NEET REVISION TEST XI (04.03.2026)

1. The amount of work required to expand the soap bubble from a radius of r₁ = 3.5 cm to r₂ = 7 cm is: (Given: surface tension of soap solution, T=0.03N/m)

2. If the voltage across a bulb rated (220 V-100 W) drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would decrease is:

3. An electron of mass m and a photon have the same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is:
(c is the velocity of light)

4. Young’s double-slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that the 8^th bright fringe in the medium lies where the 5^th dark fringe lies in the air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:

1. 1.59
2. 1.69
3. 1.78
4. 1.25

5. A resistor (R) and a capacitor (C) are connected in series and an AC-voltage is applied across the combination. It is observed that the peak voltage across the resistor is twice that of the capacitor at a frequency of 100 Hz. At what frequency will the two voltages be equal?


1. 200 Hz
2. 400 Hz
3. 50 Hz
4. 25 Hz

6. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is observed to move upward with a speed v₁ at time t₁ and a speed v₂ downward, at time t₂.
The acceleration of the ball is (downward):

7. How much power is delivered by a force, F at t = 10s (see figure), assuming the body starts from rest?
(take g = 10 m/s²)


1. 50 W
2. 30 W
3. 20 W
4. 10 W

8. The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit for the electron in a hydrogen atom is 0.5 Å, and its ground state energy is -13.6 eV. If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon ( μ^–) which has the same charge as the electron but is 207 times more massive, what will be the new values for the first Bohr radius and ground state energy?

1. 0.53 × 10^-13  m, – 3.6eV
2. 25.6 × 10^-13  m, – 2.8eV
3. 2.56 × 10^-13  m, – 2.8eV
4. 2.56 × 10^-13  m, – 13.6eV

9. When light propagates in a vacuum, there is an electric field and a magnetic field. These fields:
(A) Are constant in time.
(B) Have zero average value.
(C) Are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light
(D) Are mutually perpendicular to each other.
Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B) and (C) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only.

10. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option

Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1. I → (a), II → (c), III → (b), IV → (d)
2. I → (d), II → (b), III → (c), IV → (a)
3. I → (d), II → (c), III → (b), IV → (a)
4. I → (a), II → (c), III → (d). IV → (b)

11. In the given scenario, the voltage, V₂ > V₁ and no current flow through the source on the left. The phase difference between the two sources is.

Which of the following expressions correctly relates ?

12. Whenever a photon is emitted by a hydrogen atom in the Paschen series, it is followed by further emissions of photons, in the Balmer series or the Lyman series. These photons can have:

1. 2 possible energy values.
2. 3 possible energy values.
3. 4 possible energy values.
4. 5 possible energy values.

13. An elevator is moving upward with uniform acceleration a = 4 m/s², as shown in the diagram. What would be the tension at the mid-point of the wire AB, which has a length of 1 m and mass 2 kg?


1. 50 N
2. 60 N
3. 80 N
4. 70 N

14. One mole of a monoatomic gas is mixed with three moles of a diatomic gas. If the molecular specific heat of 2 the mixture at constant volume is α²/4RJ/mol-K, then the value of α will be:
(assume that the given diatomic gas has no vibrational mode)

1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2

15. A satellite with kinetic energy E is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional kinetic energy required for it to escape into outer space is:

1. 2E
2. E/√2
3. E/2
4. E

16. The angular velocity of a rotating body changes from ω₁ to ω₂ without the application of an external torque, but due to a change in its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation. The ratio of its corresponding radii of gyration is:

1. ω₁ : ω₂
2. √ω₁  : √ω₂
3. ω₂ : ω₁
4. √ω₂  : √ω₁

17. A nuclear reaction occurs where a nucleus X breaks up into two separated nuclei Y and Z: X → Y + Z Let, the nuclear radii of X, Y, Z be r_X, r_Y, r_Z .Then, which of the following, is (nearly) correct

18. A simple pendulum consists of a bob (A) of mass 2 kg connected by means of a light, inextensible string of length 1 m to a fixed point O on the ceiling. A horizontal force is applied to the bob (A); the string makes an angle of 45° with the vertical & the system is stationary. Take g = 10 m/s², if required.

If the string is suddenly cut, the acceleration of the bob will be:

1. 10 m/s²
2. 20 m/s²
3. 10√2 m/s²
4. 20√2 m/s²

19. The time period of a simple pendulum is T. The time taken to complete 5/8 oscillations starting from the mean position is α/β T. The value of α is:

1. 3
2. 6
3. 7
4. 10

20. A long solenoid of length L has a total number of turns N. It produces the same magnetic field at its centre as a long straight wire does, at a distance r: when both of them carry the same current. Then:

1. r=L/N
2. r=L/2N
3. r=L/πN
4. r=L/2πN

21. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young’s modulus of steel and copper wires shown in the figure are p, q and s respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be:

22. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Photodiodes are operated in reverse biased
Statement II: Current in forward bias is more than current in reverse bias in p-n diode.

1. Both Statements are true.
2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
3. Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
4. Both Statements are false.

23. The electric field, at the centre of a square with charges placed at its four vertices as shown in the figure, is: (k =1/4πϵ₀)

24. Two identical glass (μ_g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are contact. The space. between the two lenses is filled with water (μ_ω  = 4/3).
The focal length of the combination is:

1. (f )/3
2. f
3. 4f/3
4. 3f/4

25. The acceleration of an electron due to the mutual attraction between the electron and a proton when they are 1.6 Å apart is.(1/4πϵ₀ =9×10⁹ Nm² C^-2 )

1. 10²⁴ m/s²
2. 10²³ m/s²
3. 10²² m/s²
4. 10²⁵ m/s²

26. A sinusoidal waveform whose displacement is given by: y(x, t) = (5mm) sin 2π(x/2m+t/0.01s) propagates along the x-axis. Which, of the following statement, is true?

1. The wave propagates along the positive x-axis with a speed of 500 mm/s
2. The wave propagates along the negative x-axis with a speed of 500 mm/s
3. The wave propagates, along the positive x-axis with a speed of 200 m/s
4. The wave propagates along the negative x-axis with a speed of 200 m/s

27. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 × 10^-4 ms^-1, in an electric field of 3 × 10^-10  Vm^-1, has mobility of:

1. 2.5 × 10⁶ m²  V^-1  s ^-1
2. 2.5 × 10^-6 m²  V^-1  s ^-1
3. 2.25 × 10^-15 m²  V^-1  s ^-1
4. 2.25 × 10¹⁵ m²  V^-1  s ^-1

28. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed, both its velocity and its acceleration change continuously.
Reason (R): The centripetal acceleration in circular motion is independent of the angular velocity of the particle.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

29. When a man starts walking on a horizontal road, he starts from rest and then accelerates forward due to the force of static friction acting on his shoes (or feet). The work done by friction:

1. is positive
2. is negative
3. is zero
4. can be positive, negative or zero depending on the man’s acceleration.

30. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): The electric potential of a charged ring or an arc of a ring at its centre depends only on the total charge and the radius.
Reason (R): The potential due to a point charge depends on the charge and the distance therefrom; for a collection of charges, it is the sum of the potential due to each charge.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

31. The total energy of an electron in the orbit of an atom is 3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively:

1. 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
2. -3.4 eV, -3.4 eV
3. -3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
4. 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV

32. For the given, LCR series circuit; X_L = 130Ω, X_c = 80Ω and R = 80Ω.The value of the power factor of the circuit is:


1. √54/9
2. 8/√89
3. 8/13
4. 7/9

33. The magnitude of the vector

1. 1
2. √2
3. √3
4. 2

34. A spacecraft, moving in outer space where there are no gravitational fields, fires its rockets. The initial mass of the spacecraft was 1000 kg, and it was moving with a velocity of 100 m/s. After firing its rockets, its mass becomes 900 kg and its velocity becomes 200 m/s, along the same direction. The momentum of the exhaust gases, backward, is:

1. 28 × 10⁴ N-s
2. 18 × 10⁴  N-s
3. 8 × 10⁴ N-s
4. 4× 10⁴ N-s

35. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): When a spring is cut into two equal parts, the spring constant of each part of the spring is doubled
Reason (R): Spring constant is inversely proportional to the length of the spring.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

36. Given the following particle masses:
m_p = 1.00721 u (proton)
m_n = 1.0087 u (neutron)
m_e = 0.000548 u (electron)
m_v = 0 u (antineutrino)
m_d = 2.0141 u (deuteron)
Which of the following processes is allowed, considering the conservation of energy and momentum?

1. n+p→d+γ
2. e⁺+ e^–→γ
3. n+n→ deuterium atom (electron bound to the nucleus)
4. p→n+e⁺+ v

37. Two coils of self-inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is:

1. 16 mH
2. 10 mH
3. 6 mH
4. 4 mH

38. The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m³ and at 40°C is 992 kg/m³. The coefficient of volume expansion of water is:

1. 3 × 10^-4/°C
2. 2×10^-4/°C
3. 6 ×10^-4/°C
4. 10^-4/°C

39. The frequency f and the length l of a simple pendulum are related by:

41. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to L₁ when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is:

43. The position-time (x – t) graph of a moving particle is shown in the figure. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point:

44. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and the same mass density is:

1. 3v
2. 4 v
3. v
4. 2 v

45. Rays of light are incident on a plane mirror and the reflected light forms an image. The mirror rotates through an angle (θ) and the reflected rays rotate through an angle of 30°, in the plane of incidence. The angle 6 equals:

1. 10°
2. 15°
3. 30°
4. 60°

CHEMISTRY

46. What type of carbohydrates are sugars A and B, respectively?


1. Ketotriose and ketohexose
2. Aldotriose and aldohexose
3. Aldotriose and ketoheptose
4. Ketotriose and aldoheptose

47. What are the major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence?

48. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is more than that of sulphur
Reason (R): Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

49. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A₂ B₃ is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution at 1 atm is- (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
[Given K_b for (H₂O) = 0.52Kkg mol^-1 ]

1. 373 K
2. 380 K
3. 375 K
4. 377 K

50. Arrange the metals Al, Cu, Fe, Mg, and Zn in the correct decreasing order based on their ability to displace each other from the solutions of their salts:

1. Al > Zn > Fe > Cu > Mg
2. Zn > Fe > Cu > Mg > Al
3. Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu
4. Fe > Mg > Zn > Al > Cu

51. What can be the empirical formula of a compound, if it contains 51.9% carbon, 4.86% hydrogen, and 43.2% bromine by mass?

1. C₇ H₅ Br
2. C₆ H₄ Br₃
3. C₈ H₉ Br
4. C₁₂ H₂₂ Br

52. For the reversible reaction:
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + heat
The equilibrium shifts in a forward direction:

1. by increasing the concentration of NH₃(g)
2. by decreasing the pressure.
3. by decreasing the concentration of N₂(g) and H₂(g)
4. by increasing pressure and decreasing temperature.

53. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of H-atom is suitable for this purpose?
[ R_H = 1 × 10⁵  cm^-1, h = 6.6 × 10^-34  Js,]

1. Paschen, ∞→3
2. Paschen, 5→3
3. Balmer, ∞→2
4. Lyman, ∞→1

54. The complex among the following that exhibits a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is:

1. Ni (CO)₄
2. [NiCl₄]^2-
3. Ni (PPh₃)₄
4. [Ni(CN)₄]^2-

55. Anions are larger in radius than their parent atoms because

1. An anion has a fewer number of electrons than its parent atom
2. An anion has the same number of electrons as its parent atom.
3. An anion has a higher effective nuclear charge.
4. An anion has more electrons than its parent atom

56. What mass of urea (NH₂ CONH₂) is needed to prepare 2.5 kg of a 0.25 molal solution?

1. 39 g
2. 37 g
3. 41 g
4. 35 g

57. What is the number of stereocenters in the linear and cyclic forms of glucose, respectively?

1. 4 & 4
2. 4 & 5
3. 5 & 4
4. 5 & 5

58. Which of the following is the correct statement based on the given information?
Statement I: When chloral is heated with conc. Potassium hydroxide, it yields [ CCl₃ COO^– and CCl₃ CH₂ OH]
Statement II: In Cannizzaro’s reaction, hydride transfer is the slowest step.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

59. Identify the correct relationship of stability from the options provided:

1. TlI >TlI
2. TlCl₃> TlCl
3. InI₃> InI
4. AlCl >AlCl₃

60. Which of the following pairs share both isoelectronicity and isostructural characteristics?

61. The standard Gibbs free energy for the following reaction is:
Fe²⁺ (aq)+Ag⁺ (aq)→ Fe³⁺  (aq)+Ag(s)
Given:


1. – 2.895 kJ/mol
2. -2.895 J/mol
3. -239.287 kJ/mol
4. 239.287 kJ/mol

62. CH₃ CH=CHCHO is oxidized to CH₃ CH = CHCOOH using:

1. Alkaline permanganate
2. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
3. Selenium dioxide
4. Osmium tetroxide

63. The product in the given reaction is

64. The relation between hydrogen bond and the van der Waals forces is:

1. Both the bonds have equal strength.
2. Hydrogen bonds are weaker than van der Waals forces.
3. Hydrogen bonds are stronger than van der Waals forces.
4. None of the above

65. Consider the reaction sequence:

 The product B is:

66. The most paramagnetic species is:

1. Ni²⁺ (Z=28)
2. Fe²⁺ (Z=26)
3. Mn²⁺(Z=25)
4. V³⁺ (Z=23)

67. Which of the following mixtures forms the maximum boiling azeotrope?

1. Heptane + Octane
2. Water + Nitric acid
3. Ethanol + Water
4. Acetone + Carbon disulphide

68. Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond order), and mark the appropriate choice

Choose the correct match from the options given below:

1. (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
2. (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv)
3. (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d) → (ii)
4. (a) → (iv),(b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)

69. The lowest energy d → d transition of the complexes follows the order:

70. 1 gram of a carbonate (M₂CO₃) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01186 moles of CO₂. The molar mass of M₂CO₃ in g mol^-1 is:

1. 118.6
2. 11.86
3. 88.6 
4. 84.3

71. For a non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B → C + D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

The rate law for the formation of C is:

1. d[C] /dt = k[A][B]
2. d[C] /dt = k [A]²[B]
3. d[C] /dt = k[A][B]²
4. d[C] /dt = k[A]

72. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is basic.
Reason (R): The acidic or basic nature of a salt solution of a salt of a weak acid and a weak base depends on the Ka and Kb values of the acid and the base forming it.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

73. How many of the given compounds can be readily synthesized via Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, resulting in product(s) soluble in KOH when treated with Hinsberg reagent?


1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 0

74. Which of the following reactions is correct?

75. In the reaction

The product is –

76. What will be the standard enthalpy of reaction for the following reaction using the listed enthalpies of reaction?
3Co(s) + 2O₂(g) → Co₃ O₄(s); ΔΗ=?
2Co(s) + O₂(g) →2CoO(s) ΔΗ₁ = -475.8 KJ
6CoO(s) + O₂(g)→ 2Co₃O₄(s)ΔΗ₂ =  KJ

1. -891.2 KJ
2. -120.8 KJ
3. 891.2 KJ
4. -830.8 KJ

77. Consider the following reaction,

the product, Z, is

1. toluene
2. benzaldehyde
3. benzoic acid
4. benzene

78. Which of the reagents shown below would accomplish the following transformations?

       A                                     B
1. H3O⁺                   BH^3- THF; H₂ O₂/NaOH
2. NaOH                  BH^3- THF; H₂ O₂/NaOH
3. HBr in ether        Hg (OAc)₂ / H₂O; NaBH₄
4. NaNH₂                Hg (OAc)₂ / O; NaBH₄

79. AlF₃ is soluble in HF only in the presence of KF due to the formation of:

1. K₃ AlF₃ H₃]
2. K₃ [AlF₃]
3. AlH₃
4. K[AlF₃H]

80. Given the reaction, A+B→ Products, when concentration of A is fixed and concentration of B is increased 3 times then rate of reaction increases 27 times. Now, when the concentration of A and B both are doubled, then the rate of reaction increases 8 times. The rate law for the reaction will be:

1. Rate =K[A]² [B]
2. Rate = K[B]³
3. Rate =K[A]³ [B]
4. Rate =K[A]²[B]³

81. The number of significant figures in the numbers 5005, 500.0, and 126,000 are, respectively:

1. 2, 4, and 3
2. 4, 1, and 3
3. 4.4, and 6
4. 4, 4, and 3

82. Given below are two statements:
Assertion(A): The flow of current ceases when the cell potential (E_cell) becomes zero.
Reason(R): At (E_cell) = 0, the cell reaction attains equilibrium.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

83. In the preparation of KMnO₄, pyrolusite (MnO₂) is first converted to dark green potassium manganate. In this conversion, the oxidation state of manganese changes from:

1. +1 to +3
2. +2 to +4
3. +3 to +5
4. +4 to +6

84. The correct structure(s) of D-glyceraldehyde is/are:

85. Which of the following molecules/intermediates/species is/are electrophile(s)?


1. A, B, C, and D only
2. A, B, and C only
3. A only
4. A and D only

86. In the following reaction sequence, what is the final product, compound ‘B’?

87. PCl₃ and PCl₅ both exist; NCl₃ exists but NCl₅ does not exist. It is due to:

1. Lower electronegativity of P and N
2. Lower tendency of N to form a covalent bond
3. Availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N
4. The statement is incorrect

88. For which of the following processes will the entropy increase?

1. Reaction of magnesium with oxygen to form magnesium oxide
2. Reaction of nitrogen and hydrogen to form ammonia
3. Sublimation of dry ice
4. Condensation of steam

89. An incorrect statement among the following is: 

1. La(OH)₃ is less basic than Lu(OH)₃
2. In Lanthanide series, ionic radius of Ln⁺³ ions decreases.
3. La is an element of a transition and not of Lanthanide series.
4. The atomic radius of Zr and Hf are the same because of Lanthanide contraction.

90. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C₆ H₁₂ O₂) was hydrolyzed with dil. H₂ SO₄ to give a carboxylic acid (B) and alcohol (C). ‘C’ gives white turbidity immediately when treated with anhydrous ZnCl₂ and conc. HCl. The organic compound (A) is:

91. Which event occurs during the depolarization phase of an action potential?

1. Potassium ions flow out of the neuron.
2. Sodium ions flow into the neuron.
3. Calcium ions flow into the synaptic cleft.
4. Sodium-potassium pumps restore resting potential.

92. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): The use of baculovirus as biocontrol agents is especially desirable when an ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
Reason (R): Baculoviruses are species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticides.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. (A) is True; (R) is False
3. (A) is False; (R) is False
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

93. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
Reason (R): The mother’s immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh factor, which can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

94. Match terms in Column-I with their description in


Code
    A B C D
1. P R Q S
2. R P Q S
3. R P S Q
4. P R Q S

95. If the population pyramid of an associated population has an extremely broad base, it is:

1. a rapidly expanding population
2. a stable population
3. a population where there were more old individuals than young individuals
4. a population with more males than females

96. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:

1. DNA replication is occurring
2. The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre
3. The DNA double helix is exposed
4. Transcription is occurring

97. Which of the following would not be correct regarding vital capacity in human lungs?

1. It is the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration.
2. It includes ERV, TV, RV and IRV
3. It can also be defined as the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
4. It can be calculated as the difference between total lung capacity and residual volume.

98. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:

99. Consider the given two statements:
I: Some aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids.
Π: Such aquatic ecosystems also have inverted energy pyramids.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

100. What is/are the correct difference(s) between C3 plants and C4 plants?
I: Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is RuBP and PEP in C4 plants
II: Calvin cycle takes place in mesophyll cells in C3 plants and in bundle sheath cells in C4 plants.

1. Only I 2. Only II
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II

101. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Estrogens stimulate growth and activities of female secondary sex organs, development of growing ovarian follicles, and appearance of female secondary sex characters.
Statement II: Progesterone supports pregnancy.

1. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II ism correct
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

102. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. Plant growth generally is indeterminate.
2. Formation of interfascicular cambium is a result of redifferentiation.
3. Differentiation in plants is also open.
4. Heterophylly in coriander is an example of plasticity.

103. The son of a woman who carries the gene for colour blindness [but herself is not affected]:

1. can never be colour blind
2. has a 25 per cent chance of being colour blind
3. has a 50 per cent chance of being colour blind
4. has a 100 per cent chance of being colour blind

104. The scutellum in monocot embryos is:

1. A protective layer for the radicle.
2. A shield for the plumule.
3. The cotyledon of the monocot embryo.
4. A sheath covering the embryonal axis.

105. What would not be true regarding thyroid hormones?

1. Thyroid hormones play an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate.
2. Thyroid hormones support the process of red blood cell formation.
3. All hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are iodothyronines.
4. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones.

106. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): An increase in pulmonary volume will cause inspiration.
Reason (R): An increase in pulmonary volume increases the intra-pulmonary pressure to more than the atmospheric pressure.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3. (A)is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

107. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): The son of a woman who carries the gene for colour blindness has a 50 percent chance of being colour blind.
Reason (R): Colour blindness is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition humans.

1. (A) is False but (R) is True
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

108. How many of the given statements regarding recent extinctions are true?
I: Dodo got extinct from Mauritius
II: Quagga got extinct from Africa
III: Thylacine got extinct from Australia
IV: Stellar’s sea cow got extinct from Russia

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

109. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Ethylene promotes fruit ripening and is responsible for the climacteric rise in respiration in ripening fruits like bananas and tomatoes.
Statement II: Ethylene enhances leaf senescence and abscission, and it is used in agriculture to synchronize fruit ripening in crops such as pineapples.
Which of the following is correct?

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

110. A plant with the given floral formula must belong to:


1. Fabaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Brassicaceae
4. Liliaceae

111. Identify the correctly matched pair.

112. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:


Codes:
   A B C D
1. R S Q P
2. R S P Q
3. P Q R S
4. Q P S R

113. How many of the given statements are true?
A: Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division
B: Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
C: Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division
D: Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

114. Assertion(A): Dr. Sharma prescribed Kapil sir (travelling to Berkeley on study leave) Melatonin to overcome jet lag associated with travel across several time zones.
Reason(R): Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.

115. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

116. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Prokaryotic cells have a simpler structure than eukaryotic cells but can carry out essential life processes.
Reason(R): Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, but they have ribosomes and a plasma membrane for metabolic functions.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

117. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Presence of oxygen is vital for aerobic cellular respiration
Reason (R): Oxygen is required in all steps from glycolysis to electron transport involved in aerobic cellular respiration

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True; (R) is False
4. (A) is False; (R) is True

118. Consider the two statements:
I: Agar Gel electrophoresis is useful in analysis of DNA.
II: DNA is generally positively charged due to its nitrogenous bases so an electrical field forces it to move toward a negative pole.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

119. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in:

1. Ribosomes
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Microbodies
4. Nucleolus

120. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: The approximate percent composition of proteins and lipids in the cell membrane of a human erythrocyte is respectively 40% and 52%.
Statement II: The measure of fluidity of a cell membrane is the ability of proteins to flip-flop between the two layers of phospholipid.

1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

121.
is the floral formula of

1. Allium
2. Sesbania
3. Petunia
4. Brassica

122. Why is misuse of amniocentesis banned in India?

1. It is a highly invasive procedure with severe health risks.
2. It is expensive and not accessible to the general population
3. It is misused for sex determination, leading to female foeticide.
4. It provides inaccurate results regarding genetic disorders.

123. Extrusion of the second polar body from the egg nucleus occurs:

1. simultaneously with the first cleavage
2. after entry of sperm but before fertilization
3. after fertilization
4. before entry of sperm into the ovum

124. In meiotic cell division, the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome allowing sister chromatids to move toward opposite poles of the cell by shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochores, occurs during:

1. Metaphase I
2. Metaphase II
3. Anaphase I
4. Anaphase II

125. The cell type in which the Calvin cycle takes place in C3 and C4 plants respective are:

1. Mesophyll; Bundle sheath
2. Bundle sheath; Mesophyll
3. Mesophyll; Mesophyll
4. Bundle sheath; Bundle sheath

126. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

127. The substrate has to go through a higher energy state or transition state during its conversion to a product in:
I: Exothermic spontaneous reactions
II: Endothermic reactions
III: Enzyme catalyzed reactions

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

128. Which of the following biomolecules have a phosphodiester bond?

1. Fatty acids in a diglyceride
2. Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
3. Amino acids in a polypeptide
4. Nucleic acids in a nucleotide

129. Bryophytes are often referred to as “amphibians of the plant kingdom” due to their dependence on water. Which of the following statements correctly describes the reason for this dependence?

1. Water is essential for bryophytes only during the sporophytic phase, as gametophytes are independent and produce seeds without water.
2. Water is required for the movement of motile male gametes (antherozoids) to reach the archegonium for fertilization, as bryophytes lack vascular tissue for fluid transport.
3. Bryophytes rely on water for absorbing nutrients directly from soil through specialized roots and not for fertilization.
4. Water in bryophytes serves the same function as in gymnosperms, facilitating pollen transfer from male to female cones.

130. Identify the algal group:
I: They possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.
II: Food is stored as complex carbohydrates, which may be in the form of laminarin or mannitol
 
1. Green algae
2. Brown algae
3. Red algae
4.Blue-green algae

131. Consider the given two statements:
I: Type O is considered to be universal donor blood type.
II: It has neither anti-A antibodies nor anti-B antibodies circulating in the plasma.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

132. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

1. Multiple-step mutations
2. Saltation
3. Phenotypic variations
4. Minor mutations

133. Match Column-I with values given in Column-II:


1. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

134. Identify the incorrect statement about the nucleolus:

1. It is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.
2. It is involved in the assembly of ribosomal subunits.
3. It is surrounded by a double membrane like the nucleus.
4. Its size varies, depending on the metabolic activity of the cell.

135. Glucocorticoids are involved in all of the following, except

1. Producing anti-inflammatory reactions
2. Immunosuppressive function
3. Inhibiting gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis
4. Stimulating RBC production

136. What is the difference between Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP)?

1. GPP is the total rate of photosynthesis, including both 1. organic matter used in respiration and biomass accumulation; NPP is only the biomass accumulation.
2. GPP refers to the energy stored by consumers, while NPP refers to the energy stored by producers.
3. GPP is the total biomass accumulated, while NPP is the leftover energy after plants’ metabolic needs are met.
4. NPP is always higher than GPP because it includes consumer productivity.

137. The clotting of blood is an important function attributed in human blood to:

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leukocytes
3. Thrombocytes
4. Neutrophils

138. Metal ions required by some enzymes as cofactors:
I: form covalent bonds with side chains at the active site of the enzyme
II: form one or more covalent bonds with the substrate.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

139. To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future pregnancies:

1. Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to Rh-ve mothers at the time of each delivery
2. Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
3. Rh Antigens must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
4. Anti Antigens must be given to Rh-ve mothers at the time of each delivery

140. There are remarkable differences between the reproductive events in the male and in the female including:
I: sperm formation continues even in old men, but formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.
II: sperm formation begins in foetal life and egg formation begins after the onset of puberty.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

141. Apomixis is:
I: production of seeds without fertilization
II: production of fruits without fertilization a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only III is correct
4. Only I and III are correct

142. In the given figure of the scapula bone, which alphabet shows the part where the head of humerus articulates [makes a joint]?


1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

143. The leafy stage in the life cycle of mosses:

1. is a stage of the sporophytic generation
2. is a creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage.
3. develops directly from a spore.
4. bears sex organs.

144. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates:

1. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
2. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
3. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
4. Juxta glomerular cells, to release renin

145. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is significant in biotechnology because:

1. It produces Bt toxin, which is effective against insect pests when introduced into\ crops.
2. It is used to enhance the flavor and nutritional content of food crops.
3. It fixes nitrogen in soil, promoting plant growth.
4. It increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants.

146. The hypothalamus:
Statement I: is the apical part of diencephalon, forebrain.
Statement II: contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones.

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

147. If DNA contained sulphur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would have been the outcome of Hershey and Chase experiment?

1. No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
2. Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in bacterial cells
3. Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
4. Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells

148. The conversion of milk into curd involves which of the following processes?

1. Coagulation of proteins by lactic acid bacteria (LAB) producing acids
2. Breaking down of lactose by yeast to produce alcohol
3. Utilization of CO2 for making milk proteins dissolve in water
4. Production of enzymes that convert fats into simpler fatty acids

149. Identify the correct statements:
I: The gametes are flagellated and similar in size in Ulothrix or non-flagellated (non-motile) but similar in size in Spirogyra
II: Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size, as in species of Eudorina is termed as anisogamous.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

150. Identify the zwitterion configuration of alanine:

151. In humans, the total lung capacity (TLC) is determined by the sum of:

1. Vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume
2. Residual volume and functional residual capacity
3. Vital capacity and residual volume
4. Inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume

152. The outer hard layer of the pollen wall is made up of:

1. Callose, which is easily digested by enzymes
2. Sporopollenin, which is resistant to all enzymes
3. Hemicellulose, which is difficult to digest by enzymes
4. Calcium pectate, which is easily digested by enzymes

153. Karl Ernst von Baer:

1. conducted a control experiment to disprove spontaneous generation
2. proposed the concept of pangenesis as the physical basis of heredity
3. disapproved the proposal of Ernst Haeckel [Biogenetic law]
4. was one of the rediscoverers of Mendel’s laws

154. Consider the given two statements:
I: Cleistogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
II: Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

155. What would happen to urine output if the renal tubules lost the ability to actively transport sodium?

1. Urine output would increase due to reduced water reabsorption.
2. Urine output would decrease as water follows passive sodium reabsorption
3. The osmolarity of urine would increase drastically.
4. Urine production would cease completely.

156. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

1. Apical meristem only
2. Palisade parenchyma
3. Both apical and axillary meristems
4. Epidermis only

157. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason (R): Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

158. The primary oocyte divides to produce:

1. A large diploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid first polar body
2. A large haploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid first polar body
3. A large diploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid second polar body
4. A large haploid secondary oocyte and a small haploid secondary polar body

159. Consider the following statements:
The combination contraceptive pills
A: Inhibit ovulation.
B: Inhibit implantation.

1. Only A is correct.
2. Only B is correct.
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.

160. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

161. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A):and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion A: An adapter molecule, that on one hand can read the genetic code and on the other hand can bind to specific amino acids, is required for the translation of proteins.
Reason (R): Amino acids have no structural specialties to read the code uniquely.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is True but (R) is False.

162. A pea plant shows the dominant phenotype. You conduct a single gene test cross to determine the genotype of this pea plant (T= tall, t =short). All progeny of the test cross show the dominant phenotype. The genotype of the plant in question is most likely:

1. TT.
2. TTtt.
3. Tt.
4. tt

163. Consider the two given statements:
Statement I: At the time of cytoplasmic division, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the two daughter cells.
StatementII: In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium (e.g., liquid endosperm in coconut).

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

164. In Rana tigrina:
Statement I: The colour of dorsal side of body is generally olive green with dark irregular spots.
Statement II: On the ventral side, the skin is uniformly pale yellow.

1. Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

165. Which of the following will not be true regarding the floral characters of members of Solanaceae?
 
1. Flowers are bisexual and zygomorphic.
2. Calyx has five sepals which are united, persistent with velvet pubescence.
3. Androecium has five stamens that are epipetalous.
4. Gynoecium has bicarpellary, obliquely-placed syncarpous superior ovary

166. Which of the following correctly differentiates Sertoli cells and Leydig cells in the male reproductive system?

1. Sertoli cells are present in the interstitial tissue and produce testosterone, while Leydig cells are found in seminiferous tubules and support spermatogenesis.
2. Sertoli cells provide nourishment and support to developing sperm cells within the seminiferous tubules, while Leydig cells, located in the interstitial spaces, secrete testosterone.
3. Sertoli cells produce testosterone under the influence of LH, whereas Leydig cells support the maturation of sperm under FSH stimulation.
4. Sertoli cells are stimulated by LH to regulate male secondary sexual characteristics, whereas Leydig cells are stimulated by FSH to aid spermatogenesis.

167. When compared to the vertebrates, invertebrates:

1. do not have any endocrine system.
2. possess very simple endocrine systems with few hormones.
3. possess very complex endocrine systems with a large number of hormones.
4. produce only steroidal hormones.

168. ATPase activity is found in:

1. Myosin head
2. Myosin tail
3. G-Actin
4. Troponin

169. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?

170. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: Each rib is a thin flat bone connected ventrally to the vertebral column and dorsally to the sternum.
Statement II: Each rib has two articulation surfaces on its ventral end and is hence called bicephalic.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

171. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): As long as the mother breastfeeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil upto six months following parturition.
Reason (R): Although ovulation occurs, the endometrium does not undergo any change during the period of intense lactation following parturition.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

172. What is correct for the hormone whose mechanism of action is shown in the given diagram?


1. This hormone will most likely be synthesized by the neural cells of the hypothalamus
2. This hormone cannot be thyroxin or triiodothyronine
3. This hormone can be a derivative of cholesterol
4. This hormone will have an almost instantaneous onset of action

173. Consider the given two statements:
I: Down syndrome or Down’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21.
II: The parents of the affected individual are usually genetically normal.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

174. Match the following diseases with their modes of transmission:


1. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
2. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
3. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
4. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

175. The given figure shows the ultrastructure of


1. Cilium
2. Centriole
3. Myosin
4. Actin

176. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Ligaments connect bones to bones and contain a high proportion of elastic fibres.
Statement II: Tendons connect muscles to bones and consist mainly of collagen fibers. providing great strength but limited elasticity.
 
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

177. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: Synapses are junctions between two neurons or a neuron and a muscle cell.
Statement II: Electrical synapses are more common in the human body than chemical synapses.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

178. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.
Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

179. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: The interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases and DNA replication takes place in the interphase.
Statement II: The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis and there is no replication of DNA during interkinesis.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

180. Karl Ernst von Baer’s study on embryology contradicted Ernst Haeckel’s idea by showing that:

1. Embryos do not pass through the adult stages of other animals.
2. The embryos of all vertebrates have gill slits that function in adulthood.
3. Fish gill slits are functional in all adult vertebrates.
4. Embryological development provides no support for evolution