(g)
For this reaction,   
∆U° = – 10.5 kj and ∆U°=-44.1JK^(-1)
The value of ∆°G deg for the above reaction at 25 ℃ will be:

1. 1.2 kj
2. 0.16 kJ
3. 3.2 kJ
4.1.2 kJ

82. Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C and D are given below:
A. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶         B. 1s²  2s² 2p⁴
C. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹   D. 1s2 2s² 2p⁵
What the correct order of elements based on their increasing electron affinity?

1. A < C < B < D
2. A < B < C < D
3. D < B < C < A
4. D < A < B < C

83. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5 g mol^-1.The ratio of ³⁵Cl to ³⁷Cl in naturally occurring chlorine is close to:

1. 4:1
2. 3:1
3. 2:1
4. 1:1

84. What is the molality of a solution containing 20% (mass/mass) KI in water? (molar mass of KI = 166 g )

1. 1.51
2. 7.35
3. 4.08
4. 2.48

85. For the reaction, Overline the correct representation of the consumption & formation of reactants and products is:

86. Assertion (A) : In N₂ H₄ any one N-atom can coordinate with a central metal cation in a coordination compound.
      Reason (R): N₂H₄ can also act as an ambidentate ligand.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

87. The number of EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules that are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca²⁺ ion is/are:

1. Six (6)
2. Three (3)
3. One (1)
4. Two (2)

88. When 0.1 mol CoCl₃(NH₃)⁵ is treated with an excess of AgNO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl is obtained. The conductivity of the solution will correspond to:

1. 1:3 electrolyte
2. 1:2 electrolyte
3. 1:1 electrolyte
4. 3:1 electrolyte

89. An element among the following has the highest first ionization energy is:

1. TI
2. Ga
3. Al
4. In

90. A compound that does not undergo S_N1 reaction with OH^– is:

91. Identify the correct statements regarding the life cycle the malarial parasite:
I: Sporozoites are the infectious form for humans.
II: The parasites initially multiply within the red blood cells and then attack the liver cells.
III: The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
IV: Fertilization occurs in human RBCs

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. II and IV only
4. I and III only

92. The immediate source of chemical energy that can be used by skeletal muscle tissue to allow muscle contraction is:

1. glucose
2. glycogen
3. ATP
4. creatine phosphate

93. In the human ribcage, true ribs are defined as:

1. Floating ribs that do not connect to the sternum
2. Ribs connected indirectly to the sternum via cartilage of other ribs
3. Ribs directly attached to the sternum via costal cartilage
4. Ribs that do not articulate with the vertebral column

94. The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:

1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary

95. How many of the given statements are correct?
I: Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
II: When insect pollinated flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence.
III: Animals are attracted to flowers by colour and/or fragrance.
IV: The relationship between plants and their animal pollinators is one of the best examples of mutualism.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

96. Presence of glucose (Glycosuria) and ketone bodies (Ketonuria) in urine are indicative of:

1. diabetes mellitus.
2. diabetes insipidus.
3. adrenal diabetes.
4. pituitary diabetes.

97. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1. Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
2. In gymnosperms female gametophyte is free-living
3. Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes
4. Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

98. About the detritus food chain (DFC) in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The detritus food chain primarily depends on decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, that break down dead organic matter.
Statement II: The detritus food chain operates completely independently from the grazing food chain, with no connections between the two.
Choose the correct option:

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.

99. The method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesize new strands is called:

1. Dispersive
2. Conservative
3. Semiconservative
4. Non-conservative

100. Ethylene is widely used in agriculture to control fruit ripening. Ethephon, an ethylene-releasing compound, is commonly used for this purpose. Which of the following best explains why ethephon is preferred over direct ethylene application?

1. Ethephon releases ethylene at a controlled rate, allowing gradual ripening without over-ripening.
2. Ethephon inhibits ethylene production within the plant, controlling ripening more precisely.
3. Ethephon only releases ethylene in the presence of oxygen, ensuring safety in application.
4. Ethephon acts as a synergist with cytokinins, enhancing overall growth along with ripening.

101. The idea of mutations was brought forth by:

1. Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
2. Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population
3. Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyages
4. Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose

102. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Contact inhibition is a process where normal cells stop dividing when they come into contact with other cells.
Reason (R): Cancer cells exhibit contact inhibition, which is why tumors grow in acontrolled manner.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

103. Trichomes in stems can perform all the following functions except:

1. Generate secretory products to cause sting.
2. Reduce herbivory.
3. Bring about greater water loss through extended surface area of the epidermis.
4. Provide shade.

104. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: The vital capacity (VC) of the lungs is equal to the sum of the tidal volume (TV), the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
Statement II: Mathematically, FRC can be represented as: FRC = RV + ERV

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

105. There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac.
a: Three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end and constitute the egg apparatus.
b: The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of one synergid and two egg cells.
c: The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the chalazal tip called filiform apparatus.

1. Only b is correct
2. Only c is correct
3. Only a and c are correct
4. a, b and c are incorrect

106. Identify the direct consequence of malfunction in the Leydig cells.

1. Reduced testosterone production affecting spermatogenesis
2. Failure of sperm transportation through the vasa efferentia
3. Degeneration of Sertoli cells leading to poor nutrition for germ cells
4. Absence of fructose in seminal plasma

107. Assertion(A): Microinjection is the only way to introduce alien DNA into host animal cells.
        Reason(R): Biolistic or gene gun is a method more suitable for transforming plant cells.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False and (R) is True.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

108. While cutting dsDNA the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion can be checked by employing:

1. Agarose gel electrophoresis
2. FISH
3. Ethidium bromide
4. Autoradiography

109. Consider the following statements:
I: The uterine endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.
II: Estrogen secreted during the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle helps in the development of follicle.
III: hCG secreted by trophoblast cells helps in maintaining corpus luteum.
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

110. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Reason (R): The inner mitochondrial membrane is permeable to protons.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

111. Which feature is common to all compounds found in the acid soluble pool?

1. They are all lipids.
2. They have molecular weights ranging from 18 to around 800 daltons.
3. They are all proteins.
4. They have molecular weights above 10,000 daltons.

112. Viroid is an infectious agent that:

1. is larger than viruses.
2. was found to be a free DNA.
3. lacks the protein coat that is found in viruses.
4. has RNA of a very high molecular weight.

113. What specific role the symbiotic microbes like Rhizobium play in agriculture?

1. They facilitate nitrogen absorption by the leaves of the plants
2. They perform biological nitrogen fixation
3. They carry out denitrification
4. They enable plants to assimilate nitrogen efficiently

114. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased will be:

1. Emphysema
2. Asthma
3. Tuberculosis
4. Common cold

115. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Glucocorticoids like cortisol inhibit immune responses and inflammation.
Reason(R): Cortisol promotes the activity of T-cells, increasing immune surveillance.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

116. Which of the following is a measure of the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalyzes a reaction at half its maximum velocity?

1. K_m value
2. PK_a value
3. Q10
4. ½ V_max

117. The depolarization and repolarization phases of an action potential are respectively a result of:

1. Influx of Sodium; Influx of Potassium
2. Efflux of Sodium; Efflux of Potassium
3. Efflux of Sodium; Influx of Potassium
4. Influx of Sodium; Efflux of Potassium

118. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Interferons are released by virusinfected cells and help other cells resist the virus.
Reason (R): Interferons prevent the multiplication of viruses

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

119. Select the correct statement.

1. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
2. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
3. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

120. When a shoot tip transforms into a flower:

1. It is always solitary
2. The flower is always short-lived
3. It is never solitary
4. The flower is always long-lived

121. The process by which humans use animal breeding and plant breeding to selectively develop particular phenotypic traits is:

1. reverse evolution
2. artificial selection
3. mutation
4. natural selection

122. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to the liver from:

1. Stomach
2. Kidneys
3. Intestine
4. Heart

123. Contraction of diaphragm:

1. increases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about inhalation
2. decreases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about exhalation
3. increases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about inhalation
4. decreases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about exhalation

124. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A):Frogs have a cloaca that serves as a common opening for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
Reason (R):The cloaca stores digestive enzymes and excretes them into the intestine to aid in digestion.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

125. As per blood grouping system, the blood group of father is 𝑩⁺ , mother is 𝐴⁺ and child is 𝑂⁺ . Their respective genotype can be

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. B only
2. C & B only
3. D & E only
4. A only

126. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): In competitive enzyme inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme, preventing the substrate from binding.
Reason (R): Competitive inhibitors structurally resemble the substrate, allowing\ them to bind reversibly to the active site and reduce the enzyme’s activity without affecting the maximal velocity (Vmax) of the reaction.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is True

127. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

1. Zygote
2. Diplotene
3. Leptotene
4. Pachytene

128. In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division properly lasts for:

1. only about 1 hour
2. approximately 90 minutes
3. between 4 and 5 hours
4. 95% time of the cell cycle

129. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid.
Reason (R): Terrestrial organisms must conserve water.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

130. A symptom of acute chest pain when enough oxygen is not reaching the heart muscle is called

1. Heart attack
2. Angina
3. Cardiac arrest
4. Coronary artery disease

131. The main function of aldosterone in Renin A ngiotensin mechanism is:

1. It converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I.
2. It is a powerful vasodilator.
3. It causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule.
4. It activate the JG cells to release rennin.

132. Which of the following are functions of ethylene in plants?
I: Fruit ripening
II: Closure of stomata in water stress
III: Internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice plants.
IV: Root growth and root hair formation.

1. Only I, II and III
2. Only I, III and IV
3. Only II, III and IV
4. 4.I, II, III and IV

133. If a fig tree species fails to attract its specific wasp pollinator, what is the most likely outcome?

1. The tree will adapt by attracting other pollinators.
2. The fig tree’s reproductive success will decline sharply.
3. The fig tree will increase nectar production to attract more wasps.
4. Other insect pollinators will replace the specific wasp

134. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts is crucial for ATP Synthesis.
Reason (R): The movement of protons across the thylakoid membrane from the stroma into the thylakoid lumen drives ATP synthesis

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (R)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

135. Bacillus thuringiensis has been used as:

1. Diazotroph
2. Bioinsecticide
3. Biofertilizer
4. Thrombolytic

136. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clues to common ancestry.
Reason (R): The more recent the common ancestor between organisms the less related are they to each other.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

137. Which of the following is not a function of ethylene?

1. Promotes fruit ripening and senescence.
2. Induces apical dominance and cell division.
3. Stimulates abscission of leaves and flowers.
4. Enhances horizontal growth in seedlings (triple response).

138. The impact of immigration on population density is:

1. Negative
2. Both positive and negative
3. Neutralized by natality
4. Positive

139. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in the vertical section and choose the correct option:
I: Root hair zone
II: Zone of meristems
III: Root cap zone
IV: Zone of maturation
V: Zone of elongation
Codes:

1. III, II, V, I, IV
2. I, II, III, IV, V
3. IV, V, I, III, II
4. V, IV, III, II, I

140. A student performs a dihybrid cross and the phenotypic ratio of progeny deviated significantly from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. The most plausible explanation for this would be:

1. The genes are linked
2. Reciprocal translocations are responsible for this finding.
3. Segregation of alleles is not taking place.
4. The gene is pleiotropic

141. During stress or emergency situations, the adrenal medulla releases catecholamines. Which of the following is not an effect of adrenaline/noradrenaline?

1. Increased heart rate and cardiac contraction strength
2. Vasodilation of blood vessels supplying skeletal muscles
3. Decreased glycogen breakdown in liver cells
4. Increased respiratory rate and alertness

142. In an area where peppered moth is found, pollution is cleaned up. What should happen to the color of moths living in the woods?

1. no change
2. dark-colored moths should change to light-colored
3. light-colored moths should change to dark-colored
4. light-colored moths should become more common

143. Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?

1. Handwritten scientific names should be underlined separately.
2. Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet.
3. Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicized.
4. Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters.

144. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
2. Spores in gymnosperms are produced within sporangia.
3. Sporangia in gymnosperms are borne on sporophylls which are arranged spirally along an axis to form lax or compact strobili or cones.
4. Male strobili in gymnosperms are called macrosporangiate.

145. Which of the following statements is true about zoospores and gametes in brown algae?

1. Both zoospores and gametes in brown algae are motile and have equal sized flagella.
2. Zoospores are non-motile while gametes are motile, both lacking flagella.
3. Zoospores are motile with two flagella, while gametes are non-motile.
4. Zoospores and gametes are both motile and similar in the number of flagella.

146. In bryophytes:
I: Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately.
II: The sporophyte is not free-living but attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are Correct
4. Both I and II are Incorrect

147. What is the function of the CF0 portion of ATP synthase?

1. To synthesize ATP by utilizing the proton gradient
2. To form a channel for facilitated diffusion of protons across the thylakoid membrane
3. To bind protons and directly produce ATP in the stroma
4. To transport electrons from PS II to PS I

148. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group?

1. Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
2. Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of algae and a protozoan
3. Yeast is used in making bread and brew is a fungus
4. Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of Protista

149. Red-green color blindness is an X-linked recessive disorder. If a color-blind male marries a carrier female, what is the probability that their first son will be colorblind?

1. 25%b
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%

150. `RNA interference involves:

1. Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
2. Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
3. Interference of RNA in the synthesis of DNA
4. Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

151. What is the best description of an endocrine gland?

1. They secrete mucus, saliva, ear wax and digestive enzymes
2. Their products are released through ducts or tubes
3. Unlike exocrine glands, they are not modified epithelium
4. Their secretions are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland

152. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape. Identify the incorrect match:

1. Coccus Spherical
2. Bacillus Rod-shaped
3. Vibrium Icosahedron
4. Spirillum Spiral

153. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Golgi apparatus in a eukaryotic cell.

1. They are part of endomembrane system.
2. Golgi apparatus remains in close association with endoplasmic reticulum.
3. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
4. Golgi apparatus divides by binary fission.

154. Phellogen cuts cells on both sides where:

1. outer cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
2. inner cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
3. outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm
4. inner cells differentiate into cork or phellem and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm

155. Consider the given two statements.
Assertion (A): Electrical synapses are rarer in the human body.
Reason (R): Electrical synapses are faster than chemical synapses

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains(A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is False

156. Which of the following is a feature of the contraceptive pill Saheli?

1. It is a once-daily pill with significant side effects.
2. It contains copper ions to prevent fertilization.
3. It is a non-steroidal, once-a-week pill with minimal side effects.
4. It works as an emergency contraceptive.

157. In an electrical synapse, how is the nerve impulse transmitted between neurons?

1. By releasing neurotransmitters across the synaptic cleft
2. Through the direct movement of ions via gap junctions
3. By synaptic vesicles fusing with then postsynaptic membrane
4. Through saltatory conduction at the nodes of Ranvier.

158. Anatomical features of a dorsiventral leaf include:

1. Parallel venation and a single layer of palisade cells.
2. Differentiated upper and lower epidermis, with the upper epidermis being thicker.
3. Undifferentiated mesophyll and scattered vascular bundles.
4. Differentiated mesophyll into palisade and spongy tissues.

159. Determine which of the following statements about reproductive strategy of populations much below the carrying capacity is most likely to be correct?

1. They typically inhabit stable environments.
2. They produce a few offspring with high survival rates.
3. They have a high intrinsic growth rate.
4. They reproduce multiple times in their life and have a very long life span

160. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): PTH is a hypocalcaemic hormone.
Reason (R): PTH stimulates reabsorption of Ca 2+ by the renal tubules.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.

161. Which of the following statements regarding epithelial tissue in different organs is correct?
A. Microvilli in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of the nephron increase surface area for filtration.
B. Simple columnar epithelium is composed of multiple layers of tall, slender cells with nuclei at the base, primarily aiding in protection.
C. Ciliated epithelium is found lining the bronchioles and fallopian tubes, where it moves particles or mucus in a specific direction.
D. Cuboidal epithelium in the PCT of the nephron mainly facilitates mucus secretion rather than absorption.
Choose the correct option:

1. Only A and C are correct
2. Only B and D are correct
3. Only C is correct
4. Only A, C and D are correct

162. Which of the following is a true statement about the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

1. They convert CO2 and 𝐻2𝑂 into glucose.
2. They take place in the stroma of the chloroplast.
3. They generate ATP and NADPH while splitting water to release 𝑂2.
4. They involve the use of carotenoids only

163. A major site for synthesis of lipids is:

1. SER
2. Symplast
3. Nucleoplasm
4. RER

164. Regarding the difference between the chemical structure of DNA and RNA:
I: A pentose sugar -ribose in case of RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA – is present.
II: Both are polymers with nucelosides as their constituent monomeric units.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

165. If the average duration of cardiac cycle were 0.6 seconds, the number of cardiac cycles per minute will be about:

1. 60
2. 75
3. 72
4. 100

166. During summer sleep and winter sleep in frogs, the gaseous exchange takes place:

1. Across the alveoli in the lungs.
2. Through the moist buccal mucosa.
3. In the gills.
4. Through the skin.

167. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. it is used for prenatal sex determination
2. it can be used for detection of Down’s syndrome
3. it can be used for detection of cleft palate
4. it is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.

168. By process of leaching during decomposition of detritus, water soluble :

1. organic nutrients go down the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts
2. inorganic nutrients go down the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts
3. organic nutrients go down the soil horizon and get precipitated as available salts
4. inorganic nutrients go down the soil horizon and get precipitated as available salts

169. The T-cells:
I: themselves do not secrete antibodies
II: help B cells to produce antibodies

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

170. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): Fertilsation in humans typically occurs in the uterus. in humans typically occurs
Reason(R): The zygote undergoes cell division and blastocyst formation before implantation in the uterus.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

171. The number of correct statements from the given statements is/are:
I: Yeast is used for commercial production of ethanol.
II: Lipases from microbes are used in detergent formulations.
III: Bottled fruit juices are clearer when clarified by the use of pectinases and proteases derived from microbes.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

172. Which of the following properties is the reason that whole plants can be regenerated from explants?

1. Phenotypic plasticity
2. Cellular totipotency
3. Open growth
4. Open differentiation

173. As their primary mechanism of action, combined oral contraceptive pills:

1. inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation
2. increase sperm penetration of cervix by making the cervical secretions thick
3. make uterine endometrium hostile to implantation
4. slow down tubal motility and ova transport interfering with fertilization

174. Tilman in his experiments found that:

1. Plots with more species showed less year to year variation in total biomass.
2. Plots with more species showed more year to year variation in total biomass.
3. Plots with less species showed less year to year variation in total biomass.
4. There is no relation between species diversity and biomass production.

175. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: The most important cause today for animals and plants being driven to extinction is over-exploitation by human beings.
Statement II: Conserving biodiversity hotspots is an Ex-situ method of conservation of threatened animals and plants.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

176. Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis.
Identify the incorrect statements:
1. DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel toward the anode terminal.
2. DNA fragment travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA.
3. The Smaller the DNA fragment, the greater the distance it travels through it.
4. Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing it to UV radiation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (c) and (d)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b) and (d)

177. What is the specific composition of bacterial ribosomes?

1. A 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit
2. A 50S large subunit and a 30S small subunit
3. An 80S ribosome with equal subunits
4. A 70S ribosome with multiple subunits

178. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Glycolysis results in the net gain of 2 ATP molecules.
2. NADH and FADH2 produced in respiration are used in the ETC.
3. The terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is oxygen.
4. The ATP yield from fermentation is higher than aerobic respiration.

179. Eukaryotic genes:
I: include coding regions (exons) and noncoding regions (introns).
II: are part of a larger DNA sequence within a chromosome.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

180. What is the correct description of a prothallus?

1. A structure in gymnosperms formed just after fertilisation
2. A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes.
3. A gametophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
4. Sex organs bearing stage in Bryophytes