NEET REVISION TEST IX (25.02.2026) -

Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST IX (25.02.2026)

Name

ZZR ID

PHYSICS

1. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section, and same material is 0.25 0. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

1. 10
2. 4 Ω
3. 0.25 Ω
4. 0.5 Ω

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None

2. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10^-5 The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is:

1. 0.10 cm
2. 0.25 cm
3. 0.20 cm
4. 0.15 cm

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None

3. A parallel beam of light of wavelength A is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of the slit is:

1. 2π
2. 3π
3. 4π
4. πλ

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None

4, A block of mass m is suspended from a massless spring with a spring constant of 2k/3 as shown in the figure. When the block is slightly displaced vertically downward and released, it undergoes simple harmonic motion (SHM). The time period of the oscillation is given by:

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None

5. The figure shows a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode. The breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 6 V and the load resistance is R_L = 4kΩ. The series resistance in the circuit is = 1kΩ. If the battery voltage V_B varies from 8V to 16V, what are the minimum and maximum values of the current through the Zener diode?

1. 0.5 mA; 8.5 mA
2. 1.5 mA; 8.5 mA.
3. 1 mA; 8.5 mA
4. 0.5 mA; 6 mA

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None

7. Sam pulls a block of ice (mass m) across a level floor using a rope under a constant tension T. The rope is inclined at an angle to the horizontal. The block moves at a velocity v for a time ∆t. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the ice and the floor is u_k.

What is the magnitude of the frictional force ?

1. 0
2. u_k mg
3. T cos α
4. T sin α

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None

8. Which graph best represents the relationship between the magnitude of the upward acceleration of an elevator and the tension in the cable used to support and move the elevator?

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None

9. Which, of the following graphs best represents an isothermal process in an ideal gas? The symbols used have their standard interpretation.

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None

10. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected across an AC source of voltage V, given by; V = V₀ sin The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor would then be given by:

Deselect Answer

None

11. The dimensional formula for the coefficient of viscosity is:

1. [ M^-1 L T⁰]
2. [ M^-1 L^-1 T ^-1]
3. [ M^-0 L T¹]
4. [ M L^-1 T ^-1]

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None

12. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): In a system of particles interacting by means of gravitational forces, the gravitational potential energy is a function of the distances between the particles only.
Reason (R): Gravitational force is a conservative force; it depends on the separation between the two interacting particles, and acts along the line joining them.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

1. (2t²+ 4t⁴ ) W
2. (2t³+ 4t³ ) W
3. (2t³+ 4t⁵ ) W
4. (2t³+ 4t⁴ ) W

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None

14. The nuclear radius of a nucleus having N neutrons and P protons is proportional to:

1. N + P
2. (N + P) ^1/3
3. (N + P) ^2/3
4. (N + P) ^-1/3

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None

15. If the ends of the meter stick are maintained at θ₁℃ and θ₂℃, the temperatures measured at the 25 cm and 80 marks are observed to be 35 ℃ and 68 ℃ respectively. Then the temperatures of the left end (θ₁℃) and the right end (θ₂℃) are:

1. θ₁= 0, θ₂= 90
2. θ₁= 10, θ₂= 85
3. θ₁= 20, θ₂= 80
4. θ₁ = 30, θ₂ = 100

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None

16. Two identical rectangular plane sheet A and B each of surface charge density ε₀ Cm^-2 are placed parallel to each other as shown in figure. The electric field at the mid point P will be:

1. 2NC^-1
2. NC^-1
3. 0.5NC^-1 4. zero

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None

17. The current through the primary of a step-down transformer with a turns-ratio of 4 is 1.6 A. The current in the secondary circuit is:

1. 0.4 A
2. 0.8 A
3. 6.4 A
4. 12.8 A

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None

18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O₂ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all the vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:

1. 15RT
2. 9RT
3. 11RT
4.4RT

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None

18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O₂ and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all the vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:

1. 15RT
2. 9RT
3. 11RT
4.4RT

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None

19. Moving perpendicular to field B, a proton and an alpha particle both enter an area of uniform magnetic field B. If the kinetic energy of the proton is 1 MeV and the radius of the circular orbits for both particles is equal, the energy of the alpha particle will be:

1. 4 MeV
2. 0.5 MeV
3. 1.5 MeV
4. 1 MeV

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None

20. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by, y₁ = 4sin600 πt and y₂ = 5sin 608 πt. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:

1. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25: 16 between waxing and waning
2. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25: 16 between waxing and waning
3. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81: 1 between waxing and waning
4. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81: 1 between waxing and waning

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None

21. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by the monochromatic light of wavelength λ and λ/ If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the surface of the mineral is:
[h =Plank’s constant, c = speed of light]

1. hc/2λ
2. hc/λ
3. 2hc/λ
4. hc/3λ

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None

22. Wind blows towards north with a speed of 20 m/s. A plane flies in air with a velocity relative to ground of 100m / s towards east. Then, the velocity of the plane relative to air is:

1. 100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards north.
2. 100 m/s towards east and 20 m/s towards south.
3. 100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards north.
4. 100 m/s towards west and 20 m/s towards south.

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None

23. A particle moves around a circle with a unique uniform speed in each revolution. After the first revolution and during the 2^nd revolution: its speed doubles; and during the 3^rd revolution, its speed becomes 3 times the initial speed and so on. The time for the 1^st revolution is 12 sec. The average time per revolution, for the first four revolutions, is:

1. 4.8 s
2. 9.6 s
3. 6.25 s
4. 6 s

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None

Deselect Answer

None

25. An element has binding energy 8 eV/nucleon. If it has a total binding energy 128 eV, then the number of nucleons are:

1. 8
2. 14
3. 16
4. 32

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None

26. If a number of forces act on the body and the body is in static or dynamic equilibrium, then:

1. work done by individual forces must be zero
2. net work done is positive
3. net work done is negative
4. net work done is zero

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None

27. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF resistance 50Ω is connected to an AC source of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v₀ and the frequency of the AC source is v, then:

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None

28. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a radius R one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If speed of the liquid in the tube is v, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is:

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None

29. Two very long wires of length L are placed parallel to each other separated by a distance r (r<<L). The wires carry equal currents i. The force between the two wires is nearly:

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None

30. Pick the wrong statement in the context with a rainbow.

1. Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion, refraction, and reflection of sunlight.
2. When the light rays undergo two internal reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed.
3. The order of colours is reversed in the secondary rainbow.
4. An observer can see a rainbow when his front is towards the sun.

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None

31. The band gap in silicon is nearly 1.1 eV at room temperature. If photons having an energy slightly greater than 1.1 eV are incident on silicon:

1. they are absorbed and an electron-hole pair is created
2. they are absorbed and retained by the silicon atoms
3. they are never absorbed by the silicon
4. they are reflected and cause the formation of holes

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None

32. Two forces of magnitude A and A/2 act perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of the resultant force is equal to:

1. A/2
2. (√(5 ) A)/2
3. 3A/2
4. 5A/2

Deselect Answer

None

33. The velocity-time (v-t) graph of a body moving along the z-axis is shown in the figure. The average speed during the first six seconds of motion is:

1. 10 m/s
2. 12 m/s
3. 15 m/s
4. 20 m/s

Deselect Answer

None

34. Photons having an energy of 10.2 eV are incident on atoms/ions mentioned in
Column-I; the result of the interaction in
Column-II while the final transition of the atoms/ions (change in quantum number ) is given in
Column-III. Match these.

1. A-P-II, B-P-III, C-P-IV, D-Q-I
2. A-P-II, B-P-III, C-P-I, D-Q-I
3. A-P-III, B-P-II, C-Q-I, D-Q-I
4. A-P-II, B-Q-I, C-P-III, D-P-IV

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None

35. Two bodies with equal linear momentum have a kinetic energy ratio of . What is the ratio of their masses?

1. 9/16
2. 4/3
3. 3/4
4. 16/9

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None

36. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When a body is raised from the surface of the earth, its potential energy increases.
Reason (R): The potential energy of a body on the surface of the earth is zero.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). L
2. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

37. A potential difference V AB is impressed across AB and the potential difference across CD (Ven) is measured. Assume, V AB =300 V.

The current through the 8 resistance is:

1. 300/17 A
2. 300/8.5 A
3. 30 A
4 (300/14 + 300/11) A

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None

38. Equal positive and negative charges are placed at x = +a and x= – a Which one of the diagrams represents the equipotential surfaces best? The dotted lines represent negative potentials, the solid lines positive potentials; at equal intervals in potential (i.e., V = ± 5V , ± 10 V, ± 15 V,… etc.).

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None

1. 6.4 N-m²/C
2. 3.2 N-m²/C
3. 64 N-m²/C
4. 32 N-m²/CDeselect Answer

None

40. A metal cube is exposed to a hydrostatic pressure of 4 GPa. The bulk modulus of the metal is given as B = 8 × 10¹⁰ What is the percentage change in the volume of the cube?

1. 2.5
2. 5
3. 7.5
4. 10

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None

41. A 600pF capacitor is charged by 10 V battery. It is then disconnected from the supply and connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. The energy lost in the process will be:

1. 3 × 10^-9 J
2. 1.5 × 10^-9 J
3. 3 × 10^-8 J
4. 1.5 × 10^-8 J

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None

42. A double-slit experiment is performed with one slit four times as wide as the other. Assuming that the amplitude of light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit-width, the ratio of the maximum and minimum intensities on the screen, I_max/I_min =

1. 5/3
2. 3/1
3. 25/9
4. 9/1

Deselect Answer

None

43. A copper ball is suspended by means of an insulting thread within an evacuated enclosure, the walls of which are maintained at a constant temperature of O℃ . The copper ball has to be heated by an electric current of 1A, passed through a resistor, so as to maintain its temperature at 200 ℃. When the surface of the ball is blackened and the experiment is repeated: a current of 2A is now required. The emissivity of the surface of the copper ball is:

1. 1/2
2. 1/4
3. 1/√2
4. 1/√8

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None

44. A container is filled with a liquid of density 4_p as shown in the figure. What is the velocity of efflux through the orifice?
(p represents the density of water, and the acceleration due to gravity is g =10 m/s²1. 20 m/s
2. 10 m/s
3. 14 m/s
4. 28 m/sDeselect Answer

None

45. Three identical uniform rings, each of mass m & radius r, are joined together so that their centres lie in an equilateral triangle, and the rings touch each other at their edges. The moment of inertia of this system, about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the rings & passing through the centre of any ring, is:

1. 3 mr²
2. 7 mr²
3. 11 mr²
4. 5.5 mr²Deselect Answer

None

CHEMISTRY

46. Given the following acids:
A: Trichloroacetic acid
B: Trifluoroacetic acid
C: Acetic acid
D: Formic acid
The correct order of decreasing acid strength of the above-given acids is:

1. B > A > D > C
2. B > D > C > A
3. A > B > C > D
4. A > C > B > D

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None

47. Consider the reaction, A Products. When the concentration of A increases 4 times then its rate increases 2 times. The order with respect to A will be:

1. 0.5
2. 1.0
3. 2.0
4. 3.0

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None

48. Which of the following exhibits a pπ-dπ bond?

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None

49. FrCr₂O₄+ Na₂ CO₃ + Aіг → (A) + Fe₂ O₃ +CO₂(A) + (B) → CC + KCl → D (Orange)
C and D are strong oxidizing agents. D is used as the primary standard in volumetric analysis. On the basis of the above paragraph.
The incorrect statement among the following is.

1. C is more soluble in water than D.
2. D consists of two tetrahedral sharing one corner with a Cr-O-Cr bond angle of 126°
3. Aqueous solution of A is yellow colored.
4. The oxidation state of Cr in D is +3.

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None

50. Consider the given equilibrium constants:
N₂+ 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ K₁
N₂+ O₂ ⇌ 2NO K₂H₂+ 1/2 O₂ ⇌ H₂O K₃The equilibrium constant (K) of the following reaction will be:

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None

51. The largest freezing point depression among the following 0.10 m solutions is shown by:

1. KCl
2. C₆ H₁₂ O₆
3. Al₂ (SO₄)₃
4. K₂ SO₄

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None

52. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. (CH₃)₃COH is less acidic than (CH₃)₃ SiOH
2. Like CO, its analogue Si is not stable.
3. In phosgene, C-O bond length is longer than expected while C-Cl bond length is shorter.
4. All of the above.

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None

53. Consider the following reactions.

The products P & Q in the above reactions are, respectively:

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None

54. Match the following:

Which of the following is the correct option?

a        b        c        d
1. (ii) (i)      (iv)    (iii)
2. (Ⅲ) (iv)    (i)      (i)
3. (iv) (Ⅲ)    (ii)     (i)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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None

55. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is:

1. 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
2. 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
3. 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
4. 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p

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None

56. Consider the following facts:
A. Copper solution can be stirred with a silver spoon.
B. Zinc solution can be stirred with a silver spoon.
C. Copper solution cannot be stored in a zinc pot.
Based on the above facts, choose the correct order of the standard reduction potential of Cu²⁺ / Cu; Zn²⁺/ Zn and Ag⁺/ Ag:

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None

57. The most reactive compound among the following for electrophilic aromatic substitution is:

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None

58. The standard cell potential of the following cell Zn |Zn²⁺(aq) ||Fe²⁺ (aq)|Fe is 0.32 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for the reaction: Zn(s) +Fe²⁺(aq) →Zn²⁺(aq) + Fe(s) (Given: underline 1F =96487Cmol^-1)

1. −61.75kJ
2. +5.006kJ
3. −5.006kJ
4. +61.75kJ

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None

59. What chemical changes occur when Mohr’s salt is strongly heated?

1. It decomposes into ferric oxide and ammonia gas.
2. It sublimes directly into ferrous sulfate and ammonium sulfate.
3. It forms a complex with water molecules.
4. It undergoes a reversible reaction to form ferrous hydroxide and ammonium sulfide.

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None

60. Arrange the following in increasing order of stability:

1. e < d < c < a < b
2. d < e < c < a < b
3. a < e < d < c < b
4. c < d < c < b < a

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None

61. Which, among the following, diazonium chlorides undergoes coupling reaction most readily?

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None

62. The oxidation state exhibited by the terminal bromine atom in Br₃ O₈ is:

1. + 4
2. + 5
3. + 2
4. + 6

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None

63. The number of molecules of H₂ SO₄ present in 100 mL of 0.02 M H₂ SO₄n solution are:

1. 12.044 × 10²⁰ molecules
2. 6.022 × 10²³ molecules
3. 1 × 10²³ molecules
4. 12.044 × 10²³ molecules

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None

64. A volatile solute (A) is mixed with a volatile solvent (B). For this solution, vapour pressure is represented as P = 125 X_A + 45 torr ( X_A = Mole fraction of A in liquid phase) The vapour pressures of A and B in a pure state, respectively, are:

1. 125 torr and 45 torr
2. 170 torr and 45 torr
3. 125 torr and 170 torr
4. 45 torr and 170 torr

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None

65. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The energy of the He⁺ ion in n = 2 state is same as the energy of H atom in n = 1 state.
Statement II: It is possible to determine simultaneously the exact position and exact momentum of an electron in H atom.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true and Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false, and Statement II is true

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None

66. During the dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H₂SO₄ the initiation step is:

1. Protonation of an alcohol molecule
2. Formation of carbocation
3. Elimination of water
4. Formation of an ester

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None

67. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Magnetic moment of [Fe (H₂ O)₆]³⁺ is 5.92 BM and that of [Fe (CN)₆]^3- is 1.73 BM.
Reason (R): The oxidation state of Fe in both complexes is +3.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

68. Assertion (A): The metallic character is highest on the extreme left of the periodic table.
Reason (R): Ionisation enthalpy decreases across a period.
In light of the above statements choose answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

69. Which of the following will not show mutarotation?

1. Maltose
2. Glucose
3. Lactose
4. Sucrose

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None

70. The correct order of nucleophilic substitution, for the following compounds, when reacted with NaOH is:

1. A > B > C > D
2. D > C > A > B
3. D > C > B > A
4. A > B > D > C

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None

71. Arrange the following in decreasing order of a-hydrogen:

1. i > ii > iii
2. ii > i > iii
3. ii > iii > i
4. iii > ii > i

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None

72. Deselect Answer

None

73. Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with I₂/ NaOH?

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None

74. In graphite, the hybridized state of carbon and nature of graphite, respectively, are

1. sp³ and aromatic
2. sp² and nonaromatic
3. sp² and aromatic
4. sp³ and nonaromaticDeselect Answer

None

75. A mixture of gases contains H₂ and O₂ gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w) The molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture will be:

1. 1:4
2. 4:1
3. 16:1
4. 2:1Deselect Answer

None

76. The number of electrons passing per second through a cross-section of Cu wire carrying 10 ampere is:

1. 1 ×10¹⁹
2. 8 × 10¹⁹3. 6 ×10¹⁹4. 1.6 × 10¹⁹

Deselect Answer

None

77. Match List-1 (Elements) with List-II (Atomic radii (pm)):

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (b)     (c)     (d)
1. (ii) (i)      (iv)    (iii)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii)     (1)
3. (i) (iv)    (iii) (ii)
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

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None

78. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Salts of strong acid and strong base do not undergo hydrolysis.
Reason (R): These salts undergo hydration.

1 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

Deselect Answer

None

80. The general electronic configuration for the 2nd-row transition series is:

1. [Ne]3d^1-10 4s²
2. [Ar]3d^1-10 4s^1-2
3. [Kr]4d^1-10 4s^1-2
4. [Xe]3d^1-10 4s^1-2Deselect Answer

None

81. Among the following compounds, which one is a transition metal with an oxidation number of zero?

1. [Fe (H₂ O)₃](OH)₂
2. [Co (NH₃)₆]Cl₂
3. [Ni (CO)₄]
4. [Pt(C₂ H₄)Cl₃]Deselect Answer

None

82. Determine ∆U for the process where, one mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume:

(Use R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol ^-1)

1. 1260 J
2. 2520 J
3. 5040 J
4. O JDeselect Answer

None

83. Among the following transformations, the hybridization of the central atom remains unchanged in:

Deselect Answer

None

84. Grignard reagent and organolithium compounds react with dry ice separately. Hydrolysis of the products from these two reactions will give:

1. Ketones and carboxylic acids, respectively.
2. Carboxylic acids and ketones, respectively.
3. Only carboxylic acids
4. Only ketones

Deselect Answer

None

85. The ratio of o and a in pyrophosphoric acid is:

1. 1:6
2. 5:3
3. 6:1
4. 2:3

Deselect Answer

None

86. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): If Q_p < K_p, reaction moves in the direction of reactants.
Reason (R): The reaction quotient is defined in the same way as the equilibrium constant at any stage of the reaction.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

87. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M³⁺ with four monodentate ligands L₁, L₂, L₃ and L₄ absorbs wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow, and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand. strength of the four ligands is:

1. L₄ < L₃ < L₂ < L₁2. L₁ < L₃ < L₂ < L₄
3.L₃ < L₂ < L₄ < L₁
4. L₁ < L₂ < L₄ < L₃

Deselect Answer

None

88. An aromatic compound A on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound B with the molecular formula C₆ H₇ N, which on reacting with CHCl₃ and alcoholic KOH produces a foul-smelling compound C. Identify the correct statements regarding this reaction:
a. Compound A is benzamide (C6H5CONH2).
b. Compound B is phenylamine (aniline, C6H5NH2).
c. Compound C is phenyl cyanide (C6H5CN).
d. Compound C is phenyl isocyanide (C6H5NC).

Options:
1. (a) and (c)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (d)
4. (a), (c) and (d)

Deselect Answer

None

89. Which compound among the following will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction?

Deselect Answer

None

90. Which position will be attacked most rapidly by the nitronium ion (-NO₂)⁺ when the compound undergoes nitration with HNO₃/H₂ SO₄ :-

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Deselect Answer

None

BIOLOGY

91. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:
A B C D
1. III IV II I
2. I II IV III
3. II III I IV
4. II I IV III

Deselect Answer

None

92. The given figure shows:

1. Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil
2. Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium
3. Monocarpellary gynoecium
4. Sterile pistil

Deselect Answer

None

93. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, В-I, C-IV, D-II
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. A-1, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Deselect Answer

None

94. Identify the incorrect statement/s:
Statement I: Stamens are epipetalous in the flowers of lily.
Statement II: Diadelphous stamen are seen in citrus.
Statement III: A sterile stamen is called as staminate.

1. Only Statement I and Statement II
2. Only Statement III
3. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III
4. Only Statement I and Statement III

Deselect Answer

None

95. Each taxonomic group/category:
I. is merely a morphological aggregate
II. is a distinct biological entity
III. represents a rank

1. Only II is correct
2. Only II and III are correct
3. I, II and III are correct
4. Only III is correct

Deselect Answer

None

96. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function:

Deselect Answer

None

97. In aerobic cellular respiration oxygen acts as the:
I: final acceptor of electrons
II: final proton acceptor

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither 1 nor II

Deselect Answer

None

98. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. P Q S R
2. Q P S R
3. Q P R S
4. P Q R S

Deselect Answer

None

99. All the following statements regarding enzymes are correct except:

1. Almost all enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
2. Almost all enzymes are substrate specific.
3. Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions.
4. Enzymes may be used many times for a specific reaction.

Deselect Answer

None

100. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Macromolecules are generally polymers of smaller units called monomers.
Statement II: Lipids are macromolecules due to their high molecular weight.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

101. Plant growth is considered indeterminate because:

1. Plants stop growing after reaching a certain size
2. Plants have a fixed number of cells
3. Plants can grow throughout their lifetime due to meristematic tissues
4. Plant growth is limited to specific seasons

Deselect Answer

None

102. What is incorrect regarding the tRNA molecule?

1. There are no tRNAs for stop codons
2. It is the smallest of the major cellular RNAs
3. The actual structure of tRNA looks like a clover leaf
4. Its 3′ end is the amino acid acceptor end

Deselect Answer

None

103. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement A: In Emphysema, the surface area of gaseous exchange is reduced
Statement B: Due to excessive smoking, the walls of alveoli are damaged

1. Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect
2. Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
3. Only Statement A is incorrect
4. Only Statement B is incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

104. During fertilization, polyspermy is prevented after the entry of the first sperm by:

1. Secretion of enzymes by the oviduct to block sperm entry.
2. Hormonal changes in the cervix to inhibit sperm passage.
3. Rapid fragmentation of the zona pellucida post-fertilization.
4. Changes in the zona pellucida to block additional sperm.

Deselect Answer

None

105. Which statement correctly describes energy flow in different ecosystems?

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain (GFC) is the primary pathway for energy flow.
2. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the grazing food chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
3. In an aquatic ecosystem, energy flows primarily through the detritus food chain (DFC).
4. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the grazing food chain (GFC) dominates over the detritus food chain (DFC).

Deselect Answer

None

106. In the seeds of cereals such as maize:
I: Endosperm is absent
II: The seed coat is membranous and generally fused with the fruit wall

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

107. The C3 and 𝐶4 photosynthesis pathways are so called because the initial carbon fixation product in them are respectively:

1. pyruvate; malate
2. malate; pyruvate
3. 3-phosphoglycerate; oxaloacetic acid
4. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate; phospho-enol-pyruvate (PEP)

Deselect Answer

None

108. Consider the following statements about the stages of prophase I in meiosis:
(i) Leptotene stage is marked by the gradual visibility of chromosomes under the light microscope.
(ii) Zygotene stage involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes, forming synaptonemal complexes.
(iii) Pachytene stage is where the crossing over between non-sister chromatids occurs.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. Only (i) and (ii)
2. Only (ii) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (iii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Deselect Answer

None

109. How many of the given statements regarding HIV/AIDS are true?
I. AIDS is a congenital disease
II. Syndrome means a group of symptoms
III. HIV is a rotavirus
IV. HIV does not have an envelope
V. HIV can be transmitted by an infected mother to her child through placenta

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Deselect Answer

None

110. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): If a couple have a female child from the first pregnancy, they will have a male child from the next pregnancy.
Reason (R): In each pregnancy, there is always 50 per cent probability of either a male or a female child.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

Deselect Answer

None

111. For each unit difference in the partial pressure across the diffusion membrane, the amount of carbon dioxide that diffuses:

1. is higher than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times lower than that of oxygen
2. is lower than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times lower than that of oxygen
3. is higher than the amount of oxygen as the solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen
4. is lower than the amount of oxygen as the solubility 4. of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen

Deselect Answer

None

112. Match the following organisms with their respective groups in Protista:

Codes:
A B C D
1. Q P R S
2. P Q R S
3. Q P S R
4. S P Q R

Deselect Answer

None

113. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Connell’s elegant field experiment showed that on the rocky sea, the larger and competitively superior barnacles dominate the intertidal area and exclude the smaller barnacles from that area.
Reason (R): Generally, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

114. The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher as compared to that of O2.This is because:

1. Solubility coefficient of CO2 is higher
2. Solubility coefficient of CO2 is lesser
3. Amount of gases in blood is independent of partial pressures of the gases in the atmosphere
4. Arterial blood contains more O2 than CO2

Deselect Answer

None

115. Match each disease in Column-I with its primary symptom in Column-II:

Options
A B C D
1. R S Q P
2. Q P S R
3. S Q P R
4. P S R Q

Deselect Answer

None

116. Which of the following statements regarding genetic drift is true?

1. Genetic drift results from differential reproductive success.
2. Genetic drift has a greater effect in large populations.
3. Genetic drift tends to increase genetic variation within a population.
4. Genetic drift is usually based on a random chance event.

Deselect Answer

None

117. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Codes:
A B C D
1. R Q S P
2. Q R P S
3. R Q P S
4. Q R S P

Deselect Answer

None

118. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): In aerobic cellular respiration the presence of oxygen is vital.
Reason (R): Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

Deselect Answer

None

119. Viroids are different from viruses because they consist only of:

1. DNA without a protein coat
2. Proteins without nucleic acid
3. RNA without a protein coat
4. Both DNA and RNA without a protein coat

Deselect Answer

None

120. A person with HIV infection starts suffering from infections, that could have been otherwise overcome, when the virus significantly destroys:

1. Macrophages
2. Helper T cells
3. Cytotoxic T cells
4. B cells

Deselect Answer

None

121. Geneticists refer to “fitness” as:

1. the measure of an organism’s adaptability to various habitats.
2. the number of mates each individual of the population selects.
3. the relative health of each individual in the population.
4. a measure of the contribution of a genotype to the gene pool of the next generation.

Deselect Answer

None

122. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Cell division is a very important process in all living organisms.
Reason (R): During the division of a cell, DNA replication and cell growth also take place.

1. (A) is True; (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4. (A) is False; (R) is True

Deselect Answer

None

123. A molecule of ATP is produced in glycolysis during:
I: The conversion of glucose into glucose 6- phosphate.
II: The conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Deselect Answer

None

124. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Deselect Answer

None

125. Polymerase Chain Reaction, used to amplify DNA, is carried out in certain steps. Identify the correct chronology of these steps:

1. Denaturation – Primer annealing – Extension of primers
2. Denaturation – Extension of primers – Primer annealing
3. Extension of primers – Primer annealing -Denaturation
4. Primer annealing – Extension of primers -Denaturation

Deselect Answer

None

126. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitutes a:

1.Neuro-muscular junction
2.Motor end plate
3.Sarcomere
4.Motor unit

Deselect Answer

None

127. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The splitting of water is essential for the light reactions of photosynthesis
Reason (R): The electrons released during the splitting of water are used to replace those lost by chlorophyll a.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2. 2.Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

128. Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first:

1. plants with haplontic life cycle
2. terrestrial plants with dominant gametophytic generation
3. plants to produce flowers pollinated by insects
4. terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues

Deselect Answer

None

129. Match the following columns and select the correct

a b c d
1. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
3. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
4. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Deselect Answer

None

130. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to:

1. reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes
2. benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity
3. inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
4. proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls

Deselect Answer

None

131. During the production of curd from milk, lactic acid bacteria (LAB):
I: produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins.
II: improves its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B1.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

132. Identify the correct statement:

1. Monocarpellary refers to a gynoecium with multiple pistils.
2. Multicarpellary means that the gynoecium has a single pistil.
3. Syncarpous indicates that the pistils are fused together.
4. Apocarpous describes pistils that are fused together

Deselect Answer

None

133. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: There are a number of events in the life of a plant where more than one PGR interact to affect that event, e.g., dormancy in seeds/buds, abscission, senescence, apical dominance, etc.
Statement II: Many of the extrinsic factors such as temperature and light, control plant growth and development via PGR such as vernalisation, flowering, dormancy, seed germination, plant movements, etc.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

134. The decrease in the rate of heartbeat, speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output is under the control of

1. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
2. Neural signals through the parasympathetic nerves
3. Adrenaline
4. ANS

Deselect Answer

None

135. In the ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle:

1. amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
2. amount of DNA remains the same in each cell
3. chromosome number is increased
4. amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.

Deselect Answer

None

136. The type of vision cockroaches have due to the presence of multiple ommatidia in their compound eyes is called as:

1. Binocular vision
2. Monocular vision
3. Mosaic vision
4. Panoramic vision

Deselect Answer

None

137. Identify the correct statements:
I. Skeletal muscles are striated and voluntary
II. Smooth muscles are striated and involuntary
III. Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I. II and III

Deselect Answer

None

138. Consider the following two statements:
The stromal lamellae membranes in the chloroplast lack
A: Photosystem II
B: NADP reductase enzyme

1. Only A is correct
2. Only B is correct
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.

Deselect Answer

None

139. Regarding bryophytes:
I: The main plant body is haploid.
II: The sex organs are multicellular.
III: The sporophyte is not free-living.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

Deselect Answer

None

140. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement A: Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.
Statement B: The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids, quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.

1. Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect
2. Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
3. Only Statement A is correct
4. Only Statement B is correct

Deselect Answer

None

141. How does a steroid hormone alter the activity of its target cells?

1. It leads to the generation of a second messenger in the target cell.
2. It makes the target cell’s plasma membrane freely permeable to all cations.
3. It enters the cell and alters the gene expression.
4. It digests holes in the cell’s plasma membrane.

Deselect Answer

None

142. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion(A): During the depolarization phase of a nerve impulse, the inside of the neuron becomes positive compared to the outside.
Reason (R): Depolarization occurs due to the influx of sodium ions (Na) into the neuron through sodium channels.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

Deselect Answer

None

143. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
Statement II: In some women the hymen persists even after coitus.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

144. Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called

1. Positively charged form
2. Negatively charged form
3. Neutral form
4. Zwitter ionic form

Deselect Answer

None

145. Which of the following is not an example of an ectoparasite?

1. Lice on humans
2. Ticks on dogs
3. Copepods infesting marine fish
4. Malarial parasite developing in human RBC

Deselect Answer

None

146. In gymnosperms:
I: the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after fertilisation.
II: the male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

147. The number of correct statements from the given 4. statements is:
I: Ramapithecus was more man-like, while Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
II: Homo habilis had a brain capacity between 650-800cc.
III: Homo erectus probably did not eat meat.
IV: Agriculture came around 10,000 years ago, and human settlements started.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Deselect Answer

None

148. Suberin deposition in the form of Casparian strips is found on which of the following walls of endodermal cells?

1.Transverse only
2.Tangential only
3.Transverse and radial
4.Tangential and radial

Deselect Answer

None

149. In Down’s syndrome, the extra chromosome 21 is most often the result of which of the following genetic mechanisms?

1. Deletion during meiosis
2. Duplication during mitosis
3. Non-disjunction during meiosis
4. Reciprocal translocation between chromosome 21 and 22

Deselect Answer

None

150. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are the components of Binomial nomenclature. This naming system was proposed by ‘Z’:

1. X-Generic name, Y – Specific epithet, Z – Carolus Linnaeus 1.
2. X-Specific epithet, Y – Generic name, Z – R.H. Whittaker
3. X-Specific epithet, Y – Generic name, Z – Carolus Linnaeus
4. X- Generic name, Y – Specific epithet, Z – R.H. Whittaker

Deselect Answer

None

151. Match the following reproductive health terms with their descriptions:

Codes:
A B C D
1. P R S Q
2. Q P S R
3. P Q S R
4. S P R Q

Deselect Answer

None

152. All of the following are a part of biotechnology except:

1. in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby
2. synthesising a gene and using it
3. developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective gene
4. insertion of an IUD for contraception

Deselect Answer

None

153. Which of the following statements about Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) toxin is incorrect?

1. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that specifically kill lepidopterans (e.g., tobacco budworm), coleopterans (e.g., beetles), and dipterans (e.g., flies, mosquitoes).
2. The inactive Bt protoxin is converted into an active 2. toxin inside the insect’s gut due to the alkaline pH, leading to cell lysis and insect death.
3. Bt toxin proteins form crystalline inclusions during a specific phase of bacterial growth.
4. Bt toxin is secreted in its active form and immediately kills insect larvae upon ingestion.

Deselect Answer

None

154. Oxyhaemoglobin formation and dissociation depend on several physiological factors.
Under which condition does oxyhaemoglobin dissociate more readily?

1. High pO2 , low pCO2 , low H concentration, and low temperature
2. High pO2 , high pCO2 , high H concentration, and high temperature
3. Low pO2 , high pCO2 , high H concentration, and high temperature
4. Low pO2 , low pCO2 , high H concentration, and low temperature

Deselect Answer

None

155. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: A population has attributes such as birth rates and death rates, which are measured per capita, whereas an individual organism does not.
Statement II: An individual can have its own birth rate and death rate, similar to a population.

1. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

156. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. The use of the chemical fertilisers has contributed significantly to this pollution.
2. Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
3. 3.The main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
4. Chemical fertilizers are integral and essential component of organic farming.

Deselect Answer

None

157. Gametes in Spirogyra are:

1. flagellated and similar in size
2. flagellated and dissimilar in size
3. non-flagellated and dissimilar in size
4. non-flagellated and similar in size

Deselect Answer

None

158. Regulation of gene expression or chromosome function by the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome is the mechanism of action of all the following hormones except:

1. ACTH
2. Cortisol
3. Oestrogen
4. Thyroxin

Deselect Answer

None

159. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

1. 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
2. 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
3. 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
4. 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

Deselect Answer

None

160. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light is rarely a limiting factor for photosynthesis in nature.
Reason (R): Increase in incident light beyond a point causes the breakdown of chlorophyll and a decrease in photosynthesis.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

Deselect Answer

None

161. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Deselect Answer

None

162. Which ART method involves direct injection of a sperm into the ovum?

1. ZIFT
2. ICSI
3. GIFT
4. IUT

Deselect Answer

None

163. In racemose type of inflorescences:
I: the main axis continues to grow.
II: the flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Both I and II are correct

Deselect Answer

None

164. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): When Griffith injected a mixture of heat-killed S and live R bacteria, the mice died.
Reason (R): Mice infected with the S strain (virulent) die from pneumonia infection but mice infected with the R strain do not develop pneumonia.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

165. The fragments created by cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases can be separated by gel electrophoresis. What is incorrect regarding this procedure?

1. The fragments move towards anode.
2. Agar gel is used for sieving effect.
3. DNA fragments can be visualized moving in the medium if stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.
4. The larger fragments move farther in the medium.

Deselect Answer

None

166. The sodium-potassium pump in neurons:

1. Moves 3 Na+ ions out of the cell and 2 K+ ions into the cell against their concentration gradients.
2. Moves 2 Na+ ions into the cell and 3 K+ ions out of the cell using ATP.
3. Does not require ATP to function.
4. Is involved in the generation of the resting membrane potential.

Deselect Answer

None

167. Consider the given statements:
Statement I: Generally, monocotyledonous seeds are non-endospermic.
Statement II: In the seeds of cereals such as maize, the seed coat is membranous and generally fused with the fruit wall.
Statement III: Monocot seeds consist of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum.

1. Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement III is true.
2. Statement I is false; Statement II is false; Statement III is false.
3. Statement I is false; Statement II is true; Statement III is true.
4. Statement I is true; Statement II is false; Statement III is true.

Deselect Answer

None

168. In the given figure showing taxonomic hierarchy for living organisms:

I: A would be Solanum for potato.
II: B would be Muscidae for housefly.
III: C would be Primata for humans.
IV: D would be phylum for animals and division for plants.

1. Only I, II and III are incorrect
2. Only I, III and IV are incorrect
3. Only II, III and IV are incorrect
4. I, II, III and IV are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

169. How many of the given statements are true?
I: Stem tendrils are seen in gourds and grapevines.
II: Axillary buds get modified into thorns in Citrus.
III: Stems are modified into flattened structures in Opuntia.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

Deselect Answer

None

170. Key events during telophase include all the following except:

1. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
2. Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei.
3. Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
4. Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER reform.

Deselect Answer

None

171. In case of a couple, where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

1. Intrauterine Transfer
2. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
3. Artificial Insemination
4. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

Deselect Answer

None

172. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The sinoatrial node (SAN) is called the pacemaker of the heart.
Reason(R): The SAN generates the maximum number of action potentials per minute in the heart.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

Deselect Answer

None

173. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

Options:
1. (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (iv), (d) − (i)
2. (a) − (i), (b) − (ii), (c) − (iii), (d) − (iv)
3. (a) − (ii), (b) − (iii), (c) − (i), (d) − (iv)
4. (a) − (iv), (b) − (iii), (c) − (ii), (d) − (i)

Deselect Answer

None

174. Assertion (A): A xenograft, a transplant of organs or tissue from one species to another, is often an extremely dangerous type of transplant.
Reason (R): The chances of rejection of the graft by the immune system of the host are very high.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

Deselect Answer

None

175. Compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has:

1. Many xylem bundles
2. Inconspicuous annual rings
3. Relatively thicker periderm
4. More abundant secondary xylem

Deselect Answer

None

176. What is the dihybrid test cross-ratio?

1. 1:1
2. 3:1
3. 9:3:3:1
4. 1:1:1:1

Deselect Answer

None

177. There is a convention in defining the two strands of the DNA in the structural gene of a transcription unit where:
I: the strand which has the polarity 3’5′ acts as a template and is also referred to as template strand.
II: the strand which has the polarity (5′-3′) and does not code for anything is referred to as the coding strand.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

178. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. In grasses, the guard cells are dumb-bell shaped.
2. Trichomes in the shoot system are generally unicellular.
3. Casparian strips are associated with endodermis in dicot roots.
4. Endodermis in dicot stem is referred to as starch sheath.

Deselect Answer

None

179. What is the structural arrangement of microtubules within the core (axoneme) of a cilium or flagellum?

1. 9+2 array
2. 8+2 array
3. 9+0 array
4. 10+2 array

Deselect Answer

None

180. There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids which include:
I. They do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
II: They do not accommodate a food web.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Deselect Answer

None

NEET REVISION TEST IX (25.02.2026)

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