NEET REVISION TEST 3 (31.01.2026)

PHYSICS

1. Two particles having equal charges move along circular paths in a uniform magnetic field B: the radii of their paths being R_1,R₂ The de-Broglie wavelengths of these particles are λ₁,λ₂ Then:

3. The block, shown in the figure, is suspended as shown from two identical steel wires. The extension in the wires due to the tension is Δι₁. If the block is suspended by one of the wires the extension in it is Δι₂. Then equals:

1. 1
2. 2   
3. √2      
4. 1/2

4. What is the unit of the quantity represented by:


1. Ω (ohm)
2. s/m
3. H (henry)
4. F (farad)

5. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Binding energy per nucleon for nuclei (atomic number 30 to 107) is independent of atomic number.
Reason (R): Nuclear force is short-range force.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

6. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The speed of light does not change after it is reflected from a mirror.
Statement II: The speed of light depends on the medium in which light is propagating.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

7. Consider a small body falling freely onto the surface of the earth from a height 2R above its surface (R being the radius of the earth). Ignore any air resistance. The change in the gravitational potential energy of the body, per unit mass, is: (take the acceleration due to gravity on the surface to be g)

8. The figure displays a graph depicting the relationship between stress and strain for a uniform wire at two distinct temperatures T₁ & T₂ .

Based on the graph, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?

1. T₁ > T₂
2. T₂  > T₁
3. T₁= T₂
4. the above.

9. An electric dipole (p) is placed at a distance 2r from a positive charge q, oriented along the direction of the latter’s. The potential at a point A midway be: between them equals the potential at a point B, which is a distancer away on the axis of the dipole (see figure) V_A = V_B. Then:


1. p = qr
2. 2p = qr
3. 3p = qr
4. 2p = 3qr

10. The mean free path of molecules of a gas (radius r) is inversely proportional to:

1. r³
2. r³
3. r
4. √r

11. Lenses L₁ and L₂ of focal length 10 cm and 20 cm are placed with their principal axis coinciding with the z -axis: lens L₁ is placed at 210 cm, lens L₂ is placed at x = 70 cm.

A point object is placed at the origin, it functions as a source of light. The final image is formed at x =

1. 90 cm
2. 110 cm
3. 50 cm
4. infinity

12. In an ammeter, 0.2% of the main current passes through the galvanometer. If the resistance of the galvanometer is G, the resistance of the ammeter will be:

13. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When the frequency of incident radiation is increased, the stopping potential of the electrons in a photoelectric effect experiment increases linearly.
Reason (R): The stopping potential is proportional to the kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron, which is given by:
= hv – W ,where v is the frequency of incident light.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

14. River of width 500 m is flowing at a speed of 10 m/s. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 10 m/s in still water. If he starts swimming at an angle of 120 deg with the flow direction, then the distance he travels along the river while crossing the river is:

1. 250 m
2. 500√3 m
3. 500 / (√3 ) m      
4. 500 m

15. A disc rotating about its axis from rest acquires the angular speed 100 rev/s in 4 s. The angle rotated by it during these four seconds (in radians) is:

1. 100π
2. 200 π
3. 300π
4. 400π

16. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.(A) – (II), B – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
2.(А)- (II), В-(I), (C)- (III), (D) – (IV)
3.(А)- (III), В-(IV), (C) -(II), (D) – (I)
4.(А)- (III), В-(I), (C) -(II), (D) – (IV)

17. In a series LCR circuit the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the capacitance is short circuited, the voltage across the inductance will be:

18. Two different sources of sound having slightly different periods of vibration: 1 ms and 1.01 ms, are sounded together. The resulting beat frequency is nearly:

1. 100 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 10 Hz
4. 0.01 Hz

19. Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle with a string attached to it. The water does not fall down even when the bucket is inverted at the top of its path. We conclude that in this position:

20. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities 9I and 4I are superposed. The maximum possible intensity in the resulting beam is:

1. 1. I
2. 3I
3. 16I
4. 25 I

21. The ratio of the amplitude of a magnetic field to the amplitude of an electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in a vacuum is equal to:

1. reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum.
2. the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum.
3. Unity
4. the speed of light in a vacuum

22. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The pressure within a small air bubble under water is greater than the corresponding pressure outside the bubble.
Reason (R): This additional pressure within the air bubble is due to the force of the surface tension of water.

1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

23. The (P-V) diagram of a gas system undergoing a cyclic process is shown in the given figure. The work done by the gas during isobaric compression is:

1. 150 J
2.-200 J
3.-400J
4.-250 J

24. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed in a uniform electric field E at t = 0 s. The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is:

25. Which of the following is an incorrect relation? (where symbols have their usual meaning)

26. Ohm’s law can be re-stated in terms of other quantities (under appropriate assumptions) as:

1. Potential difference = (Current density x Resistivity)
2. Electric field = (Current density × Resistivity)
3. Current density = (Electric field × Resistivity)
4. Current density = (Potential difference x Conductivity)

27. A geostationary satellite is taken to another orbit, radius of which is twice that of it earlier orbit. Its new time period would be:

1. 48√2 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 48/√2 hours
4. 24 hours

28. If ϕ is the work function of photosensitive material in electron-volts and light of a wavelength of numerical value λ=hc/e metres is incident on it with energy above its threshold value at an instant, then the maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that instant is (in SI units):
(take h as Plank’s constant and e as the velocity of light in free space)

29. A uniform bar with a length of 2.0 m and a weight of 1000 N has its centre of gravity at its centre (midpoint). The bar is pivoted as shown and supports a weight of 200 N at the position indicated in the diagram.

What weight is needed at position P to balance the bar?

1. 600 N
2. 800 N
3. 1000 N
4. 1600 N

30. Force acting on a body free to move on the X-axis is given by, F = -kxⁿ where k is a positive constant. For which value of n motion of the body is not oscillatory?

1. 3
2. 7
3. 2
4. 5

31. The electric field inside a uniformly charged thin spherical shell having radius R and total charge Q is: (80 is the permittivity of free space)

32. A 2 kg block sits on a horizontal surface where the coefficient of friction equals 0.5 (i.e., mu = 0.5). A force (F) equal to 10√2 N is applied to the block in three different ways:
① pulling horizontally
② pulling at 45° with the horizontal
③ pushing at 45° with the horizontal
The acceleration of the block has absolute value a₁, a₂, a₃ in these cases: their directions maybe different. (Take g = 10 m/s² , if required). Then:


1. a₁ > a₂ > a₃
2. a₂ > a₁ > a₃
3. a₁ > a₂= a₃
4. a₂ = a₃ > a₁

33. A car moving in a positive 2-direction with uniform positive acceleration. Which one of the following velocity-time graphs correctly represents the motion of the car?

34. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle & with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when θ = 90° the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be:

1. pEsinθ, –pEcosθ
2. pEsinθ, -2pEcosθ
3. pEsinθ, 2pEcosθ
4. pEcosθ, –pEsinθ

35. The figure given below shows the displacement and time, (x-t) graph of a particle moving along a straight line:

The correct statement, about the motion of the particle,

1. the particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time and then stops.
2. the particle is accelerated throughout its motion.
3. the particle is accelerated continuously for time then moves with constant velocity.
4. the particle is at rest.

36. A projectile is fired from a cannon with a speed of 50 m/s onto a plateau which is 45 m above the ground level. The angle of firing of the cannon is 0. The distance of the point of impact (A) from the edge (E) of the plateau, i.e., EA, is referred to as the “range”. Assume that air resistance is negligible and that the acceleration due to gravity remains constant.

The speed of impact of the projectile is:

1. 40 m/s
2. 30 m/s
3. 25 m/s
4. 20 m/s

38. The least count of a stopwatch is 0.1 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 20 sec. The percentage error in the time period is:

1. 0.25%
2. 0.5%
3. 0.75%
4. 1.0%

39. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, let R, V and E represent the radius of the orbit, speed of the electron and the total energy of the electron, respectively. Which of the following quantities are proportional to the quantum number n?
(A)         VR       (B)         RE
(C)         V/E      (D)         R/E
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (C) and (B) only
3. (C) only
4. (A) and (C) only

40. A material when placed in a uniform magnetic field affects the magnetic lines as shown below.

The material may be:

1. ferromagnetic
2. diamagnetic
3.paramagnetic
4. either ferromagnetic or paramagnetic

41. A battery with an EMF of 10 V and an internal resistance of 1 Ω is connected to an external resistance of 4 Ω, as shown in the figure. The terminal voltage of the battery in this configuration is:


1. 6 V
2. 8 V
3. 10 V
4. 4 V

42. What should be the mass of a uniform sphere of radius R so that the escape velocity from its surface equals e, the velocity of light in vacuum? (Assume Newton’s theory of gravitation to hold true)

43. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When an AC circuit contains only a resistor, its power is at a minimum.
Reason (R): The power of a circuit is independent of the phase angle.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

44. In a double-slit experiment using light with a wavelength of 628 nm, the angular width of a fringe formed on the screen is 0.1 deg The separation between the slits is: (use π = 3.14)

1. 3.6 × 10^-5  m
2. 3.6 × 10^-4  m
3. 3.6 × 10^-5  cm
4. 3.6 × 10^-4  cm

45. The 1 kg-block strikes the 2 kg-block, and the first block is brought to rest immediately after impact. The coefficient of restitution is:


1. 1
2. 1/2
3. 1/3
4. 1/6

CHEMISTRY

46. Choose the group that does not contain isotopes of the same element:

47. Statement I: Compounds of W(VI) are found more stable than Cr (VI).
       Statement II: WO₃ is a stronger oxidizing agent than dichromate in an acidic medium.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement 1 is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

48. An organic compound X having molecular formula C₅H₁₀O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollen’s test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. X could be:

1. Pentenal
2. 2-Pentanone
3. 3-Pentanone
4. n-Amyl alcohol

49. Consider the following reactions:

‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively, in the above reactions are:

50. Match the structure of the bases in column I with their names given in column II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

51. The incorrect statement among the following is:

1. The sigma bond forms via head-on overlap, and the pi bond forms via sidewise overlapping of orbitals.
2. s and p orbitals combine to form a sigma bond as well as a pi bond.
3. Hybrid orbitals form sigma bonds only.
4. Sigma bonds are stronger than pi bonds.

52. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images.
b. The process of converting an enantiomer into a racemic mixture is known as racemization.
c. Enantiomers possess different physical properties.
d. The reactivity of the alkyl halide for S_N2 is R – I > R – Br>R-C|>> R – F.

1. Only b and d are correct.
2. Only a, b, and d are correct.
3. Only e and d are correct.
4. Only a and b are correct.

53. In the following series of reactions, identify the final product Z:


1. o-Bromotoluene
2. m-Bromotoluene
3. p-Bromotoluene
4. 3-Bromo-2,2,6-trichlorotoluene

54. For the given reaction, the degree of dissociation of B was found to be 20% at 300 K and 24% at 500K.
A(s)+B(g)  C(g) + 2D(s) + E(s)
The rate of backward reaction:

1. Increases with increase in pressure and temperature
2. Increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
3. Depends on temperature only and decreases with increase in temperature
4. Increases with increase in concentration of B and increase in the temperature

55. Which of the following reactions satisfies the condition K_P > K_C ?

1. H₂(g) + I₂(g) → 2Hl(g)
2. N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
3. 2SO₃(g) → 2SO₂(g) + (g)
4. PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) →PCl₅(g)

56. What is the correct stability order for the following species?


1. I>IV>I>III
2. II>>I>IV
3. ID > IV > III
4. D > IID > IV

57. The name of the given compound is:


1. Catechol
2. Resorcinol
3. Hydroquinone
4. Cresol

58. The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm³ to a volume of 100 dm³ at 27 ℃ is:

1. 38.3 J mol^-1 K^-1
2. 35.8 J mol^-1 K
3. 32.3 J mol^-1 K^-1
4. 42.3 J mol^-1 K^-1

59. Atoms A and B are interacting to form bonds (σ.π).
If the z-axis is taken as the internuclear axis, the correct statement regarding the formation of a bond is:

60. A positive carbylamine test is shown by which one of the following?

1. N-diethyl aniline
2. N-methyl propyl amine
3. N-diethyl butyl amine
4. 4-dimethyl aniline

61. Nitrogen detection in an organic compound is carried out by Lassaigne’s test. The blue colour formed corresponds to which of the following formulae:

62. The incorrect statement regarding oxoacids of phosphorus is:

1. Orthophosphoric acid is used in the manufacture of triple superphosphate.
2. Hypophosphorous acid is a diprotic acid.
3. All oxoacids contain tetrahedral four coordinated phosphorus.
4. All oxoacids contain at least one P-O unit and one P-OH group.

63. Which among the following is correctly matched?

64. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The people living at high altitudes or climbers have a high concentration of oxygen in their blood and tissues.
Reason (R): At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground level.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2 explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

65. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is:

1. Benzoic acid
2. Nitrobenzene
3. Toluene
4. Benzene

66. The electrolyte having the same value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of Al₂ (SO₄)₃ (if all are 100% ionized) is:
 
1. K₂ SO₄
2. K₃[Fe(CN)6]
3. Al(NO₃)₃
4. Fe₄[Fe(CN₆]

66. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-1
3. A-IV, B-II, C-1, D-III
4. A-II, B-III, C-1, D-IV

67. Sucrose hydrolysis in an acidic solution into glucose and fructose follows the first-order rate law with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25°C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The value of log (1/f) is A × 10^-2.The value of A is: (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Assume: In 10 2.303, In 2 = 0.693]

1. 7 8
2. 81
3. 85
4. 75

68. Consider the following compounds:
A. Cl₂CHCOOH
B. CICH₂COOH
C. CICH₂ CH₂COOH
D. C₆ H₅ CH₂COOH
The increasing order of pK_a values of the compound (A to D) follow the order:

1. D < C < B < A
2. B <C < D < A
3. C < B < D < A
4. A < B < C < D

70. The complex ion with zero ‘d’ electrons in the central metal atom is:
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co – 27)

1. [MnO₄]^–
2 [Co(NH₃)⁶]3⁺
3. [ Fe (CN)₆]3^–
4. [Cr (H₂O)⁶]3⁺

71. Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. Addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water changes the freezing point of the solution. Using the freezing point depression constant of water (2K kg mol^-1) which of the following plots of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus temperature (T) represents the change in the freezing point? [molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol^-1 ]

72. Which of the following pairs will give a positive test with Tollen’s reagent?

1. Glucose and Sucrose
2. Fructose and Sucrose
3. Acctophenone and Hexanal
4. Glucose and Fructose

73. The correct statement among the following is:

1. Sn²⁺ is an oxidizing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is a reducing agent.
2. Sn²⁺ and Pb⁴⁺ both are oxidizing agents.
3. Sn²⁺ is a reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is an oxidizing agent.
4. Sn²⁺ is a reducing agent while Pb⁴⁺ is an oxidizing agent.

74. Match the name of process given in Column-I with the name of compound given in Column-II and mark the correct option.

    (a)       (b)     (c)      (d)
1.  (iv)     (iii)    (ii)      (i)
2.  (i)      (ii)    (iii)     (iv)
3.  (ii)     (iv)    (i)      (iii)
4.  (iii)    (iv)    (ii)      (i)

75. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [Co(Cl₂(en)₂]Cl and K₃[Al(C₂ O₄)₃] respectively, are: (-en-ethane-1,2-diamine)

1. 3 and 3
2. 6 and 6
3 .5 and 3 
4. 5 and 6

76. Which of the following are products when an alcohol is added to a carboxylic acid in the presence of a strong acid?
I: Water    II: Ester  III: Aldehyde

1. I only.
2. II only.
3. I and II only. 
4. I and III only.

77. In following reaction, find out X and Y.
In the reaction,

1. X=2-Butyne; Y=3-Hexyne
2. X=2-Butyne; Y=2-Hexyne
3. X=1-Butyne; Y=2-Hexyne
4. X=1-Butyne: Y=3-Hexyne

78. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K:

1. 1.05 V
2. 1.0385 V
3. 1.385 V
4. 0.9615 V

79. Which among the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄?

80. The compounds A and B in the following reaction are:
(CH₃)₃C – O – CH₃ + HI → A + B 1 mole

81. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-III, C-1, D-IV
2. A-III, B-II, C-1, D-IV
3. A-II, B-1, C-III, D-IV
4. A-1, B-III, C-II, D-IV

82. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order of increasing masses:
(I) 0.5 mole of O₃
(II) 0.5 gm atom of oxygen
(III) 3.011 ×10²³ molecules of O₂
(IV) 5.6 liter of C at STP

1. II<IV<III<I
2. II < I < IV < III
3. IV <IIII<I
4. I< II < III < IV

83. Which of the following electronic configuration represents a sudden large gap between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element?

1. 1s², 2s²2p³ 
2. 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²3p³
3. 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²3p¹
4.. 1s², 2s²2p⁶, 3s²

84. What are the values of crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for a high-spin d⁶ metal ion in octahedral and tetrahedral fields, respectively?

1.-0.4 ∆_ο and – 0.6∆_t
2.-2.4 ∆_ο and – 0.6∆_t
3.-1.6 ∆_ο and – 0.4 ∆
_4. -0.4 ∆_ο and – 0.27 ∆_t

85. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The spectrum of He⁺ ion is expected to be similar to that hydrogen.
Reason (R): He⁺ is also a one-electron system.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

86. Given the following reaction:

The values ∆H and ∆S are 30.56 kJ/mol and 66.00 J/Kmol, respectively.
The temperature at which the free energy change (∆ G) for the reaction will be zero is:

1. 563 K
2. 463 K
3. 403 K
4. 544. K

87. Match the following aspects with the respective metal.

Select the correct option:

             (a)        (b)          (c)          (d)
1.          (i)         (iv)         (ii)          (iii)
2.         (iii)       (iv)         (i)           (ii)
3.         (iii)       (i)          (iv)          (ii)
4.         (ii)       (iv)         (i)           (iii)

88. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Second-period elements do not exhibit the excitation of electrons.
Reason (R): Second-period elements do not have vacant d-orbitals.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

89. If the half-life of a radioactive substance is 69.3 minutes, how long, approximately, will it take for it to decay to 20% of its initial quantity?

1. 80.5 min
2. 161 min
3. 192 min
4. 235 min

90. Which one of the following graph correctly represents the probability density vis distance of the electron from the nucleus for 2s orbital?

BIOLOGY

91. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The classical definition of hormone describes hormone as a chemical produced by exocrine glands, released into the blood and transported to a nearby located target organ.
Statement II: Current scientific definition describes hormones as non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers and are produced in trace amounts.

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. Statement 1 is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

92. What is the difference between ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer)?

1. ZIFT transfers zygotes (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube, while IUT transfers embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
2. ZIFT transfers embryos at any stage into the fallopian tube, while IUT transfers them into the uterus regardless of blastomere count.
3. ZIFT is used for natural conception enhancement, whereas IUT is an in vitro fertilization technique.
4. ZIFT transfers fertilized eggs into the uterus, while IUT transfers unfertilized eggs into the fallopian tube.

93. The drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by:

1. nitration of morphine
2. methylation of morphine
3. acetylation of morphine
4. glycosylation of morphine

94. Products of the Krebs cycle include:
I. carbon dioxide II. NADH
III. FADH₂

1. I and II
3. II and III
2. I and III
4. I, II and III

95. During gametogenesis, which of the
following are formed after Meiosis II?
I: Spermatids
II: Ovum
III: First polar body

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

96. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of genetic code?

1. The codon is triplet
2. The code is nearly universal
3. The code has punctuations
4. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate

97. In Pisum sativum, the allele for tallness [T] is completely dominant over the allele for dwarfness [t]. What proportion of the tall progeny of the cross Tt X Tt will be homozygous tall?

1. 1/3
2. 1/4
3. ½
4. 3/2 

98. Which hormone is iodinated but not a protein?

1. TSH
2. Thyroxine
3. Growth hormone
4. Prolactin

99. Identify the correct statements regarding the given figure:

I. ‘A’ get degenerated and do not persist long after fertilization.
II. ‘B’ are involved in syngamy.
III. ‘C’ is involved in triple fusion.
IV. ‘D’ guide pollen tube entry into the embryo sac.

1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only I and IV
4. Only II and III

100. Assertion (A): The type of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is called malignant malaria.
         Reason (R): There is no known cure for infection caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
 
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

101. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Green algae are usually grass green due the dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and b.
Statement II: Red algae vary in colour from olive green to various shades of brown depending upon the amount of fucoxanthin.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

102. Golgi apparatus:
I: is an important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
II: is not a part of the endomembrane system of a eukaryotic cell.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

103. A change in chromosome number, where the changed number is not an exact multiple of the base number N, is called as:

1. Polyteny
2. Aneuploidy
3. Euploidy
4. Polyploidy

104. What would be true for Alternaria but not for Puccinia?

1. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
2. Sexual stage is unknown
3. Lack of vegetative reproduction
4. Called as bracket fungi

105. The types of movements exhibited by various cells
I: Amoeboid
II: Ciliary
III: muscular

1. Only III
2. Only I and II
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

106. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Concentrated urine is formed due to counter current mechanism in nephron.
Statement II: Counter current mechanism helps to maintain osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

107. Consider the following statements regarding the Go phase:
(i) Cells in the 𝐺0 phase are metabolically inactive.
(ii) Cells in the 𝐺0 phase exit the 𝐺1 phase and do not divide further.
(iii) 𝐺1 phase is also known as the quiescent stage of the cell cycle.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Only (ii) and (iii)
2. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. Only (iii)

108. Which of the following events is likely to happen if diffusion of ions is allowed in a resting polarized axonal membrane?

1.Na⁺ will move out of the cell
2. Na⁺ will move into the cell
3. Na⁺ will move into the cell
4. Na⁺ and K+ will both move out of the cell

109. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur in the following order:

1. Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement
2. Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap
3. Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap
4. Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation

110. In epigynous flowers, the ovary is called inferior because:

1. The ovary is positioned above the floral parts.
2. The thalamus remains flat and does not enclose the ovary.
3. The thalamus grows upwards and fuses with the ovary, with floral parts emerging above it.
4. The ovary remains free from the thalamus and floral parts arise below it.

I:   A pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered grounds within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner

II: If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist.

120. Classification of organisms based on measurable similarities and differences rather than genetic makeup and evolutionary descent is called phenetics.

121. Which of the following hormones acts on the target cells via a second messenger?

1. Cortisol
2. Adrenocorticotropin [ACTH]
3. Oestrogen
4. Thyroxine

122. O₂ and CO₂ are exchanged by simple diffusion mainly based pressure/concentration gradient at
I: Alveoli
II: Tissues

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

123. Identify the correctly matched pairs:


1. Only I
2. Only II and III
3. I, II and III
4. None

124. Which of the following correctly explains the ground tissue system in dicot leaves?

1. Composed exclusively of sclerenchyma and collenchyma for structural support.
2. Composed of mesophyll tissue containing palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma, specialized for photosynthesis.
3. Found only in the stem and root cortex, aiding in nutrient storage and transport.
4. Contains only thin-walled parenchyma in the vascular bundles for conduction of water and food.

125. The increasing gradient of osmolarity in medullary interstitium, during concentration of urine, is mainly caused by reabsortion of:

1. NaCl from ascending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by collecting duct
2. NaCl from descending limb of loop of Henle and of Jurea by collecting duct
3. NaCl from ascending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by PCT
4. NaCl from descending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by PCT

126. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope and compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the presence of membrane-bound organelles. extensive
Statement II: All eukaryotic cells are characterized by the presence of cell wall.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

127. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Kranz anatomy is crucial for the efficiency of 𝐶4 plants.
Reason (R): Kranz anatomy allows for a higher concentration of carbon dioxide at the site of the Calvin cycle.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

128. What will be A, B and C in the given table?

129. Consider the given two statements:
I: Acquired immunity is not pathogen specific.
II: Acquired immunity is characterised by memory.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

130. Which of the following vascular bundle arrangements is unique to roots, and how does it function?

1. Radial arrangement with alternating xylem and phloem on different radii, allowing efficient water and food conduction.
2. Conjoint arrangement with xylem and phloem on the same radius, supporting secondary growth.
3. Closed bundles with no cambium, enabling rapid elongation of primary roots.
4. Vascular bundles with only xylem elements specialized for water conduction in monocots.

131. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes are naturally produced by bacteria.
Reason (R): Restriction enzymes help bacteria to cut their own DNA into smaller fragments during replication.
Options:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

132. The opening in the skull of the frog through which the medulla oblongata passes out and continues into the spinal cord is called as:

1. Foramen ovale
2. Foramen spinosum
3. Foramen magnum
4. Obturator foramen.

133. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

1. Ethylene
2. Auxins
3. Gibberellic acid
4. Cytokinins

134. Aldosterone acts mainly at renal tubules and stimulates the:

1. Reabsorption of Na⁺ and  K⁺
2. Excretion of Na⁺ and  K⁺
3. Excretion of K⁺ and phosphate ions
4. Reabsorption of Na⁺ and phosphate ions

135. Given the following statements about meiosis:
I. The reduction in chromosome number from diploid to haploid occurs exclusively in meiosis 1.
II. Crossing over, a process that contributes to genetic variation, occurs between sister chromatids.
III. The end result of meiosis II is the production of four haploid daughter cells.
IV. DNA replication occurs twice during the entire meiotic process.
Which of the following combinations is correct?

1. 1 and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and IV only
4. III and IV only

136. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: In some species, remnants of the nucellus persist in the seed as perisperm.
Statement II: Perisperm is a type of endosperm that provides nutrition to the developing embryo.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

137. How many of the following sex determination mechanisms are correctly matched?


1. One correctly matched
2. Two correctly matched
3. All three correctly matched
4. None correctly matched

138. Which of the following describes the function of basophils most accurately?

1. Phagocytosis of bacteria
2. Secretion of heparin and histamine during inflammatory reactions
3. Destruction of parasites and involvement in allergic reactions
4. Transport of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide  

139. Polymerase chain reaction can amplify DNA, producing about 1 billion copies in 30 cycles. The correct sequence of the steps of this reaction is:

1. Denaturation→ Annealing of primers of primers→ Extension
2. Denaturation→ Extension of primers →Annealing of primers
3. Extension of primers→ Annealing of primers → Denaturation
4. Annealing of primers → Extension of primers →

140. Match each item in Column-I with one in given: Column-II and select the correct match from the codes


Options:
1. (a)-(i),(b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)- (v)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(m)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v)

141. Consider the two statements regarding biocontrol:
I: Lady birds are useful to get rid of mosquitoes.
II: Dragonflies are useful to get rid of aphids.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

142. The following can be found as a zwitter ion:

1. Fatty acid
2. Monosaccharide
3. Amino acid
4. Nucleic acid

143. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

144. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
a: Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
b: Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c=c bonds.
e: Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter some organic solvents.
d: Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvent.
e: When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (b) and (d) only
2. (a), (b) and (c) only
3. (a), (d) and (e) only
4. (c), (d) and (e) only

145. Identify the correctly matched taxonomic
category for humans:

1. Family          Hominidae
2. Order           Mammalia
3. Class            Primata
4. Phylum       Vertebrata

146. In animal cells, during the S phase:
I: DNA replication begins in the cytoplasm
II: The centriole duplicates in the nucleus

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Both I and II are correct

147. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

1. Phospholipids
2. Glycerides
3. Carbohydrates
4. Amino acids

148. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The female Anopheles mosquito is not considered a parasite.
Reason (R): It actually is an ectoparasite and not an endoparasite.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A) is True: (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are False

149. What brings about acrosomal reaction in sperm?

1. Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
2. Reactions within the uterine environment of the female
3. Reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
4. Androgens produced in the uterus

150. Small single-stranded, circular RNAs not surrounded by a protein coating, that are infectious pathogens, are:

1. Virus
2. Virion
3. Viroid
4. Prion

151. Diversification from an ancestral species, in response to the opening of new habitats leading to formation of new species, is:

1. parallelism
2. natural selection
3. catastrophism
4. adaptive radiation

152. Consider the given two statements.
Statement I: Bipolar neurons are found in retina
Statement II: Unmyelinated neurons are not surrounded by Schwann cells in peripheral nervous system

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

153. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select your answer from the codes given:

Codes:
      A            B       C         D
1.   a             b        c          b
2.  d             b        c          a
3.  a             c        b          d
4.  d             c        b          a

154. A phenomenon, where cells cease their movement or division when they come into contact with surrounding cells, is called as:

1. Apoptosis
2. Contact inhibition
3. Transfection
4. Transformation

155. What is true about RBCs in humans?

1. They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO₂
2. They transport 99.5 per cent of O₂
3. They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma
4. They do not carry CO₂ at all

156. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Heterospory in some pteridophytes paved the way for the evolution of seeds in higher plants.
Reason (R): The megaspores and microspores in heterosporous ferns give rise to female and male gametophytes respectively.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

157. Select the correct option of haploid cells from the following groups:

1. Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte, Spermatid
2. Secondary spermatocyte, First polar body. Ovum
3. Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte, Spermatid
4. Primary spermatocyte, Secondary spermatocyte, Second polar body

158. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is

1. the highest set of regulation of the functions in human body.
2. a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
3. involved in decoding the sense of olfaction.
4. vestigial in human beings.

159. Identify the correct statement regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act in India:

1. Legalized in 1971, the amendment act was enacted in 2017.
2. The recommendation of two registered medical practitioners is mandatory in all cases where MTP is allowed.
3. Selective abortions after amniocentesis are legalized in India.
4. MTP is not allowed even if there is a substantial risk of serious handicap in the child.

160. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Gibberellins are involved in the natural process of breaking dormancy and other aspects of germination.
Statement II: Gibberellins in the seed embryo are believed to signal starch hydrolysis through inducing the synthesis of the enzyme a-amylase in the aleurone cells.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

161. The correct statements regarding the life cycle seen in various algae will be:
I. Most algal genera are haplontic
II. Genera such as Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, and kelps are diplontic
III. Fucus is diplontic

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only I and III
4. I, II and II

162. How many of the given statements are correct?
A. Neutrophil is the most common white blood cell in human blood.
B. Basophil is the rarest white blood cell in human blood.
C. Lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity in human beings.
D. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and are phagocytic in nature.
E. A total WBC count of 20,000 per mm³ of blood will be normal.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

163. Identify the correctly matched pairs:


1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

164. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:

1. Genetically engineered lymphocytesare not immortal cells.
2. Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
3. Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
4. Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are grown in culture, outside the body.

165. The Krebs cycle is considered amphibolic because:

1. It only participates in catabolic processes.
2. It is involved in both catabolic and anabolic processes.
3. It does not play a role in the metabolism of carbohydrates.
4. It exclusively functions in the breakdown of lipids.

166. For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle:

1. 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required.
2. 3 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required.
3. 2 molecules of ATP and 3 of NADPH are required.
4. 2 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required.

167. The human body has several immune barriers to protect against infections. How do cytokine barriers like interferons help in preventing viral infections?

1. They attack and destroy viruses directly, preventing their replication.
2. They stimulate B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies against viruses.
3. They increase the production of white blood cells. strengthening the immune system.
4. They signal neighbouring uninfected cells, making them resistant to viral infection.

168. Regarding DNA replication:
I: It is semi-conservative.
II: It is semi-discontinuous.

1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

169. Which gastro-intestinal hormone acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions?

1. Gastrin
2.Cholecystokinin
3. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
4. Secretin

170. Which of the given statement is correct in the context of visualising DNA molecules separated by agarose gel electrophoresis?

1. DNA can be seen in visible light.
2. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light.
3. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
4. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light.

171. During shortening of the muscle, ie., contraction:
I: the “I’ bands get reduced
II: the ‘A’ bands retain the length

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

172. Which of the following correctly describes the structure of the diffusion membrane in human lungs?

1. It is a thick, multi-layered structure composed of non-vascular connective tissue.
2. It is made up of three major layers: the alveolar epithelium, the capillary endothelium, and the fused basement membrane between them.
3. It consists of a single layer of non permeable cells preventing gas exchange.
4. The diffusion membrane does not contain capillary networks and is composed mainly of collagen fibers.

173. Identify the correct statements:
a. Homology indicates common ancestry.
b. Sweet potato and potato are examples for homology.
c. Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
d. Vertebrate hearts or brains are analogous structures.

1. a and b only
2. c and d only
3. a and c only
4. b and d only

174. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining.
Statement II: The inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface.
Statement III: The part starting with the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitutes the respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system.
Statement IV: The alveoli and their ducts form the conducting part of the respiratory system.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement III is correct; Statement IV is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is incorrect; Statement IV is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement III is incorrect; Statement IV is incorrect
4. Statement 1 is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect; Statement III is correct; Statement IV is correct

175. Identify the correct lineage in human evolution

1. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis
2. Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
3. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
4. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

176. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: The respiratory rhythm centre is located in the medulla oblongata.
Statement II: Pneumotaxic centre is located in the pons.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

177. Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), a location in DNA where a short nucleotide sequence is organized as a tandem, repeats with variations in length between individuals, is useful in:

1. amplifying DNA
2. DNA fingerprinting
3. denaturing DNA
4. supercoiling of DNA

178. Methanogenic bacteria are found in:
I: rumen of cattle
II: activated sludge

1. Only 1
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

179. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

       A          B        C       D
1.    R           S       P        Q
2.    Q          S       P        R
3.    Q          P       R       S
4.    P          Q       R       S

180. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and chose your answer from the codes given below:

    (a)   (b)     (c)     (d)

1. (i)   (ii)     (iii)    (iv)
2. (ii)  (i)     (iv)    (iii)
3. (ii)  (i)     (iii)    (iv)
4. (i)  (ii)     (iv)    (iii)