NEET REVISION TEST XIV (18.03.2026)

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Welcome to your NEET REVISION TEST XIV (18.03.2026)

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PHYSICS

1. If W1 is the work done in compressing an ideal gas from a given initial state through a certain volume isothermally and W2 is the work done in compressing the same gas from the same initial state through the same volume adiabatically, then:

1. W1=W2
2. W1<W2
3. W1>W2
4. W1=2W2Deselect Answer

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2. An isolated system-

1. is a specified region where transfer of energy and mass takes place
2. is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed through the closed boundaries
3. is one in which mass within the system is not necessarily constant.
4. cannot transfer neither energy nor mass to or from the surroundings.Deselect Answer

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3. An electric dipole is in unstable equilibrium in the uniform electric field. The angle between its dipole moment and the electric field is

1. 90°
2. 120°
3. 0°
4. 180°

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4. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to these charges through the surface S is

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5. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is

1. 13.60 volt
2. 8.24 volt
3. 10.36 volt
4. 14.24 volt

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6. What is the respective number of a and ß-particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?

1. 6 and 8
2. 6 and 6
3. 8 and 8
4. 8 and 6

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7. A body of mass 500 g thrown upward with a velocity 20 m/s and reaches back to the surface of a planet after 20 sec. Then the weight of the body on that planet is

1. 2 N
2. 4 N
3. 5 N
4. 1 N

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8. A body attains a height equal to the radius of the Earth when projected from Earth’ surface. The velocity of the body with which it was projected is :

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9. A block of mass m moving with speed v compresses a spring through distance x before its speed is halved. What is the value of spring constant?

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10. If E be the electric field inside a parallel plate capacitor due to +Q and -Q charges on the two plates, then electrostatic force on plate having charge -Q due to the plate having charge +Q will be

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11. Four particles each having charge q are placed at the vertices of a square of side a. The value of the electric potential at the midpoint of one of the sides will be

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12. The current I as shown in the figure is

1. 10 A
2. 20/3 A
3. 2/3 A
4. 5/3 A

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13. Two wires of the same dimensions but resistivities ρ₁ and ρ₂ are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is

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14. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a voltage of 900 V?

1. 0.31 Å
2. 0.41 Å
3. 0.5 Å
4.0.16 Å

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15. What happens whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series?

1. it may emit another photon in the Balmer series.
2. it must emit another photon in the Lyman series.
3. it may emit another photon in the Paschen series.
4. it need not emit any more photon.

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16. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax + bx² where a and b are constant. The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is

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17. If the intensity of magnetic field at a point on the axis of current coil is half of that at the centre of the coil, then the distance of that point from the centre of the coil will be

1. R/2
2. R
3. 3R/2
4. 0.766R

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18. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that

1. angle between v and B is necessarily 90°
2. angle between v and B can have any value other than 90°
3. angle between v and B can have any value other than zero and 180°
4. angle between v and B is either zero or 180°

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19. Two inductor coils of self-inductance 3H and 6H respectively are connected with a resistance 10W and a battery 10 V as shown in figure. The ratio of total energy stored at steady state in the inductors to that of heat developed in resistance in 10 seconds at the steady state is (neglect mutual inductance between L₁ and L₂)

1. 1:10
2. 1:100
3. 1:1000
4. 1

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20. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

1. 30%
2. 50%
3. 90%
4. 10%

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21. In a circuit, L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. the current leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is

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22. The time period of a simple harmonic oscillator is

. Measured value of mass of the object is 10 g with an accuracy of and time for 50 oscillations of the spring is found to be 60s using a watch of 2 s resolution. Percentage error in determination of spring constant (k) is

1. 3.35
2. 6.76
3. 5.56
4. 4.28

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23. If the velocity v of a particle and time t is given by the relation v=1-t², then the displacement of the particle at time t=3s will be (given that the particle is initially on the y axis)

1. 6 m
2. -6 m
3. 9 m
4. -9 m

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24. A uniform cubical block of density ρ_b=600 kgm^-3floats in a liquid of density ρ_l=900 kgm^-3. If the height of block is H=8 cm, then height of the block above the surface of the liquid is approximately

1. 5.3 cm
2. 1.7 cm
3. 2.7 cm
4. 3.2 cm

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25. A block is sliding down on an inclined plane of slope θ and at an instant t=0, this block is given an upward momentum so that it starts moving up on the inclined surface with velocity u. The distance travelled by the block before its velocity become zero, is

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26. Two wires Aand B made of different materials of lengths 6.0 cm and 5.4 cm, respectively and area of cross sections 3 × 10^-5m² and 4.5×10^-5 m² , respectively are stretched by the same magnitude under a given load. The ratio of the Young’s modulus of A to that of B is x :3. The value of is

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 3

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27. If ϵ₀, E and t represent the free space permittivity, electric field and time respectively, then the quantity represented by ϵ₀ E/t will be

1. Electric field intensity
2. Current density
3. Magnetic flux density
4. Electrostatic potential

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28. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v₁ for a distance x, and with uniform velocity v₂ for the next 3/2 x distance. If his average velocity is 50/7 m/s and v₁=5 m/s, then v₂ equals

1. 12 m/s
2. 10 m/s
3. 8 m/s
4. 16 m/s

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29. A particle is projected at an angle of 30° from a horizontal at a speed of 60 m/s . The height traversed by the particle in the first second is h₀and height traversed in the last second, before it reaches the maximum height is h₁. The ratio h₁:h₀ is

1. 2 : 3
2. 3 : 2
3. 5 : 1
4. 1 : 5

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30. An 8 V Zener diode along with a series resistance Ris connected across a 20 V supply (as shown in the figure). If the maximum Zener current is 25 mA, then the minimum value of R (in Ω) will be

1. 480
2. 520
3. 360
4. 520

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31. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 150 V. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron is calculated using

Using h=6.63×10^-34Js, m=9.11×10^-31 kg, and e=1.60× 10^-19 C, the wavelength of the electron is obtained as 1.0016 × 10^-11m
The correct wavelength with regards to significant figures is

1. 1.002×10^-11 m
2. 1.0×10^-11 m
3. 1.0016×10^-11 m
4. 1.00×10^-11 m

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32. The potential barrier developed across a p-n junction is 0.6 V. If the depletion width is 1200 nm, then the electric field set up across the junction will be

1. 2 × 10⁵ NC^-1
2. 1.5 × 10⁶ NC^-1
3. 3 × 10⁴ NC^-1
4. 5 × 10⁵ NC^-1

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33. A thin prism of refractive index 1.55 and refracting angle 4^∘is combined with another thin prism of refractive index 1.65 so that the net deviation for the mean wavelength is zero. If the refracting edges are opposite, the refracting angle of the second prism is:

1. 2.8°
2. 3.4°
3. 4.6°
4. 5.2°

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34. A simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2.0 cm is carried out by a 40 g particle. Determine the system’s total mechanical energy if the time interval is 0.20 s.

1. 7.9 x 10^-1 J
2. 7.9 x 10^-2 J
3. 7.9 x 10^-3 J
4. 7.9 x 10^-4 J

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35. A guitar string of length (L) vibrates at its fundamental frequency. At what point along its length should the string be pressed so that the new fundamental frequency has a ratio (f) with the original frequency?

1. L/f
2. 2L/f
3. Lf
4. 2f

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36. A solid cylinder of mass 4𝑘𝑔and radius 50𝑐𝑚 rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 60°. The centre of mass of the cylinder has speed 8𝑚/𝑠. The distance travelled by the cylinder on the inclined surface will be (𝑔=10𝑚/𝑠²)

1. 2.4 m
2. 4.6 m
3. 7.2 m
4. 9.6 m

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37. A block of mass 5 kg is moving on an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Friction coefficient between the block and inclined plane surface is √3/2. The force to be applied on the block in newton so that the block will move down without acceleration is (take g = 10 m/s²)

1. 7.5
2. 10
3. 12.5
4. 10.5

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38. A small metallic sphere of diameter 2 mm and density 10.5 g cm^-3is dropped in glycerin having viscosity and density 1.5 g cm^-3 The terminal velocity attained by the sphere in cm/s is (take g = 10 ms^-2, π=22/7)

1. 3.2
2. 1.5
3. 2
4. 5

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39. If rotational kinetic energy is 50% of total kinetic energy, then the body will be

1. Ring
2. Hollow
3. Cylinder
4. Solid Sphere

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40. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the 10 kg of mass is

1. 10/3
2. 5
3. 10
4. 20/3

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41. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of λ/2 is (where λ is the wavelength)

1. π/2
2. 2π
3. 3π/2
4. Π

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42. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that the end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from it. Find the length of the image.

1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

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43. At what angle of incidence will the light reflect from glass(μ=1.5) be completely polarised

1. 72.8°
2. 51.6°
3. 40.3°
4. 56.3°

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44. An electromagnetic photon has an energy of 2 MeV. Identify the region of the electromagnetic spectrum to which it belongs.

1. Ultraviolet Radiation
2. X-rays
3. Gamma Rays
4. Infrared Radiation

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45. A monochromatic light of wavelength λ falls on a single slit of width . The diffraction pattern is observed on a screen at distance D. The width of the central maximum is W. If the slit width is doubled, the new width of the central maximum will be

1. W
2. W/2
3. 2W
4. W/4

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CHEMISTRY

46. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm of Hg at 300 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is 32 mm of Hg. The mole fraction of A in solution obeying Raoult’s law is

1. 0.6
2. 0.5
3. 0.2
4. 0.8

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47. MX₂ dissociates into M²⁺ and X⁻ ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation (α) of 0.5. The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is

1. 1
2. 2.2
3. 3.3
4. 4.4

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48. Most volatile hydride of element of group 16 is

1. H₂O
2. H₂S
3. H₂Te
4. H₂Se

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49. Complete hydrolysis of XeF₆ gives:

1. XeOF₄
2. XeO₃
3. XeO₂F₂
4. XeOF₂

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50. Given below are two statements:
One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): In the titration between strong acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an indicator.
Reason (R): For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is false but statement II is true.
2. Statement I is true but statement II is false.
3. Both statement I and statement II are true.
4. Both statement I and statement II are false.

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51. In chromite ore, the oxidation state of iron and chromium are respectively

1. +3, +2
2. +3, +6
3. +2, +3
4. +2, +4

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52. The time needed for the completion of 2/3rdof a 1st order reaction, when rate constant is 771×10−2 min−1 is

1. 23.03 min
2. 2.303 min
3. 6.93 min
4. 69.3 min

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53. The shape and Hybridisation of ion are

1. Trigonal Planar, sp³
2. Trigonal Bipyramidal, sp³d
3. Trigonal Bipyramidal, dsp³
4. Linear, sp³ d

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54. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Pyorrhea

1. Vitamin B1
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

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55. How many unpaired electrons and sum of spin are present in Gadolinium (Z= 64)

1. 7, 2
2. 7, 4
3. 8, 4
4. 8, 8

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56. The standard electrode potential for Daniell cell is1 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction.
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)

1. 21 k J mol-1
2. -212.27 k J mol-1
3. 32 k J mol-1
4. -168.32 k J mol-1

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57. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?

1. [Xe] 4f⁷ 5d¹ 6s²
2. [Xe] 4f⁶ 5d² 6s²
3. [Xe] 4f⁸ 6d²
4. [Xe] 4f⁹ 5s¹

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58. How many times a 0.1M strong monobasic acid solution should be diluted so that pH of the resulting solution is tripled?

1. 50
2. 10
3. 100
4. 1000

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59. pKa of a weak acid (HA) and pKb of a weak base (BOH) are 3.2 and 3.4 respectively. The pH of their salt (AB) solution is

1. 72
2. 6.9
3. 7.0
4. 1.0

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60. In the diborane (B2H6) molecule, the number of bridging hydrogen atoms and terminal hydrogen atoms are, respectively

1. 4 and 2
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 3
4. 1 and 5

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61. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. A-(r), B-(p), C-(q,s), D-(p,q,s)
2. A-(p), B-(r), C-(q,s), D-(p)
3. A-(r), B-(q), C-(p,s), D-(p,q,s)
4. A-(r), B-(p,s), C-(q), D-(p,q,s)

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62. Choose the incorrect order among the following :

1. Li2O < Na2O < K2O (Basicity)
2. Al2O3< SiO2 < P2O5 (Acidity)
3. B2O3< Al2O3 < Ga2O3 < In2O3 (Acidity)
4. P2O5 > SO3 > Cl2O7(Basicity)

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63. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place
Mg (s) + 2Ag+ (0.0001 M) → Mg2+ (0.130M) +2Ag(s)
Calculate its E(cell) if E⁰(cell) = 3.17 V

1. 2.959 V
2. 4.26 V
3. 12.2 V
4. 16.4 V

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64. At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following half cells are given as
Zn2+(aq) + 2e− ⇢ Zn(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.762 V
Cr3+(aq) + 3e− ⇢ Cr(s) ; E⁰ = − 0.740 V
2H+(aq) + 2e− ⇢ H2(g) ; E⁰ = 0.000 V
Fe3+(aq) + e− ⇢ Fe2+(aq) ; E⁰ = – 0.770 V
The strongest reducing agent is?

1. Zn(s)
2. Cr(s)
3. H2(s)
4. Fe

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65. α-D- Fructose and β-D- Fructose structure diﬀer only at

1. C-1
2. C-2
3. C-3
4. C-1 & C-2

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66. B in the following sequence is

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67. The major product of the following reaction is

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68. Duringthechange of O2 to O2-, the incoming electron goes to the orbital :

1. σ*2pz
2. π*2px
3. π*2py
4. π2px

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69. The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10-5 m is

1. 7.27 X 106 m/s
2. 0.761 X 104 m/s
3. 0.725 X 102 m/s
4. 7.6 3X 104m/s

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70. Rutherford scatterring experiment is based on:

1. Alpha particle scaterring from Gold
2. Beta particle scaterring from Gold
3. Gamma particle scaterring from Gold
4. A and B

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71. Which of the following set has the highest dipole moment

1. NF₃ and NH₃
2. H₂O and HF
3. Cl₂ and N₂
4. HF and HCl

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72. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 606 X 10 -3 s -1. The time required to reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2g is

1. 200s
2. 500s
3. 550s
4. 320s

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73. For a zero order reac8on plot of curve (a-x) versus 8me is linear with

1. +ve slope and zero intercept
2. -ve slope and zero intercept
3. +ve slope and non- zero intercept
4. -ve slope and non-zero intercept

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74. Which complex will give 3 moles of AgCl on treatment with excess AgNO₃?

1. [CoCl₃ (NH₃)₃]
2. [CoCl₂ (NH₃)₄]Cl
3. [CoCl (NH₃)₅]Cl₂
4. [Co (NH₃)₆Cl₃]

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75. The correct hybridization and geometry of [PtF₄]^2-
1. sp³, tetrahedral
2. dsp², square planar
3. sp³d², octahedral
4. d²sp³, octahedral

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76. A hydrate of iron(III) thiocyanate [Fe(SCN)₃.xH₂O], was found to contain 19% H₂ The value of x is

1. 2
2. 3
4. 4
4. 6

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77. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 gram per mole – Carbon, Hydrogen and Nitrogen atoms are present in ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. The molecular formula can be:

1. C₆H₈N₂2. C₇H₁₀N
3. C₅H₆N₃4. C₄H₁₈N₃

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78. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1. Methylamine is more basic than NH₃
2. Amines form hydrogen bonds.
3. Ethylamine has higher boiling point than propane.
4. Dimethylamine is less basic than methylamine

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79. Naphthalene is an aromatic compound and follows Huckel’s (4n+2)π electron rule. The value of n is?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

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80. How many sigma and pi bond are present in pyrrole?

1. 11 sigma & 2 pi bond
2. 10 sigma & 2 pi bond
3. 10 sigma & 3 pi bond
4. 11 sigma & 3 pi bond

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81. The molar heat capacities at constant pressure (assume constant with respect to temperature) of A, B and C are in ratio of 1.5 : 3.0: 2.5. If enthalpy change for the exothermic reaction A + 2B → 3C at 300 K a is ΔH₁ and then enthalpy change at 310 K is ΔH₂ respectively, then

1. ΔH₁> ΔH₂
2. ΔH₁< ΔH₂
3. ΔH₁ = ΔH₂
4. None of the above

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82. For a particular reversible reaction, at temperature T, ΔH and ΔS were found to be both +ve. If T_eis the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when

1. T_e>T
2. T>T_e
3. T_e is 5 times T
4. T= T_e

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83. In paper chromatography, if the solvent front moves 8 cm and the compound moves 4.8 cm, the Rf value is:

1. 0.6
2. 0.48
3. 1.67
4. 3.2

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84. How many metamers are possible for the ether with molecular formula C₄H₁₀O?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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85. Which statement is true for alkynes?

1. Terminal alkynes are less acidic than water
2. Internal alkynes are more acidic than terminal alkynes
3. Terminal alkynes react with NaNH₂ to form acetylides
4. Alkynes cannot undergo addition reactions

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86. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

1. acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
2. acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide
3. acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
4. ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride

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87.

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88. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the following conversion:

1. CH₃CH₂NH₂, CH₃CH₂=NOH
2. CH₃CH₂=NOH, CH₃CH₂NH₂,
3. CH₃CH₂ CH₂NH₂, CH₃CH₂CH₂=NOH
4. CH₃CH₂CH₂=NOH, CH₃CH₂ CH₂NH₂Deselect Answer

1

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None

89. The suitable reaction steps to carry out the following transformation are
Deselect Answer

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90. Identify the major product of the compound A, B and C. Choose the correct sequence?

1. But- 1-ene, But- 1-ene, 1- bromo Butane
2. But-2-ene, But- 1-ene , 2- bromo Butane
3. But- 1-ene, Butanol , 1, 2 dibromo butane
4. But-2-ene, butan-2-ol , 1- bromo butaneDeselect Answer

1

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BIOLOGY

91. Which of the following are true regarding purkinje fibres?
I. Ensures coordinated contraction of ventricles
II. Acts as tertiary pacemaker
III. Transmit electrical impulse directly from AV Node
IV. Are not part of hearts conducting system

Options:
1. I and II
2. III and IV
3. II and III
4. I and IVDeselect Answer

1

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3

4

None

92. Which restriction enzyme produces blunt ends?

1. EcoRI
2. HindIII
3. AluI
4. BamHDeselect Answer

1

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None

93. The correct order of steps in recombinant DNA technology is:

1. Isolation → Amplification → Cutting → Ligation → Transformation
2. Isolation → Cutting → Amplification → Ligation → Transformation
3. Cutting → Isolation → Amplification → Ligation → Transformation
4. Isolation → Ligation → Cutting → Amplification → TransformationDeselect Answer

1

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94. Assertion (A): Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.
Reason (R): Nucleases hydrolyse the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides of nucleic acids.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is trueDeselect Answer

1

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95. Consider the given statements.
Statement 1: Insertional inactivation helps identify recombinant colonies.
Statement 2: Insertion of foreign DNA disrupts a functional gene in the vector.

1. Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct
2. Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
4. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrectDeselect Answer

1

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96. Select the incorrect statement/s.
Statement 1: The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is 3:1 in F₂ generation.
Statement 2: Alleles do not segregate during gamete formation according to Mendel’s law of segregation.
Statement 3: Mendel’s law of segregation is also known as First law of inheritance.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. Only 1
4. 1 and 3Deselect Answer

1

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3

4

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97. The diagnostic test for blood cancer leukemia is

1. Radiography
2. Bone marrow test
3. Histopathological study
4. MRIDeselect Answer

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98. Read the following statements and select the correct one

1. Hormones such as cortisol and prolactin are produced in women only during pregnancy
2. The placenta induced mild uterine contraction called foetal ejection reflex during the initial stages of third trimester
3. The embryo will develop its heart after one month of pregnancy
4. Immediately after implantation, the inner cell mass will differentiate into three germ layers – ectoderm, mesoderm and endodermDeselect Answer

1

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99. A father and mother who are both carriers for β-thalassemia had five children. What is the probability that the third child is being affected by β-thalassemia?

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 100%
4. 0%Deselect Answer

1

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None

100. The advantages of injections/implants over oral contraceptive pills to prevent contraception is

1. Their effective periods are longer
2. They have fewer side effects
3. They are cheaper
4. They are easily accessible and user friendly

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

101. The main lymphoid organ of our body is

1. Thymus
2. Bone marrow
3. Lymph nodes
4. Spleen

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1

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3

4

None

102. Observed the given figure and label the parts

1. A-cervical vertebra, B-thoracic vertebra, C-lumbar vertebra, D-coccyx, E-sacrum
2. A-lumbar vertebra, B-thoracic vertebra, C-cervical vertebra, D-sacrum, E-coccyx
3. A-cervical vertebra, B-lumbar vertebra, C-thoracic vertebra, D-sacrum, E-coccyx
4. A-cervical vertebra, B-thoracic vertebra, C-lumbar vertebra, D-Sacrum, E-coccyx

Deselect Answer

1

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103. Assertion (A): Linked genes do not follow Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
Reason (R): Linked genes are located close together on the same chromosome.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

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1

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3

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104. Consider the wrong statement about recombination:

1. Recombination occurs due to crossing over.
2. Crossing over occurs during meiosis.
3. Crossing over occurs between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
4. Recombination frequency can exceed 50%

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1

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105. Consider the following statements about Gregor Mendel’s experiments:

1. Mendel used seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants.
2. Mendel studied traits that were discontinuous.
3. Mendel proposed the law of blending inheritance.
4. Mendel performed both monohybrid and dihybrid crosses

Deselect Answer

1

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3

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None

106. Assertion (A): In a chemical synapse, the transmission of impulse is always unidirectional.
Reason (R): Neurotransmitters are released only from the presynaptic membrane.

1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

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1

2

3

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None

107. Which statement about synaptic vesicles is correct?

1. They store neurotransmitters
2. They store ATP only
3. They contain Na⁺ channels
4. They are present in postsynaptic membrane

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1

2

3

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None

108. Which structure forms the roof of the midbrain?

1. Cerebral peduncles
2. Corpora quadrigemina
3. Crura cerebri
4. Pons

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1

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3

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None

109. In a family, the father has blood group B and the mother has blood group O. One child has blood group O and another has blood group B. What is the father’s genotype?

1. IBIB
2. IBi
3. IAIB
4. IAi

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110. Match:

Options
1. A − 4, B − 1, C − 3, D − 2
2. A − 3, B − 4, C − 1, D − 2
3. A − 2, B − 3, C − 4, D − 1
4. A − 4, B − 3, C − 2, D − 1

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111. Consider the following statements about the ABO blood group system:
1. Gene I has three alleles – IA, IB, and IO.
2. IAand IB alleles are codominant.
3. The allele IO produces antigen on RBC surface.
4. Individuals with blood group O possess antibodies against both A and B antigens.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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1

2

3

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None

112. Which statement about insulin is correct?
1. It consists of two polypeptide chains.
2. Chains are connected by peptide bonds.
3. It contains 51 amino acids.
4. It is initially synthesized as proinsulin.

Options:
1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Deselect Answer

1

2

3

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None

113. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Golden rice helps reduce vitamin A deficiency.
2. Flavr Savr tomato delays ripening by antisense RNA.
3. Golden rice produces vitamin A directly.
4. Flavr Savr tomato was the first genetically engineered food crop commercialized.

1. 1,2,4
2. 1,2,3
3. 2,3,4
4. 1,3,4

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1

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3

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None

114. Which statement is correct regarding mutation theory proposed by Hugo de Vries?

1. Evolution occurs gradually through small variations
2. Mutations are sudden and discontinuous variations
3. Natural selection produces mutations
4. Mutations are always beneficial

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1

2

3

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115. Which scientist experimentally disproved spontaneous generation using swan-neck flask experiment?

1. Louis Pasteur
2. Francesco Redi
3. Lazzaro Spallanzani
4. Alexander Oparin

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1

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3

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None

116. Which of the following statements about the cerebrum is correct?
1. It is the second largest part of the brain.
2. It is divided into two hemispheres.
3. The hemispheres are connected by corpus callosum.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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3

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117. Agglutination during mismatched blood transfusion occurs due to reaction between:

1. Antigen of donor and antibody of donor
2. Antigen of recipient and antibody of donor
3. Antigen of donor and antibody of recipient
4. Antigen of recipient and antigen of donor

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118. If an Rh⁻ woman carries an Rh⁺ fetus, the first child is usually normal because:

1. Mother has anti-Rh antibodies initially
2. Anti-Rh antibodies are produced only after exposure to Rh antigen
3. Rh antigen is absent in fetus
4. Placenta blocks all antibodies

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119. During a normal cardiac cycle of 0.8 s, ventricular systole lasts for:

1. 0.1 s
2. 0.5 s
3. 0.8 s
4. 0.3 s

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1

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120. Which of the following features correctly describe Phylum Echinodermata?

1. They reproduce by both sexually and asexually
2. They are exclusively marine
3. They have water canal system which help in locomotion and respiration
4. They have exoskeleton of calcareous ossicles

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121. Which of the following is required for inspiration to occur?

1. Intra-pulmonary pressure is more than atmospheric pressure
2. Relaxation of external intercostal muscles
3. Negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure
4. Decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber

Deselect Answer

1

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122. Which of the following organs assist in excretion?

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Heart
4. Spleen

Deselect Answer

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3

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None

123. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?
(i) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease
(ii) The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptoms of bacterial infection
(iii) Several genes (called cellular proto-oncogenes) have been identified in normal cells which when activated under certain conditions could cause transformation of the cells
(iv) The vaccine generates memory B and T cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on subsequent exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies
(v) HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes

1. (i) and (v)
2. (ii) only
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. All of these

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124. Which one is correctly matched?

1. Down syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
2. Erythroblastosis foetails – X linked
3. Colour blindness – Y linked
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome – 44 autosomes + XXY

Deselect Answer

1

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125. Assertion (A): Radial symmetry in animals helps in detecting food and danger.
Reason (R): It allows the animal to respond to stimuli from any direction.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3. Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
4. Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct

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126. Consider the following statements about reproductive health:
A. Reproductive health implies total wellbeing in all aspects of reproduction including physical, emotional, behavioural and social aspects.
B. Reproductive health programmes in India began after 1991 under the RCH programme.
C. India was the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. A and B
2. B and C
3. A and C
4. A, B and C

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1

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127. Five oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes, then how many ova are produced on completion of oogenesis?

1. 40
2. 20
3. 10
4. 5

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128. Match the following

1. A − Q, B − P, C − S,D − R
2. A − P, B − Q, C − S,D − R
3. A − Q, B − P, C − R, D − S
4. A − R, B − Q, C − S,D − P

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129. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces
2. Glomerulus along with the Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle
3. Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis
4. Renal corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney

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130. The cells which secrete androgens are

1. Sertoli cells
2. Interstitial cells
3. Leydig cells
4. Both 2 and 3

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131. Assertion (A): The zona pellucida prevents polyspermy during fertilization in humans.
Reason (R): The cortical reaction modifies the zona pellucida immediately after sperm entry.

1. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true

Deselect Answer

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132. Statement 1: In passive immunization, preformed antibodies are given to the patients
Statement 2: Polio vaccine contains preformed antibodies

1. Only Statement 1 is true
2. Only Statement 2 is true
3. Both Statement 1 and 2 are true
4. Both Statement 1 and 2 are false

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133. Inspiratory centre is located in

1. Pons
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Hypothalamus
4. Cerebrum

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134. Medusa of Obelia is

1. Asexually reproductive structure
2. Sexually reproductive structure
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of these

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135. Statement 1: Chances of fertilization is high during the 10th – 17th days of menstrual cycle
Statement 2: Menstrual phase can be expected during these days

1. Both statements are true
2. Both statements are false
3. Only statement 1 is true
4. Only statement 2 is true

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1

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136. The lac in lac operon refers to

1. lactose but not lactase
2. lactase but not lactose
3. lactobacillus but not lactose
4. lactose as well as laevorotatory

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137. If a mutation occurs in the lacA gene, which enzyme will still be produced normally?

1. Only β-galactosidase
2. β-galactosidase and lactose permease
3. Only transacetylase
4. None of these

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138. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?

1. sn RNA
2. hn RNA
3. 23 S rRNA
4. 5 S IRNA

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1

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139. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of

1. Bryophyte
2. Alga
3. Angiosperm
4. Gymnosperm

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1

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3

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140. In DNA replication, the enzyme that synthesizes a short RNA primer is:

1. DNA polymerase III
2. DNA polymerase I
3. Primase
4. DNA ligase

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1

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3

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141. The Human Genome Project revealed that the percentage of the genome that codes for proteins is:

1. 50%
2. 25%
3. 10%
4. 2%

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142. One of the major findings of the Human Genome Project is that:

1. Humans have more genes than other mammals
2. There is a very low degree of nucleotide variation among humans
3. The genome is completely free of repetitive DNA
4. All genes are expressed in all cells

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1

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3

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143. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in matrix in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is

1. lactate dehydrogenase
2. isocitrare dehydrogenase
3. malate dehydrogenase
4. succinate dehydrogenase

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144. During fermentation of dough for bread, which of the following occurs?

1. Yeast respires aerobically and produces CO₂ and H₂O
2. Yeast respires anaerobically and produces CO₂ and ethanol
3. Lactic acid bacteria produce ethanol and CO₂
4. Yeast converts glucose to lactic acid

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145. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Oligosaccharides are made up of 10- 15 units.
Statement II: Oligosaccharides are not sweet in taste.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

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146. In the dicot root the vascular cambium originates from

1. tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem
2. cortical region
3. parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle
4. intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring

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147. Which of the following statements regarding taxonomic hierarchy are correct?
1. Each category, referred to as a unit of classification, represents a rank.
2. Each rank or category is called a taxon.
3. Species is both the lowest category and a taxon.
4. Categories represent concrete biological entities, while taxa are abstract.
Choose the correct option:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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1

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148. Which of the following ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity (NPP) per unit area?

1. Tropical rainforest
2. Coral reef
3. Estuary
4. Desert

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1

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3

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149. Which component of the ecosystem is responsible for mineralisation?

1.Producers
2. Herbivores
3.Decomposers
4. Carnivores

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3

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150. In an ecosystem, the primary producers fix 10⁶ kcal of energy. How much energy will reach the third trophic level?

1. 10³ kcal
2. 10⁴ kcal
3. 10⁵ kcal
4. 10² kcal

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151. If the somatic chromosome number of a plant is 2n = 36, the chromosome number in egg cell and primary endosperm nucleus will be:

1. 18 and 54
2. 36 and 54
3. 18 and 36
4. 36 and 18

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152. A flower has 20 ovules. If 60% of ovules get fertilized, how many seeds will form?

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

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153. Which of the following tissues remain alive at maturity but lack nucleus?

1. Vessel elements
2. Companion cells
3. Sieve tube elements
4. Xylem fibres

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3

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154. Which nitrogenous base has the highest proportion in the human genome?

1. Adenine
2. Guanine
3. Cytosine
4. Thymine

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1

2

3

4

None

155. In humans, chromosome 1 contains approximately how many genes?

1. 2000
2. 2968
3. 500
4. 8000

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156. A botanist examines the internal structure of leaves from a plant species that shows high photosynthetic efficiency in hot and dry environments. Microscopic observation reveals that vascular bundles are surrounded by large bundle sheath cells containing numerous chloroplasts, while the surrounding mesophyll cells contain chloroplasts lacking the enzyme responsible for carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle.
Which feature of this plant most directly contributes to reduced photorespiration?

1. Absence of chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
2. Spatial separation of initial CO₂ fixation and Calvin cycle
3. Absence of ATP synthesis in chloroplasts
4. Direct fixation of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide

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1

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157. In an experiment on light reactions of photosynthesis, isolated chloroplasts are illuminated with ADP and inorganic phosphate. In one setup NADP⁺ is present, while in another it is absent. When NADP⁺ is absent, electrons excited in Photosystem I return to the same photosystem instead of reducing NADP⁺.
Which outcome will occur in the second setup?

1. Production of both ATP and NADPH with release of oxygen
2. Production of ATP without formation of NADPH or oxygen
3. Formation of glucose through Calvin cycle in the absence of light
4. Complete inhibition of electron transport in thylakoid membrane

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1

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158. A population initially shows exponential growth but later stabilises due to environmental resistance. Which change most likely caused the shift in the growth pattern?

1. Increase in intrinsic rate of increase (r)
2. Sudden decrease in natality
3. Attainment of carrying capacity of the environment
4. Increase in biotic potential

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1

2

3

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159. Observe the following given floral diagram

Which of the following statements is not related to the above floral diagram?

1. Flower is bisexual, actinomorphic and pentamerous
2. Stigma equal to number of carpels
3. Stamens are epipetalous
4. Corolla arranged in imbricate aestivation.

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1

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3

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160. The mitotic spindle fibres are primarily composed of which of the following, and their assembly is directly inhibited by colchicine?

1. Actin filaments
2. Intermediate filaments
3. Microtubules made of tubulin
4. Myosin fibres

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1

2

3

4

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161. Which of the following statements about dinoflagellates are correct?
(i) They possess two flagella placed perpendicular to each other.
(ii) Their cell wall is made of silica.
(iii) Some species can cause red tides.
(iv) Many members are bioluminescent.
(v) They are exclusively freshwater organisms.

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (i), (ii) and (v)
3. (ii), (iii) and (v)
4. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

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1

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162. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. Fucus — Diplontic life cycle
2. Marchantia — Thalloid gametophyte
3. Selaginella — Heterosporous pteridophyte
4. Funaria — Independent sporophyte

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1

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3

4

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163. In some plants, the ovary contains a persistent septum-like structure that remains after seed dispersal, aiding in fruit dehiscence. In which of the following plants is this structure, known as a replum, found?

1. Sunflower
2. Pea
3. Lemon
4. Mustard

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1

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3

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164. Select the correct matching for placentation.

1. A-marginal, B- parietal, C- axile, Dbasal
2. A-axile, B-parietal, C- free central, Dbasal
3. A-axile, B – marginal, C- parietal, Dfree central
4. A-marginal, B-free central, C- axile, Dbasal

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165. The fluid mosaic model explains the structural and functional organization of biological membranes. Consider the following statements:
I. Phospholipids are arranged with hydrophilic heads facing the aqueous environment and hydrophobic tails facing inward.
II. Integral proteins span the membrane and can function as channels or carriers.
III. Cholesterol is present in all biological membranes and increases membrane fluidity at all temperatures.
IV. The lateral movement of lipids and proteins contributes to membrane fluidity.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. I, II and IV
2. I, III and IV
3. II and III only
4. I, II, III and IV

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1

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3

4

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166. In a grassland ecosystem, 200 deer are present in an area of 50 km². After one year:
I. 40 deer are born II. 20 deer die
III. 10 migrate out IV. 30 migrate in
What is the final population density per km²?

1. 4.2
2. 4.6
3. 4.8
4. 5.4

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1

2

3

4

None

167. A bacterial culture doubles every 25 minutes. After 100 minutes, the culture is diluted with sterile medium such that the concentration becomes half. The culture is then allowed to grow for another 75 minutes. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The culture completes a total of 7 generations.
II. Dilution affects the growth rate but not generation time.
III. Final population is 8 times the population present just after dilution.
IV. The final population is 16 times the initial population.

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. I, II and III
4. II, III and IV

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1

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3

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168. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of Pisum sativum is

1. Monoadelphous
2. Polyandrous
3. Diadelphous
4. Polyadelphous

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1

2

3

4

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169. In a dividing somatic cell, the disappearance of nucleolus, breakdown of nuclear envelope, appearance of kinetochores and alignment of chromosomes occur sequentially. Which of the following correctly describes the stage-specific association of these events?

1. Nucleolus disappears in metaphase; kinetochores appear in prophase
2. Chromosome alignment occurs before kinetochore formation
3. Kinetochores appear at centromeres during metaphase and facilitate chromosome alignment
4. Sister chromatids separate during metaphase due to spindle contraction

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1

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3

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170. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding ribosomes?

1. Ribosomes are non-membranous organelles
2. 70S ribosomes are found in mitochondria and chloroplasts
3. Ribosomes synthesized in nucleolus are structurally different from cytoplasmic ribosomes
4. Ribosomes may be free or attached to endoplasmic reticulum

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None

171. In China rose the flowers are

1. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
2. Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation
3. Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
4. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

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None

172. Which of the following statements regarding pteridophytes is incorrect?

1. Sporophyte is dominant and independent
2. They possess well-developed vascular tissues
3. Male and female gametophytes are multicellular and independent
4. Most pteridophytes are homosporous, while some are heterosporous

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173. A bacterial species shows exponential growth with a generation time of 40 minutes. A culture initially containing 103 cells per mL reaches 1.28×105 cells per mL. Calculate the total time for which the culture was allowed to grow.

1. 160 min
2. 200 min
3. 240 min
4. 280 min

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174. Given below are a few floral diagrams of some well-known families of angiosperm.
Choose floral formula from these diagrams.

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175. A plant shows:
I. Delayed leaf senescence
II. Enhanced lateral bud growth
III. Reduced apical dominance
Which hormonal balance best explains this condition?

1. High auxin : low cytokinin
2. Low auxin : high cytokinin
3. High gibberellin : low ABA
4. High ethylene : low auxin

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2

3

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None

176. A plant species is observed to have numerous small, sessile flowers tightly packed on a common receptacle, with inferior ovary and the outermost flowers modified to mimic petals for attracting pollinators. Which of the following best describes its inflorescence type?

1. Corymb
2. Cyathium
3. Capitulum
4. Hypanthodium

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177. Which of the following correctly correlates cytoskeletal elements with their functions?

1. Microfilaments – spindle formation during mitosis
2. Intermediate filaments – muscle contraction
3. Microtubules – chromosome movement and cilia formation
4. Actin filaments – intracellular transport via motor proteins

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178.

Study the above floral formula and identify the family.

1. Disc florets of Asteraceae family
2. Ray florets of Asteraceae family
3. Disc florets of Gramineae family
4. Ray florets of Gramineae family

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179. A biologist compares species richness across three regions:
I. Region A: Small tropical island
II. Region B: Large temperate continent
III. Region C: Large tropical continent
Which region will show both the highest species richness AND the steepest species–area curve (highest Z value)?

1. Region A
2. Region B
3. Region C
4. Region A and C

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180. A leaf shows premature senescence even though cytokinin levels are normal. Which hormonal change can most reasonably explain this observation?

1. Decrease in auxin concentration
2. Increase in abscisic acid concentration
3. Decrease in gibberellin concentration
4. Increase in ethylene concentration

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None

←NEET REVISION TEST XIII (14.03.2026)

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